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1
Samarth Agarwal
Test Duration: 45 minutes- 60 minutes
1. The best way to make your burgers taste yummy is _______ the patties with lots of scrumptious
mayo and cheese. You can also add red meat, boiled bone less chicken and mix it with black
pepper powder. Place chopped cabbage, carrots, and smashed potatoes. If you are a big fan of
cheese, then you can add grated cottage cheese to make your burger ______. Finally you can
grill the burger to melt the cheese and it will also help the vegetables to get semi-cooked.
a. Filling – Yummier
b. Finally – Black
c. Pepper – Burger
d. Cheese – Vegetable
e. Best – Grated
2. A very scrumptious fresh pressed cheese from the Auvergne Mountains is ----------- as one of the
best cheese in the whole world. Cantal is a cheese that many believe to be very close to an
English cottage cheddar or also called as chester.
a. Believe
b. Cottage
c. Cheese
d. Considered
e. Cheddar
3. Kerala is a beautiful state -- -- -- -- -- on the Malabar Coast. It is recognized for its natural
exquisiteness. Geologically, it lies among Lakshadweep Sea and Western Ghats, which causes
the weather of the state to be equatorial tropic. On the other hand, the climatic conditions
differ according to the geographic position.
a. Situated
b. According
c. Geographic
d. Differ
e. Climatic
4. Romans were -- -- -- -- -- of old and antique wines, sometimes the wines are 30 years old
according to the evidence found in some Roman writings. Either they corrected the first sealed
vessel or they liked tarnished wine. The Romans were the first people to make -- -- -- -- -- of
earthenware jugs for preserving wine.
a. Fond – Use
b. Wines – Corrected
c. Romans – Liked
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d. Tarnished – Wine
e. People – Wine
5. The first and important beer ----------- in the test market of Richmond, California. The American
Can Corporation had been testing with the plan of wrapping beer in cans since 1880.
a. Appeared
b. Corporation
c. Wrapping
d. Beer
e. California
6. Red Fort, Delhi is -- -- -- -- -- on the banks of the Yamuna River in the 16th century. The Red Fort
also called as Lal Qila was the made by the Mughal monarch King Shah Jahan. This is also -- -- -- -
- -- as the shajahan's current capital, Shahjahanabad, and is the seventh popular Muslim city in
Delhi.
a. Situated – Called
b. Monarch – Mughal
c. King – Seventh
d. Muslim – Century
e. Current – Popular
7. Eskimos have an extremely urbanized art and are trained carvers of woods and walrus tusks.
Their dress is nearly or entirely made up of furs and they usually use sleds pulled by wolfs for -- -
- -- -- -- in wintry weather, and skin-covering canoes or kayaks in hot season. They chase in little
groups and are very independent and self-determining.
a. Transportation
b. Chase
c. Nearly
d. Groups
e. Weather
8. This is actually no-brainer. With all of the freshening elements both within and outer surface of
your home, you will have to be sure to -- -- -- -- -- yourself after every bath or after every face
cleaning. If you have oily skin, then try and use oil-free moisturizer and apply the moisturizer
when your skin is damp.
a. Damp
b. Moisturize
c. Oily skin
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d. Apply
e. Bath
Choose correct antonyms…
9. Amplify: -- -- -- -- --
a. Plenty
b. Opportunity
c. Simplify
d. Travel
e. Costume
10. Aptitude: -- -- -- --
a. Enemy
b. Solitude
c. Lack of talent
d. Destroy
e. Humor
11. Anathema: -- -- -- -- --
a. Prayer
b. Holy
c. Numb
d. Blessings
e. Cruel
Mark the correct analogies
12. Literate: Educated :: Logical: -- -- -- -- --
a. Reasonable
b. Non- Valid
c. Immune
d. Complain
e. Length
13. Immune: Resistant::Impact: -- -- -- -- --
a. Contact
b. Collision
c. Call
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d. Candy
e. Cumin
14. Fabric: Textile::Fabulous: -- -- -- -- --
a. Lame
b. Dull
c. Sick
d. Wonderful
e. Logical
15. Habitat: Environment::Habitual: -- -- -- -- --
a. Regular
b. Bore
c. Home
d. Schedule
e. Routine
16. Quantity 1: (-9)8
Quantity 2: (-8)2
a. Quantity 1 is greater than quantity 2
b. Quantity 2 is greater than quantity 1
c. Both the quantities are equal
d. There is no relationship between the two quantities
17. 2. Quantity 1: (6/12)4
Quantity 2: (6/12)1/2
a. Quantity 2 is greater than quantity 1
b. Quantity 1 is greater than quantity 2
c. Both quantities are equal
d. There is no relationship between both the quantities
18. e = 3s + 6
And s = 3
Assume that quantity 1 is (e) and quantity 2 is 15. Determine whether
a. Quantity 1 is greater than 2
b. Quantity 2 is greater than 1
c. Both quantities are equal
d. The relationship between the two quantities cannot be determined
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Samarth Agarwal
19. V = 0.36
W = 0.42 / 3
a. V is greater than W
b. W is greater than V
c. X is equal to W
d. There is no relation between V and W
20. m < 2 and n > 2
Quantity 1: nm
Quantity 2: mn
a. Both the quantities are equal
b. 1 is less than 2
c. 2 is less than 1
d. No relation
21. If |m – 3| = 4m – 5, then which of the following could be the value of m?
a. 98
b. 6
c. 85
d. 2
e. 47
22. If w = 2/3 and a = 6 then a/w + 4/w2 =
a. 323
b. 76
c. 10
d. 11
e. 2346
23. If u = cos Θ and v = sin Θ, then for all Θ, u2 + v2 =
a. 12
b. 1
c. 23
d. 78
e. 78
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24. A skating champion moves along the circumference of a circle of radius 21 meters in 44 seconds.
How many seconds will it take her to move along the perimeter of a hexagon of side 42 meters?
a. 56
b. 84
c. 64
d. 48
25. The head of a fish is 6 inches long. Its tail is as long as its head and half its body. If its body is half
of its whole length, how long is the fish?
a. 16 inches
b. 24 inches
c. 32 inches
d. 48 inches
26. A bartender has two casks full of mixture of vodka and tomato juice. The ratio of vodka and
tomato juice in the first and second cask is 3:10 and 8:15 respectively. In what proportion should
the mixtures be mixed to satisfy a customer who likes vodka and tomato juice in the ratio 7:16?
a. 1 : 2
b. 117 : 213
c. 13 : 22
d. 2 : 3
27. The distance between the points (-6, 17) and (-6, -17) is
a. 9
b. 19
c. 56
d. 29
e. 74
28. If 7a + 2b = 11 and a - 2b = 5, then what is the value of a?
a. - 5.0
b. - 8.5
c. - 0.8
d. 1.9
e. 2.0
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Samarth Agarwal
29. A broker has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six of the political parties. The offices
are numbered 1 - 6. The offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other
by five foot high dividers. Thus the voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one
office to another. Miss Anne needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr.
Taylor and Mr. Benz need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often during their
work. Miss Stuart is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office number 5, having the
biggest window. Mr. Warne requires silence in the offices next to him. Mr. Tom, Mr. Taylor and
Mr. Warne are all smokers. Miss Stuart is allergic to tobacco smoking and thus the offices next
to hers needs to be occupied by the non-smokers. Moreover all the employees are supposed to
maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hours unless it is stated specifically.
The ideal candidate to occupy the office furthest from Mr. Benz would be?
a. Miss Stuart
b. Mr. Taylor
c. Mr. Tom
d. Miss Anne
e. Mr. Warne
30. Which of the following events would result in a request for a change in the office by one or
more employees, within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices?
a. Mr. Warne quitting smoking.
b. The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Miss Stuart in her office.
c. Miss Anne's need for silence in the office/offices next to her own.
d. Mr. Benz suffering from tuberculosis.
e. Mr. Tom taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Miss. Anne
31. A milkman mixes 20 liters of water with 80 liters of milk. After selling one fourth of this mixture,
he adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of
water to milk?
a. 2:3
b. 1:2
c. 1:3
d. 3:4
32. If a man cycles at 10 km/hr, then he arrives at a certain place at I p.m. If he cycles at 15 km/ hr,
he will arrive at the same place at 11 a.m. At what speed must he cycle to get there at noon?
a. 11 km/hr
b. 12 km/hr
c. 13 Km/hr
d. 14 Km/hr
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Samarth Agarwal
In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C such that each
group contains at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in
group B carries 2 marks and each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the
questions in group A together carry at least 60% of the total marks.
33. If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. Cannot be determined
34. If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the
following best describes the number of questions in group B?
a. 11 or 12
b. 12 or 13
c. 13 or 14
d. 14 or 15
In each question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered I to 4.
Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
35. FALLOUT
a. Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation.
b. People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.
c. Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?
d. The headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the
Public examination.
36. PASSING
a. She did not have passing marks in mathematics
b. The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.
c. At the birthday party all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
d. A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital
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Samarth Agarwal
37. BOLT
a. The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.
b. 2. As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
c. 3. Could you please bolt the door?
d. 4. The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.
38. REACH
a. Home loans have brought houses within the reach of the common man.
b. The boat reached the island under the cover of darkness.
c. The union and the management failed to reach an agreement.
d. Modern psychology seeks to explore the deep reach of the human mind.
39. FILTER
a. Most of the vehicles filtered to the left.
b. The preliminary test filters out those students who are not good at mathematics.
c. The new policies adopted by the management have not yet filtered down to the staff.
d. As soon as the doors of the museum were opened the people started filtering through.
40. The sentences given in each of the following questions, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. From among the four choices given
below each question, choose the most logical order of sentences that constructs a coherent
paragraph.
A. It is humanly impossible to read the hundreds of books which come out every month.
B. By going through book covers, reviews and gossips about authors anyone can take part in
any literary discussion.
C. All of us like to be, or pretend to be well read, take part in literary proceedings and pepper
our conversations with quotes.
D. The trick is to understand that even a slight familiarity with books and authors is enough to
put on a show of enlightenment.
E. No one is obliged to read all the books, yet we can talk and argue about them.
F. We can even have passionate literary exchanges on books we have not read at all.
Correct Sequence is,
a. cdefab
b. cefdba
c. efdcba
d. caefbd