Chapter 6 (Questions 2008-2009 Compiled)

General pathology 2008-2009Compiled by Bhupinder Bawa

Q1. The binding of bacterial lipopolysacchride to cell membrane require all of the following proteins except?

A. MD2B. CD14C. TLR4D. MyD88E. LPS binding protein

Q2. Which of the following can act as ligand for CD21? (Robbins pp 199, PBVD 200)

1. C3b2. C3d3. Epstein-Barr virus4. CD805. CD86

A. 1,2B. 4,5 C. 1,2,3D. 3,4,5 E. 1,3

Q3. Which of the following lymphocytes can directly recognize antigen?

1. αβ-TCR expressing T-lymphocyte2. -TCR expressing T-lymphocyte3. NK-T lymphocytes4. IgM expressing B-lymphocyte5. IgD expressing B-lymphocyte

A. 1,2B. 4,5C. 1,4,5D. 2,4,5E. 1,2,3,4,5

Q4. All the following contribute to innate immunity EXCEPT

A. Macrophages, neutrophilsB. Complement, NK cellsC. T-cells, B-cellsD. Mucous, salivaE. Skin


Q5. The CD factor that plays an important role in LPS binding to TLR4

A. CD14B. CD28C. CD40D. CD86E. All the above

Q6. An activated T-cell after exposure to an antigen by MHC II undergo proliferation under the influence of which cytokine

A. IL-2B. IL-6C. IL-1D. IFNE. TNF

Q7. Which of the following membrane bound immunoglobin molecules plays the role of B-cell receptor and helps mature B-cell

A. IgG, IgMB. IgE, IgMC. IgM, IgDD. IgA, IgE E. IgD, IgE

Q8. The co-stimulatory molecule on CD4 positive cell that is important in T-cell activation by AP (antigen presenting) cells

A. CD14B. CD18C. CD28D. CD86E. CD105

Q9. Which of the CD factor helps B-cell to differentiate into plasma cell?


Q10. Which of the following is/are part of the innate immune system?

1) Neutrophils


2) Macrophages 3) Natural killer cells4) Complement proteins5) Mucociliary apparatus

A. 1, 4, 5B. 1, 3, 4, 5C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5D. 2, 4, 5E. 5

Q11. Which of the following TLRs has double stranded RNA as a ligand?

A. TLR1B. TLR2C. TLR3D. TLR4E. TLR6

Q12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. CD3 is the T-cell receptor B. CD8+ cells recognize antigen in association with MHC IC. CD4+ cells recognize antigen in association with MHC IID. CD4 and CD8 molecules are required to initiate signals that activate T cellsE. γδ T cells recognize antigen without requirement for display by MHC

molecules

Q13. TH2 cells secrete which of the following cytokines?

1) Il-22) Il-43) Il-54) Il-135) IFN-γ

A. 1, 2, 3B. 1, 5C. 2, 3D. 2, 3, 4E. 3, 4, 5

Q14. Which TLR is responsible for binding LPS? A. TLR-2B. TLR-4C. TLR-6


D. TLR-7E. TLR-8

Q15. Where would you not normally expect to see a majority of T-lymphocytes?

A. Circulating in bloodB. Ileal Peyer’s patchesC. Paracortical areas of the lymph nodeD. Peri-arteriolar sheaths of the spleenE. All are correct

Q16. Which of the following is not a component of the T-cell receptor complex on the surface of a helper T-cell?

A. CD3B. CD4C. CD28D. CD80E. TCR-α

Q17. A failure of T-cells to express CD40 ligand (now called CD154) has been associated with which immunoglobulin syndrome? (Robbins p.199)

A. Hypo IgGB. Hypo IgAC. Hyper IgGD. Hyper IgME. Hyper IgE

Q18. Which following TLR is involved with viral detection

A. TLR 2B. TLR 3C. TLR 4D. TLR 5E. TLR 6

Q19. Which molecule is not involved in the activation of transcription with TLRs

A. TIRB. IRAKC. CD28D. NF-κВE. MyD88

Q20. TH2 lymphocytes do not produce


A. IL-2B. IL-3C. IL-4D. IL-5E. IL-13

Q21.Which is not part of Signal 1 of the T-cell receptor complex

A. CD4B. CD28C. ξ chainsD. CD3 complexE. αβ heterodimer

Q22.. All of the following dendritic cells function as antigen presenting cells except?

A. Langerhan’s cellsB. Follicular dendritic cellsC. Interstitial dendritic cellsD. Circulating dendritic cellsE. Interdigitating dendritic cells

Q23. All of the following are true for NK cells except?

A. They are not MHC restrictedB. They are bone marrow derivedC. CD16 and CD 56 are used to identify NK cellsD. Their cytoplasm contains perforin and granzymes E. They express both Fc receptor and antigen specific TCR

Q24. What is the sequence of events during antigen processing and presentation?

1. binding of peptides to newly synthesized MHC molecules2. transportation of MHC molecule to cell surface3. proteolysis of antigen into short peptides4. presentation of antigen to lymphocytes5. phagocytosis of foreign antigen

A. 1,2,3,4,5B. 3,4,5,2,1C. 5,3,2,1,4D. 5,3,1,2,4E. 3,5,4,2,1

Q25. The following are the professional antigen presenting cells (APC’s)


1. Dendritic cells2. Macrophages3. Neutrophils4. B-cells5. T-cells

A. 1 B. 1,4C. 1,2,3,4D. 1,2,4E. 1,2

Q26.The significance of CD16 on the NK cells

1. Identification marker2. IgG mediated cytotoxicity3. Identification of virus infected cells4. Inhibitory receptor to MHC I5. No significance

A. 1B. 1,2C. 1,2,3D. 4,5E. 5

Q27. Which of the following is not true regards MHC molecules

A. NK cells are not MHC restrictedB. NK cells recognize self by MHC IC. Endogenous antigens can express MHC ID. MHC I is expressed only by infected cellsE. Exogenous antigens are expressed on MHC II

Q28. Which of the following pairs (tissue: monocyte/macrophage cell type) is incorrect?

A. Liver: Kupfer cellsB. Bone: OsteoclastsC. Kidney: HistiocytesD. Brain: Microglial cellsE. Lung: Alveolar macrophages

Q29. In a virally infected cell, which change in cell surface molecule expression would result in NK cell-mediated lysis?


A. Increased MHC class I expressionB. Decreased MHC class I expressionC. Increased MCH class II expressionD. Decreased MHC class II expressionE. Both a and d are correct

Q30. Which CD molecule allows NK cells to function in antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?

A. CD16B. CD56C. CD94D. NKG2DE. MHC class I receptor

Q31. Which of the following steps is not involved with processing of intracellular antigens (Ag’s)?

A. Ag’s are degraded by the proteasome complexB. Ag’s are internalized within endosomes or lysosomesC. MHC class I/peptide complex is recognized by CD8+ T-lymphocytesD. MHC class I/peptide complex is transported to the plasma membraneE. Ag peptides are complexed with MHC class I in the endoplasmic reticulum

Q32.. Which cells express MHC class I molecules

1. B lymphocytes2. Dendritic cells3. Macrophages4. Kupffer cells5. Hepatocytes

A. 1B. 1,2C. 1,2,3D. 1,2,3,4E. 1,2,3,4,5

Q33. NK-cell mediated lysis requires

A. Decrease/loss of MHC class I moleculesB. Expression of antigen-specific moleculesC. Increase in ligands for activating receptorD. A & CE. All of the above


Q34. Which cytokine is not a part of innate immunity

A. IL-1B. IL-6C. TNF-αD. TGB-βE. Type 1 interferons

Q35. Peptide fragments of MHC class I molecules bind between

A. α1-α2B. α2-α3C. α1-β1D. α1-β2E. α1-α3

Q36. Which of the following statements about NK cells is incorrect?

A. Do not develop memory cellsB. They are bone marrow derivedC. Express CD3 but not CD4 or CD8D. Are also referred to as large granular lymphocytesE. Contain cytotoxic granules containing perforin and granzyme

Q37. Which of the following groups of chemokines are primarily produced by macrophages?

A. C-CB. C-C-CC. C-X-CD. X-C-XE. C-X-X-C

Q38. Which of the following statements about the MHC-II pathway is incorrect?

A. MHC-II molecules have an α and β chainB. MHC-II presents antigen to CD4+ T-cells C. MHC-II molecules are associated with an invariant chain in the ERD. Binding of MHC-II and antigen peptide occurs in an endocytic vesicleE. Peptides that bind to MHC-II are usually derived from an endogenous source

Q39. Atopic individuals are characterized by?

A. Genetic predisposition to develop immediate hypersensitivity reactionsB. More IL-4 producing Th2 cells


C. Higher serum IgE levelsD. A and C onlyE. All of the above

Q40. All of the following are required for direct activation and survival of eosinophils except?

A. IL-3B. IL-5C. IL-13D. Eotaxin E. GM-CSF

Q41. Which of the following can lead to vascular permeability, smooth muscle spasm and chemotaxis?

A. PAFB. HistamineC. Leukotriene B4D. Prostaglandin D2E. Leukotrienes C4, D4

Q42 .Mice deficient of TH2 cell differentiation compromises to mount which type of hypersensitivity reaction

A. Type 1B. Type IIC. Type IIID. Type IVE. All

Q43. The primary vascular changes in Type I hypersensitivity following mast cell degranulation

A. EdemaB. Vascular dilationC. Vascular leakageD. Vascular constriction E. None of the above

Q44. The antibody that mediates most of the Type I hypersensitivity reactions

A. IgAB. IgDC. IgMD. IgE


E. All

Q45. Mast cell degranulation occurs by

A. Cross linking of soluble IgE antibodies in the vicinity of Mast cellsB. Binding of Allergin to IgE bound to Fc receptor of mast cellC. Cross linking of IgE bound to Fc receptor on mast cellsD. Binding of IgE to Fc receptor on mast cellE. All the above

Q46. Which of the following is a ligand for NK cell inhibitory receptor?

A. CD 94B. MHC IC. Self proteinsD. Viral proteinsE. None of the above

Q47. Which of the following are markers for NK cells?

A. CD 3B. CD 4C. CD 16D. CD 56E. C and D

Q48. Which of the following is not expected in the acute phase of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Cell lysisB. VasodilationC. Mucus productionD. Smooth muscle contractionE. Increased vascular permeability

Q49. Which of the following are examples of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

1) Anaphylaxis2) Contact dermatitis3) Pemphigus foliaceous4) Neonatal isoerythrolysis5) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A. 1, 2, 3B. 2, 3, 4, 5


C. 3, 4, 5D. 4, 5E. 5

Q50. Which of the following is not a metachromatic dye?

A. GiemsaB. ThionineC. Toluidine blueD. Methylene blueE. a and d

Q51. Which cell is not necessary in the development of Type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A. Mast cellsB. EosinophilsC. Dendritic cellsD. Th2 CD4+ T-cellsE. IgM producing B-cells

Q52. Which is not a primary mediator contained in mast cell granules?

A. HeparinB. ChymaseC. HistamineD. Prostaglandin D2E. Both b and d

Q53. Which cell type is particularly important in sustaining Type I (late-phase) responses?

A. BasophilsB. Mast cellsC. EosinophilsD. MacrophagesE. Th2 CD4+ T-cells

Q54. Which species is most sensitive to developing anaphylaxis?

A. RatB. MouseC. HamsterD. ChinchillaE. Guinea pig


Q55. Which of the following is not a major product of arachadonic acid metabolism in Type I hypersensitivity

A. Leukotriene B4B. Leukotriene C4C. Leukotriene D4D. Prostaglandin D2E. Prostaglandin D4

Q56. Which cytokine is not released from mast cells during Type I hypersensitivity

A. IL-2B. IL-4C. IL-5D. IL-6E. TNF-α

Q57. Necrotizing vasculitis is a lesion of which type of hypersensitivity reaction

A. Type IB. Type IIC. Type IIID. Type IVE. None of the above

Q58. The following are diseases associated with Immune Complex mediated (Type III) hypersensitivity:

1) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia2) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus3) Polayarteritis Nodosa4) Pemphigus vulgaris5) Arthus reaction

A. 1,2,3B. 1,3,5C. 2,3,4D. 2,3,5E. 3,4,5

Q59. All of the following can be seen histologically in skin lesions due to SLE except:

A. vasculitis B. dermal edemaC. interface dermatitis


D. subcorneal pustulesE. basal cell vacuolation

Q60. Which of the following situations will most likely result in a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Antibody is in great excess to the quantity of antigenB. Antigen is in great excess of the quantity of antibodyC. Antigen is in slight excess of the quantity of antibodyD. There is an excessive amount of complement proteins in the circulationE. There is an exaggerated monocyte-macrophage phagocytic system response

Q61. Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in a type III hypersensitivity reaction induce the following local events?.

A. All the belowB. Platelet aggregationC. Activation of Hageman factor D. Activation of complement cascadeE. Activation of neutrophils and macrophages via Fc receptors engagement

Q62. Which of the following is not an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Myasthenia gravisB. Pemphigus vulgarisC. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Transfusion reactionE. Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

Q63. Antigen-antibody complexes lead to tissue injury by which of the following mechanisms?

A. Complement activationB. Fc receptor engagementC. Microthrombi formation following platelet aggregationD. a & bE. a, b, & c

Q64. Which of the following does not participate in ADCC during type II hypersensitivity reactions?

A. EosinophilsB. NeutrophilsC. MacrophagesD. Natural killer cellsE. CD8+ T-lymphocytes


Q65. Which immunoglobulins are most commonly implicated in type II and III hypersensitivities?

A. IgA, IgEB. IgG, IgAC. IgM, IgAD. IgM, IgGE. IgE, IgM

Q66. Which of the following is not a Type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Equine infectious anemiaB. Neonatal isoerytholysisC. Pemphigus foliaceousD. Myasthenia gravisE. Pernicious anemia

Q67. Which of the following is not a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Arthus reactionB. Serum sicknessC. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Systemic lupus erythematosusE. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Q68. What is the order of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction

1. Introduction of antigen2. Formation of antibodies3. Activation of complement4. Binding of antibodies to antigen5. Deposition of antigen-antibody complex in tissues

A. 1,2,3,4,5B. 1,2,3,5,4C. 1,2,4,3,5D. 1,2,4,5,3E. 2,4,5,3,1

Q69. All of the following cytokines are involved in delayed hypersensitivity reaction except? :

A. IL-2B. IL-4C. IL-12


D. IFN-γE. TNF

Q70. Which of the following is unlikely to occur in transplant rejection??

A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction activated by indirect pathwayB. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction activated by direct pathwayC. Cell mediated cytotoxicity activated by indirect pathwayD. Cell mediated cytotoxicity activated by direct pathwayE. Antibody mediated humoral rejection

Q71. Which of the following cell:cytokine pairs does not participate in Type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

A. CD4+ Th1 lymphocyte: IL-2B. Antigen presenting cell: IL-1C. Activated macrophages: TNFD. Antigen presenting cell: IL-12E. CD4+ Th1 lymphocytes: IFN-γ

Q72.DTH mediated by cytotoxic CD8+ T-lymphocytes most commonly occurs in response to which type of disease?

A. NeoplasiaB. Viral infectionsC. Fungal infectionsD. Intracellular bacterial infectionsE. Contact antigen hypersensitivity reactions

Q73. Which cell or antigen is considered the most important immunogen in the direct pathway of T-cell mediated graft rejections?

A. Donor lymphocytesB. Donor graft antigensC. Donor dendritic cellsD. Recipient lymphocytesE. Recipient MHC-I molecules

Q74. Which cell or antigen is considered the most important immunogen in the indirect pathway of T-cell mediated graft rejections?

A. Donor lymphocytesB. Donor graft antigensC. Donor dendritic cells


D. Recipient lymphocytesE. Recipient MHC-I molecules

Q75. Th2 lymphocyte responses are involved in which of the following hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Type IB. Type IIC. Type IIID. Type IVE. None of the above

Q76. Which of the following cytokines is essential for sustaining Th2 cells and turning on IgE secretion in B cells?


Q77. Which of the following is not the result of a primary mediator released from mast cell degranulation?

A. Secretion by nasal, bronchial, and gastric glandsB. Smooth muscle contractionC. Activate complementD. Generation of kininsE. Mast cell activation

Q78. Epithelial cells may produce all of the following except?

A. IL-6B. IL-8C. TNFD. EotaxinE. GM-CSF

Q79. Which of the following is not a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Arthus reactionB. Serum sicknessC. Rheumatoid arthritisD. Systemic lupus erythematosusE. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia


Q80. What is the order of a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

1. Introduction of antigen2. Formation of antibodies3. Activation of complement4. Binding of antibodies to antigen5. Deposition of antigen-antibody complex in tissues

A. 1,2,3,4,5B. 1,2,3,5,4C. 1,2,4,3,5D. 1,2,4,5,3

Q81. Which of the following is not a function of IFN-γ?

A. Augments the TH1 responseB. Promotes secretion of Il-12 by macrophagesC. Increased phagocytic capability of macrophagesD. Increased expression of MHCII by macrophagesE. Promotes secretion of TGF-β from macrophages

Q82. Which of the following is not typically associated with a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A. PollensB. Toxoplasma gondiiC. Mycobacterium bovisD. Blastomyces dermatitidisE. Mycoplasma haemofelis

Q83. Which of the following is not a mechanism of peripheral tolerance?

A. Suppression by regulatory T-cellsB. Sequestration of antigen in immune-privileged sitesC. Induction of anergy by lack of co-stimulation by an APCD. Fas-Fas ligand signaling following persistent stimulation by APCsE. Deletion of cells expressing high-affinity TCR binding to self-antigens with

MHC

Q84. Which of the following is responsible for thymic expression of self-antigens?

A. CTLA-4B. AIREC. CD18D. B7-1


E. Fas

Q85. Which of the following is diagnostic for SLE in people and dogs?

A. Positive ANAB. Presence of antierythrocytic antibodiesC. High CD4+:CD8+ ratio in the peripheral bloodD. Presence of anti-IgG antibody (rheumatoid factor)E. None of the above

Q86. Antibodies capable of activating complement include?

a. IgGb. IgAc. IgEd. IgMe A, B & D

Q87. Complement participates in which of the following?

1. Opsonization2. Phagocytosis3. Cytotoxicity4. Inflammation5. Leukocyte recruitment

A. 1,2,3,4,5B. 1,2,5C. 1,4,5D. 2,3,4,5E. 2,4,5

Q88. Which of the following cells facilitate ADCC?

A. MacrophagesB. NeutrophilsC. EosinophilsD. NK cellsE. All of the above

Q89. Which of the following is not true of Type II hypersensitivity?

A. Directed against intrinsic or exogenous cell bound antigensB. Mediated by antibodies IgG, and IgMC. Does not affect acellular antigensD. results in individual cell lysis


E. Can cause myasthenia gravis

Q90. Which of the following cells drives Delayed type hypersensitivity ?A. CD4+ Th1B. cd8+ CTLC. cd4+ Th2D. MacrophagesE. none of the above

Q91. Which of the following are products of activated macrophages?

A. PDGFB. IL-12C. TNFD. IL-1E. All of the above

Q92. CD8+ TCR binds to which of the following during T-cell mediated cytotoxicity?

A. MHC-1B. MHC-IIC. TLR-4D. Fc receptorE. a and D

Q93. Immune tolerance to self antigens is achieved all the following mechanism include EXCEPT

A. Phagocytosis of reactive T-lymphocytesB. Supression by regulatory T cellsC. Antigen sequestrationD. ApoptosisE. Anergy

Q94. Glomerulonephritis in SLE is a

A. Type I HypersensitivityB. Type II HypersensitivityC. Type III HypersensitivityD. Type IV HypersensitivityE. All the above

Q95. The microscopic findings in canine SLE in the skin include all EXCEPT

A. Panniculitis


B. Interface dermatitis C. Full thickness epidermal necrosis D. Vasculitis with fibrinoid necrosisE. Basal cell vacuolation and necrosis

Q96. Which of the following is not part of central tolerance?

A. AIREB. CTLAC. Self-reactive TCRD. Thymic epitheliumE. Membrane bound self antigen in the bone marrow

Q97. Which of the following do not participate in T cell anergy?

A. B7B. CD28C. CTLAD. MHC IE. Self antigens

Q98. Activation induced cell death can involve all of the following except?

A. Activated T lymphocytesB. B cell CD 95C. T cell Fas LD. B cell FasLE. BIM

Q99. Infections may contribute to autoimmune disease by which of the following ways?

A. Upregulating the expression of co-stimulators on APC’sB. Microbes expressing antigens similar to self antigens.C. Tissue injury may expose cryptic self antigensD. Tissue injury may alter self antigens.E. all of the above

Q100. Which of the following statements about SCID in horses is incorrect?

A. Severe lymphopenia is seenB. It is an autosomal recessive disorderC. The thymus is small or undetectableD. The CD4+:CD8+ ratio is about 15:1


E. The mutation is a spontaneous mutation in the DNA-dependent protein kinase gene

Q101. .Which of the following is correct regarding immunologic tolerance?

A. Both central and peripheral tolerance occur in the thymusB. Immunologic tolerance is due to a lack of an immune responseC. All self reactive B and T lymphocytes are deleted during developmentD. Peripheral tolerance has a greater influence than central tolerance in the

development of autoimmunityE. All are incorrect

Q102. Which is not a mechanism for peripheral tolerance?

A. AnergyB. Antigen sequestrationC. Suppression by regulatory T-cellsD. Fas-ligand activation-induced cell deathE. Production of autoimmune regulatory protein (AIRE)

Q103. Which is not a potential mechanism by which microbes trigger autoimmunity?

A. Molecular mimicryB. Epitope spreadingC. Increased expression of cryptic epitopesD. Decreased expression of MHC moleculesE. Up-regulation of co-stimulatory molecules on APC’s

Q104. Dysregulation of which cell causes loss of immunologic tolerance in SLE?

A. B-lymphocytesB. CD4 T-lymphocytesC. CD8 T-lymphocytesD. Antigen presenting cellsE. Suppressor T-lymphocytes

Q105. Which of the following is false regarding amyloid?

A. All amyloid proteins form β-pleated sheetsB. All amyloid stains orange to red with Congo red stainC. Only primary amyloidosis (AL type) bifringes green when polarizedD. Primary amyloidosis is the most common systemic form and is of the AL typeE. Both c and d

Q106. Which of the following pairs (disease : amyloid form) is incorrect?


A. Amyloid of aging : AAB. Immune dyscrasias : ALC. Familial amyloidosis : AAD. Islet cell amyloidosis in cats : IAPPE. Chronic inflammatory conditions : AA

Q107. The following is NOT true regarding amyloid

A. Aβ is derived from amyloid precursor proteinB. AA amyloid is derived from serum amyloid AC. Aβ is associated with neurodegeneration in caninesD. B-cells and plasma cells are associated with AL amyloid E. Serum amyloid P protein increases the susceptibility of amyloid fibrils to

proteolysis

Q108. AL amyloid is formed from:

A. Complement proteinsB. Immunoglobulin Fc portionsC. Immunoglobulin light chainsD. Immunoglobulin heavy chainsE. Entire immunoglobulin molecules

Q109. Congo red can be used to identify:

A. Serum amyloid AB. Specifically AL amyloidC. Specifically AA amyloid D. Immunoglobulin moleculesE. Any cross-β-pleated configuration of amyloid

Q110. Familial amyloidosis in the dog and cat is due to deposition of:

A. Aβ amyloid fibril proteinB. AL amyloid fibril proteinC. AA amyloid fibril proteinD. Misfolded prion protein PrPSCE. Both B and C

Q111. Peripherial tolerance does not include

A. AnergyB. Antigen sequestrationC. Suppression by regulatory T cellsD. Negative selection of developing lymphocytesE. Clonal deletion by activation-induced cell death


Q112. Type III hypersensitivity reactions in SLE affect

A. SkinB. JointsC. KidneysD. VesselsE. All of the above

Q113. Common clinical signs of SLE include all of the following except

A. FeverB. AnemiaC. GlomerulonephritisD. Erosive polyarthritisE. Exfoliative or ulcerative dermatitis

Q114. Beagle pain syndrome is a

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactionB. Type II hypersensitivity reactionC. Type III hypersensitivity reactionD. Type IV hypersensitivity reactionE. None of the above

Q115. Chronic recurrent gastrointestinal infections are likely caused by which defect

A. GranulocyteB. ComplementC. T-LymphocyteD. B-LymphocyteE. None of the above

Q116. A defect on CD40L would cause 1. Increased IgE2. Increased IgM3. Decreased IgA4. Decreased IgG5. Decreased IgM

A. 1,3,4B. 1,2,3,4C. 1,3,4,5D. 2,3,4E. 2,3,4,5


Q117. Canine XSCID T-lymphocytes are nonfunctional due to a defect of


Q118. Which of the following are amyloid fibrillar proteins

1. AL2. AA3. Aβ4. SAA5. APP

A. 1,2B. 1,2,3C. 1,2,3,5D. 1,2,4,5E. 1,2,3,4,5

Q119. The most often idenitifed light chain in AL amyloidosis is

A. αB. βC. γD. λE. κ

Q110. Which of the following does not normally have AA fibrillar amyloid proteins

A. Reactive systemic amyloidosisB. Familial systemic amyloidosisC. Familial localized amyloidosisD. Primary amyloidosisE. None of the above

1) D; (PBVD pp 195) MyD88 is required for signaling and not binding of LPS to TLR

2) C. CD21 is complement receptor 2 required for B cell activation by complement C3b and C3d. However, it also acts as receptor for Epstein-Barr virus.


3) D. B-lymphocytes and -TCR lymphocyte don’t require MHC complex and can directly recognize antigen.

4) C (Robbins p. 194)5) A (Robbins p. 195)6) A (Robbins p. 198)7) C (Robbins p. 198)8) C (Robbins p. 198)9) C (Robbins p. 199)10) C (Robbins p. 194)11) C (Robbins p. 195)12) A (Robbins p. 198) – CD3 are molecules associated with signal transduction that

are attached to the TCR13) D (Robbins p. 198)14) B (Robbins p. 195)15) B (PBVD 199) Site of B-cell development in some species (ruminants, pigs, dogs,

and humans)16) D (PBVD 198) Found on AP cells, binds CD28, and is part of the costimulatory

pathway ceded for T-cell activation17) D (Robbins p. 199)- CD40 receptor on B-cells interacts with CD40 ligand from

helper T-cells and functions to allow B-cell development into antibody secreting plasma cells. Failure to express CD40 ligand has been associated with an inability to isotype switch, resulting in hyper IgM sybdrome.

18) B (Robbins/PBVD 195)19) C (Robbins/PBVD 195) (The ligand binds to the TLR, activating TIR, which

recruits MyD88, followed by IRAK. The following cascade activates NF-κВ.) 20) A (/PBVD 199)21) B (Robbins 197) (CD28 binds with CD80 or CD86 on the antigen presenting cell

to produce Signal 2)22)B; (PBVD 201-202), Follicular dendritic cells are located in lymphoid follicles;

are not bone marrow derived, do not express MHC II molecules, and do not function as antigen presenting cells. They have Fc receptors and C3b receptors and thought to involve in development and maintenance of B lymphocytes.

23)E; (PBVD pp 202) NK cells do not express antigen specific TCR or CD3 molecules

24)D. 25) D (Robbins p. 199) (Any cell is capable of presenting antigen to T cells which are

called non-professional APC’s)26) B (Robbins p. 201)27) D (PBVD p. 206) (Every cell expresses MHC I to prevent CD8 T cell mediated

cytotoxicity)28) C (PBVD p. 201)- Kidney macrophages are called masangial cells29) B (PBVD p. 203)30) A (Robbins p. 201)CD16 is the Fc receptor for IgG31) B (Robbins p. 204)Exogenous Ag’s are internalized and processed in endosomes

or lysosomes32) E (PBVD 201)


33) D (PBVD 202/203)34) D (Robbins p. 202)35) A (PBVD 206)36) C (PBVD pp. 201-202) – NK cells do not express CD337) C (PBVD pp. 204)38) E (PBVD pp. 207)– MHCII molecules process antigens from an exogenous

source39) E; (Robbins pp 209)40) C; (Robbins pp 207-208, PBVD 214) IL-13 promotes IgE production and acts on

epithelial cells to stimulate mucus secretion.41) A; Leukotrience C4, D4 and Prostaglandins D2 (vascular permeability and

smooth muscle spasm), Histamine (vascular permeability), Leukotriene B4 (chemotaxis)

42) A (Robbins. P 207)43) B (Robbins. P 206)44) D (Robbins. P 209)45) B (Robbins. P 207)46) B p201 Robbins. 47) E p 201 Robbins48) A (PBVD p. 210)49) C; (PBVD p. 210) anaphylaxis =type I, Contact dermatitis = Type IV50) A (PBVD p. 213); metachromatic dyes are dyes that can stain components a

different colour to the dye. Giemsa is a mix of eosin and methylene blue, and therefore not a metachromatic dye.

51) E (Robbins. P 207)52) D (Robbins. P 208)53) C-(PBVD p. 214) Eosinophils recruited during the early response play an active

role in the late-phase response by releasing components of their granules, synthesizing lipid mediators, and producing cytokines

54) E (PBVD p. 215)55) D (PBVD 214/Robbins 208)56) A (PBVD 214/Robbins 209)57) C (PBVD 210/Robbins 206)58) D; PBVD 22059) D60) C; PBVD p. 21861) A; (Robbins Fig 6-16)62) D; Robbins p. 21063) E (Robbins p. 214)64) E (PBVD p.216) All the others have Fc receptors65) D (PBVD p.218)66) A (PBVD 218)67) E (PBVD 220)68) D (Robbins 213)69) D; (Robbins pp 217)


70) C: (Robbins pp 219) cytotoxic lymphocytes may be generated by indirect pathway but cannot kill graft cells as they recognize graft antigens presented by hosts APC.

71) B (Robbins p. 217) IL-1 secreted from APC’s to naïve CD4+ T-lymphocytes will drive a Th2 response

72) B (PBVD p. 226)73) C (Robbins p. 219)74) B (Robbins p. 219)75) A (p 208 Robbins). TH2 responses are required to create IgE antibodies which

are then attached to Mast cells via Fc receptors and activate mast cell degranulation by cross linking when an antigen binds to them.

76) B (pp 208 Robbins). IL-5 activates eosinophils, IL-13 promotes IgE production and acts on epithelial cells to secrete mucus.

77) E (p209 Robbins). PAF directly activates mast cells at high concentrations, and attracts eosinophils which directly activate mast cells. Histamine and PGD2 both cause bronchospasm and mucus secretion. Neutral proteases and acid hydrolases generate kinins and activate complement, which attracts neutrophils. PAF, and LTB4 attract neutrophils and eosinophils. Primary mediators also include ECF and NCF.

78) C (p209 Robbins). TNF causes epithelial cells to produce eotaxin.79) E (PBVD 220)80) D (Robbins 213)81) E (Robbins p. 217) IFN-γ promotes secretion of PDGF which stimulates

fibroblast proliferation82) E (PBVD p. 225)83) E (PBVD p. 229) – this is central tolerance84) B (PBVD p. 231) (autoimmune regulator)85) E (PBVD p. 235) diagnosis of SLE requires demonstration of at least 4 out of 11

criteria (Robbins table 6-8, p. 228) of which a-d are some of the individual criteria86) E. (p210, 214 Robbins) Classical pathway- IgG, IgM, alternate pathway IgA.87) A (p210 Robbins) C3b and C4b opsonize cells, and macrophages bind via

complement receptor and phagocytose them. Complement forms MAC for cell lysis, and C3a, C5a recruit leukocytes. C3a activates mast cells, and C5a activates endothelial cells

88) E. (p210 Robbins) Cells bind to Fc region of IgG or IgE (eos) and lysis occurs without phagocytosis

89) C ( p210 Robbins) Type II reactions can be directed against basement membrane or extracellular matrix components resulting in inflammation and tissue dysfunction. It also may be directed against drug metabolites incorporated into cell membranes

90) A (p 216 Robbins) Th1 cells produce IL-2, IFN-γ, and TNF91) E (p 217 Robbins)92) A (p218 Robbins)93) A (Robbins p. 224 figure 6-27)94) C (Robbins p. 230)95) C (PBVD p0236)


96) B (p224 Robbins). CTLA is involved in peripheral tolerance by binding to B7 on APC’s and initiating an inhibitory signal to T cells. AIRE is thought to stimulate expression of peripheral self-antigens in the thymus. Thymic epithelium and bone marrow cells are involved in antigen presentation to T cells.

97) B (p224 Robbins). Anergy results from lack of costimulation (CD28-B7), B7 can bind to CTLA an dproduce an inhibitory signal anergy. CD28 is not involved.

98) D (p225 Robbins). CD95 = Fas, which can be present on B or T cells. As far as I know B cells do not normally express FasL. Acitvation induced cell death requires activated T cells which then express FasL.

99) E (p226-227). 100)D (PBVD p. 240) There is deficiency of all T and B-lymphocytes101) D (PBVD p. 228)102) E- (Robbins p.224) This protein is thought to stimulate expression of many

peripheral Ag’s in the thymus (central tolerance) and is critical for deletion if immature self-reactive T-cells

103) D (PBVD p. 234) MHC expression is induced by cytokines104) B (PBVD p.237)105) C (PBVD p. 247)106) A (PBVD p.248) Amyloid of aging is the Aβ form107) E: (PBVD pp 247) 108) C (Robbins pp 259)109) E (Robbins pp 259)110) C (PBVD pp 248)111) D (Negative selection of developing lymphocytes is central tolerance)112) E (PBVD 235)113) D (PBVD 235) (SLE is causes nonerosive polyarthritis; rheumatoid arthritis is

erosive)114) C (PBVD pp 239)(Beagle pain syndrome is a polyarteritis)115) D (PBVD pp 241) (IgA production in mucosal immunity is decreased)116) D (PBVD pp 241) (CD40L is expressed on T-helper cells, allowing immature

B-lymphocytes to activate)117) B (PBVD pp 242) (canine XSCID affects the gamma chain of IL-2,4,7,9,15)118) B (PBVD pp 247) (SAA and APP are precursors)119) D (PBVD pp 247)120) D (PBVD pp 248) (Primary amyloidosis is AL)

Which of the following is the major component of innate immunity?

a. Epithelial barriersb. Complementsc. Phagocytesd. NK cellse. All of the above

Answer e ref. page197


Which of the following is correct?

1) Complement system is activated by binding to microbial component using the alternative pathway in innate immunity2) Complement system is activated by binding to microbial composnent using the classical pathway in innate immunity3) Complement system is activated by binding to antibodies using the alternative pathway in adaptive immunity4) Complement system is activated by binding to antibodies using the classical pathway in adaptive immunity

a. 1,2b. 1,3c. 1,4d. 2,3e. 3,4

Answer c ref. page194

All of the followings are expressed by T cell, except:

a. CD3b. ζ proteinc. CD 4d. CD 21e. CD 28

Answer d ref. page 198,199

Which of the following is correct?

a. NK cells rearrange T-cell receptor genesb. NK cells are CD3 positivec. Killer inhibitory receptors bind to class II MHC molecules d. NKG2D is a killer inhibitory receptors e. None of the above

Answer e ref. page 201


All of the following is a cytokine that mediate innate immunity, except”

a. IL-1b. IL-2c. IL-12d. IFN-γe. TNF-α

Answer b ref. page 202

All of the following is correct regarding type I hypersensitivity, except:

a. Mast cells are central to the development of initial reaction b. Most immediate hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by IgE antibodiesc. IgE is synthesized by TH2 (T-helper type 2 CD4) cellsd. Host susceptibility could be genetically determinede. IgE antibody-IgE Fc receptor binding activates signal transduction for degranulation of mast cell granules

Answer c ref. page 206,207

All of the following is type II hypersensitivity, except:

a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemiab. Purpura hemorrhagica c. Transfusion reactionsd. Pemphigus vulgarise. Myasthenia gravis

Answer b ref. page 210

Which of the following is the direct effect of antigen-antibody complexes?

1. Platelet aggregation2. Complement activation3. Fc receptor engagement 4. C3b receptor engagement 5. Activation of Hageman factor

a. 1


b. 1,2c. 1,2,3,d. 1,2,3,4e. 1,2,3,4,5

Answer e ref. page 213, 214 (fig 6-16)

All of the following conditions are mediated predominantly by Type IV hypersensitivity, EXCEPT:

a. Multiple sclerosisb. Contact dermatitisc. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Autoimmune dermatitis e. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

Answer d ref. page 215, Table 6-6

Which of the following is correct regarding type IV hypersensitivity?

a. IL-12 proliferate T cells in autocrine and paracrine fashion b. CD4+ T cells interact with antigen in association with class I MHC moleculesc. CD8+ T cells interact with antigen in association with class II MHC moleculesd. IL-2 produced by antigen presenting cells is critical for the differentiation of naïve CD4+ T cells to Th1 cellse. Mechanisms by which cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill their targets include perforin-granzymes pathway and Fas-Fas ligand pathway

Answer e ref. page 215,216

Which of the following are CORRECT? (197-198)

1) CD4 molecules bind to antigens presented by MHC class II molecules.2) CD8 molecules bind to antigens presented by MHC class I molecules.3) TH1 cells are involved in elimination of intracellular organisms.4) TH2 cells are involved in elimination of extracellular organisms.5) NK-1 T cells recognize glycolipids displayed by MHC molecules.


A) 1,2,3,4B) 1,3,4,5C) 2,3,4,5D) 3,4,5E) 4,5

Answer: A

Which of the following is INCORRECT? (Page 198-199)

1) IgM is presented on the surface of naïve B-cells.2) Igα and Igβ bind antigens directly and are essential for signal transduction through the antigen receptor.3) T helper cells are needed in order for B cells to express other classes of immunoglobulins.4) B cells can present antigens to T cells.5) Mature B cells constitute 60% of the circulating peripheral lymphocyte population.

A) 1,3,5B) 2,3,5C) 2,5D) 3,5E) 4,5

Answer: C

Histamine causes the following EXCEPT? (Page 208)

A) Smooth muscle contractionsB) Increased vascular permeabilityC) Increased mucous secretionD) VasodilationE) Chemotactic for neutrophils

Answer: E

Which of the following does not influence wether the immune complex formation will lead to tissue deposition and dz: (Page 213)

A) Valency of the antigenB) Three dimensional structure of the complexesC) Charge of the immune complexesD) Avidity of the antibody


E) Class of immunoglobulins

Answer: E

Pathogenesis of immune complex mediated tissue injury is not mediated via: (page 214)

A) Platelet aggregationB) Complement activationC) Activation of NK cellsD) Activation of Hagemen factorE) Fc receptor engagement

Answer: C

Which of the following are incorrect concerning PAF? (P208-209)

1) Causes platelet aggregation2) Releases histamine3) Bronchospams4) Decreased vascular permeability5) Vasodilation6) Product of arachidonic acid metabolism.

A) 1,4,6B) 2,3,6C) 4,5,6D) 4,5E) 4,6

Answer: E

All of the following are true concerning graft rejections EXCEPT: (Page 220)

A) Chronic rejection is dominated by vascular changes, interstitial fibrosis and tubular atrophy with loss of renal parenchyma.B) Acute rejections may occur months or years later.C) Hyperacute rejections point to an antigen-antibody reaction at the level of vascular endothelium.


D) In acute humoral rejections, CD8+ cells injure the vascular endothelium causing endothelitis.

Answer: D

Which of the following is an effector cell for type IV hypersensitivity reactions?

A) EosinophilsB) NeutrophilsC) CD8+ T cellsD) CD4+ T cellsE) Plasma cells

ANSWER: C Page #’s: 215-219, Fig. 6-23 page 219

All of the following are the mechanisms of the peripheral tolerance of self-reactive T-cells, except:

a. Anergyb. Deletion of intrathymic T cellsc. Suppression by regulatory T cellsd. Clonal deletion by activation-induced cell deathe. Antigen sequestration in immune-privileged sites

Answer b ß central tolerance ref. page255

Most of the visceral lesions in systemic lupus erythematosus are mediated by:

a. Type I hypersensitivityb. Type II hypersensitivity c. Type III hypersensitivityd. Type IV hypersensitivitye. None of the above

Answer c ref. page230

Glomerulonephritis associated with systemic lupus erythematosus is due to which of the following?

A) Antibodies directed against glomerular capillary membranes B) Antigen-antibody complex deposition in glomeruliC) Amyloid deposition in glomerular capillariesD) Fibrin thrombi in glomerular capillaries


E) Glomerular necrosis

ANSWER: B Page #: 231

Microscopic skin lesions of canine systemic lupus erythematosus include which of the following?

A) Full thickness epidermal necrosisB) Suprabasal vesicles that contain acanthocytesC) Subcorneal and intragranular pustules with acanthocytesD) Interface dermatitis with apoptotic basal keratinocytes and vesicle formationE) Interface dermatitis with apoptotic keratinocytes in all layers of the epidermis

ANSWER: D Page #: 233, Small Animal Dermatology 6th edition Page #707

The pathogenic mechanism of hyper-IgM syndrome is which of the following?

A) Lymphoproliferative disorder of IgM producing B cellsB) Abundance of B cells that produce IgA, IgE, and IgGC) A defect in the CD40L expressed in T cellsD) A deficiency of antigen presenting cellsE) Absence of neutrophil myeloperoxidase

ANSWER: C Page: 241 Fig. 6-42 and 243

Which of the following cells are targets of HIV infection?

1. Plasma cell2. CD4+ T cell3. CD8+ T cell4. Macrophage5. Dendritic cell

a. 1,2,3b. 1,3,4c. 1,4,5d. 2,3,4e. 2,4,5

Answer e ref. 248

Which of the following is true regarding AA (amyloid-associated) amyloidosis?


1. AA has structural homology to immunoglobulin2. AA is derived from SAA synthesized in the liver3. AA does not have structural homology to immunoglobulin4. AA is derived from a mutant form of transthyretin (TTR)5. Bence Jones protein is frequently excreted in the urine

a. 1,2b. 1,5c. 2,3d. 3,4e. 4,5

Answer c ref. page259-260

Which of the following is AA amyloidosis?

1. Familial amyloidosis of Shar-Pei dogs2. Familial amyloidosis of Abyssinian cats3. Cutaneous amyloidosis of horses

a. 1b. 1,2c. 1,2,3d. 2e. 3

Answer b ref. Tizard p46-47 +αThe following are true regarding T-cell activation except:A) IL-2 is needed for T-cell activationB) Cytokines are secreted after activationC) The TCR needs to engaged by MHC bound antigenD) Coreceptors CD4 or CD8 need to bind to MHC moleculeE) The CD28 molecule needs to interact with B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) on the antigen presenting cell

Answer: A page 198 IL_2 for proliferation and secretes is

The following components participate in B-cell activation except:A) Extracellular antigens B) IgM and IgD on B-cell surfaceC) Transmembrane proteins Igα and Igβ D) Complement receptor 2 (CD21)


E) CD3 proteins

Answer: E page 198-199

The following are true regarding NK cells except:1) They are CD 3, CD16 and CD56 positive 2) NK cells secrete IFN-γ, TNF and GM-CSF3) Inhibitory receptors recognize class I MHC receptors4) Inhibitory receptors recognize class II MHC receptors5) Activating receptors recognize stress-induced proteins

A) 1,2B) 1,4C) 2,3D) 2,4E) 4,5

Answer: B Pages 201-202

The following are true regarding the role of TH2 cells in Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions except:A) Secrete IL-2 for T cell proliferation TH1 does thisB) Secrete IL-5 which activates EosinophilsC) Secrete IL-13 to promote IgE productionD) Secrete IL-4 to turn on IgE producing B cellsE) Secrete IL-13 to stimulate mucus secretion by epithelial cells

Answer: A pages: 208,198

The following are true regarding Type II hypersensitivity except:A) Host cells opsonized by IgE stimulate Mast cellsB) Host cells opsonized by IgG antibodies are phagocytizedC) Host cells destroyed by antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC)D) Host cells opsonized by byproducts of complement activation are phagocytizedE) Antibodies deposited in extracellular tissues cause damage by release of injurious substances from leukocytes

Answer: A pages: 210-211

The following are diseases associated with Immune Complex mediated (Type III) hypersensitivity:1) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia2) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus


3) Polayarteritis Nodosa4) Pemphigus vulgaris5) Arthus reaction

A) 1,2,3B) 1,3,5C) 2,3,4D) 2,3,5E) 3,4,5

Answer: D pages 212, 214

The following steps occur during type III hypersensitivity reactions except:A) Activation of neutrophils and macrophages through the Fc receptorB) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes in the circulationC) Deposition of the immune complexes in blood vesselsD) Complement activation by AG-AB complexesE) Production of IgE by B cells

Answer: E pages 213-214

The following cytokines are important in Delayed type hypersensitivity:1) IL-2 2) TNF 3) IL-5 4) IL-12 5) IFN- γ

A) 1,2,3,4B) 1,2,4,5C) 1,3,4,5D) 2,3,4,5E) 1,2,3,4,5

Answer : B pages 216-217 IL-5 activates eosinophils

This protein or receptor is important in central tolerance to prevent autoimmunity:A) AIRE (autoimmune regulator) proteinB) Membrane protein FasLC) CTLA-4 receptorD) FAS receptor


E) Foxp3

Answer: A page 224, 226 others affect peripheral tolerance

The following are contributing factors to the pathogenesis of SLE except:A) IgG autoantibody productionB) IgE autoantibody productionC) Genetically susceptible individualD) Activation of helper T cells and B cells E) Immune complex and autoantibody mediated tissue injury

Answer: B Page 230

The presence of the following antinuclear antibodies is diagnostic for SLE:1) Anti-double-stranded DNA2) Anticentromere3) Antihistone4) Anti-Sm5) Anti-Bm

A) 1, 2B) 1, 4C) 2, 3D) 2, 4E) 3, 5

Answer: B page 229

The following are true regarding primary immunodeficiencies except:A) Mutations in CD 40 or CD40L leads to Hyper-IgM syndromeB) Autosomal recessive SCID is due to deficiency of (ADA) adenosine deaminaseC) A mutation in the γ chain subunit of cytokine receptors occurs with x-linked SCIDD) Isolated IgA deficiency is due to mutation that impairs expression of Class II MHC molecules E) Failure of B cell precursors to mature into B cells is due to mutations in B-cell tyrosine kinase (Btk)

Answer: D pages 241, 242, and 244 (wrong b/c form of SCID

The following viruses are in the Lentivirus family except:A) HIVB) Visna virus of sheepC) Bovine Leukemia VirusD) Feline immunodeficiency virus


E) Simian immunodeficiency virus

Answer: C in oncornavirus page 246

The following virus(es) cause tumors in HIV infected patients:1) Human Herpesvirus 8 (KSHV)2) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)3) Human Papillomavirus4) Cytomegalovirus5) West Nile Virus

A) 1B) 1,2C) 1,2,3D) 1,2,3,4E) 1,2,3,4,5

Answer: C page 256

A defect resulting in an abnormality in all of the C-C receptors would result in which of the following?

A) Resistance to infection with M-tropic HIV virus and a decreased response to TNFB) Resistance to infection with T-tropic HIV virus and decreased chemotaxis for neutrophilsC) Resistance to infection with M-tropic HIV virus and decreased chemotaxis of monocytesD) Resistance to infection with T-tropic HIV virus and decreased chemotaxis for eosinophilsE) Resistance to infection with M-tropic HIV virus and increased activation of intracellular RAS leading to neoplasia

ANSWER: C Page #’s: 71, 98, and 248

Which of the following TLRs is involved in response to double stranded RNA viruses? (p195)

A. TLR2B. TLR3C. TLR4D. TLR5E. TLR6


Answer: B

In the absence of which one of the following molecules, T-cells undergo apoptosis or become unreactive? (p198)


Answer: D

The following are true regarding NK cells except:A. Do not express CD3B. Inhibited by decreased expression of MHC I moleculesC. Activated by IFN-α and IFN-β released by virus infected cellsD. CD 16 and CD 56 expression are commonly used for identificationE. Stress induced proteins and viral proteins are important ligands for activating receptor

Answer: B page 203 decreased expression prevents binding of inhibitory receptor

All of the following are true concerning toll-like receptors except:

A. TLR 4 is specific for LPSB. TLRs 1,2,4,6 recognize bacterial productsC. TLRs 3,7,8,9 are involved with viral detectionD. they are characterized as pattern recognition receptorsE. all TLRs contain a cysteine-rich repeat motif flanked by a leucine-rich motif

Answer: E pg 194-195 PBVD

Which of the following are correct regarding cytokines?

1. IFN-γ activated macrophages2. C-C chemokines are produced largely by B cells3. IL-15 stimulates growth and activity of NK cells4. IL-12 stimulates differentiation to the TH2 pathway5. interleukins mediate communication between leukocytes

A. 1,2,5B. 1,3,4


C. 1,3,5D. 2,3,4E. 2,3,5

Answer: C pg 202-203

All of the following are true regarding NK cells except:

A. they are CD3 positiveB. CD16 and CD56 are used to identify NK cellsC. CD94-NKG2A is an inhibitory receptor of NK cells D. they are also known as large granular lymphocytesE. decreased expression of class I MHC molecules results in cell lysis

Answer: A pg 201

Which of the following cytokines released by mast cells during a type I reaction contribute to B lymphocyte activation and IgE synthesis?

A. IL-4, IL-5B. IL-4, IL-6C. IL-5, IL-6D. TNF-α, IL-4E. TNF-α, IL-5

Answer: A pg 214, PBVD

Which one of the following diseases/disorders is an example of type III hypersensitivity? (p 212)

1. Reactive arthritis2. Bronchial asthma3. Acute rheumatic fever4. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia5. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia

Answer: A

Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in a Type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. antigen in great excess of antibodyB. antigen in slight excess of antibodyC. antibody in great excess of antigenD. antibody in slight excess of antigen


E. equal amounts of antigen and antibody

Answer: B pg 218, PBVD

All of the following are Type III hypersensitivity reactions, except:

A. COPDB. serum sicknessC. pemphigus foliaceusD. Aleutian mink diseaseE. systemic lupus erythematosus

Answer: C Tables 5-8 & 5-9, PBVD

Which of the following statements is false regarding IFN-γ? (p 216-217)

A. IL-12 is a potent inducer of IFN-γ secretion by T cells and NK cells.B. IFN-γ is secreted by macrophages in delayed type hypersensitivity.C. IFN-γ augments the differentiation of TH1 cells.D. IFN-γ is a powerful activator of macrophages.E. In DTH memory TH1 cells secret IFN-γ.

Answer: B

An increase in the amount of FLIP would affect T cell-mediated cytotoxicity in which of the following ways?

A. increased cross-linkage of FasB. inhibition of Fas-Fas ligand-dependent killingC. increased perfoin penetration of plasma membranesD. decreased perfoin penetration of plasma membranesE. altered granzyme function with lack of caspase activation

Answer: B pg. 29, 218

Which of the following are true concerning peripheral tolerance?

1. autoimmune disease may result from ocular trauma2. lymphocyte activation may be inhibited by CD25+ TH2 cells3. lack of a specific T helper cell may result in B lymphocyte anergy4. Fas-Fas ligand signaling can lead to cell death of T and B lymphocytes5. the absence of B7 on an antigen presenting cell may result in anergy of T lymphocytes

A. 1,2


B. 1,2,3C. 1,2,3,4D. 1,2,3,5E. 1,2,3,4,5

Answer: E pg 230-231, PBVD

Which of the following are the most frequently affected tissues in animals with SLE?

1. skin2. joint3. spleen4. kidney5. bone marrow

A. 1,2,3B. 1,2,4C. 2,3,4D. 2,3,5E. 3,4,5

Answer: B pg 235, PBVD

All of the following histologic skin lesions are consistent with SLE except:

A. vasculitis B. dermal edemaC. interface dermatitisD. subcorneal pustulesE. basal cell vacuolation

Answer: C pg 236, 1217 PBVD

Which of the following statements concerning SCID are true?

1. SCID is autosomal recessive in Arabians2. Arabians with SCID lack T and B lymphocytes3. Dogs with SCID have normal IgG and IgA serum concentrations 4. Bassett hounds with SCID have increased numbers of B lymphocytes5. CB-17 mice with “leaky SCID” produce low numbers of B lymphocytes after 6 months of age


A. 1,2,3B. 1,2,4C. 2,3,4D. 2,3,5E. 3,4,5

Answer: B pg 240-243, PBVD

Lack of CD14 will directly cause the following:A) Secretion of only IgM from B cellsB) No interaction of CD4+ T cell with CD80C) No binding of CD8 receptor to MHC I moleculeD) No binding of CD4 receptor to MHC II moleculeE) Inefficient LPS-induced signaling of toll like receptors

Answer: E page 195

Tcells bind to CD 40 for maturation of b cells and secretion of IgG, IgX and IgECD 28 on T cells bonds with CD 80

Which of the following cytokines secreted by macrophages and dendritic cells is necessary to drive naïve CD4+ cells to Th1 cells?A) IL-2B) IL-5C) IL-12D) IFN-γE) Lymphotoxin

Answer: C pages 216-217

A=proliferation of T cells B=activates eosinophils D=powerful activator of macrophages E=stimulate endothelium to facilitate extravasation of lymphocytes and macrophages

All of the following pathogens are commonly associated with Type IV hypersensitivity reactions except:A) ListeriaB) Canine Adenovirus 1C) Histoplasma capsulatumD) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virusE) Mycobacterium avium ssp. Paratuberculosis

Answer: B page 225 PBVD


A neoplasm composed of multiple cell types from more than one germ cell layer is a:A) CystB) TeratomaC) ChoristomaD) HamartomaE) Pleomorphic adenoma (mixed tumor)

Answer: B Robbins page 271Choristoma=histologically normal tissue in abnormal location; Hamartoma=disorganized tissue but mature specialized tissue indigenous to particular site

Which of the following is the definitive criteria for malignancy:A) MitosisB) AnaplasiaC) MetaplasiaD) MetastasisE) Infiltrative growth

Answer: D page 258 PBVD

The following domestic animal species have been documented to have a systemic, familial form of amyloidosis:1) Angus cow2) Sharpei dog3) Siamese cat4) Abyssinian cat5) Chow Chow dog

A) 1,2,3B) 2,3,4C) 2,3,4,5D) 4,5E) 5

Answer: B page 248

1. Which of the following cytokines are secreted by Th1 cells? (p. 198 Robbins)1) IL-22) IL-43) IL-54) IL-13


5) IFN-γ

A) 1, 2B) 1, 5C) 2, 3D) 3, 4E) 3, 5

Answer: B

2. Which one of the following is not a ligand for TLR2? (p. 195 Robbins)A) zymogen from fungiB) lipoproteins from bacteriaC) double-stranded RNA from virusesD) peptidoglycan from gram + bacteriaE) lipopolysaccharide from gram - bacteria

Answer: C

1) Initial activation of cytotoxic T-cells requires stimulation with which molecules? Robbins p198

a) TCR + CD4 + MHC IIb) TCR + CD8 +MHC Ic) TCR + CD8 + MHC I; CD 28 + CD 80d) TCR + CD4 + MHC II; CD 28 + CD 80e) TCR + CD8 + MHC I; CD 21 + CD 28

Answer: c

2) Which of the following cytokines provide the stimulus for T-cell proliferation? Robbins p 198

a) Il-1b) Il-2c) Il-4d) Il-5 e) INF-γ

Answer: b

3) Which of the following can be pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)?

PBVD p1951) LPS2) Flagellin


3) peptidoglycan4) Double stranded RNA5) Single stranded RNA

a) 1, 2b) 1, 2, 3c) 1, 2, 5d) 1, 2,3, 4e) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Answer: e

1) Which of the following cell surface markers are used to identify NK cells? Robbins p.200

1) CD162) CD33) CD214) CD565) CD8

a) 1b) 2c) 1, 3d) 1, 4e) 1, 5

Answer: D

2) Which of the following cytokines plays a major role in directing a TH1 response?

a) IFN-γb) TNF-αc) Il-5d) Il-4e) Il-15

Answer: A

1) Which of the following is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction? Robbins p 206

a) Bronchial asthmab) Contact dermatitis c) Transplant rejectiond) Systemic lupus erythematosus


e) Autoimmune haemolytic anemia

Answer: e

2) Which of the following cytokines play a role in Type I hypersensitivity reactions?Robbins p 2081) Il-42) Il-53) Il-124) Il-135) IFN-γ

a) 1, 2b) 1, 2, 3, 4c) 1, 2, 4d) 2, 3, 4, 5e) 2, 5

Answer: c

3) Which of the following mechanisms of mast cell activation is NOT referred to as an anaphylactoid reaction? PBVD p213

a) Il-8b) Coldc) NSAIDsd) C3a and C5ae) Cross-linking of membrane-bound IgE by antigen

Answer: e

4) Which of the following are NOT mast cell primary mediators? PBVD pp. 213-214

1) Heparin2) Serotonin3) Histamine4) Acid hydrolases5) Platelet Activating Factor (PAF)

a) 4b) 5c) 1, 2d) 2, 4e) 4, 5


Answer: b

1) Which of the following situations will most likely result in a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

PBVD p. 218

a) Antibody is in great excess to the quantity of antigenb) Antigen is in great excess of the quantity of antibodyc) Antigen is in slight excess of the quantity of antibodyd) There is an excessive amount of complement proteins in the circulatione) There is an exaggerated monocyte-macrophage phagocytic system response

Answer: c

2) Which of the following tissues/organs are particularly vulnerable to immune complex disease? PBVD p. 218

1) Skin2) Glomeruli 3) Blood vessels4) Choroid Plexus5) Synovial membranes

a) 1, 2, 3b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c) 2, 3, 5d) 2, 3, 4, 5e) 3, 4, 5

Answer: b

3) Which of the following diseases is not an example of a type III hypersensitivity reaction? PBVD p. 220

a) Serum Sicknessb) Bullous pemphigoidc) Rheumatoid arthritisd) Equine infectious anemiae) Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answer: b

4) The signs of anaphlyaxis in the horse are largely related to which body system/s? Tizard p339a) Liver


b) Intestinec) Respiratory tractd) b and ce) a and b

Answer: d

5) The signs of anaphylaxis in the dog are largely related to which body system/s?Tizard

p339a) Liverb) Intestinec) Respiratory tractd) b and ce) a and c

Answer: a

1) Which of the following disorders is NOT associated with a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? PBVD pp. 223, 225a) Tuberculosisb) Blastomycosisc) Allograft rejectiond) Allergic contact dermatitise) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer: e

2) Which of the following statements regarding transplant rejection is incorrect? Robbins p 218-222

a) The direct pathway involves both CD4+ and CD8+ T-cellsb) The earliest signs of graft rejection can be seen 24-48 hours after transplantationc) The antigens most responsible for transplant rejection are major histocompatibility antigensd) The direct pathway involves recipient T-cells recognizing allogeneic MHC molecules on the surface of APCs in the grafte) The indirect pathway involves recipient T-cells recognizing graft antigens in association with the recipient’s own MHC molecules.

Answer: b


In a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which one of the following cytokines secreted by macrophages after an initial exposure to an organism is necessary for differentiation of naïve CD4+ helper cells into TH1 cells?A) IL-1B) IL-2C) IL-5D) IL-12E) IFN-γ

Answer: D

Documents

Chapter 6 (Questions 2008-2009 Compiled)