CHAPTER 11 Univariate and Bivariate Analysis of Data

CHAPTER – 11

Univariate and Bivariate Analysis of Data

1. Which of the following cannot be covered under univariate analysis of data?

a. Association between two variables

b. Computation of mean, median and mode

c. Preparation of frequency table

d. Computation of percentage frequency for a variable

2. Both mean and mode can be computed for what type of measurement scales.

a. Nominal

b. Ordinal

c. Interval

d. Ratio

e. c and d

f. a and c

3. Which of the following option is not available for the treatment of missing value?

a. Substitute the average value of the response

b. Substitute a neutral value

c. Return to the field to get the desired observation

d. The concerned questionnaire should be eliminated from the analysis.

4. In the interpretation of the cross table, the percentages should be computed

a. Row wise

b. Column wise

c. In the direction of the independent variable

d. Computing percentages either row wise or column wise does not make a difference.

5. For which type of measurement, the coefficient of variation can be computed.

a. Nominal scale

b. Ordinal scale

c. Interval scale

d. Ratio scale

6. A third variable is introduced in the two variable table to

a. Refine the association that was observed originally between two variables.

b. The introduction of third variable may show that there was no association between the

original two variables.

c. Introducing a third variable may indicate association between two original variables

although initially no relationship was found between them.

d. All of the above are true.

7. Which of the following is true about the missing observation?

a. Missing value could be coded with another number which should not be equal to the

value of the variable obtained as a part of the survey.

b. It is possible to get different research conclusions if the value of the missing observation

was available.

c. The actual results may deviate from the observed results depends upon the number of

missing observation and the extent to which the missing data would be different from the

actual observation.

d. All of the above statements are true.

8. Which of the following is true in case of interpretation of a table with analysis of multiple

responses?

a. The percentages add up to 100%.

b. The percentages exceed 100% because of multiplicity of answer.

c. The percentages cannot be computed.

d. All the above statements are incorrect.

9. There are 20% female students in a class – this is an example of

a. Descriptive analysis

b. Inferential analysis

c. Gender bias

d. All of the above are correct

10. For which type of measurement, median cannot be computed.

a. Nominal

b. Ordinal

c. Interval

d. Ratio

11. Which of the following analysis cannot be carried out using ordinal scale data?

a. Preparation of frequency distribution

b. Computation of the quartiles of the distribution

c. Computing the mode of the distribution

d. Computing the standard deviation of the variable

12. The uses of a frequency distribution are

a. To get the extent of non response.

b. To detect the presence of extreme cases (outliers in the distribution).

c. To get the extent of illegitimate responses.

d. All of the above

13. That measure of central tendency above which 50% values fall and below which the remaining

50% fall is called:

a. Mean

b. Median

c. Mode

d. Range

14. When a respondent assigns an order of preference using values as 1, 2, 3 and so on, he is using

a. Nominal values

b. Ordinal values

c. Interval values

d. Ratio values

15. The median can be computed from

a. Ordinal, interval and nominal data

b. Ratio, ordinal and nominal data

c. Ratio, interval and ordinal data

d. Ratio, interval and nominal data

16. Which of the following gives the measure of consistency of data?

a. Mean

b. Standard deviation

c. Mode

d. Median

17. The simple way to look at association for the data which requires only the ability to compute

percentages.

a. Cross-tabulation

b. Correlation coefficient

c. Spearman rank correlation coefficient

d. Simple graph

e. None of the above

18. Factor analysis is a technique for

a. Univariate data

b. Bivariate data

c. Multivariate data

d. Both (a) and (b)

e. Both (a) and (c)

f. Both (b) and (c)

19. Which of the following may not be the right method for dealing with missing information on a

questionnaire?

a. Discard the questionnaire

b. Ignore that particular question and code the remaining

c. Based on responses of similar respondents, substitute a value

d. All of them may be appropriate

e. Both (a) and (b)

f. Both (b) and (c)

20. Median can be computed for

a. Closed ended class interval

b. Open ended class interval

c. Ordinal scale data

d. Interval scale data

e. Ratio scale data

f. All of them are true

21. The one-way table cannot be used for

a. Frequency distribution

b. Percentage distribution

c. Cumulative frequency distribution

d. To compute measure of central tendency

e. It can be used for all of the above.

For the next 4 questions, read the following table:

TABLE

Consumption of ice cream and household income

Low Consumption of Ice cream High Consumption of Ice cream Total

Low Income 30 10 40

Middle Income 20 20 40

High Income 12 28 40

Total 62 58 120

22 The above table is an example of

a. Cross-tabulation

b. One way tabulation

c. Four way classification

d. None of the above

23 What percentage of household have less consumption of Ice cream?

a. 50

b 51.67

c 54

d 49.38

24 How many households are there with middle income?

a 30

b 28

c 40

d None of the above

25 How many household with middle income have high consumption of Ice cream\/

a 20

b 30

c 28

d 12

For the next 3 question read the following data

Given below are the marks of 10 students in an examination

40, 60, 50, 55, 45, 70, 60, 55, 75, 80.

26 What is the average score of the students?

a 55

b 60

c 65

d 59

27 What is median of the distribution of marks?

a 55

b 57.5

c 58.5

d 60

28 What is the range of the marks of the distribution?

a 40

b 18

c 20

d 30

CHAPTER-12

Testing of Hypotheses

1 A p value of o.o5 means

a. There is only 5% chance that the results are incorrect

b. There is probability of 5 in 100 that this result would occur if the null hypotheses

were true

c. There is only 5% chance of getting this result

d. All of the above are true

2. The probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true is called

a Level of significance

b Type II error

c Type I error

d Beta

3 While testing for single population mean when the sample size n is less than 30 and population

standard deviation is unknown

a z test is used.

b t test with n-2 degrees of freedom is used.

c t test with n-1 degrees of freedom is used.

d None of the above statement is true.

4 Which of the following statements is false?

a t distribution is symmetrical.

b z distribution is symmetrical.

c t distribution is flatter than z distribution.

d t distribution is applicable only when sample size n is greater than 50.

5 Which of the following distribution is useful for small sample while testing for population

means?

a z distribution

b. F distribution

c. chi-square distribution

d. t distribution

6 When testing for the equality of two means, the hypotheses would take which of following

forms?

a. 𝑯𝒐:𝒖𝟏 = 𝒖𝟐

𝐻1:𝑢1 ≠𝑢2

b. 𝐻𝑜: 𝜎12 = 𝜎2

2

𝐻1: 𝜎12 ≠ 𝜎2

2

C 𝐻𝑜 : μ ≤ 2.0

𝐻1 : μ > 2.0

d 𝐻𝑜:𝑝1 = 𝑝2

𝐻1:𝑝1 ≠ 𝑝2

7 Testing hypotheses concerning population parameters using sample data is called

a Exploratory research

b Descriptive research

c Descriptive analysis

d Inferential analysis

8 Which of the following could be labeled as a null hypothesis?

a μ ≠ 25

b μ > 25

c μ = 25

d μ < 25

9 The degrees of freedom for testing the equality of two population means assuming equal variance

using a t test are

a 𝑛1 + 𝑛2

b 𝑛1 - 𝑛2

c 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 - 1

d 𝒏𝟏 + 𝒏𝟐 – 2

10 When testing for the proportion of a population, we use

a t test

b F test

c Z test assuming normal approximation to binominal distribution

d Paired sample t test

11 When we accept the null hypothesis when it is false we, are committing

a type 1 error

b type 2 error

c neither type 1 nor type 2 error

d none of the above is true

12 The alternative hypothesis is “that more than 80% of the students know driving” is an example of

a One-tailed test

b Two-tailed test

c Type 1 error

d Type 2 error

13 The degrees of freedom for the t test to test the hypothesis about paired sample are

a n

b 𝑛1 + 𝑛2

c 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 – 2

d n -1

14 In case of small sample with the objective of testing the equality of two population means with

unequal population variance

a z test is used

b t test with degrees of freedom 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 – 2 is used

c t test with 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 degrees of freedom is used

d None of the above statements is correct.

15 The null hypothesis to test the equality of two population means using t test would be

a 𝑡1 = 𝑡2

b 𝑋1 = 𝑋2

c μ1>μ

2

d 𝛍 𝟏 = 𝛍 𝟐

16 The most appropriate level of significance used in testing of hypothesis is

a. 0.01

b. 0.02

c. 0.05

d. 0.10

e. Depends upon the situation specific factors

17 Higher the value of computed z statistic,

a. Larger would be the size of sample.

b. Greater would be the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis.

c Greater would be the probability of accepting the null hypothesis.

d None of the above is true.

18 What is a type 1 error?

a Reject 𝑯𝟎 when it is true.

b Accept 𝐻0 when it is false.

c Reject 𝐻1 when it is false.

d All of the above are true.

19 Which of the following may involve the use of a non-parametric test?

a Testing the equality of two population means

b Testing the equality of two population proportions

c Testing for a specific value of a single population mean

d Testing for a specific value of a single population proportion

e None of the above is true

20 The region where null hypothesis is rejected is called

a Test statistic

b Critical region

c Beta (β)

d None of the above

21 The necessary condition required for using a dependent sample t test is

a The sample size in both the samples should not be same.

b The two samples should not be related.

c The two samples should be atleast of size 50.

d Two observations are taken from the same individual – one prior to the application

of treatment and other after the application of treatment.

22 If a hypothesis is rejected at 5%

a It must be rejected at 10%.

b It must be rejected at 2%

c Both a & b are correct.

d All the statements are wrong.

23 Which of the following statements is true?

a The standard error of mean increases with increase in sample size.

b If p value is less than alpha, the null hypothesis should not be rejected.

c Sales and advertisement expenditure are related is an example of null hypothesis.

d The alternative hypothesis could be specified as p > 0.30.

24 The t distribution could be used

a When sample size is small ( n< 30)

b Sample is drawn from a normal population

c Population variance is unknown

d All the above statements are correct.


a The p value as specified for t test in SPSS is for two-tailed test.

b The alternative hypothesis cannot be 𝐻1: 𝑝1 = 𝑝2.

c Whenever degrees of freedom are more than 30, t distribution can be approximated by a

normal distribution.

d There is no difference between sample standard deviation and population standard

deviation when sample size is small.

CHAPTER-12

Testing of Hypotheses

2 A p value of o.o5 means

e. There is only 5% chance that the results are incorrect

f. There is probability of 5 in 100 that this result would occur if the null hypotheses

were true

g. There is only 5% chance of getting this result

h. All of the above are true

2. The probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true is called

a Level of significance

b Type II error

c Type I error

d Beta

3 While testing for single population mean when the sample size n is less than 30 and population

standard deviation is unknown

a z test is used.

b t test with n-2 degrees of freedom is used.

c t test with n-1 degrees of freedom is used.

d None of the above statement is true.


a t distribution is symmetrical.

b z distribution is symmetrical.

c t distribution is flatter than z distribution.

d t distribution is applicable only when sample size n is greater than 50.

5 Which of the following distribution is useful for small sample while testing for population

means?

a z distribution

b. F distribution

c. chi-square distribution

d. t distribution

6 When testing for the equality of two means, the hypotheses would take which of following

forms?

a. 𝑯𝒐:𝒖𝟏 = 𝒖𝟐

𝐻1:𝑢1 ≠𝑢2

b. 𝐻𝑜: 𝜎12 = 𝜎2

2

𝐻1: 𝜎12 ≠ 𝜎2

2

C 𝐻𝑜 : μ ≤ 2.0

𝐻1 : μ > 2.0

d 𝐻𝑜:𝑝1 = 𝑝2

𝐻1:𝑝1 ≠ 𝑝2

7 Testing hypotheses concerning population parameters using sample data is called

a Exploratory research

b Descriptive research

c Descriptive analysis

d Inferential analysis

8 Which of the following could be labeled as a null hypothesis?

a μ ≠ 25

b μ > 25

c μ = 25

d μ < 25

9 The degrees of freedom for testing the equality of two population means assuming equal variance

using a t test are

a 𝑛1 + 𝑛2

b 𝑛1 - 𝑛2

c 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 - 1

d 𝒏𝟏 + 𝒏𝟐 – 2

10 When testing for the proportion of a population, we use

a t test

b F test

c Z test assuming normal approximation to binominal distribution

d Paired sample t test

11 When we accept the null hypothesis when it is false we, are committing

a type 1 error

b type 2 error

c neither type 1 nor type 2 error

d none of the above is true

12 The alternative hypothesis is “that more than 80% of the students know driving” is an example of

a One-tailed test

b Two-tailed test

c Type 1 error

d Type 2 error

13 The degrees of freedom for the t test to test the hypothesis about paired sample are

a n

b 𝑛1 + 𝑛2

c 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 – 2

d n -1

14 In case of small sample with the objective of testing the equality of two population means with

unequal population variance

a z test is used

b t test with degrees of freedom 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 – 2 is used

c t test with 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 degrees of freedom is used

d None of the above statements is correct.

15 The null hypothesis to test the equality of two population means using t test would be

a 𝑡1 = 𝑡2

b 𝑋1 = 𝑋2

c μ1>μ

2

d 𝛍 𝟏 = 𝛍 𝟐

16 The most appropriate level of significance used in testing of hypothesis is

f. 0.01

g. 0.02

h. 0.05

i. 0.10

j. Depends upon the situation specific factors

17 Higher the value of computed z statistic,

a. Larger would be the size of sample.

b. Greater would be the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis.

c Greater would be the probability of accepting the null hypothesis.

d None of the above is true.

18 What is a type 1 error?

a Reject 𝑯𝟎 when it is true.

b Accept 𝐻0 when it is false.

c Reject 𝐻1 when it is false.

d All of the above are true.

19 Which of the following may involve the use of a non-parametric test?

a Testing the equality of two population means

b Testing the equality of two population proportions

c Testing for a specific value of a single population mean

d Testing for a specific value of a single population proportion

e None of the above is true

20 The region where null hypothesis is rejected is called

a Test statistic

b Critical region

c Beta (β)

d None of the above

21 The necessary condition required for using a dependent sample t test is

a The sample size in both the samples should not be same.

b The two samples should not be related.

c The two samples should be atleast of size 50.

d Two observations are taken from the same individual – one prior to the application

of treatment and other after the application of treatment.

22 If a hypothesis is rejected at 5%

a It must be rejected at 10%.

b It must be rejected at 2%

c Both a & b are correct.

d All the statements are wrong.

23 Which of the following statements is true?

a The standard error of mean increases with increase in sample size.

b If p value is less than alpha, the null hypothesis should not be rejected.

c Sales and advertisement expenditure are related is an example of null hypothesis.

d The alternative hypothesis could be specified as p > 0.30.

24 The t distribution could be used

a When sample size is small ( n< 30)

b Sample is drawn from a normal population

c Population variance is unknown

d All the above statements are correct.


a The p value as specified for t test in SPSS is for two-tailed test.

b The alternative hypothesis cannot be 𝐻1: 𝑝1 = 𝑝2.

c Whenever degrees of freedom are more than 30, t distribution can be approximated by a

normal distribution.

d There is no difference between sample standard deviation and population standard

deviation when sample size is small.

CHAPTER-14

Non-Parametric tests

1. The number of degrees of freedom in a contingency table with 3 rows and 4 columns are

a. 12

b. 6

c. 7

d. 3

2. The test of significance for which of the following parameters is conducted by non-

parametric test.

a. Median

b. Mean

c. Proportion

d. Standard deviation

3. Parametric tests cannot be conducted if

a. Normality assumption is not satisfied

b. Data is nominal or ordinal in nature

c. Information on increase or decrease is given by a plus or minus sign instead of

actual number


4. Which of following is true about non-parametric tests?

a. Null hypothesis is loosely defined as compared to parametric tests.

b. The tests are less powerful than parametric tests when the basic assumptions of

parametric tests are valid.

c. They involve simple computations compared to the corresponding parametric

tests.


5. Which of following tests is not available under parametric tests?

a. Test for mean

b. Test for proportion

c. Test for randomness

Test for equality of variance

d.

6. Which of the following is true about chi-square distribution?

a. Chi-square distribution is not symmetric.

b. The shape of chi-square distribution depends upon degrees of freedom.

c. The value of chi-square statistic cannot be negative.


7. For which of the following tests, the chi-square test cannot be used?

a. Test for goodness of fit

b. Test for mean

c. Test for independence of variables

d. Test for equality of three population proportions

8. For the application of chi-square test, the expected frequency in each cell should be

a. At least five

b. Four

c. At least three

d. None of the above is true

9. What could be the null hypothesis for a contingency table?

a. Row and column variables follow a normal distribution

b. Row and column variables are independent of each other

c. The values in each row are multiple of 5


10. The lower limit of contingency coefficient equals

a. Zero

b. 0.5

c. 0.7


11. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Phi coefficient can assume any value between -1 and +1.

b. Phi coefficient can be computed for 2 x 2 contingency table.

c. The square of phi-coefficient measures the proportions of one variable that is

explained by other variable.

d. All the above statements are true.

12. The upper limit of Cramer’s-V statistic is

a. 2

b. 1.5

c. 1

d. zero

13. The contingency coefficient can be computed using the following formula

a. √𝜒2

𝑛 ( 𝑓−1)

b. √𝝌𝟐

𝒏 +𝝌𝟐

c. ∑(𝑂−𝐸)2

𝐸


14. The number of runs in the following sequence are:

A AA B B A A B B A AA B A B B A B A AA

a. 9

b. 10

c. 11


15. Number of runs follow a normal distribution whenever

a. n1 > 20

b. n2 > 20

c. Either n1 > 20 or n2 > 20

d. none of the above is true

16. Which of the following is true about Mann-Whitney U test?

a. U1 >U2

b. U1 +U2 = n1 n2

c. U1 + U2> n1 n2

d. U1 + U2< n1 n2

17. The Kruskal–Wallis test with k samples uses

a. Chi-square distribution with k degrees of freedom

b. Chi- square distribution with k-1 degrees of freedom

c. t distribution with k-2 degrees of freedom

d. F distribution

18 Under which of the following is the Kruskal–Wallis test used?

a. Samples are drawn from populations that do not follow normal distribution

b. While dealing with ordinal data

c. Samples are small

d. Both b & c are true

19 Which of following statements is false?

a. There is no provision for one-tailed test in one-sample sign test.

b. Kruskal–Wallis test is a non-parametric alternative to a one way ANOVA.

c. The sample value of chi-square cannot be negative.

d. The shape of chi-square distribution is asymmetrical.

20 The non-parametric test which analyses the difference between the paired

observations while taking into account the magnitude of differences is

a. Two-sample sign test

b. Wikoxan matched–pairs signed–ranks test

c. Kruskal-Wallis test

d. Runs test

21 The non-parametric goodness of fit test to determine whether the observations for a

variable could have come from a particular distribution is

a. Runs test

b. One sample sign test

c. Chi-square test

d. Mann-Whitney U test

22 Which of the following is not true about parametric test?

a. Z test is a parametric test

b. T distribution assumes that sample are drawn from a normal population with

known mean and unknown standard deviation

c. Parametric tests are available for nominal and ordinal scale data

d. All the above statements are false

23 For which of the following parameters, the parametric test cannot be used

a. Mean

b. Median

c. Proportion


24 The upper limit of contingency coefficient is given by

a. √(𝒓−𝟏)

𝒓

b. One

c. √(𝑟+1)

𝑟

d. 𝑟−1

𝑟

25 The upper limit of contingency coefficient when the number of rows equal number of

columns is

a. 1

b. 0.7

c. Dependent on the number of rows or columns


26 When data arranged in an ascending order of magnitude reveal that 19th, 20th 21st and 22nd

observations have the same value, the rank assigned to each of these observations is

a. 21.5

b. 21.0

c. 20.5

d. 20.0

27 For the following set of data, determine the number of runs

28, 36, 27, 59, 82, 49, 53, 46, 38

a. 3

b. 4

c. 2

d. 5

28 If there are 20 pairs of observations, the mean of T statistic in Wilcoxon signed–rank test

for paired samples is given by

a. 42

b. 420

c. 48

d. 84

CHAPTER-14

Non-Parametric tests

18. The number of degrees of freedom in a contingency table with 3 rows and 4 columns are

a. 12

b. 6

c. 7

d. 3

19. The test of significance for which of the following parameters is conducted by non-

parametric test.

a. Median

b. Mean

c. Proportion


20. Parametric tests cannot be conducted if

a. Normality assumption is not satisfied

b. Data is nominal or ordinal in nature

c. Information on increase or decrease is given by a plus or minus sign instead of

actual number


21. Which of following is true about non-parametric tests?

a. Null hypothesis is loosely defined as compared to parametric tests.

b. The tests are less powerful than parametric tests when the basic assumptions of

parametric tests are valid.

c. They involve simple computations compared to the corresponding parametric

tests.


22. Which of following tests is not available under parametric tests?

a. Test for mean

b. Test for proportion

c. Test for randomness

Test for equality of variance

d.

23. Which of the following is true about chi-square distribution?

a. Chi-square distribution is not symmetric.

b. The shape of chi-square distribution depends upon degrees of freedom.

c. The value of chi-square statistic cannot be negative.


24. For which of the following tests, the chi-square test cannot be used?

a. Test for goodness of fit

b. Test for mean

c. Test for independence of variables

d. Test for equality of three population proportions

25. For the application of chi-square test, the expected frequency in each cell should be

a. At least five

b. Four

c. At least three


26. What could be the null hypothesis for a contingency table?

a. Row and column variables follow a normal distribution

b. Row and column variables are independent of each other

c. The values in each row are multiple of 5


27. The lower limit of contingency coefficient equals

a. Zero

b. 0.5

c. 0.7


28. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Phi coefficient can assume any value between -1 and +1.

b. Phi coefficient can be computed for 2 x 2 contingency table.

c. The square of phi-coefficient measures the proportions of one variable that is

explained by other variable.

d. All the above statements are true.

29. The upper limit of Cramer’s-V statistic is

a. 2

b. 1.5

c. 1

d. zero

30. The contingency coefficient can be computed using the following formula

a. √𝜒2

𝑛 ( 𝑓−1)

b. √𝝌𝟐

𝒏 +𝝌𝟐

c. ∑(𝑂−𝐸)2

𝐸


31. The number of runs in the following sequence are:

A AA B B A A B B A AA B A B B A B A AA

a. 9

b. 10

c. 11


32. Number of runs follow a normal distribution whenever

a. n1 > 20

b. n2 > 20

c. Either n1 > 20 or n2 > 20

d. none of the above is true

33. Which of the following is true about Mann-Whitney U test?

a. U1 >U2

b. U1 +U2 = n1 n2

c. U1 + U2> n1 n2

d. U1 + U2< n1 n2

34. The Kruskal–Wallis test with k samples uses

e. Chi-square distribution with k degrees of freedom

f. Chi- square distribution with k-1 degrees of freedom

g. t distribution with k-2 degrees of freedom

h. F distribution

18 Under which of the following is the Kruskal–Wallis test used?

e. Samples are drawn from populations that do not follow normal distribution

f. While dealing with ordinal data

g. Samples are small

h. Both b & c are true

19 Which of following statements is false?

e. There is no provision for one-tailed test in one-sample sign test.

f. Kruskal–Wallis test is a non-parametric alternative to a one way ANOVA.

g. The sample value of chi-square cannot be negative.

h. The shape of chi-square distribution is asymmetrical.

20 The non-parametric test which analyses the difference between the paired

observations while taking into account the magnitude of differences is

e. Two-sample sign test

f. Wikoxan matched–pairs signed–ranks test

g. Kruskal-Wallis test

h. Runs test

21 The non-parametric goodness of fit test to determine whether the observations for a

variable could have come from a particular distribution is

e. Runs test

f. One sample sign test

g. Chi-square test

h. Mann-Whitney U test

22 Which of the following is not true about parametric test?

e. Z test is a parametric test

f. T distribution assumes that sample are drawn from a normal population with

known mean and unknown standard deviation

g. Parametric tests are available for nominal and ordinal scale data

h. All the above statements are false

23 For which of the following parameters, the parametric test cannot be used

e. Mean

f. Median

g. Proportion

h. Standard deviation

24 The upper limit of contingency coefficient is given by

a. √(𝒓−𝟏)

𝒓

e. One

f. √(𝑟+1)

𝑟

g. 𝑟−1

𝑟

25 The upper limit of contingency coefficient when the number of rows equal number of

columns is

e. 1

f. 0.7

g. Dependent on the number of rows or columns

h. None of the above

26 When data arranged in an ascending order of magnitude reveal that 19th, 20th 21st and 22nd

observations have the same value, the rank assigned to each of these observations is

e. 21.5

f. 21.0

g. 20.5

h. 20.0

27 For the following set of data, determine the number of runs

28, 36, 27, 59, 82, 49, 53, 46, 38

e. 3

f. 4

g. 2

h. 5

28 If there are 20 pairs of observations, the mean of T statistic in Wilcoxon signed–rank test

for paired samples is given by

e. 42

f. 420

g. 48

h. 84

CHAPTER-15

Correlation and Regression Analysis

1. If all the scatter of points on two variables lie on a negatively stopped straight line, the

correlation coefficient between the variables would be

a. +1

b. -1

c. Zero


2 The coefficient of determination (R2 ) is defined as:

a. 𝐸𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠

𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠

b. 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠

𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠

c. 𝑬𝒙𝒑𝒍𝒂𝒊𝒏𝒆𝒅𝒔𝒖𝒎𝒐𝒇𝒔𝒒𝒖𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒔

𝑻𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍𝒔𝒖𝒎𝒐𝒇𝒔𝒒𝒖𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒔

d. 𝐸𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠

𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠

3 The alternative hypothesis for testing the significance of R2 is written as

a. R2≠ 0

b. R2> 0

c. R2≠ 1

d. R2> 1

4 Which of following statement is true?

a. 0 ≤ R2≤ 1

b. R2> 1

c. R2≠ 1

d. -1 ≤ R2≤ +1

5 When will the value of R2equal one?

a. When the difference between actual values of dependent variable and the error

term is zero for all observations

b. When there is no measurement error in the dependent variable

c. When the estimated value of the error term for all observations is zero

d. None of the above statements is true

6 Which of following is true about simple correlation coefficient?

a. The correlation coefficient depends upon unit of measurements.

b. -1 ≤ r ≤ +1

c. It gives a quantitative estimate of linear association between two variables.

d. Both ( b ) and ( c ) are correct

7 The degrees of freedom associated with t statistic for testing the significance of simple

correlation coefficient is given by

a. n

b. n -2

c. n – 1

d. n + 1

8 Zero correlation coefficient between two variables could mean

a. The variables are non-linearly related to each other

b. There is a cause and effect relationship between variables

c. That there is error of measurement in variables


9 A stochastic error is included in the regression model

a. To take into account the independent variables not include in the regression

model.

b. To take care of the measurement errors in variables

c. To take care of wrong mathematical specification of the model


10 Ordinary least squares (OLS) method aims to minimize

a. Absolute values of errors

b. Error sum of squares

c. Mean square error


11 The slope term of simple linear regression cannot be estimated if

a. All values of the independent variable are same

b. Variance of independent variable is maximized

c. The values of independent variable is the reciprocal of the value of dependent

variable

d. None of the above statement is correct

12 The standard deviation of the error term is called

a. Standard error of estimate

b. Standard error of regression coefficient

c. Standard error of prediction


13 The significance of R2 is conducted using

a. t statistic

b. Z statistic

c. Chi-square statistic

d. F statistic

14 Standard error of prediction depends upon

a. The value of correlation coefficient

b. The standard error of prediction

c. The slope coefficient of regression equation


15 Which of following statements is true?

a. R2 depends upon units of measurement

b. Standard error of estimate depends upon unit of measurement

c. Standard error of estimated coefficient can be negative

d. All the above statements are true

16 The multiple regression model cannot be estimated if

a. Simple correlation coefficient between dependent and any of the independent

variable is ± 1

b. If correlation coefficient between any two independent variables is zero

c. If correlation coefficient between any two independent variables is ±𝟏

d. Both (b) &( c ) are true


a. The value of R2 increases with increase in explanatory variables in the regression

b. In a regression model, the significance of individual coefficient is carried out by t

test

c. If all the scatters of points lie on a straight line, the correlation coefficient is either

+1 or -1

d. Error sum of squares is greater than total sum of squares


a. Total sum of square = Explained sum of square +Error sum of square

B R2 =𝐸𝑥𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠


c R2 = 1 −𝐸𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟𝑠𝑢𝑚𝑜𝑓𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑠


d None of the above statements is false.

19 The number of dummy variables required in a regression model equals

a. number of categories of data

b. number of categories of data less one

c. number of categories of data plus one

d. the number of metric independent variables less one

20 Which of following measures the explanatory power of the regression model?

a. Correlation coefficient

b. Coefficient of determination

c. Regression coefficient

d. All of the above

21 For the regression model Y =b0 + b1 X1 + b2 X2 +U

a. X1 X2 are dependent variables.

b. Y is a predictor variable.

c. b0 is predictor variable.

d. None of the above is true.

22 If the estimated regression equation is

Y = 15 - 0.2 X, where Y = quantity demanded and X = price, then

a. When X =10, Y =12

b. When X =0, Y =15

c. When X =20, Y =11

d. Both ( b ) & ( c ) are correct

23 Which of the following value of the correlation coefficient indicates a weak relationship?

a. 0.09

b. 0.54

c. -.76

d. -.89

24 If correlation coefficient between X and Y is zero, it indicates that

a. X and Y are unrelated

b. X and Y have a relationship

c. X and Y do not have a linear relationship


25 The regression model is expressed as:

a. Y = a + b X

b. Y = a + b X + U

c. Ŷ = �̂� +�̂� X

d. Ŷ = a + b X + U

26 In a regression model Y =b0 + b1X1 + b2X2 + b3X3 + U

Which of following indicates the changes in predicted Ŷ per unit change in X1 when X2

and X3are kept constant

a. Correlation coefficient

b. Partial regression coefficient �̂�1

c. Partial correlation coefficient


27 The estimated regression equation having three categories of independent variable would

look like

a. Ŷ = �̂�0 +�̂�1 D1 +�̂�2 D2

b. Ŷ = b0 +b1 D1 + b2 D2 + b3 D3

c. Y = b0 +b1 D1 + b2 D2 + b3 D3


28 The estimated value of the dependent variable in a simple linear regression model for a

given value of the independent variable is called

a. Estimated regression coefficient

b. Correlation coefficient

c. Point estimate


CHAPTER-16

Factor Analysis

1. Which of following statements regarding factor analysis is true? a. It is a data reduction technique. b. There is no distinction between dependent and independent variables. c. A factor is a linear combination of variables. d. All the above statements are true.

2. The Kaiser–Meyer–Olkin (KMO) statistics takes a value a. of zero b. of one c. between 0 and 1 d. greater than 0.5

3. If 20 variables are being subjected to factor analysis, the degrees of freedom of chi-square for Bartlet test of sphericity is

a. 190

b. 20 c. 19 d. 420

4. Which of the following statements is false – for the application of factor analysis a. The size of the sample should be at least four to five times the number of variables. b. The data required should be non-metric. c. The variables should be highly correlated. d. The variables used in factor analysis should be standardized.

5. What is the null hypothesis being tested under Bartlet test of sphericity? a. Eigenvalue of each factor is greater than one. b. Correlation matrix of variables is an identity matrix. c. The number of factors are less than or equal to three. d. All the statements are true.

6 As per Kaise-Guttman method, which of the following statements is true? a. The extracted factors should have eigenvalue of at least one. b. The number of extracted factors must be at least half the number of variables. c. The extracted factors are two less than the number of variables. d. The extracted factor should have eigenvalue of less than one.

7 The correlation coefficient of extracted factor with a variable is called a. Communality b. Eigenvalue c. Factor score d. Factor loading

8 If a variable has a high loading on more than one factor, it means a. The variable is very important for all such factors b. The question on that variable has not been understood properly by the respondent c. The question on the variable has not been phrased properly d. Both (a) & (b) e. Both (b) &( c )

9 If there are 20 variables subjected to factor analysis and the first extracted factor has an eigenvalue of 4.5, the variance explained by this factor is a. 77.5% b. 4.5% c. 22.5% d. None of the above

10 Factor analysis may be inappropriate if a. Correlation matrix of variables is insignificant b. There is no dependent variable c. Sample size is six times the number of variables d. None of the above is correct

11 If a variable does not have a high loading on any factor a. Its communality is likely to be low b. The variable could be eliminated if it is not important to achieve the objective of the

study c. Factor analysis is not an important technique to analyse the data d. Both ( a) and ( c) e. Both (a) and (b)

12 Rotation of factor analysis solution results in a. Better interpretation of the factor solution b. A change in the proportion of variance explained by any factor c. A change in the communality of any one variable d. Both ( a ) and ( b)

13 The sum of the squares of factor loadings corresponding to a given factor is called a. Eigenvalue b. Communality c. Factor score coefficient d. KMO statistic

14 The communality for a variable under principal component and varimax rotation a. are equal b. communality under principal component is higher than the varimax rotation c. communality under principal component is less under varimax rotation d. communality under varimax rotation is 2.5 times that of principal component

15 If 50 variables subjected to factor analysis results in three factors with eigenvalues 10, 8 and 7 the total variance explained is a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. None of the above

16 Factor scores provide a solution to the problem of multicollinearity as they a. are linear combination of variables b. replace explanatory variables

c. are statistically independent d. are standardized

17 Which of the following statements is false? a. The Bartlet test of sphericity should be significant for the application of factor analysis b. The variance explained by individual factor under principal component and varimax

rotation are same c. As per Kaiser-Guttman method, all the factors having eigenvalue less than one are

rejected d. All the above statements are false.

18 If a communality of a variable is 0.79. it means a. 21% of the information content of the variable is explained by the extracted factors. b. 79% of the information content of the variable is explained by the extracted factors. c. The correlation coefficient of the variable with the factor is 0.79. d. 79% of the time, this solution would be obtained if exercise is carried on 100 different

types of data.

19 Which of the following techniques reduces a large number of measured variables in terms of a few categories a. Regression analysis b. Discriminant analysis c. Factor analysis d. Cluster analysis

20 For conducting factor analysis, the size of the sample should be how many times the number of observations a. 2 or 3 b. 3 or 4 c. 4 or 5 d. 5 or 6

21 By using principal component analysis, the eigenvalues obtained were 3.6, 2.7, 1.3, 0.8, 0.7, 0.3, 0.2. 0.18, 0.16, 0.08. How many factors would be retained using eigenvalues to determine the number of factors? a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

22 Which of following statements is not true? a. Rotation influences communalities and percentage of total variance explained

b. Factor scores are statistically independent c. A factor is a linear combination of variables d. Factor loading is a simple correlation between the variable and factor

For question 23 to 26 use the following factor loading matrix

Variable Factor

1

Factor

2

Factor

3

1 0.8 0.3 0.4

2 0.3 0.9 0.2

3 0.7 0.6 0.3

4 0.2 0.1 0.8

5 -0.9 0.3 0.1

6 0.4 0.8 0.3

23 Which variable is most poorly accounted for by three factor solution a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

24 What percentage of variations is accounted for by first factor? a. 27.28% b. 37.17% c. 33.33% d. 39.26%

25 The communality of the first variable is a. 0.94 b. 0.86 c. 0.69 d. 0.89

26 The total variance explained by three factor is a. 69.00% b. 75.00% c. 87.67% d. 78.00%

27 If there are five variables to be factor analysed, the maximum number of factors that can be extracted is a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. ⁴ e. None of the above

28 Which of the following is not a decision to be made while subjecting the data to factor analysis? a. Choice of dependent variable b. Applicability of factor analysis to data c. Labeling of factors d. None of the above

CHAPTER-17

Discriminant Analysis

1. The dependent variable in discriminant analysis is

a. Categorical (nominal scale)

b. Interval scale

c. Ratio scale


2. The number of discriminant function in Four-group discriminant analysis is

a. 4

b. 3

c. 2

d. 1

3. The basic principle behind estimating discriminant model is that

a. Ratio of between group sum of squares to total sum of squares be

maximized

b. Ratio of within group sum of squares to total sum of squares be

maximized

c. Ratio of between group sum of squares to within group sum of

squares be maximized


4. The relative importance of independent variables in discriminating between

groups is given by

a. Standardized discriminant function coefficients

b. Unstandarized discriminant function coefficients

c. Structure matix

d. Both ( a ) and ( c )

e. Both ( b ) and ( c )

5. The simple correlation coefficient between discriminant score and the group

membership is called

a. Eigenvalue

b. Canonical correlation

c. Wilks’ lambda

d. Hit ratio

6. If the square of canonical correlation coefficient is 0.58, it means

a. Hit ratio is 58%

b. Ratio of between sum of square to within sum of squares =0.58

c. That 58% of the variation in the discriminant model are explained by

the variations in the independent variables


7. The ration of between group variance to within group variance is called

a. Eigenvalue

b. Wilks’ lambda

c. Canonical correlation

d. Discriminant score

8. Discriminant score is obtained by substituting the values of the predictor variables

in

a. Standardized discriminant function

b. Unstandardized discriminant function

c. The structure matrix


9. The significance of Wilks’lambda is carried out by

a. F statistic

b. Z statistic

c. t statistic

d. chi-square statistic

10. The ratio of within group variance to total variance is called

a. Eigenvalue

b. Wilks’ lambda

c. Means square error

d. Canonical correlation

11. One reason for obtaining varied results for the relative importance of predictor

variables through standarised discriminant function and structure matrix is

a. The problem of multicollinearity among predictor variables

b. Zero correlation among predictor variables

c. Statistically difference in the means values of predictor variables in the

two groups


12. Before, the results of discriminant function are interpreted, on must examine the

a. The problem of multicollinearity among predictor variables

b. Significance of predictor variable

c. The significance of discriminant function


13. The value of Wilks’ lambda

a. Is greater than zero

b. Is less than zero

c. Is equal to one

d. Lies between zero and one

14. For a two group discriminant analysis, the mean discriminant score for group 1 is

18.2 and the mean discriminant score for group 2 is 24.6. The sample size for

both the groups is equal. Find the cut off score for classifying individuals into

two groups?

a. 23.4

b. 22.8

c. 21.4

d. 20.6

15. For a two group discriminant analysis, the mean discriminant score for group 1 is

20 and the mean discriminant score for group 2 is 30. There are 25 members in

the first group where as the sample size in second group is 20. What is the cut off

score for classifying individuals into two groups?

a. 24.75

b. 26.35

c. 24.25

d. 25.65

16. In a table of actual vs predicted, to determine hit ratio the analyst should focus

most on

a. Individual row total

b. Individual column total

c. Total number of elements in the diagonal of the table

d. Both the individual row and column total

17. The cut-off score in a discriminant analysis is the score that

a. Is used to classify objects

b. Is used to find out coefficients which are statistically significant

c. Is used to find the accuracy of group with large sample size

d. Divides the mean discriminant scores

e. Both (a) and (d) are correct

Use the following table to answer the next two questions

Actual Predicted

Car1 Car2

Car1 32 8 40

Car2 10 50 60

Total 42 58 100

18. The hit ratio in the above table is

a. 0.58

b. 0.82

c. 0.42

d. 0.60

19. The proportional chance criterion is

a. 0.60

b. 0.58

c. 0.52

d. 0.42

20. Which of following is true about maximum chance criterion and proportional

chance criterion?

a. Maximum chance criteria is greater than proportional chance criteria

b. Maximum chance criteria and proportional chance criteria are equal

when group sample sizes are equal

c. Maximum chance criteria is less than proportional chance criteria


21. The mean discriminant score for a group can be computed by

a. Substituting the mean of each variable in the group in the

unstandardized discriminant function

b. Taking the square root of cut-off score

c. Squaring the cut-off score

d. Substituting the mean of each variable in the group in the standardized

discriminant function

22. The hit ratio in a confusion matrix

a. Is obtained by dividing the total of rows by the entire sample size

b. Makes sense when there are at least three groups

c. Has meaning when all diagonal elements of confusion matrix are zero

d. None of the above statement is true

23. The correlation coefficient between discriminant score and independent variables

is used to obtain

a. Canonical correlation

b. Structure coefficients

c. Hit ratio

d. Wilks’ lambda


24. Which of the following statement is false?

a. Hit ratio is given by number of correct classification to total size of sample

b. Discriminant score is obtained using standardized discriminant

function

c. Maximum chance criteria is useful when the samples are of unequal size

d. All statements are correct

25. Which of the following is not the objective of discriminant analysis?

a. To find a linear combination of predictor variables that discriminate best

between categories of dependent variable

b. To find statistical significance of discriminant function

c. To evaluate the accuracy of classification

d. All of the above statements are true

26. In the discriminant analysis, the dependent variable is

a. Interval scale

b. Ratio scale

c. Nominal scale

d. All are true

27. In the estimated discriminant mode Y-

𝑌 = b0 + b1 x1 + ----------------------- bkxk ,𝑌 gives

a. Discriminant score

b. Standardized coefficients

c. Canonical correlation

d. Eigenvalue

28. If you are using leave one out classification in SPSS, you are

a. Computing structure coefficients

b. Testing validity of discriminant model

c. Computing standardized coefficients

d. Estimating Wilks’ lambda

CHAPTER – 18

Cluster Analysis

22. _____ is a multivariate technique that classifies objects or respondents into relatively homogeneous

groups.

a. Factor analysis

b. Cluster analysis

c. Discriminant analysis

d. Regression analysis

e. Conjoint analysis

23. Which of the following observations is not true about cluster analysis?

a. Cluster analysis is a technique for conducting analysis on data when the criterion or

dependent variable is non-metric and the independent variables are metric.

b. Cluster analysis is also called a classification technique.

c. Groups or clusters are suggested after analysis of the data and not determined a priori.

d. Cases in each cluster tend to be homogenous within themselves and heterogeneous as

compared to other clusters.

24. Cluster analysis has uses in all the following situations except:

a. Segmenting the market based on benefits sought from the purchase of a product

b. Identifying new product opportunities by clustering brands and products so that

competitive sets within the market can be determined

c. Selecting test markets

d. Determining how strongly sales are related to advertising expenditures

e. Career planning and training needs analysis

f. Grouping financial instruments

25. A _____ or tree graph is a graphical device for displaying the clustering results. The graph is

between inter-respondent distance and number of clusters.

a. Dendrogram

b. Scatter plot

c. Scree plot

d. Icicle diagram

e. Perceptual map

26. The initial cluster centres in a non-heirarchical clustering methods are also called

a. Entropy group

b. Cluster centroids

c. Cluster seeds

d. Cluster variates

27. A robust cluster solution is one in which the inter cluster distance is

a. Large

b. Small

c. The same

d. Does not have any bearing on the cluster solution

28. A _____ is a data matrix containing pair wise distances between objects or cases.

a. Classification matrix

b. Correlation matrix

c. Proximity matrix

d. Factor matrix

29. The most commonly used measure of similarity is the _____ or its square.

a. Simple matching coefficient

b. Jaccard coefficient

c. Gower’s formula

d. Euclidean distance

e. City-block distance

f. Chebychev’s distance

g. Manhattan distance

h. Both a & b

30. For non-metric data generally the measure used is

a. Simple matching coefficient

b. Gower’s formula

c. Euclidean distance

d. City-block distance

e. Chebychev’s distance

f. Manhattan distance

g. Both a & b

31. _____ is a method that provides information on the clustering object, starting with the most

similarpair and at each stage provides information on the object joining the pair at a later stage

a. Non-hierarchical method

b. Hierarchical method

c. Divisive method

d. Agglomerative schedule


32. Theaverage values of the objects on all variables in the cluster variate is called-------------

a. Cluster varaite

b. Cluster centroid

c. Cluster seed

d. Final cluster centre

33. The entropy group in cluster analysis is the group that

a. Has the largest number of cases

b. Is the most heterogeneous group amongst all clusters

c. Has the individuals who do not fit into any group

d. Has the smallest number of cases

e. a & b

f. c & d

34. The _____ method is based on the maximum distance between the two elements.

a. Single linkage

b. Centroid method

c. Complete linkage

d. Average linkage

e. Icicle diagram

35. The _____ method uses information from all the elements in the cluster rather than individual pairs.

Thus ensures that the homogeneity within cluster variance is highest.

a. Single linkage

b. Ward’s method

c. Centroid method

d. Complete linkage

e. Average linkage

36. The most commonly used agglomerative methods of hierarchical clustering is

a. Single linkage

b. Medium linkage

c. Centroid method

d. Complete linkage

e. Average linkage

37. The within cluster variance is reduced to a minimum in the …………………….method of

clustering

a. Single linkage

b. Ward’s method

c. Centroid method

d. Complete linkage

e. Average linkage

38. _____ is frequently referred to as k-means clustering.

a. Non-hierarchical clustering

b. Hierarchical methods

c. Ward’s method

d. Divisive clustering

e. Agglomerative clustering

39. The clustering method that allows for realignment of cases is

a. Non-hierarchical clustering

b. Hierarchical methods

c. Ward’s method

d. Optimizing procedures

e. Divisive clustering

f. Agglomerative clustering

40. The _____ is a non-hierarchical method in which a cluster seed is selected and all objects within a

pre-stated distance are selected and then one goes to the next seed and then the next.

a. Optimizing partitioning method

b. Sequential threshold method

c. Parallel threshold method

d. Ward’s procedure

e. Two-step clustering

41. The _____ is a nonhierarchical method that specifies several cluster seeds at once. All objects

within a pre-stated value from theseed are grouped together.






42. Which cluster analysis procedure can determine the optimal number of clusters by comparing the

values across different clustering solutions?






43. If you are performing cluster analysis on the same data using different clustering methods and then

comparing the results across methods to establish the stability of the solutions, you are at the -------

---------------- of the cluster analysis process.

a. Interpreting and profiling the clusters

b. Validating the solution

c. Deciding on the number of clusters

d. Selecting a clustering procedure

44. In non-hierarchical clustering methods to name the cluster one considers the variables that are

significant across clusters. For this the statistical technique used is

a. Chi-square

b. Student’s t-test

c. ANOVA

d. Correlation index

e. Principal component analysis

f. Hit ratio

45. For naming the clusters one makes use of the

a. Initial cluster centre

b. Cluster summary

c. Cluster seeds

d. Final cluster centre

e. Cluster membership

46. In the SPSS the cluster commands are listed under the

a. Data reduction techniques

b. Models

c. Scales

d. Classification techniques

e. Reliability analysis

CHAPTER – 19

Multi DimensionalScaling

1. _____ is a multivariate method for representing perceptions and preferences of respondents

spatially by means of a visual map.

a. Conjoint analysis

b. Correspondence analysis

c. Cluster analysis

d. Regression analysis

e. Multidimensional scaling

2. In multidimensional scaling the objects of comparison could be

a. Objects

b. Individuals brands

c. Financial instruments

d. Corporations

e. Countries

f. All of the above

g. None of the above

3. The grouping of data in a spatial map could be on the basis of

a. Derived dimensions

b. Perceived dimensions

c. Similarities

d. Dissimilarities

e. a &b

f. c& d

g. All of the above

4. The formula used to arrive at a robust MDS(Multi dimensional scaling) solution is

a. The squared Euclidean distance formula

b. Jaccard’s coefficient

c. Mahalabonis distance

d. Kruskal’s stress formula

5. Which of the following is not a computer program to arrive at a multidimensional solution

a. ALSCAL

b. PROXSCAL

c. PREFMAP

d. INDSCAL

e. All of the above can be used to arrive at a MDS solution

6. ……………………is the variance of disparities in an MDS solution. It is also called the index of

fit measure.

a. Stress formula

b. Squared correlation index

c. Multiple regression index

d. Squared Euclidean distance

7. MDS could be used for all of the following business situations except :

a. Scale construction

b. Consumer decision analysis

c. Brand image analysis

d. New product development

e. Assessing communication effectiveness

8. _____ is a lack of fit measure; highervalue indicates poorer fits.

a. Attribute levels

b. Stress

c. R-square

d. Relative importance weights

9. For the index of fit measure the --------------------the value the better the fit

a. Higher

b. Lower

c. Negative

d. Positive

10. _____ requires that the researcher to identify the purpose for which the MDS needs to be carried

out and select the brands or objects or cases that need to be grouped and are to be included in the

analysis.

a. Formulating the research objective

b. Obtaining input data

c. Selecting an MDS procedure

d. Deciding on the number of dimensions

11. In MDS it is advisable to have a minimum of _____ brands or objects in order to obtain a well-

defined spatial map. Including more than _____ brands is likely to be evaluate and interpret.

a. 6; 25

b. 8; 20

c. 8; 25

d. 6;25

12. As a thumb rule in MDS we select objects in a -----------------ratio of the dimensions desired

a. 4:1

b. 5:2

c. 6:1

d. 7:1

13. Which of the ways below is not a way in which preference data might be obtained?

a. The respondents are asked to rank brands from the most preferred to the least preferred.

b. The respondents are asked to rate all possible pairs of brands in terms of similarity

on a Likert scale.

c. The respondents are asked to make paired comparisons and indicate which brand in a pair

they prefer.

d. The respondentsare asked to give preference ratings for the various brands.

14. For identifying ideal number of dimensions which method in MDSentails plotting stress versus

dimensionality?

a. A priori knowledge

b. Interpretability of the spatial map

c. Ease of use

d. Scree plot

e. Dendrogram

f. Icicle plot

15. Values of .60 or better are considered acceptable values of _____ for an acceptable MDS solution

a. stress

b. R-square

c. Relative importance weights

d. Squared euclidean distance

e. Matching coefficient

16. Which of the Kruskal’s stress formula values below represent a perfect fit of the MDS model?

a. 20

b. 10

c. 5

d. 0

17. -----------------Is a method of obtaining a perceptual map where joint space can show attributes

and brands on the same spatial map.

a. Multidimensional scaling

b. Cluster analysis

c. Conjoint analysis

d. Correspondence analysis

e. Chaid analysis

18. Multivariate technique(s) that can be used to draw attribute based perceptual maps are/is

a. Factor analysis

b. Discriminant analysis

c. Regression analysis

d. Multi dimensional scaling

e. a & b

f. a & d

g. All of the above can be used.

19. The Kruskal’s stress scores are the discrepancy scores obtained between

a. Objects and dimensions

b. Derived distance and actual distance

c. Similarity and dissimilarity


20. The strength of the MDS solution can be established by

a. The Kruskal stress formula

b. Index of fit

c. Split half reliability index

d. Leave one out technique

e. All of the above

f. None of the above

21. The stress value ---------------------- as one ----------------------the number of dimensions

a. Increases; decreases

b. Decreases; increases

c. Stabilizes; increases

d. Remains the same regardless of the dimensions

22. The command for conducting an MDS in SPSS lies in the

a. Classification

b. Data reduction

c. Scale

d. Model

CHAPTER – 20

Report Writing and Presentation of Results

47. Which statement is not true about the report preparation and presentation process?

a. The findings should be presented in such a way that they can be used directly as input

into decision making.

b. Conclusions and limitations should be clearly spelt out

c. Conclusions can be converted into actions and implemented in the organization(s)

studied.

d. The researcher should assist the client in understanding the report.

e. The researcher should assist the client in drawing recommendations from the findings.

48. Working papers have all the following details except maybe:

a. Scope and framework of the study

b. Methodology of the study

c. Results and findings of the study

d. Study background

e. All are sections in the working paper

49. All elements of a typical research report would definitely be found in the

a. Working paper

b. Technical report

c. Business report

d. Survey report

50. A business report should do all of the following except:

a. Be written for a specific reader or readers

b. Take into account the reader’s technical sophistication and interest in the project

c. Use technical jargon

d. Have an action /applied orientation.

e. Must have pictorial representations of the results

51. Information such as the title of the report, information about the researcher or organization

conducting the research, the name of the business manager and the time period of the

studygenerally are available in the _____.

a. Title page

b. Letter of transmittal

c. Letter of authorization

d. Executive summary

52. The letter of transmittal has all the following elements except:

a. Summarizes the researcher’s overall research experience

b. Is generally informal in format

c. Methodology used in the study

d. Identifies the need for further action on the part of the client

e. All of the above

53. The _____ grants the researcher permission to go ahead with the study and specifies the scope

and the terms of the contract.

a. Title page




54. The _____ is often the only portion of the marketing research report that business managers read.

a. Title page




55. A list of tables, list of graphs, list of appendices, and list of exhibits are usually found in the

_____section of the research report.

a. Table of contents

b. Preliminary

c. Background


e. Study introduction and background

56. The methodology of research section includes all the following except

a. Sampling design

b. Research framework

c. Data collection methods

d. Glossary of terms

e. Method of analysis

57. In the __________, along with the details of the cited work, brief information about the

article/paper is also given

a. Selected bibliography

b. Annotated bibliography

c. Complete bibliography

d. Glossary of terms

e. References

58. Which of the following are/is NOT a feature of a good research report?

a. Details of the report mandate

b. Representativeness of findings

c. Details of designed methodology

d. Details of the results

e. Payment details of the research agency

59. In a tabular representation the title of the table must have all the following features except

a. It must be short

b. It must have the identification details

c. It must have the identification number

d. It can make active use of nouns

e. It can make active use of verbs and articles

60. In a tabular representation the data sources are usually given in the

a. Footnote

b. Table heading

c. Bibliography

d. As a special mention

61. In a tabular representation in case there are too many parameters they should be separated by

a. Vertical spaces

b. Vertical rulings

c. Vertical leaders

d. Horizontal leaders

62. The __________ section of the research report presents the information based on the discussions

with the decision makers and industry experts, and discusses the secondary data analysis, the

qualitative research that was conducted, and the factors that were considered.

a. Table of contents

b. Preliminary section

c. Executive summary

d. Title page

e. Problem statement

f. None of the above

63. When discussing the caveats of the study, the restraints and shortfalls in data collection, sampling

design or the scope of the study, one is writing the ____________section of the research report.

a. Study background

b. Conclusions of the study

c. Findings of the study

d. Problem definition

e. Limitations of the study

64. A __________ can be used to present absolute and relative magnitudes, differences, and change.

a. Line chart

b. Pictograph

c. Bar chart

d. Histogram

65. __________ can be used to display the steps or components of a process.

a. Pie charts

b. Pictographs

c. Flow charts

d. Geographic maps

e. Histograms

66. In a line graph within a research report, the__________ variable is generally shown on the

Y- axis; the__________variable is put on the X- axis.

a. Independent; dependent

b. Dependent; independent

c. Interdependent; spontaneous

d. Spontaneous; dependent

67. _______________ are the best form of visual representations of demonstrating changes in

patterns over time

a. Area charts

b. Line graphs

c. Curve graphs

d. Pictographs

e. Pie charts

68. In a research report, detailed calculations should be placed in the __________ of the report.

a. Executive summary

b. Appendix

c. Main body

d. Table of contents

e. Figures and tables

69. In a research report, the section which gives the definition of the technical and atypical terms

used in the study is the

a. Bibliography

b. Glossary

c. Table of contents

d. List of tables

e. Pictographs

70. When preparing an oral presentation one must keep in mind

a. Who is the audience

b. What does he/she hope to gain from the presentation

c. What should be the core of the briefing

d. What are the key action areas of the study

e. All of the above are important.

71. The allocation of time between study background; study findings and study implications , as a

thumb rule should be

a. 10: 45:45

b. 30: 35:35

c. 35:35:30

d. 20:40:40

Documents

CHAPTER 11 Univariate and Bivariate Analysis of Data