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Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456 Level - II SECTION - A Objective Type Questions (Blood) 1. T-lymphocytes mature in (1) Bone marrow (2) Lymph nodes (3) Bursa of fabricius (4) Thymus Sol. Answer (4) Thymus is the primary lymphoid organ where maturation of T lymphocytes takes place. B cell maturation occurs in bone marrow. 2. The granulocyte to arrive first at the site of an infection is (1) Neutrophil (2) Eosinophil (3) Basophil (4) All of these Sol. Answer (1) Neutrophils : They are the most abundant leucocytes (60–65%), which have phagocytic nature i.e., they engulf the harmful germ. Eosinophils (2–3% of total leucocytes) : Their number increases in people with allergic condition such as asthma or hay fever. Basophils (0–1% of total leucocytes (least)) : They release heparin, serotonin and histamine. 3. A person with blood group O will have _____ antibody/antibodies in plasma. (1) anti-B (2) anti-A (3) nil (4) anti-A and anti-B Sol. Answer (4) Individual with O group (universal donor) cannot receive A and B blood because of the presence anti-A and anti-B antibodies in its plasma. 4. Clotting of blood involves (1) Hemolysis of RBCs (2) Denaturation of albumins by thrombin (3) Inactivation of plasma clotting factors (4) Change of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin Sol. Answer (4) Chapter 5 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions Level - II

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Page 1: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

Level - II

SECTION - A

Objective Type Questions

(Blood)

1. T-lymphocytes mature in

(1) Bone marrow (2) Lymph nodes (3) Bursa of fabricius (4) Thymus

Sol. Answer (4)

Thymus is the primary lymphoid organ where maturation of T lymphocytes takes place.

B cell maturation occurs in bone marrow.

2. The granulocyte to arrive first at the site of an infection is

(1) Neutrophil (2) Eosinophil (3) Basophil (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (1)

Neutrophils : They are the most abundant leucocytes (60–65%), which have phagocytic nature i.e., they

engulf the harmful germ.

Eosinophils (2–3% of total leucocytes) : Their number increases in people with allergic condition such as

asthma or hay fever.

Basophils (0–1% of total leucocytes (least)) : They release heparin, serotonin and histamine.

3. A person with blood group O will have _____ antibody/antibodies in plasma.

(1) anti-B (2) anti-A

(3) nil (4) anti-A and anti-B

Sol. Answer (4)

Individual with O group (universal donor) cannot receive A and B blood because of the presence anti-A and

anti-B antibodies in its plasma.

4. Clotting of blood involves

(1) Hemolysis of RBCs (2) Denaturation of albumins by thrombin

(3) Inactivation of plasma clotting factors (4) Change of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin

Sol. Answer (4)

Chapter 5

Body Fluids and Circulation

Solutions

Level - II

Page 2: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II)

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

Platelet factor 3(Thromboplastin)

Blood platelets

Disintegrate and release

Thromboplastin(Phospholipid)

Injured tissue

Release

Ca2+

Prothrombin(Inactive plasma protein)

Ca2+

Thrombin (Active)

Fibrinogen(Soluble)

ThrombinFibrin(Insoluble)

FibrinPolymerization

Fibres(Clot)

5. If RBCs are placed in distilled water, the corpuscles will

(1) Burst (2) Increase in number (3) Shrink (4) Stick to each other

Sol. Answer (1)

When the RBCs are placed in water, the water moves from surrounding into the RBC by osmosis, which results

in swelling or bursting of RBC due to excess of water.

6. Universal recipient blood group is

(1) A+ (2) AB+ (3) B+ (4) O+

Sol. Answer (2)

Person with AB blood group have neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies but have both antigens (A and B).

7. A person with antigen A on RBC and antibody ‘B’ in plasma belongs to blood group

(1) A (2) B (3) O (4) AB

Sol. Answer (1)

Person having A blood group have antigen A on RBC and antibody b in plasma.

8. The middle man of the body is

(1) Blood (2) Plasma (3) Lymph (4) Serum

Sol. Answer (3)

Lymph acts as 'middle man' which transports oxygen, food materials, hormone etc. to the body cells and

bring carbon dioxide and other metabolic wastes, from the body cells to blood and then finally pour the same

into the venous system.

(Lymph)

9. Lymph nodes

(1) Filter the lymph (2) Contain phagocytic cells

(3) Responsible for lymphocyte activation (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Page 3: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

59Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Body Fluids and Circulation

Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456

• Lymph is filtered through lymph nodes and they are abundant in neck, groin and armpits.

• Lymph nodes contain phagocytic cell which help to remove pathogens.

• Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and then lymph transports lymphocytes and antibodies from the lymph

nodes to the blood.

10. Lymph differs from blood in possessing

(1) More proteins and less waste products (2) Less proteins and more waste products

(3) More proteins and more waste products (4) Less proteins and less waste products

Sol. Answer (2)

Blood Lymph

Consist mainly of plasma, RBC, WBC and platelets.

In plasma, more protein, Ca and phosphorus.

Amount of CO and metabolic

waste is normal.

•2

Consist of plasma, WBC.

In plasma, have few protein, Ca and phosphorus.

Amount of CO and metabolic

waste is much more.

•2

11. Read the following:

a. Lymph absorbs and transports fat from the intestine.

b. Lymph nodes produce fibrinogen.

c. Lymphatic capillaries present in the intestinal villi are known as lacteals.

d. Lymph transports oxygen only.

Which of these statements are true?

(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) c, d (4) a, b

Sol. Answer (1)

Statement b, is false because lymph nodes produce lymphocytes, not fibrinogen.

Statement d, is false, because lymph does not only transport O2 but it also transports CO

2, nutrients,

hormone etc.

(Circulatory Pathways)

12. Blood pumped by the heart passes into sinuses in

(1) Fishes (2) Earthworms (3) Insects (4) Birds

Sol. Answer (3)

Arthropods (insects) and noncephalopod molluscs have open circulatory system i.e., blood pumped by heart

passes through large vessels into open spaces or body cavity called sinus, while fishes, earthworm and birds

have closed circulatory system.

13. A patch of nodal tissue responsible for initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is present in

(1) Lower left corner of the left ventricle (2) Upper right corner of the right atrium

(3) Lower left corner of the right ventricle (4) Upper left corner of the left atrium

Sol. Answer (2)

A patch of nodal tissue responsible initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is SAN (Sino Atrial Node)

which is located at upper right corner of the right atrium.

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14. Repolarisation of the ventricles is represented by

(1) P-wave (2) QRS-wave

(3) T-wave (4) Both P and T-wave

Sol. Answer (3)

P Q S

R

T

P Wave : Depolarisation of atria leads to contraction of the atria.

QRS wave : Depolarisation of ventricle, which initiates ventricle contraction.

T wave : Represents the return of the ventricles from the excited to normal state i.e., repolarization of the

ventricles occur. End of T-wave mark the end of systole.

15. Time interval between the closure of semilunar valve and closure of AV valve is

(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s

(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.7 s

Sol. Answer (2)

Time interval between the closure of semilunar valve and closure of AV valve is the ventricular diastole time,

which is equal to 0.5 seconds.

16. If one litre of blood is drawn out of 5 litres from the body of man, how much blood would be left by the next

day?

(1) 5 litres (2) 4.5 litres (3) 4 litres (4) 3 litres

Sol. Answer (1)

Blood lost is compensated by blood cells formed by the bone marrow and RBCs stored in spleen and liquid

content is provided from outside in the form of fluid etc, to compensate for plasma.

17. The two auricles are demarcated externally from the ventricle by an irregular groove called

(1) Inter-auricular septum

(2) Inter-ventricular septum

(3) Coronary sulcus

(4) Inter-ventricular groove

Sol. Answer (3)

Coronary sulcus demarcated auricles from ventricle externally.

18. A cardiac cycle involves

(1) Joint diastole-ventricular systole-auricular systole

(2) Auricular systole-ventricular systole-complete cardiac diastole

(3) Auricular systole-joint diastole-ventricular systole

(4) Auricular systole-ventricular diastole-joint diastole

Sol. Answer (2)

Page 5: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

61Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Body Fluids and Circulation

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Ventricularsystole 0.3 s

Auricular systole0.1 s

Cardiac cycle (0.8 second)

19. The duration of the ventricular diastole in a normal cardiac cycle is

(1) 0.3 second

(2) 0.5 second

(3) 0.4 second

(4) 0.7 second

Sol. Answer (2)

Ventricular systole duration = 0.3 seconds

Ventricular diastole duration = 0.8 – 0.3 = 0.5 seconds

20. Chordae tendinae in the heart are found in

(1) Ventricle

(2) Left auricle

(3) Right auricle

(4) Interventricular septum

Sol. Answer (1)

Chordae tendinae are the special fibrous cords that are attached to the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves

at one end and their other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with the special muscles known as papillary

muscle.

21. A portal system is one in which

(1) A vein starts from an organ and ends up in heart

(2) A vein starts from an organ and ends up in another organ

(3) A vein starts from heart and ends up in lungs

(4) None of these

Sol. Answer (2)

Heart

Organ 1 Organ 2

Portal systemArtery

Vein

Portal

Vein

Page 6: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

62 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II)

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(Double circulation)

22. Match column I with column II

Column I Column II

a. Capillaries (i) Valves

b. Veins (ii) Smooth muscles

c. Aorta (iii) Narrowest blood vessels

d. Tunica media (iv) Elastic artery

Select the option which shows the correct match.

(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

Sol. Answer (3)

Capillaries are the narrowest blood vessels through which the exchange of gases and nutrient between the

blood and the tissue fluid occurs.

Veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood.

Aorta is an artery, which has thick elastic membrane in tunica interna.

Tunica media : It is the middle layer in the wall of artery and have smooth muscles mainly.

23. There is no capillary system in case of most of the invertebrates except

(1) Crustaceans (2) Cephalopods (3) Insects (4) Gastropods

Sol. Answer (2)

Cephalopods have closed circulatory system, rest all i.e. crustaceans, insect and gastropods have open

circulatory system.

24. The opening of pulmonary vein is without valve because

(1) It is a very small aperture (2) It has low blood pressure

(3) Its opening is oblique (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Veins have valves which prevent backward flow of blood except pulmonary vein because it has oblique opening.

25. The course of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called

(1) Systemic circulation (2) Pulmonary circulation (3) Single circulation (4) Double circulation

Sol. Answer (2)

Pulmonary circulation = Right ventricle

↓Lungs

↓Left atrium

↓Systemic circulation = Left ventricle

↓Body parts

↓Right auricle

Double circulation = Pulmonary circulation + Systemic circulation

Page 7: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

63Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Body Fluids and Circulation

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26. Hepatic portal system is present in

(1) Fishes, Amphibians and Reptiles (2) Reptiles and Birds

(3) All mammals (4) All vertebrates

Sol. Answer (4)

Hepatic portal system is characteristic feature of all vertebrates.

(Regulation of Cardiac Activity)

27. The strength of ventricular contraction increases when SAN is stimulated by

(1) Vagus nerve (2) Parasympathetic nerve (3) Sympathetic nerve (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Sympathetic nerve endings release adrenaline which stimulates the SAN. This accelerates the heart beat,

the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output.

(Disorders of Circulatory System)

28. Murmur occurs due to defect in

(1) Heart valves (2) SA node (3) Bundle of His (4) Purkinje fibres

Sol. Answer (1)

In case of defective or damaged heart valves, their improper closure leads to leakage of blood which produces

an abnormal sound referred to as heart murmur.

29. Complete stoppage of heart beat is known as

(1) Cardiac arrest (2) Myocardial infarction (3) Angina pectoris (4) Heart failure

Sol. Answer (1)

Cardiac arrest → Complete stoppage of heart beat

Myocardial infarction → Heart attack

Angina pectoris → Chest pain

Heart failure → Heart stops pumping

30. Which of the following diseases is also known as atherosclerosis?

(1) Hypertension (2) Angina pectoris

(3) Heart attack (4) Coronary artery disease (CAD)

Sol. Answer (4)

Hypertension – High blood pressure

Angina pectoris – Chest pain

Heart attack – Myocardial infarction

Coronary Artery Disease(CAD) – Atherosclerosis

31. Artificial pacemaker is required when a person is suffering from

(1) Arteriosclerosis (2) Atherosclerosis

(3) Irregularity of heart beat (4) Hypertension

Sol. Answer (3)

Artificial pacemaker : The SA node is the natural pacemaker of heart. When it does not work properly an

artificial pacemaker is implanted so that the normal heart heat can be restored and maintained.

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32. What would happen if there is failure of receiving the atrial impulse by the ventricles or completely independent

contraction of the atria and the ventricles?

A – Ventricular escape

B – Stokes - Adams syndrome

C – Irregularity in heart rhythm

D – Arteriosclerosis

(1) A only (2) A and B

(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D

Sol. Answer (3)

Ventricular escape or Stokes Adams Syndrome : In this atrial impulse suddenly fails to be transmitted to the

ventricle.

SECTION - B

Previous Years Questions

1. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I Column II

a. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle

b. Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

c. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle

a b c [NEET-2018]

(1) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iii)

Sol. Answer (1)

Tricuspid valves are AV valve present between right atrium and right ventricle. Bicuspid valves are AV valve

present between left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are present at the opening of aorta and

pulmonary artery.

2. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :

Column I Column II

a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance

b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting

c. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism

a b c [NEET-2018]

(1) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii)

Sol. Answer (3)

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65Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Body Fluids and Circulation

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Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during coagulation. These strands forms a network and the meshes of which

are occupied by blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.

Antibodies are derived from γ-Globulin fraction of plasma proteins which means globulins are involved in defence

mechanisms.

Albumin is a plasma protein mainly responsible for maintaining osmotic balance.

3. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from [NEET-2017]

(1) Heart (2) Stomach

(3) Kidneys (4) Intestine

Sol. Answer (4)

In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver.

4. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for

this feature? [NEET-2017]

(a) They do not need to reproduce

(b) They are somatic cells

(c) They do not metabolize

(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

Sol. Answer (1)

In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during maturation which provide more space for oxygen carrying pigment

(Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the cell organelles including mitochondria so respires anaerobically.

5. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of

blood from the body. [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]

(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes

(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes

Sol. Answer (4)

Reduction in thrombocytes (platelets) can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the

body.

6. Serum differs from blood in [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]

(1) Lacking globulins (2) Lacking albumins

(3) Lacking clotting factors (4) Lacking antibodies

Sol. Answer (3)

Serum is plasma without clotting factors. It never clot.

7. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is [NEET-2016]

(1) Less than that in the venae cavae (2) Same as that in the aorta

(3) More than that in the carotid (4) More than that in the pulmonary vein

Sol. Answer (4)

Blood pressure in different blood vessels: Artery > Arteriole > Capillary > Venule > Vein (Vena cava)

Page 10: Body Fluids and Circulation...58 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II) Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New

66 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment (Level-II)

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8. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea? [NEET-2016]

(1) Hepatic Portal Vein (2) Renal Vein (3) Dorsal Aorta (4) Hepatic Vein

Sol. Answer (4)

Urea is synthesized in liver, so maximum amount of urea is present in hepatic vein and minimum in renal vein.

9. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because [NEET-2016]

(1) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals

(2) It is easier to carry a small body weight

(3) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate

(4) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement

Sol. Answer (3)

Basal metabolic rate is inversely proportional to body size, hence, smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.

10. Which one of the following is correct? [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets (2) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes

(3) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (4) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC

Sol. Answer (1)

Serum = Plasma – Clotting factor.

11. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Diastole of the right atrium (2) Systole of the left atrium

(3) Diastole of the right ventricle (4) Systole of the left ventricle

Sol. Answer (4)

Aorta carries oxygenated blood from left ventricle to the different body parts.

12. Erythropoiesis starts in [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Red bone marrow (2) Kidney (3) Liver (4) Spleen

Sol. Answer (3)

13. A man with blood group 'A' marries a woman with blood group 'B'. What are all the possible blood groups of

their offsprings? [AIPMT-2015]

(1) O only (2) A and B only (3) A, B and AB only (4) A, B, AB and O

Sol. Answer (4)

14. How does parasympathetic neural signal affect the working of the heart? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output

(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase

(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

Sol. Answer (1)

Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart rate and

cardiac output.

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15. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma

(2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma

(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma

(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

Sol. Answer (1)

Person with blood group AB has both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.

16. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the [NEET-2013]

R

P Q ST

(1) Initiation of the ventricular contraction

(2) Beginning of the systole

(3) End of systole

(4) Contraction of both the atria

Sol. Answer (4)

17. Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its

function/s [NEET-2013]

DA

BC

(1) B – Pulmonary artery-takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

(2) C – Vena Cava-takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

(3) D – Dorsal aorta-takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg

(4) A – Pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

Sol. Answer (2)

A : Pulmonary vein, B : Aorta, C : Vena cava, D : Pulmonary artery.

18. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Statins (3) Penicillin (4) Streptokinase

Sol. Answer (4)

Streptokinase acts as a clot buster.

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19. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor

friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Blood group O (2) Blood group A (3) Blood group B (4) Blood group AB

Sol. Answer (1)

Individual with 'O' blood group are universal donors.

20. Which one of the following human organs is often called the “graveyard” of RBCs? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Liver (2) Gall bladder (3) Kidney (4) Spleen

Sol. Answer (4)

The older RBCs are removed from the circulation by the phagocytic cells of spleen mainly. Hence, spleen

is known as graveyard of RBC.

21. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs

immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood

donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Type A (2) Type B (3) Type AB (4) Type O

Sol. Answer (4)

Individuals with ‘O’ blood group are universal donors.

22. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ

(2) Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs

(3) Carry blood away from the heart to different organs

(4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein

Sol. Answer (3)

Artery carries blood away from heart.

Vein carries blood towards the heart.

23. 'Bundle of His' is a part of which of the following organs in humans? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Pancreas (2) Brain

(3) Heart (4) Kidney

Sol. Answer (3)

Bundle of His is a part of heart located only in the ventricle wall.

24. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) Fibrinogen (2) An albumin

(3) Serum amylase (4) A globulin

Sol. Answer (1)

2

Thrombin

CaFibrinogen Fibrin,+⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Fibrin form a network of threads which trap dead and damaged formed elements

of blood to form the blood clot.

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25. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

(1) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney

(2) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment

(3) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure

(4) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active

Sol. Answer (1)

Blood pressure of an individual is 140/90 or higher, it shows hypertension which leads to heart diseases

and also affect vital organs like brain and kidney.

26. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

R

P Q ST

(1) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures

(2) Peak P– Initiation of left atrial contraction only

(3) Complex QRS – One complete pulse

(4) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction

Sol. Answer (3)

P wave : Atrial depolarization

QRS wave : Ventricular depolarisation / One complete pulse systole (diastole)

T wave : Ventricular repolarisation

27. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional,

what will be the immediate effect? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced

(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down

(3) The pacemaker will stop working

(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium

Sol. Answer (1)

The tricuspid valve is present between right atrium and right ventricle and then from right ventricle blood goes

to lungs via pulmonary artery.

The chordae tendinae which is attached to the flaps of tricuspid valve and prevent it from collapsing back into

the atria during powerful ventricular contraction and if in case, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve

become partially non-functional then the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

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28. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system

(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins

(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced

(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system

(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting

Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b)

(3) (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d)

Sol. Answer (1)

Statement(b) is wrong because acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart

muscle.

Statement(c) is wrong, because AB is universal acceptor, not universal donor.

29. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) 5 - 11 g (2) 25 - 30 g

(3) 17 - 20 g (4) 12 - 16 g

Sol. Answer (4)

30. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because "O" in

it refers to having: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types

(2) One antibody only – either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs

(3) No antigens A and B on RBCs

(4) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs

Sol. Answer (3)

Individual with 'O' blood group have no antigen on RBC, but have anti A and anti B antibody in plasma.

31. Compared to blood our lymph has [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Plasma without proteins (2) More WBCs and no RBCs

(3) More RBCs and less WBCs (4) No plasma

Sol. Answer (2)

Lymph has more WBC, because lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and the lymph takes lymphocytes and

antibodies from the lymph nodes.

32. There is no DNA in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Mature RBCs (2) A mature spermatozoan

(3) Hair root (4) An enucleated ovum

Sol. Answer (1)

Matured RBCs do not have cell organelles including nucleus, golgi bodies, mitochondria, ribosomes, centrioles

and endoplasmic reticulum.

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33. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of

the human heart? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) S – start of systole (2) T – end of diastole

(3) P – depolarisation of the atria (4) R–repolarisation of ventricles

Sol. Answer (3)

P wave : Depolarization of atria

QRS wave : Depolarisation of ventricles

T wave : Repolarisation of ventricles

34. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Osmotic balance of body fluids (2) Oxygen transport in the blood

(3) Clotting of blood (4) Defence mechanisms of body

Sol. Answer (4)

Fibrinogen involves in blood clotting and albumins maintain osmotic balance.

35. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Neutrophils and monocytes (2) Neutrophils and eosinophils

(3) Lymphocytes and macrophages (4) Eosinophils and lymphocytes

Sol. Answer (1)

Eosinophils are non phagocytic cells and increase in number during allergy.

36. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant

heparin? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Monocytes (2) Neutrophils (3) Basophils (4) Eosinophils

Sol. Answer (3)

Monocytes are the precussor of macrophagos.

37. The haemoglobin of a human foetus [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult

(2) Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult

(3) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult

(4) Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4

Sol. Answer (1)

Haemoglobin of foetus consists of 4 sub unit i..e, α2 γ

2.

38. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium

(2) Pushing open of the venous valves

(3) Suction pull

(4) Stimulation of the sino auricular node

Sol. Answer (1)

Post caval vein is inferior vena cava, which passes deoxygenated from to right atrium.

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39. Consider the following statements about biomedical technologies

a. During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine.

b. Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography.

c. Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) shows detailed internal structure as seen in a section of body.

d. X-ray provides clear and detailed images or organs like prostate glands and lungs.

Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) a and b (2) b and d (3) c and d (4) a and c

Sol. Answer (4)

Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angioplasty.

40. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for

confirmatory evidence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Haemocytes (2) Serum albumins

(3) Serum globulins (4) Fibrinogen in the plasma

Sol. Answer (3)

Gamma globulins are antibodies which function in immune response of the body.

41. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide

aerobically? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Red blood cells (2) White blood cells

(3) Unstriated muscle cells (4) Liver cells

Sol. Answer (1)

RBC's lack nucleus and mitochondria

42. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein

(2) Blood plasma

(3) Blood serum

(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

Sol. Answer (3)

Serum = Plasma – clotting factor

43. The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Excess of chloride (2) Methaemoglobin

(3) Excess of dissolved oxygen (4) Excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)

Sol. Answer (2)

Blue baby syndrome is caused by nitrates in drinking water which change haemoglobin to methemoglobin,

decreasing the ability of blood to carry oxygen.

44. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Lymphocytes (2) RBCs (3) Platelets (4) Leucocytes

Sol. Answer (2)

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45. Which of the following substances, if introduce in the blood stream, would cause coagulation, at the site of its

introduction? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Fibrinogen (2) Prothrombin

(3) Heparin (4) Thromboplastin

Sol. Answer (4)

G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency in hemolytic anemia which occurs when RBC are destroyed faster than the

body can replace them.

46. Lymph collected from left side of the body collected through thoracic duct and finally opens into

(1) Right sub clavian vein (2) Righ sub clavian artery

(3) Left sub clavian vein (4) Left sub clavian artery

Sol. Answer (3)

Thoracic duct is located on the left side and further this duct will drain the lymph into subclavian vein located

on the left side only.

47. Systemic heart refers to

(1) The heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system

(2) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates

(3) Entire heart in lower vertebrates

(4) The two ventricles together in humans

Sol. Answer (2)

Systemic heart means oxygenated heart which supplies blood to the body parts.

48. Which of the following layer of heart is related to difference in thickness of different chambers of heart?

(1) Outer fibrous coat (2) Epicardium

(3) Myocardium (4) Endocardium

Sol. Answer (3)

The heart has an outermost smooth coelomic epithelium - the visceral pericardium.

The middle thick muscular layer called myocardium, made up of muscle fibres.

Innermost layer i.e., endocardium.

49. Which of the following are in direct contact with AV valves and prevent these from collapsing back into atria?

(1) Chordae tendinae (2) Papillary muscles

(3) Columnae carnae (4) Musculi pectinati

Sol. Answer (1)

Special fibrous cords called the chordae tendinae are attached to the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid

valves at one end and their other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with the special muscles. The

papillary muscles. The chordae tendinae prevent the bicuspid and tricuspid valves from collapsing back into

the atria during powerful ventricular contraction.

Columnae carinae : They are the rounded or irregular muscular column which project from the inner surface

of the right and left ventricles of heart.

Musculi pectinati : They are the parallel ridges in the walls of the atria of the heart.

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50. The pacesetter in the heart is called

(1) Sino-atrial node (SAN) (2) Atrio-ventricular node (AVN)

(3) Purkinje fibres (4) Papillary muscle

Sol. Answer (2)

Sino-atrial node(SAN) is called pacemaker

Atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is called pacesetter.

51. The correct route through which impulse travels in the heart is

(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His → AV node → heart muscles

(2) SA node → AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → heart muscles

(3) AV node → bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres → heart muscles

(4) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His → heart muscles

Sol. Answer (2)

SA node (wave of contraction get originated at SA node)

AV node

Bundle of His

Purkinje's fibre (now, the impulse stimulates the ventricles to contract simultaneously)

52. Bundle of His is a network of

(1) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls

(2) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall

(3) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles

(4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

Sol. Answer (2)

AV node is continuous with the bundle of His, which gives off a left and right bundle branch at the top of

the interventricular septa.

53. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is

to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of

(1) Atrioventricular bundle (2) Purkinje system (3) Sinoatrial node (4) Atrioventricular node

Sol. Answer (3)

Sinoatrial node is also called pacemaker because it is the site which generates the maximum number of action

potential i.e., 70–75 min–1 and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of

the heart.

54. Impulse of heart beat originates from

(1) SA node (2) AV node (3) Vagus nerve (4) Cardiac nerve

Sol. Answer (1)

SA node is also known as pacemaker because the contraction of atria is initiated and activated by SA node.

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55. Rate of heart beat is determined by

(1) Purkinje fibres (2) Papillary muscles

(3) AV-node (4) SA-node

Sol. Answer (4)

It is the site which generates the maximum number of action potential i.e. 70–75 min–1 and is responsible

for initiating and maintaing the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

56. The heart sound ‘dup’ is produced when

(1) Mitral valve is closed (2) Semilunar valves at the base of aorta get closed

(3) Tricuspid valve is opened (4) Mitral valve is opened

Sol. Answer (2)

The first heart sound 'LUB' is produced by closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves.

The second heart sound 'DUP' is produced by closure of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves.

57. At the end of joint diastole ventricle is

(1) Completely filled by blood (2) Two third filled by blood

(3) One third filled by blood (4) Completely empty

Sol. Answer (2)

During joint diastole, in the beginning of the ventricle diastole there is first rapid filling due to opening of AV

valves then the blood fills into ventricles with slow pace called diastasis or slow filling. Due to this, ventricle

is two-thirds filled by blood.

Remaining 1/3rd is filled during atrial contraction.

58. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes attached

(1) One to each wrist and to the left ankle (2) One to each ankle and to the left wrist

(3) One to each wrist and to the left chest region (4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region

Sol. Answer (1)

To obtain a standard, ECG, three electrodes of the machine are attached one to each wrist and to the left

ankle of patient.

59. When the heart muscles receive insufficient oxygen, it is indicated in the ECG as

(1) Enlarged P-wave (2) Depressed S-T segment (3) Flattened T-wave (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (4)

S-T segment is elevated in acute myocardial infarction and depressed when the heart muscle receives insufficient

oxygen.

T wave is flat when heart muscle receives insufficient oxygen as in atherosclerotic heart disease and it may be

elevated when the body's potassium level is increased.

60. In what way pulmonary artery is different from pulmonary vein?

(1) Its lumen is broad (2) Its wall is thick

(3) It has valves (4) It does not possess endothelium

Sol. Answer (2)

Artery has thick wall, blood flows with more pressure. Thickness of artery is due to tunica media.

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61. Difference between pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein is that the pulmonary artery has

(1) No endothelium (2) Valves (3) Thicker wall (4) Oxygenated blood

Sol. Answer (3)

Artery has thick wall, blood flows with more pressure. Thickness of artery is due to tunica media.

62. In veins, valves are present to check backward flow of blood flowing at

(1) Atmospheric pressure (2) High pressure (3) Low pressure (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Artery have high pressure. Veins have low pressure and thin walls

63. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/medicine with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting

it into the

(1) Muscles (2) Arteries (3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels

Sol. Answer (3)

Because veins carry blood towards the heart and then heart pumps blood to all organs.

64. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as

(1) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (2) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg

(3) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (4) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg

Sol. Answer (1)

Normal blood pressure of an individual is 120(systolic pressure) / 80 (Diastolic pressure)

65. Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?

(1) Spleen (2) Liver (3) Gill (4) Lung

Sol. Answer (1)

Liver : Carries deoxygenated blood via hepatic portal vein.

Lung : Carries deoxygenated blood via pulmonary artery.

66. The thickening of walls of arteries is called

(1) Arteriosclerosis (2) Arthritis (3) Aneurysm (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

Arteriosclerosis : Thickening of walls due to calcification in old age.

Arthritis : It is a disorder in which inflammation of the joints occurs. It is characterized by pain, swelling,

redness, heat.

Aneurysm : Abnormal widening and ballooning of a portion of an artery due to weakness in the wall of blood

vessel.

67. Which of the following cannot be taken as a feature of open type circulatory system?

(1) Low pressure system (2) Well regulated blood supply to different organs

(3) Blood returns to the heart slowly (4) Non formation of capillaries

Sol. Answer (2)

Well-regulated blood supply to different organs occurs in closed circulatory system, in which blood flows in

the blood vessel.

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68. Which of the following blood vessels bypass are present in the circulatory system before birth?

(1) Foramen ovale (2) Fossa ovalis

(3) Ductus arteriosus (4) Both (1) & (3)

Sol. Answer (4)

Before birth, the major portion blood from the right side bypasses the pulmonary circulation through foramen

ovale and ductus arteriosus. At the time of birth with the start of breathing, these bypass cease to act.

Foramen ovale closes to become fossa ovalis.

Ductus arteriosus closes to become ligamentum arteriosum.

69. Isovolumetric systole is duration between

(1) Closure of AV valve and opening of semilunar valve

(2) Closure of semilunar valve and opening of AV valve

(3) Closure of tricuspid and closure of bicuspid valve

(4) Closure of tricuspid and opening of bicuspid valve

Sol. Answer (1)

During isovolumetric contraction volume of blood does not change even though ventricular continue contracting.

70. High level of which ions change the strength of contraction?

(1) Ca2+ (2) K+

(3) Na+ (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Elevated blood level of K+ or Na+ decreases heart rate

An excess of Ca2+ increases heart rate.

SECTION - C

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : The cardiac impulse which originates from SA node in mammalian heart cannot spread directly from atria to

ventricles.

R : In mammalian heart there is no continuity between cardiac muscle fibres of atria and those of ventricles

except AV bundles.

Sol. Answer (1)

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branch → Purkinje fibre → Ventricle wall

2. A : First phase of ventricular filling is rapid and causes 3rd sound of heart.

R : It is because of auricular systole.

Sol. Answer (3)

It is because of opening of AV valves.

3. A : Dub is a long and sharp sound.

R : It is caused by closing of atrio ventricular valves.

Sol. Answer (4)

Dub is high pitched and of short duration and produced by closing of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular

diastole.

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4. A : Portal system consists of a veins which starts from capillaries and ends into capillaries.

R : All vertebrates have hepatic portal system.

Sol. Answer (2)

A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver called hepatic portal system.

5. A : Left ventricle pumps blood at a much higher pressure to all body parts involved in systemic circulation.

R : The muscular wall of the left ventricle is two to four times as thick as the wall of right ventricle.

Sol. Answer (1)

Left ventricle has thickest wall.

6. A : The resting heart rate, about 75/minutes, usually is lower than the autorhythmic rate of the SA node

(90 – 100 beats/minute).

R : At resting conditions, the parasympathetic effects dominate.

Sol. Answer (1)

The signals from parasympathetic nervous system decreases the heart rate.

7. A : Elevated levels of Na+ increase the heart rate and contractility.

R : Elevated Na+ level increase the excitability of SA node.

Sol. Answer (4)

Elevated levels of Na+ decrease the heart rate and contractility.

8. A : Endocardium provides a smooth lining for the inside of the heart and covers the valves of the heart.

R : Endocardium is continuous with the endothelial lining of the large blood vessels associated with the heart

and the rest of the cardiovascular system.

Sol. Answer (2)

Inner wall of heart is endocardium.

9. A : Isovolumetric systole of a normal cardiac cycle is responsible for the opening of semilunar valves causing

the blood flow into aortic aorta and pulmonary aorta.

R : During isovolumetric systole, intraventricular pressure increases as semilunar and AV valves are closed and

ventricles are contracting.

Sol. Answer (1)

There is no change in volume of blood in ventricles during isovolumetric systole.

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