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Biology Spring Semester Final Exam Practice Test 2012 - 2013

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. A person who has a disorder caused by a recessive allele is

a. considered a carrier of the disorder.

b. homozygous for the recessive allele.

c. unable to pass the allele to offspring.

d. certain to have offspring with the disorder.

2. Gene expression is influenced by many factors. Which of the following is a factor in gene expression?

a. karyotype

b. pedigree

c. environment

d. phenotype

3. The Punnett square in Figure 7.1 shows a cross between two parents who have the genotype Ss for a genetic

disorder caused by a recessive allele. Which of the following will have the genetic disorder?

a. Ss parent

b. Ss offspring

c. SS offspring

d. ss offspring

4. Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the chance that any

of their children will inherit the disorder?

a. 25%

b. 50%

c. 75%

d. 100%

5. For an XX female to express a recessive sex-linked trait, she must have

a. a Y chromosome.

b. an inactivated allele.

c. two recessive alleles.

d. two dominant alleles.

6. Human height occurs in a continuous range because it is affected by the interaction of several genes, making it a

a. autosomal trait.

b. sex-linked trait.

c. polygenic trait.

d. codominant trait.

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7. Suppose a mouse is homozygous for alleles that produce black fur and homozygous for alleles of an epistatic gene

that prevents fur coloration. What color fur will the mouse have?

a. all white

b. mostly black

c. entirely gray

d. black and white

8. The gene linkage map shown in Figure 7.2 shows the order of genes A, B, and C. Which of the following

statements about the genes is true?

a. The distance between A and B is 14.5 map units.

b. A and B cross over 2.5% of the time.

c. A and C are linked 8.5% of the time.

d. B and C are most likely to be inherited together.

9. Thomas Morgan's research with fruit flies determined that

a. alleles always assort independently.

b. chromosomes are inherited as a group.

c. genes never assort independently.

d. traits sometimes are inherited as a group.

10. Two genes cross over 6% of the time. This percentage means that the genes are

a. inactivated in 6 out of 100 offspring.

b. incompletely dominant in 6 out of 100 offspring.

c. not inherited together in 6 out of 100 offspring.

d. on sex chromosomes in 6 out of 100 offspring.

11. A female is born with attached earlobes, which is a recessive phenotype. Which of the following genotypes could

her parents have?

a. RR and RR

b. Rr and RR

c. Rr and rr

d. RR and rr

12. Suppose a person is a carrier for a genetic disorder. Which of the following phrases about this person is true?

a. does not have the disorder but can pass it on

b. will develop the disorder only late in life

c. cannot pass the disorder to sons, just daughters

d. the allele is not passed on due to Y chromosome inactivation

13. Some members of a family have a recessive sex-linked disorder. Which of the following statements about the

family would be true?

a. All males would have the disorder.

b. All females would be carriers.

c. Only males would have the disorder.

d. Only females would be carriers.

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14.What is the main reason that sex-linked disorders are most often observed in males?

a. The X chromosome only has genes for genetic disorders.

b. The Y chromosome cannot have genes that cause genetic disorders.

c. The Y chromosome cannot mask alleles on the X chromosome.

d. The X chromosome has genes only for sex determination.

15. Which of the following tools is used to match up chromosome pairs using chemical stains?

a. pedigree chart

b. karyotype

c. meiosis map

d. linkage map

16. What did Hershey and Chase know about bacteriophages that led them to use these viruses in their DNA

experiments?

a. Bacteriophages are made up of a protein coat surrounding DNA.

b. Sulfur in all bacteriophages is radioactive.

c. Protein from bacteriophages enters bacteria.

d. Bacteriophages have no DNA of their own.

17. Which scientist conducted tests on extracts made of bacteria to show that the genetic material in bacteria is DNA?

a. Martha Chase

b. Oswald Avery

c. Frederick Griffith

d. Alfred Hershey

18. Figure 8.1 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the other DNA strand.

a. GGT

b. CCT

c. GGC

d. TTA

19. The main difference between the four nucleotides that make up DNA is that they have different

a. sugars.

b. uracil.

c. bonds.

d. bases.

20. Which scientists figured out the three-dimensional structure of DNA by using a model of metal and wood?

a. Hershey and Chase

b. Watson and Crick

c. Pauling and Franklin

d. Chargaff and Griffith

21. In humans, where does DNA replication take place?

a. cytoplasm

b. ribosome

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c. nucleus

d. vacuole

22. During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to

a. bind nucleotides together.

b. send messages.

c. receive messages.

d. locate replication sites.

23. Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.

a. AUT

b. CTA

c. AUC

d. ACG

24. During transcription, what does messenger RNA do?

a. It delivers DNA's instructions for making proteins.

b. It constructs proteins out of random amino acids.

c. It strings together two complementary DNA strands.

d. It strings together two complementary RNA strands.

25. In order to produce all the protein that a cell needs, transcription takes place

a. on a gene segment over and over again.

b. on a gene segment only once.

c. using double-stranded RNA.

d. using single-stranded RNA.

26. The central dogma states that information flows from

a. RNA to DNA to polysaccharides.

b. DNA to RNA to proteins.

c. RNA to DNA to proteins.

d. DNA to polysaccharides to RNA.

27. How many amino acids are coded for by the strand of mRNA shown below? Assume the reading frame begins

with the first nucleotide.

CGAUAC

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 6

28. Where is messenger RNA "edited" into its final form?

a. in the cytoplasm

b. in the ribosomes

c. in the nucleus

d. in the anticodon

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29. What is the term for the sections of messenger RNA that are spliced together during processing?

a. operators

b. promotors

c. exons

d. introns

30. In bacteria, what binds with the repressor to activate the lac operon?

a. enzymes

b. lactose

c. repressors

d. promoters

31. What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive better in its environment?

a. variation

b. adaptation

c. homologous structure

d. vestigial structure

32. All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area are called a

a. variation.

b. fossil.

c. population.

d. group.

33. The remnant of an organ that had a function in an early ancestor is known as a(n)

a. vestigial structure.

b. analogous structure.

c. homologous structure.

d. fossil structure.

34. What observations did Charles Darwin make about finches in the Galápagos Islands?

a. The same species of finches lived on all the islands.

b. Different species of finches lived on different islands.

c. Various species of finches lived on just one of the islands.

d. Identical species of finches lived in South America.

35. Which scientist developed a classification system for organisms?

a. Carolus Linnaeus

b. Charles Darwin

c. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

d. Georges L.L. de Buffon

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36. The tortoise from Abingdon Island, shown in Figure 10.1, would likely be better adapted than the Albermarle

Island tortoise to which of the following environments?

a. areas with short plants and mosses

b. areas with no plants and sand dunes

c. areas with lots of taller plants

d. areas with only tall trees

37. Which theory states that floods and earthquakes have occurred often in Earth's history?

a. uniformitarianism

b. natural selection

c. catastrophism

d. artificial selection

38. The hind leg bones shown in the whale in Figure 10.2 are examples of

a. homologous structures.

b. analogous structures.

c. fossil structures.

d. vestigial structures.

39. Charles Darwin found fossils that looked like ancient versions of living species. From this evidence Darwin

suggested that Earth was

a. much more than 6000 years old.

b. less than 6000 years old.

c. only 6000 years old.

d. about 1000 years old.

40. What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?

a. natural selection

b. inheritance of acquired characteristics

c. artificial selection

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d. descent without modification

41. Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce

a. fewer mutations.

b. more offspring.

c. stronger genes.

d. better traits.

42. Natural selection results in change over time by acting on traits that are

a. heritable.

b. new.

c. mutated.

d. better.

43. What is the study of the distribution of organisms around the world?

a. paleontology

b. geography

c. geology

d. biogeography

44. Fossil evidence shows that structures considered vestigial in living organisms

a. are not found in ancient organisms.

b. have always been vestigial.

c. were useful to their ancestors.

d. do not fill gaps in the fossil record.

45. Which theory ties the fields of biology and geology together?

a. evolution

b. uniformitarianism

c. catastrophism

d. gradualism

46. The combined alleles of all the individuals in a population is called the

a. phenotype.

b. gene pool.

c. mutation rate.

d. allele frequency.

47. What are two main sources of genetic variation?

a. mutations and extinction

b. recombination and extinction

c. recombination and reproduction

d. mutations and recombination

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48. Figure 11.1 shows how a population of cacti changes when it faces selective pressure from two predators:

peccaries (wild pigs) and a parasitic insect. The dashed line shows the original population. The insects most often

kill cacti with a(n)

a. intermediate number of spines.

b. high number of spines.

c. low number of spines.

d. complete lack of spines.

49. What type of selection occurs when individuals in a population with the intermediate phenotype are selected for?

a. directional selection

b. stabilizing selection

c. intermediate selection

d. disruptive selection

50. Figure 11.2 shows the tail feather length of male widowbirds and their reproductive success. The males that had

the greatest reproductive success were the birds with tails that were

a. particularly short.

b. mid-length.

c. relatively long.

d. any length.

51. When a few individuals start a new colony it most likely results in

a. genetic drift through the founder effect.

b. more variety in the new population.

c. extinction due to the bottleneck effect.

d. mutation due to disruptive selection.

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52. The movement of alleles from one population to another is called

a. founder effect.

b. microevolution.

c. genetic drift.

d. gene flow.

53. A population that has a normal distribution of the range of heights has many individuals who are

a. tall and few who are average or very short.

b. short and few who are average or very tall.

c. average height and few who are very tall or very short.

d. average height and none who are very tall or very short.

54. What does being in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium mean for a population?

a. The population is evolving very rapidly.

b. The population is not evolving.

c. Equilibrium would gradually end.

d. Gene flow would occur, but slowly.

55. If the actual allele frequencies in a population do not match genotype frequencies predicted by the

Hardy-Weinberg equation, the population is

a. isolated.

b. extinct.

c. shrinking.

d. evolving.

56. Which of the five factors that can lead to evolution would operate on a change in body color that enabled animals

to better hide from predators?

a. natural selection

b. genetic drift

c. sexual selection

d. gene flow

57. Reproductive isolation occurs when

a. a small number of individuals moves and starts a new population.

b. some catastrophic event greatly reduces the size of a population.

c. the gene pools of different populations have become very diversified.

d. members of different populations can no longer mate successfully.

58. What type of isolation occurs when the timing of reproduction is different between two populations?

a. geographic

b. temporal

c. behavioral

d. selective

59. Coevolution is a process in which species

a. evolve similar characteristics in different habitats.

b. become increasingly different from each other.

c. become extinct and are lost permanently.

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d. evolve in response to changes in each other.

60. Two species that are closely related become increasingly different through

a. divergent evolution.

b. disruptive selection.

c. convergent isolation.

d. competitive relationships.

61. Fossils that consist of minerals that have filled in an open mold of an organism are called

a. permineralized.

b. natural casts.

c. preserved remains.

d. trace fossils.

62. Which of the following characteristics must a good index fossil have?

a. very rare, easy to identify, existed for a brief time, occurs in a local area

b. somewhat rare, hard to identify, existed for a brief time, widespread

c. common, hard to identify, existed for a long time, widespread

d. very common, easy to identify, existed for a brief time, widespread

63. The smallest unit of geologic time is a(n)

a. epoch.

b. period.

c. era.

d. eon.

64. The bacterium shown in Figure 12.1 may have evolved into a mitochondrion after going through the process of

a. oxidation.

b. photosynthesis.

c. endosymbiosis.

d. colonization.

65. What do scientists estimate as the age of Earth?

a. 100 million years old

b. 4.6 billion years old

c. 10 billion years old

d. 3.8 million years old

66. The Miller-Urey experiment demonstrated that

a. organic molecules first could have come to Earth on a meteorite.

b. iron-sulfide bubbles may have acted as the first cell membranes.

c. liposome membranes containing organic molecules preceded true cells.

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d. energy from lightning might have helped create Earth's first organic molecules.

67. The table below shows four radioactive isotopes used in radiometric dating. How much chlorine-36 would be left

in a sample after 600,000 years?

a. 75% of the parent isotope

b. 50% of the parent isotope

c. 25% of the parent isotope

d. 12.5% of the parent isotope

68. Scientists hypothesize that cyanobacteria changed the early Earth by

a. adding oxygen to the atmosphere.

b. developing endosymbiotic relationships.

c. turning into eukaryotic cells.

d. getting energy from organic molecules.

69. The evolution of sexual reproduction resulted in

a. decreased diversity.

b. slower rate of evolution.

c. genetically identical offspring.

d. increased genetic variation.

70. The first land organisms emerged during the

a. Cretaceous period.

b. Paleozoic era.

c. Mesozoic era.

d. Tertiary period.

71. The Age of Reptiles is a term often used to describe the

a. Mesozoic era.

b. Paleozoic era.

c. Cenozoic era.

d. Precambrian Time.

72. Which unit of geologic time followed the mass extinction of dinosaurs?

a. Cambrian period

b. Jurassic period

c. Mesozoic era

d. Cenozoic era

73. What group of animals includes modern humans?

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a. reptiles

b. trilobites

c. primates

d. marsupials

74. The fossil record identifies the hominid with the largest brain as

a. Homo neanderthalensis

b. Homo sapiens

c. Homo habilis

d. Australopithecus afarensis

75. Fossil evidence suggests Homo sapiens first appeared

a. 4 million years ago.

b. 200,000 years ago.

c. 20,000 years ago.

d. 20 million years ago.

76. A group of organisms of the same species that live in the same area is called a(n)

a. community.

b. population.

c. biome.

d. ecosystem.

77. What does the diagram in Figure 13.1 show?

a. the nitrogen cycle

b. the water cycle

c. the oxygen cycle

d. the carbon cycle

78. Herbivores are which of the following?

a. producers

b. secondary consumers

c. primary consumers

d. decomposers

79. Which phrase best describes biodiversity?

a. the number of individuals in an ecosystem

b. the amount of biomass in an ecosystem

c. the amount of available energy in an ecosystem

d. the number of species in an ecosystem

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80. Which organisms help convert gaseous nitrogen into ammonia in the nitrogen cycle?

a. bacteria

b. trees

c. squirrels

d. grasses

81. An ecologist counts weeds to monitor their populations. Which of the following best describes the ecologist's

methods?

a. modeling

b. observation

c. experimentation

d. hypothesizing

82. Organisms that feed on dead or decaying matter are called

a. herbivores.

b. carnivores.

c. omnivores.

d. detritivores.

83. What do all the biotic and abiotic factors in a given area make up?

a. a habitat

b. a community

c. an ecosystem

d. a population

84. Which of the following parts of Figure 13.2 is an example of a biotic factor?

a. sunlight

b. soil

c. deer

d. river

85. Which process is part of the hydrologic cycle?

a. nitrification

b. evaporation

c. decomposition

d. ammonification

86. Which model shows the number of organisms at each trophic level in an ecosystem?

a. biomass pyramid

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b. food web

c. pyramid of numbers

d. food chain

87. Which of the following provide most of the energy in ecosystems?

a. keystone species

b. carnivores

c. generalists

d. producers

88. Almost all autotrophs get their energy from

a. sunlight.

b. hydrothermal pools.

c. decaying matter.

d. producers.

89. An organism that has an unusually large effect on an ecosystem is called a(n)

a. keystone species.

b. omnivore.

c. biotic factor.

d. heterotroph.

90. A major regional or global community of organisms is called

a. an ecosystem.

b. a biome.

c. a species.

d. a population.

91. Zebras live on the savannas of Africa. A watering hole on the savanna would be part of a zebra's

a. biotic factors.

b. niche.

c. habitat.

d. behavior.

92. When two species compete for the same resource, they sometimes divide this resource. This is an example of

a. niche partitioning.

b. niche equivalency.

c. evolutionary response.

d. ecological equivalence.

93. The mantella frog and poison dart frog occupy similar niches in similar habitats in different parts of the world.

Because of this, they are considered to be

a. competitors.

b. the same species.

c. interacting populations.

d. ecological equivalents.

94. Hawks and foxes compete to eat field mice. This is a form of

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a. interspecific competition.

b. competitive exclusion.

c. intraspecific predation.

d. random dispersion.

95. What word or phrase would be most appropriate opposite "Commensalism" under "Organism 2"?

a. may die over time

b. neither benefits nor is harmed

c. benefits

d. is harmed

96. Which of these is an example of parasitism?

a. A lion defends its territory.

b. A squirrel stores food in a tree hole.

c. A leech feeds on a host's blood.

d. A polar bear kills and eats a seal.

97. To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the

a. perimeter of the area.

b. area of the space.

c. birth and death rates.

d. carrying capacity.

98. Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called

a. clumped dispersion.

b. uniform dispersion.

c. random dispersion.

d. type I dispersion.

99. Which type of organism would be most likely to have a type II survivorship curve?

a. one that protects and cares for its young

b. one that preys on small mammals

c. one that is preyed upon throughout its life

d. one that has high birth and infant mortality rates

100. Which of the following will increase the size of a population?

a. emigration and deaths

b. immigration and deaths

c. emigration and births

d. immigration and births

101. Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?

a. natural disaster

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b. unusual weather

c. human activities

d. competition

102. What type of population growth is shown in the graph?

a. logistic growth

b. exponential growth

c. density-dependent growth

d. carrying capacity growth

103. Hawaii's lush tropical forests arose from a process of

a. succession.

b. predation.

c. regeneration.

d. destruction.

104. Pioneer species are the first

a. trees to grow in an area that has been disturbed.

b. trees that replace the original trees after a forest fire.

c. organisms to live in previously uninhabited areas.

d. organisms to live in a forest canopy.

105. The reestablishment of a damaged ecosystem in an area where the soil is intact is called

a. primary succession.

b. secondary succession.

c. pioneer succession.

d. symbiotic succession.

106. The layer of air surrounding Earth is known as the

a. biosphere.

b. hydrosphere.

c. atmosphere.

d. geosphere.

107. The geosphere is one of four interconnected systems, and includes

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a. continents, rocks, and sea floor only.

b. the features on and below Earth's surface.

c. all nonliving parts of Earth.

d. every living thing on Earth.

108. A region's climate, unlike its weather, is based on

a. a long-term pattern.

b. seasonal extremes.

c. conditions in small areas.

d. daily rainfall.

109. The uppermost layer of branches in rain forest trees is called the

a. epiphytes.

b. shade layer.

c. canopy.

d. limiting layer.

110. Communities on a mountain differ depending on the

a. elevation.

b. latitude.

c. precipitation.

d. vegetation.

111. Based on these two graphs, what is the biggest difference between the grassland and forest biomes?

a. annual precipitation

b. annual temperature

c. length of winter

d. hot grassland summers

112. Where is the tropical zone?

a. near the poles

b. between the polar and temperate zones

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c. surrounding the equator

d. near Earth's axis

113. Which of the following is a characteristic of tropical rain forests?

a. a distinct rainy season

b. few organisms living in trees

c. extreme heat fluctuations

d. thin soil that is low in nutrients

114. Plants and animals that live in savannas are well-adapted to

a. extremely low temperatures.

b. large changes in moisture.

c. very high temperatures.

d. lots of snow.

115. Trees that drop their leaves during the cold season are known as

a. deciduous trees.

b. coniferous trees.

c. evergreen trees.

d. arctic trees.

116. Tiny free-floating animals that live in water are called

a. phytoplankton.

b. algae.

c. zooplankton.

d. protists.

117. Which labeled region in Figure 15.2 corresponds to the neritic zone?

a. continental shelf

b. continental slope

c. abyssal plain

d. seamount

118. Estuary ecosystems are important to humans as a source of

a. plants for food.

b. table salt.

c. drinking water.

d. fish for food.

119. What is the difference between rivers and wetlands?

a. Wetlands are saturated all year round.

b. Wetlands have little water flowing through them.

c. Wetlands do not provide a home for many organisms.

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d. Wetlands never dry up as rivers do.

120. The freshwater littoral zone is similar to which ocean zone?

a. abyssal zone

b. bathyal zone

c. neritic zone

d. intertidal zone

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Biology Spring Semester Final Exam Practice Test 2012 - 2013

Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. C

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. A

9. D

10. C

11. C

12. A

13. D

14. C

15. B

16. A

17. B

18. C

19. D

20. B

21. C

22. A

23. C

24. A

25. A

26. B

27. B

28. C

29. C

30. B

31. B

32. C

33. A

34. B

35. A

36. C

37. C

38. D

39. A

40. C

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41. B

42. A

43. D

44. C

45. A

46. B

47. D

48. B

49. B

50. C

51. A

52. D

53. C

54. B

55. D

56. A

57. D

58. B

59. D

60. A

61. B

62. D

63. A

64. C

65. B

66. D

67. C

68. A

69. D

70. B

71. A

72. D

73. C

74. A

75. B

76. B

77. D

78. C

79. D

80. A

81. B

82. D

83. C

84. C

85. B

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86. C

87. D

88. A

89. A

90. B

91. C

92. A

93. D

94. A

95. B

96. C

97. B

98. B

99. C

100. D

101. D

102. B

103. A

104. C

105. B

106. C

107. B

108. A

109. C

110. A

111. A

112. C

113. D

114. B

115. A

116. C

117. A

118. D

119. B

120. D