Model Question

B a n k P O

General Awareness 1. India has registered 10 lakh hectares under cotton so far

this year. For cotton, this is a new world record, beating the 104 lakh hectares recorded in 1934 in 1)US 2) UK 3) Germany 4) France 5) None of these

2. World chess champion Viswanathan Anand has refused to accept the honorary doctorate which was to have been conferred on him by the 1) Delhi University 2) Anna University 3) Madras University 4) Hyderabad University 5) None of these

3. Giving a clean chit to Sharad Pawar, the Bombay High Court said there was "nothing on record" to show that the Union minister had influenced the Maharashtra government's decision to exempt IPL matches from 1) VAT 2) Entertainment Tax 3) GST 4) DTC 5) None of these

4. The former Power Secretary, Harishankar Brahma, has been appointed 1) Chief Vigilance Commissioner 2) Member, Planning Commission r 3) Election Commissioner 4) Member, Finance Commission 5) None of these

5. Name the Miss Mexico who was crowned Miss Universe 2010 on Aug 24. 1) Jimena Norarrete 2) Veneta Zakers 3) Kaiane Aldorino 4) Gabriela Marroquin Espinoga 5) None of these

6. Name the former Arunachal Pradesh chief minister and senior Congress leader who was arrested on Aug 24 by sleuths of a special investigation cell (SIC) probing the Rs 1000-cr scam in Public Distribution system (PDS) in Arunachal Pradesh 1) Mukut Mithi 2) Gegong Apang 3) PK Thungan 4) Tage Kano 5) None of these

7. The Youth Olympic Games 2010 were held in 1) China 2) Thailand 3) Singapore 4) Indonesia 5) None of these

8. Which of the following is the India's No. 1 social networking site? l)Facebook 2)Orkut 3) MSN 4) Logbook 5) None of these

9. Name the the al-Qaida-linked terror plot which was unearthed by Canadian security agencies on Aug 24, with one of the suspects reportedly hailing from India. 1) Project Biryani 2) Project Chocolate 3) Project Jalebi 4) Project Samosa 5) None of these

10. The new symbol of Indian rupee is

11. Name the minis te r whose s ta tement that a new phenomenon of "saffron terrorism" involved in many bomb blasts, has created a controversy? 1) Pranab Mukherj ee 2) P Chidambaram 3) Mani Shankar Ayer 4) Ambika Soni 5) None of these

12. Name the upgraded version of short-range surface-to-surface missile which has been successfully test-fired by Iran recently. 1)A1-Saheb 2)A1-Zulfiqar 3)Fateh-110 4) Hyder-786 5) None of these

13. Which country is the world 's largest producer of hydroelectric power? 1) China 2) US 3) Japan 4) Korea 5) None of these

14. China promised at the Copenhagen Conference on global climate change last year that it would cut its carbon emissions per unit of GDP by 40-45% by 1)2015 2)2020 3)2025 4)2030 5) None of these

15. Name the Chairman of J&K Bank who stepped down from his position after being asked by the state govt to do so. 1) Haseeb A Drabu 2) Muzaffar Ahmad 3) Ghulam Ahmad Wani 4) Ghulam Rasool Bhatt 5) None of these

16. Name the leading British newspaper which has apologised for publishing an article about the United Nations climate body chairman RK Pachauri accusing him of making a fortune from his link with "carbon trading" firms. 1) Sunday Times 2) Daily Telegraph 3) The Observer 4) London times 5) None of these

17. Name the head of the radical women's organisation Dukhtaran-e-Millat who has been arrested in Srinagar. l)AsiyaAndrabi 2) Mehbooba Mufti 3)SakinaItoo 4) Salima Jan 5) None of these

18. The 11 th edition of the women's hockey World Cup was held in 1) Germany 2) France 3) Australia 4) Argentina 5) None of these

19. Name the former Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) chairman and the guiding force behind India's first nuclear test who died recently. 1) A Anantha Narayanan 2) K Kasturirangan 3) Homi Jahangir Bhabha 4) Homi Sethna 5) None of these

20. Name the state in which an eight-day hostage drama finally ended on Sep 6 with the Maoists releasing the three captive policemen to their relatives in the forests ofLakhisarai.

1)MP 2) UP 3) Bihar 4) Jharkhand 5) None of these

21. The Basque separatist fighter ETA has declared a ceasefire with govt recently. ETA is fighting in 1) Spain 2) Ireland 3) Chile 4) Nicragua 5) None of these

22. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh suggested he is likely to resolve long-standing differences in government over the AFSPA with some changes aimed at making it less sweeping in view of the criticism the act has attracted. AFSPA stands for 1) Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 2) Army Forces (Special Powers) Act 3) Anti-Forces (Special Powers) Act 4) Aggressive Forces (Special Powers) Act 5) None of these

23. The Israeli finance ministry has issued a tender asking commercial airlines to design an advanced airplane having features similar to the Air Force One, the Boeing aircraft used for the President. 1) France 4) Russia

2) China 3) Germany 5) None of these

24. Paul Kagame has been sworn in as the President of for the second term.

2) Uganda 3) Sierra Leone 5) None of these

1) Rwanda 4) Nigeria

25. The first Asia Cup Bridge championship was held recently in 1) Taiwan 2) China 3) Korea 4) Thailand 5) None of these

26. What is 'Sarath'? 1) An infantry combat vehicle 2) A virus reponsible for Dengue 3) An anti-battle tank 4) A surface-to-air missile 5) None of these

27. Name the first sportsperson to be conferred an honorary rank by the Indian Air Force (IAF). 1) Sushil Kumar 2) Saina Nehwal 3) Sachin Tendular 4) Virender Sehwag 5) None of these

28. Sonia Gandhi on Sep 3 became the Congress president for the record consecutive term 1) second 2) third 3) fourth 4) fifth 5) None of these

29. The 2nd Acharya Sushil Muni Ahimsa Peace Award has been given to 1) DK Sheth 2) Dalai Lama 3) Maulana Wahiduddin Khan 4) Naresh Trehan 5) None of these

30. Name the former special forces commander and one-time lumberjack who is linked to allegation of war crimes and who has been appointed as Israel's next military chief. 1) Major-General Yoar Galant 2) Lt-GenGobiAshkenazi 3) GeneralAriel Sharon 4) General Nachman Shai 5) None of these

31. Who has been nominated as Ut ta rakhand ' s first honorary wildlife warden as part of the state's tiger conservation campaign? 1) Saina Nehwal 2)MSDhoni 3) Sushil Kumar

4) Vijender Singh 5) None of these 32. Which state govt moved the Supreme court on Sep 4

seeking to quash the clearance for the Polararam project in Andhra Pradesh? 1) West Bengal 2)Orissa 3) Jharkhand 4) Bihar 5) None of these

33. Who among the following will head a high-profile, representative Advisory Committee for overseeing the implementation of drought mitigation strategies in the Bundelkhand region of UP and MP? 1) Pranab Mukherjee 2) Jairam Ramesh 3) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 4) Manmohan Singh 5) None of these

34. The first-ever meeting of defence ministers of ASE AN+8 formal meeting was held in 1) Singapore 2) Jakarta 3) Bangkok 4) Hanoi 5) None of these

35. India ranks among 134 countries on gender equality in World Economic Forum rankings. 1) 100th 2) 114th 3) 131st 4) 149th 5) None of these

36. The India Gender Gap Review 2009 released at the India Economic Summit ranked India behind Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Nepal. It said close to 300 Indian women die every day during childbirth or of pregnancy-related causes, and the country has virtually the worst sex ratio at birth in the world, ranking on this variable. l)98th 2) 120th 3) 131st 4) 145th 5) None of these

37. According to the World Economic Forum report, India's performance in empowering women politically, relative to the rest of the work, is strong, ranking at the position. Women hold 11 per cent of the positions in Parliament and 10 per cent ministerial-level positions. l)24th 2)34th 3)44th 4)55th 5) None of these

38. The Centre has announced that it would allow export of lakh bales of cotton effective October 1 and

would revisit the policy for a thorough review in mid-November, indicating that shipments beyond this ceiling would attract export duty. 1)30 2)45 3)55 4)65 5) None of these

39. India's textile & apparel (T&A) industry (domestic and exports) is expected to grow from Rs 3.27 lakh crore ($220 billion) by according to a research report by Technopak Adv i so r s , a leading management consultancy. 1)2015 2)2020 3)2025 4)2030 5) None of these

40. In a big boost to the disinvestment programme of the UPA-II Government, the Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry gave its green signal to the sale of government's stake in Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Indian Oil Corporation (IOC), a move aimed at raising around this fiscal. 1) Rs 14,000 cr 2) Rs 18,000 cr 3) Rs 24,000 cr 4) Rs 30,000 cr 5) None of these

41. Who among the following has became the first Indian to win a gold in the World wrestling championships in Moscow? He beat Russia's GogaevAlan 3-1 in the finals. 1) Sunil Kumal 2) Sushil Kumar 3) Dalip Singh Rana

4) Vijender Singh 5) None of these 42. India has replaced as the second most

important foreign direct investment (FDI) destination for transnational corporations, according to a survey conducted by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). 1) China 2) Germany 3) Britain 4) US 5) None of these

43. Kim Clijsters won her second straight US Open women's title after crushing seventh-seeded Russian Vera Zvonareva 6-2, 6-1 in the most lop-sided triumph in 34 years. She belongs to 1) Spain 2) Switzerland 3) Belgium 4) US 5) None of these

44. Months after ousting him in a ruthless party coup, Australian prime minister Julia Gillard has appointed her former leader, Kevin Rudd, as the country's new 1) Deputy PM 2) Foreign minister 3) Internal Security Minister 4) Finance Minister 5) None of these

45. Sofia Coppola's Somewhere, the tale of an actor who sees the emptiness of his existence through the eyes ofhis child, walked away with the top Golden Lion prize at the 1) Venice film festival 2) Berlin film festival 3) Tokyo film festival 4) Toronto film festival 5) None of these

46. Name the state whose Medical Education Minister Ramachandra Gowda resigned following allegations of his involvement in the illegal recruitment of350 people for two new medical colleges in the state. 1)AP 2) Kerala 3) Tamil Nadu 4) Karnataka 5) None of these

47. With a net worth of US$62 billion, Mukesh Ambani would be the richest man of earth in , going past the current claimant, Mexican businessman Carlos Slim, according to a forecast by Forbes. 1)2012 2)2014 3)2016 4)2018 5) None of these

48. Name the Bollywood star who came under fire for claiming in an interview to a Pakistani channel that the 26/11 attacks were hyped because the "elite" were targeted. However, he apologised for his "insensitive" comments. 1) Aamir Khan 2) Shahrukh Khan 3) Arbaaz Khan 4) Salman Khan 5) None of these

49. SBI launched a 'crorepati-only' branch in . The criterion to open an account is a minimum opening balance of Rs 1 crore. l)Mumbai 2) Delhi 3)Chennai 4) Kolkata 5) None of these

50. India has slipped to from the 49th spot in the World Economic Forum's annual Global Competitiyeness Report (GCS) 2010-11 among 139 countries rated for institutions, policies and factors that determine the level of productivity. The top ten ranked countries have retained their sport since 2009. While Switzerland is first for the second consecutive year, Sweden is second and Singapore is at the third spot. The US has slipped to

fourth and China has jumped to 27 from 29. l)51st 2) 61st 3) 71st 4) 81st 5) None of these

English Directions (Q. 51-65): Read the passage carefully and

answer the questions given below it. Desi girl is no longer desi. She has got anew attire, new style

and, above all, a new attitude. She never blushes. She is not careful about selection of words either. She is our family com­panion every evening in the form of daily soaps. We have no option but to watch her with little kids, parents and parents-in-law, elder brothers, sisters and friends. I just cannot bear to observe my kids ogling and, at times, imitating her. She is the other woman we have grown up to distance ourselves from. But she is everywhere, laughing at my embarrassment, knowing fully well that I too like to ogle at her in private. What do I do? Implore the broadcasters to maintain certain decency? Request the government to regulate the contents telecast on television? Neither is willing, for my definition of decency is quite different from someone else's perception of what constitutes a decent content. Self-regulation does not work, as it goes against the very spirit of gaining television rating points. Broadcasters want eyeballs which is possible only with innovative (read teas­ing) contents. To be fair to broadcasters, some of the recent soaps have raised relevant social issues. But social issues have been packaged in such a way that they send out confusing sig­nals. Should we then ask the government to take the cudgel on our behalf? That is a sure recipe to stifle creativity we can ill-af­ford. Then what is the way out? Broadcasters should evolve a collective self-regulation code. Once that is enforced in true letter and spirit, I will have no problem watching desi girl in all her avatars even with my kids and parents. Till that happens, we will have to put up with the daily atyachaar. 51. The issue raised in the passage is

1) Abundance of vulgar cinema 2) Irresponsible attitude of products 3) Indecent programmes being telecast on Indian television 4) All the above 5) None of these

52. What does the term daily soap refer to? 1) The place we go to daily for entertainment 2) A television programme that is telecast almost daily

by a TV channel 3) An entertainment programme that-we like to watch

daily 4) All the above 5) None of these

53. What/whom does 'desi girl' in the passage refer to? 1) A television programme being telecast these days 2) A movie released recently 3) Girls living in villages or small towns 4) Girls who are not the victim of cultural bankruptcy 5) None of these

54. What is the cause of the author's embarrassment? 1) Watching programmes on a small screen 2) His kid's indecent gestures and their acts of imitation

3) Because his kids think that the author himself likes ogling in private

4) His compulsion to watch daily soaps showing the 'desi girl' along with kids and other family members

5) None of these 55. 'Broadcasters want eyeballs'— what does this phrase

mean? 1) Broadcasters want products which might protect their

eyes 2) They want the eyes of their viewers so that they might

be rated high. 3) Broadcasters remain interested in maximising their

viewership. 4) All the above 5) None of these

56. Why does the wri ter not want to implore the broadcasters to maintain a certain level of decency? 1) He is confident that such a request will fall on a deaf ear. 2) It will cause him embarrassment. 3) It is against the very spirit of gaining television rating

points. 4) He feels that they have no responsibility towards our

society. 5) None of these

57. The author doesn't want even to ask the government for taking the cudgel of regulation so that a certain level of decency might be maintained. Why? 1) He is fearful of being the victim of the broadcaster's

'atyachaar'. 2) He doesn' t want to annoy the viewers of such

programmes. 3) He is not aware of legal procedures. 4) He thinks that it will take too long to be effective. 5) None of these

58. What is the ultimate method which, according to the passage, may encourage broadcasters to maintain an ideal level of decency in their programmes? 1) A viewers' society can be useful. 2) A boycott by the masses of indecent programmes

can be fruitful. 3) A collect ive self-regulat ion code evolved by

broadcasters themselves followed by its implement­ation in the true sense

4) B & C 5) None of these 59. What is meant by lda\\y-atyachaar,7

1) The 'atyachaar' of dish operators by increasing rates frequently.

2) 'C grade programmes are like 'atyachaar'. 3) Poor quality of telecast in the form of weak signals 4) Telecast of innovative (teasing) contents and the

compulsion to watch them with family members, including kids

5) None of these Directions (Q. 60-62): Choose the word(s) which is/a re the

same in meaning as the word given in bold as used in the passage. 60. Attire

1) Readymade garments 2) Doctor's dress 3) Designer clothes 4) Dress

5) Designs out of fashion 61. Implore

1) Message 2) Say forcefully 3) Say respectfully 4) Implement 5) Denounce

62. Cudgel 1) The stick of rules and regulations 2) The stick of a teacher 3) The thick bamboo stick of a policeman 4) Arms and ammunition 5) A special force used for controlling a revolutionary mob Directions (Q. 63-65): Choose the words which is/are the

opposite in meaning ofthe word given in bold as used in the passage. 63. Ogling

1) Stare sensuously 2) Stare sideways by one eye 3) A dignified view 4) Teasing 5) Torturing

64. Perception 1) Deception 2) Illusive 3) Deceitful 4) Understanding 5) Believing

65. Stifle l)Kill 2) Press one's neck 3) Encourage 4) Succumb 5) Set free Directions (Q. 66-75): Read each sentence carefully

and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts— 1,2,3 or 4. In case of 'No error', 5 will be the answer. 66. 1) It is expected/ 2) that the new scheme / 3) will catch on

by the entry of / 4) LIC in this segment. / 5) No error 67. 1) The borrower and / 2) his spouse can / 3) stay in the

property / 4) for his lifetime. /5) No error. 68. 1) Nelson Mandela is / 2) widely recognised/ 3) as

Mahatma Gandhi / 4) of South Africa./ 5) No error 69. 1) Terrorists have / 2) made life a hell / 3) in Kashmir

which was / 4) known as heaven on earth. /5) No error 70. 1) He thought he / 2) could see a lake in / 3) the distance

but it / 4) was only an optical allusion. / 5) No error 71. 1) I am not / 2) hungry; I had / 3) a meal / 4) in noon. / 5)

No error. 72. 1) On closer / 2) observation he detected / 3) a crack in

the / 4) main support of the bridge. / 5) No error 73. 1) It was / 2) courageous to him / 3) to wrest the weapon

/ 4) from the burglar's hand. / 5) No error 74. 1) If he does not / 2) stop to boast,/ 3) he will antagonise

/ 4) all his friends. / 5) No error. 75. 1) You, Hari and 1/2) are equal / 3) partners in my / 4)

FMCG business. / 5) No error Directions (Q. 76-85)) Fill up the blanks with the most

suitable pair of words from the options given to make meaningful sentence. 76. It is useless to plan a picnic until the weather

more . 1) get, clear 2) be, movable 3) becomes, stable 4) gets, pleasant 5) shows, pleasure

77. Napoleon made a entry Paris. 1) victorious, to 2) triumphal, into 3) triumphing, towards 5) proud, in

4) powerful, for

78. Do you realize the of the task which us 1) magnitude, confronts 2) intensity, before 3) importance, done 4) gravity, met 5) aim, recognised

79. The General was able to his troops by his words.

1) inspire, brave 2) ignite, gentle 3) power, encouraging 4) motivate, sentimental 5) drive, firing

80. The performance of players better than at last. 1) former, were 2) beginning, are 3) star, was 4) initial, was 5) early, is

81. Those people had teeth because of a in their diet. 1) bad, defect 2) yellow, deficient 3) no, low-calorie 4) weak, shortage 5) poor, deficiency

82. The angry citizen was by the principal to the boy who had broken his window. 1) said, tell 2) told, name 3) asked, identify 4) ordered, recognise 5) instructed, point out

83. There to be some on travelling in the forest in dry weather. 1) should, control 2) ought, restriction 3) must, law 4) may, guide 5) can, expert

84. The of oil soon changed the town into a busy

1) discovery, metropolis 2) search, place 3) location, area 4) expectation, location 5) finding, state

85. Let us invite all the to in the game. 1) seniors, view 2) locals, come 3) newcomers, participate 4) friends, partake 5) colleagues, enjoy Directions (Q. 86-90): Rear range the sentences given

below in a way which would make an appropr ia te and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.

A. If you have spotted this happening in your family, you would be doing them a favour by intervening.

B. I would advise you to do it in one serious talk with the parents, rather than several gentle and subtle hints, which tend to sound like nagging and are easily ignored! Find the right note-firm, serious, but not judgemental.

C There are many parents around who are themselves unable to switch off from the network, and yet-expect their kids to play, study, read, make friends, eat and sleep well.

D. A child exposed constantly to things like laptops, ipods etc instead of playmates, physical games and toys or interactions with people around him, is bound to lose out on so much.

E It may appear like interferences but steel yourself

and get involved. 86. Which one of the following should come FIRST after

rearrangement? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

87. The second SECOND sentence will be 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

88. The sentence at T H I R D place will be 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

89. The FOURTH sentence will be 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E

90. The sentence which will come at LAST is 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D 5)E Directions (91-100): In the following passage some of

the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

Pythons are 91 non-venomous snakes found 92 in damp places or rocky ledges near marshes or in 93. They are considered to be the most primitive 94 the living snakes, 95 they retain the hind limbs of a 96 era in the form 97 horny claw-like spurs, which are present 98 either side of 99 anus. These hind limbs are functionless 100 female pythons. 91. 1) small 2) tiny 3) cute

4) huge 5) big 92. 1) mostly 2) rarely 3) occasionally

4) hardly 5) specially 93. 1) cities 2)jungles 3) hills

4) towns 5) areas 94. 1) between 2) in 3) over

4) among 5) most of 95. l ) s o 2) because 3) and

4) but 5) therefore 96. 1) bygone 2) latest 3) present

4) future 5)recent 97. l ) in 2) for 3) on

4) of 5) to 98. l )over 2)above 3) on

4) in 5) at 99. l ) the 2) a 3) an

4) that 5)they 100. l)with 2) among 3) on

4) in 5) between

1)4642000 2)570285 3)817040 4)460000 5) None of these Directions (Q. 111-115): Wha t sliould come in place of

the question mark (?) in the following number series? 111.279936 46656 7776 1269 ?

1)412 2)324 3)216 4)172 5) None of these 112.576 1196 2016 3036 4256 ?

1)4836 2)5676 3)5842 4)6012 5)6448 113. 13 94 30 79 43 68 52 ?

1)72 2)70 3)65 4)63 5)61 114.504 236 210 ? 60 24

1)120 2)144 3)160 4)172 5)180

115.33 77 139 225 341 ? 687 1)489 2)491 3)493 4)495 5)497 Directions (Q. 116-120): Each of these questions is

followed by two statements. Mark your answer 1) If the question can be answered using statement (I)

alone but not statement (II) alone. 2) If the question can be answered using statement (II)

alone but not statement (I) alone. 3) If the question can be answered using both the

statements together but can ' t be answered using either statement alone.

4) If the question can be answered using either statement alone.

5) If the question can't be answered using even both the statements together.

116. A two-digit even number is divisible by ' 4 ' . What is the number? L The sum of the digits is ' 7 ' .

117. A sum of money is distributed among four persons A, B, C and D. The average amount they get is Rs 6000. What is the amount 'C gets? 1 'A' and 'C together get Rs 14000. D. 'B 'ge t s Rs 3000 less then w h a t ' C gets.

118. What is the length of a square I Its perimeter is 160 cm. H Its area is 1600 sq cm.

119. A person sells an item with 20% profit. What is the cost price of the item? I The difference between the selling price and the cost

price isRs 16. D. The selling price is 120% of the cost price.

120. What is the value of X? I X + Y = 70 tt Y + Z = 90

121. What is the number of quadrilaterals that can be formed by joining the vertices of a polygon of seven sides? 1)70 2)45 3)40 4)35 5) None of these

122. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. Find the chances that tail will appear exactly twice.

123. What is the compound interest on Rs 17500 in 2 years? The rate of interest is 10% for the first year and 12% for the second year l)Rs3680 2)Rs3820 3)Rs4060 4)Rs4175 5) None of these

124. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs 500 after 3 years. In the next 6 years, the principal becomes 5 times. What will be the total interest at the end of 8 years? l )Rs4200 2)Rs4800 3)Rs5200 4) Rs 5500 5) None of these

125. A vessel of 50 litres is filled with milk and water. 40% of the milk and 15% of the water is taken out of the vessel. It is found that the vessel is emptied by 30%. What was the initial quantity of milk and water? 1)30 litres, 20 litres 2) 24 litres, 15 litres 3) 20 litres, 16 litres 4) 25 litres, 20 litres 5) None of these

126. A shopkeeper sold an item for Rs 600 after giving 20% discount on the labelled price and made 24% profit on the cost price. What would have been the percentage profit if he had not given the discount? 1)44% 2)55% 3)64% 4)22% 5)48%

127. Two cars travelled equal distances at the speed of 50 kmh"1 and 40 kmh"1 respectively. What is the distance if

one car takes 5 hours longer than the other? 1) 1200km 2) 1000km 3)800km 4) 750 km 5) None of these

128. Two trains of length 120m and 80m respectively with different speeds pass a pole in 3 seconds and 8 seconds respectively. In what time will they cross each other when they are moving in opposite directions? 1) 4 seconds 2) 5.5 seconds 3) 2 seconds 4) 5 seconds 5) 11 seconds

129. The diagonal of a square is 8m. What is the area of the sauare?

130. A man takes four times as long to row up as to row down the river. If the rate of river is 6 kmh"1 what is the rate of the man in still water? 1) 10 kmph 2) 9 kmph 3) 12 kmph 4) 15 kmph 5) None of these Directions (Q. 131-135): Following bar-graph shows

the income of two companies 'A' and 'B' in the period of 1996 to 2000.

131. What is the difference (in Rs) between the average income of Company A and that of Company B? 1) 2 crores 2) 2.4 crores 3) 3.6 crores 4)4.2crores 5) 5 crores

132. The income of Company B in the year 1996 is what percentage of its income in 1997? 1)95% 2)92.5% 3)90% 4)87.5% 5)80%

133. What is the percentage rise in the income of Company A from the year 1999 to 2000? 1)150% 2)180% 3)200% 4)220% 5)240%

134. The income of Company B in the year 1996 is how much % more than that of Company A in the year 1998? 1)30% 2)70% 3)75% 4)80% 5)25%

135. If Company B had a loss of 20% in the year 2000, what was its expenditure (in Rs) in that year? 1) 60 crores 2) 62.5 crores 3) 64 crores 4) 67.5 crores 5) 70 crores

136. If the expenditure of Company B in year 2001 Rs was 66 lakhs then what was its income (in Rs) in the same year? 1)94 lakhs 2) 98.2 lakhs 3) 102 lakhs 4) 105.6 lakhs 5) None of these

137. If the income of company A in year 2003 was Rs 119 lakhs then what was its expenditure (in Rs) in that year? 1) 85 lakhs 2) 86 lakhs 3) 90 lakhs 4) 94 lakhs 5) 96 lakhs

138. In which year was the difference of the net profits of these two companies the minimum? 1)2000 2)2002 3)2003 4)2004 5) None of these

139. If the income of Company A in year 2002 and the income of Company ' B ' in year 2003 was equal, which is Rs 84 lakhs then what is the sum (in Rs) of the expenditure of Company A in 2002 and that of Company B in 2003? 1)118.6 lakhs 2) 120 lakhs 3) 123.2 lakhs 4) 124.4 lakhs 5) None of these

140. If the expenditure of Company A in year 2002 is Rs 40 lakhs then what is the income of Company B in the same year (in Rs)? 1)60 lakhs 2) 50 lakhs 3) 52 lakhs 4) 64 lakhs 5) Data inadequate Directions (Q. 141-145): Following line-graph shows

the ratio of import to export of two companies 'A' and 'B' during the period 1990 to 1995.

141. If the export of Company B in year 1992 was Rs 72 lakhs then what was its import (in Rs) in the same year? 1) 90 lakhs 2) 57.6 lakhs 3) 60 lakhs 4) 56 lakhs 5) None of these

142. If the import of Company B in year 1993 was Rs 72 lakhs then what was its export (in Rs) in the same year? 1)60 lakhs 2) 64 lakhs 3) 86.4 lakhs 4) 84 lakhs 5) None of these

143. In which year was the value of export of Company A less than the value of its import in that year? 1)1990 2)1992 3)1993 4)1994 5) None of these

144. If the import of Company A in year 1992 and the export of Company B in year 1990 was Rs 66 lakhs and Rs 166 lakhs respectively then what was the sum (in Rs) of export of A in year 1992 and import of B in year 1990? 1) 176.4 lakhs 2) 178.6 lakhs 3) 182 lakhs 4) 184.5 lakhs 5) 188 lakhs

145. If the import of Company B in year 1995 is increased by 20% and export is decreased by 20%, then what will be the new ratio of its import to export? 1)0.50 2)0.40 3)0.60 4)0.75 5)0.80 Directions (Q. 146-150): A total of 2 lakh students

appeared for the IIT entrance examination. 2.2% of total candidates scored more than 50% marks in Chemistry, 2.15% got more than 50% marks in Physics and 1.9% got 50% in Maths. 0.45% students got above fifty per cent in Physics and Maths but not in Chemistry. The same number of students got above fifty per cent in Physics and Chemistry but not in Maths. 0.35% of students got more than 50% marks in

Maths and Chemistry but not in Physics. ^ 0 0 o f the total candidates scored above 50% marks in all three subjects.

Answer the following questions based on this information. 146. What is the number of students who scored above 50%

marks in Maths only? 1)900 2)1200 3)1500 4)1800 5) None of these

147. How many students are there who scored above 50% of marks at most in one subject? 1)195500 2)196500 3)197500 4) 198500 5) None of these

148. How many students scored above fifty per cent in exactly two subjects? 1)2100 2)2200 3)2300 4)2400 5)2500

149. How many students are there who scored above 50% marks in at least one subject. 1)7200 2)7500 3)8000 4)8400 5)9000

150. What percentage of students scored above fifty per cent marks in at least two subjects? 1)1.75% 2)2.25% 3)2.5% 4 ) 3 % 5)3.5%

Test of Reasoning Directions (Q. 151-155): In each question below is given

a statement followed bv two assumptions numbered I and II.

An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following as­sumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer

1) if only assumption I is implicit. 2) if only assumption II is implicit. 3) if either I or II is implicit. 4) if neither I nor II is implicit. 5) if both I and II are implicit.

151. Statement: "Had my father been alive, he would never have allowed me to join films."— Miss X, a singer

Assumptions: I. Sometimes tragedy brings prosperity in the life of an individual. II. Film industry witnesses many ups and downs, therefore there is no guarantee that prosperity will come in life.

152. Statement: "Our study materials do not necessarily sat­isfy one's greed but certainly satisfy one's need to become a Probationary Officer (PO)." — An advertisement of 'X' coaching institute

Assumptions: I. The need to become a PO can be satis­fied with a certain amount of efforts but one's greed can not be satisfied with certainty. II. Desires of most of the people (who aspire for PO) are not conducive to their real requirements.

153. Statement: "If you believe that stars and planets influ­ence the course of your life, then the four-album series Navagraha is meant for you. It is the collector's series for those who want to keep their fortunes intact."— An advertisement

Assumptions: I. Some people hanker after a prosperous life without labouring. II. Astronomy plays a vital role in one's life and cautions one against unfavourable situations.

154. Statement: "Onlyyou know what is better strategy for you. So listen to various views but implement what suits you the best." —An ultimate success formula to youngsters by an IAS topper among women.

Assumptions: I. Some people need help from others while choosing an appropriate strategy for preparations. II. Each individual has the capacity to judge her­self as well as adopt right courses of action after self-evaluation.

155. Statement: "There should be joint patrolling by Indian and Pakistani forces to check infiltration of mili­tants into Jammu and Kashmir."—PM of India

Assumptions: I. Joint patrolling scheme is the only pos­sible and practical way to check infiltration. II. Pakistan Government will turn down India's pro­posal of joint patrolling of LoC as unworkable in the present circumstances.

Directions (Q. 156-160): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement Give answer

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows. 3) if either I or II follows. 4) if neither I nor II follows. 5)IfbothIandIIfollow.

156. Statement: "If you are attacked it is perfectly legitimate under international law to exercise the right of hot pursuit. At this moment we are not considering it."— Union Home Minister of country 'X'

Conclusions: I. Hot pursuit is the ultimate step. II. Country 'X' has been attacked by some other country.

157. Statement: Current research has revealed that tea con­tains specific antioxidants and health-promoting in­gredients, lowering the risk of heart disease, stroke and certain types of cancer like oral, pancreatic and prostate.

Conclusions: I. A regular tea habit combined with a bal­anced diet and regular exercise is likely to promote healthy lifestyle of humans. II. Now each cup of tea will help our body to detoxify harmful free radicals that work against the immune system.

158. Statement: "Examination papers of Science for class X and Maths and Physics for class XII have been simplified by the Central Board of Secondary Edu­cation (CBSE)."—Director of CBSE

Conclusion: I. The initiative adopted by CBSE will im­prove efficiency of students to a great extent. II. The simplification of examination papers is likely to reduce psychological pressure on students.

159. Statement: Under the newly formulated strategy by state X, the use of articles made of non-reusable plastics

such as forks, spoons, cords or strings, sheets and mats and the distribution of newspapers and peri odicals in plastic wrappers have been banned as an environment-cleaning initiative.

Conclusions: I. Most people of State X will be satisfied with the initiative taken by the government. II. Most people of state X will not be satisfied by the initiative taken by the government.

160. Statement: The CM of state Y has introduced in the State Assembly a bill that seeks to rob thousands of government employees of one of their "hard-won rights"—the right to strike work.

Conclusions: I. The move is likely to dismantle the very purpose of granting workers the freedom to form a union to enable them to seek relief if and when they are denied their dues. II. Now the state government is likely to be empow ered to deal promptly and effectively with strikes in essential services.

Directions (Q. 161-165): In the following questions, the symbols $, ©, ⋆, @ and # are used with the following meanings:

P $ Q means P is not equal to Q. P © Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q. P @ Q means P is not greater than Q. P x Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q. P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q. Now in each of the following questions, assuming the

given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answer

1) if only conclusion I is true; 2) if only conclusion II is true; 3) if either I or II is true; 4) if neither I nor II is true; and 5) if both I and II are true.

161. Statements: L$T, S#T, W©S, ⋆K Conclusions: I. L ⋆ S II. W # L

162. Statements: D$E, F$E, F © Q H©G Conclusions: I .H#E II.E#H

163. Statements: T@K, G @ H, T©H, L©K Conclusions: I. L x G ILL©G

164. Statements: J x Q GOM, M$N, N©S Conclusions: I. S# J II.SSG

165. Statements: P x Q, M#Q, T$Q, T©D Conclusions: I. M # P II. D @ P Directions (Q. 166-170): Study the following information

carefully and answer the given questions. A, B, C, D, E and F are six persons. Among them three are

females. All of them are preparing to become officers in banks. They are preparing for the competitive examinations for va­cancies announced by the recruitment cell of three different departments, ie RBI, IBPS and Andhra Bank. Two persons each are preparing for the examination for vacancies of offic ers announced by each department. Each female is preparing for three different departments. Two persons are good at Reasoning, two at Quantitative Aptitude (QA) and the remaining two at English. No one is good at more than one subject. No two females are good at the same subject.

B and D are good at Reasoning. E is good at the same subject as C but not at English. D and F are preparing for the same department, ie IBPS. C is a female who is preparing for RBI withB. 166. Which of the following groups consists only of males?

1)EFA 2)BEA 3)EFC 4)BFD 5) None of these

167. Which of the following groups consists only of females? 1) Can't say 2)ACB 3)CDE 4)ADF 5) None of these

168. Which of the following persons are good at English ? 1)A,C 2)F,E 3) Can't say 4)A,F 5) None of these

169. Who among the following persons are preparing for of­ficers in Andhra Bank ? l ) A a n d F 2 ) E a n d F 3) Can't say 4) A and E 5) None of these

170. Which of the following statements are not necessary while answering Q no 169 ? I. C is a female. II. E is good at same subject as C. III. E and C are not good at English. IV. No one is good at more than one subject. 1) Only I, II and III 2) Only II, III and IV 3) Only I and II 4) All are necessary 5) None of these Directions (Q. 171-175): A word arrangement machine,

when given a particular input, rearranges it following a par­ticular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement:

Input: tour bask door 64 69 24 in and Step I: tour and bask door 64 69 24 in Step II: tour and 69 bask door 64 24 in Step HI: tour and 69 in bask door 64 24 Step IV: tour and 69 in 64 bask door 24 Step V: tour and 69 in 64 24 bask door Step VI: tour and 69 in 64 24 door bask and Step VI is the last output. As per the rule followed in the above steps find out the

answer to each of the following questions: 171. If step II of an input is "98 12 tea milk ghee 72 89 enjoy"

which of the following is the last step ? 1)98 12 89 ghee enjoy tea 72 milk 2)98 12 89 ghee enjoy tea milk 72 3) 98 12 89 ghee tea milk 72 enjoy 4) 98 12 89 tea milk ghee 72 enjoy 5) None of these

172. If the 4th step of an input is drinks 18 71 egg of ink 27 down

then which of the following will definitely be the second step of the input ? 1) drinks 18 of egg 71 ink 27 down 2) drinks 18 egg of 71 ink 27 down 3) drinks 18 71 egg of ink 27 down 4) Can't be determined 5) None of these

173. Input: he 129 37 she bit 69 96 all Which of the following will be the third step? 1)129 he 37 she bit 69 96 all 2) 129 he 96 37 she bit 69 all 3) 129 he 96 all 69 37 she bit 4) 129 he 96 all 37 she bit 69 5) None of these

174. Input: 07 at 208 dusk down or 36 63 Which of the following steps would be 208 07 63 at down dusk or 36? 1)111 2)IV 3) VI 4) Can't be determined 5) None of these

175. If the last step of an input is this 2 54 is task hard that 36

then which of the following is the Input? 1) Can't be determined 2) task hard 2 is 54 that 36 this 3) hard task 2 is 54 that 36 this 4) hard 2 task is 54 that 3 6 this 5) None of these Directions (Q. 176-180): Below is given a passage fol­

lowed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of t ruth or falsity. Mark answer

1) if the inference is 'definitely true', ie it properly fol­lows from the statement of facts given.

2) if the inference is 'probably true' though not 'defi­nitely true' in the light of the facts given.

3) if the data are inadequate, ie from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

4) if the inference is 'probably false' though not 'defi­nitely false' in the light of the facts given.

5) if the inference is 'definitely false', ie it cannot possi­bly be drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts.

Working long hours and getting little sleep or time off is a sure-fire shortcut to an early grave. According to a new Anglo-Japanese study "working 60 or more hours a week, and regularly not getting much sleep, may double the risk of having a heart attack." An average night's sleep of five or fewer hours, for two nights of the working week, was associ­ated with a doubling and even tripling of the risk. The study, conducted between 1996 and 1998, looked at 260 men aged between 40 and 79 who had survived a first heart attack and matched them against 445 comparable men with no history of cardiac arrest. All were questioned closely about their work, relaxation and sleep patterns as well as other key areas such as lifestyle, weight, diet, blood pressure, cholesterol and dia­betes. The study found that while all participants had similar lifestyles and medical conditions, the heart attack group worked for longer hours, hardly relaxed and slept less than five hours a night significantly more often than the other group. 176. Sleep deprivation may lead to increased blood pressure. 177. Chronic stress causes heart function abnormalities. 178. One who takes sound sleep of more than seven hours

will not die young. 179. A lazy person's life expectancy is likely to be more than

a hardworking person's. 180. Sound sleep and relaxation after work is,a good preven­

tive measure to defer cardiac arrest. Directions (Q. 181-185): In each question below, there

are four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logi­cally follow(s) from the given statements. 181. Statements: a. Some books are pens.

b. All pens are pencils. c. No pencils are copies. d. Some copies are not calculators.

Conclusions: I. Some books are not calculators. II. No books are copies. III. No pens are copies. IV. Some pencils are not copies.

1) Only III follows 2) Only IV follows 3) Only III and IV follow 4) AH follow 5) None of these

182. Statements: a. All books are tables. b. All books are chairs. c. No copies are chairs. d. All chairs are stools.

Conclusions: I. Some copies are tables. II. All books are stools. III. Some stools are not tables. IV. All tables are stools.

1) Only II follows 2) Only II and IV follow 3) All follow except III 4) None follows 5) None of these

183. Statements: a. No cops are police. b. All police are humans. c. All humans are politicians. d. No politicians are doctors.

Conclusions: I. Only politicians are police. II. Only police are politicians. III. No humans are cops. IV. Some cops are not humans.

1) All follow 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) None follows 5) None of these

184. Statements: a. All jugs are slates. b. All tumblers are slates. c. No slates are pots. d. All pots are cauldrons.

Conclusions: I. Some cauldrons are jugs. II. Some cauldrons are not tumblers. III. Some cauldrons are tumblers. IV. No cauldrons are tumblers.

1) Only II follows 2) Either III or IV and either I or II follow 3) Either HI or IV along with II follows 4) None follows 5) None of these

185. Statements: a. Some bags are charts. b. Some charts are not docks. c. No docks are trees. d. Some trees are bridges.

Conclusions: I. Some docks are not bridges. II . No charts are trees. HI. No trees are charts. IV. Some bags are not docks.

1) None follows 2) Only I and IV follow 3) Only IV follows 4) Only I follows 5) None of these

186. In a certain code CUSTOMER is written as CEMOSURT; and BUMPKIN is written as IKMUBNP. How is AVOUCH written in that code? l)CAHOUV 2)ACOHUV 3)ACHOUV 4) ACOUHV 5) None of these

187. In a certain code ANXIETY is written as TINAXEY. How is COGNATE written in that code? l)TAOCGNE 2) EAGCONT 3)TNOCGAE

4) VNOCGAE 5) None of these 188. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and

so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) abnegation 2) abandonment 3) desertion 4) mitigate 5) sacrifice

189. If only the consonants in the word SALE are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the next letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter once and only once in a word? l)Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) None of these

190. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1)15625 2)676 3)4096 4)729 5)64 Directions (Q. 191-195): Each of the questions below

consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer

1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to an­swer the question while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

191. In which month will the SBI announce vacancies for officer's grade? I. SBI has been conducting examinations for officer's

grade in the month of February. II. A general trend observed by a person reveals that

banks give a span of up to six months to aspirants who prepare for examination for officer's grade.

192. How X is related to Y? I Pointing to X, a person said, "He is the son of the

father of the mother of the son of the grandson of Y." II. Y is the father of T, who is the father of S, who is the

husband of M, who is the sister of X. 193. What is the ratio of time taken by A and B while working

alone? I A takes 4 days more than the days required by A

and B working together. B takes 5 days more than A working alone.

IL A and B working together finish the work in 9 days less than the time taken by B working alone. But A takes 5 days less than B.

194. Towards which direction is C from Q? I C and Q are opposite each other. L is equidistant

from C and Q. II. L is neither towards north-east nor south-west of C

and Q respectively. 195. Among P, Q, R, S and T, who is third from the top when

they are ranked in descending order of their heights? It is given that no two persons have the same height. I At least three persons occupy places above P and T

and at least three persons occupy places below S andR.

II Q occupies position just below the position of that person whose position number is prime number as well as even number.

Directions (Q. 196-200): Study the following informa­tion carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven persons wearing shirts of different colours - blue, yellow, green, pink, red, indigo and white - and trousers of different colours - blue, black, green, yellow, red, indigo and white. The persons' colour of shirt and colour of trousers are not necessarily in the same order. No person is wearing shirt and trousers of the same colour.

V is wearing a white shirt and is not wearing yellow trousers. Q is wearing a yellow shirt and T is wearing red

trousers. The colour of P's shirt and S's trousers is the same. The colour of P's trousers and R's shirt is the same. The colour of T's shirt and U's trousers is the same. P and R are not wearing blue and green shirt respectively. S is not wear­ing green trousers. No person is wearing shirt and trousers of pink and an indigo combination. 1% . Who among the following is wearing indigo shirt?

1)P 2 )R 3)S 4) Can't say 5) None of these 197. Who among the following is wearing blue trousers?

1) Can't say 2)Q 3)R 4)S 5) None of these

198. What is the colour of T's shirt? 1) Can't say 2) Green 3) Red 4) Pink 5) None of these

199. What is the colour of R's trousers? 1) Can't say 2) White 3) Black 4) Yellow 5) None of these

200. The colour of S's shirt is the same as the colour of the trousers of 1)P 2)Q 3)R 4)T 5)Noneof these Directions (Q. 201-205): Study the following arrange­

ment of digits, letters and symbols and answer the questions given below:

P H B N 2 I S # A 3 7 D 4 E R $ 6 K M 5 F % T U J ⋆ 8 @ 201. Which of the following is neither immediately preceded

by a letter nor immediately followed by a letter? 1)H 2)U 3)B 4)8 5) None of these

202. If the positions of H and A are interchanged, and the positions of E and M are interchanged, how many such consonants will be there each of which will be both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a consonant? l)None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) None of these

203. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the above arrangement and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1)N2I 2)D4E 3)$6K 4)⋆8@ 5)374

204. What should come in place of the question mark(?) in the following series:

#P2 $H3 ? ⋆N4 @S6 1)%H7 2)TB7 3)%B7 4)7B% 5)4ER

205. How many such consonants are there each of which is either immediately preceded by a number and/or immediately followed by a symbol? 1) None 2) Six 3) Five 4) Seven 5) None of these Directions (Q. 206-210): A statement is given followed

by three courses of action. A course of action is taken for improvement, follow-up etc. Read the statement carefully and pick the correct answer choice. 206. Statement: The fare cuts announced by major airlines

has brought the cost of air travel comfortably close to the Indian Railways' upper-class fares.

Courses of Action: I. The Railways should respond with counter-cut. II. The Railways should give discount on Rajdhani and Shatabdi trains only. III. The Railways should begin to chart out a new fare structure.

1) Only I follows 2) Only III follows 3) Only I and II follow 4) Only I and III follow 5) None of these

207. Statement: The anti-venom serum for snakebites may soon be in short supply as a result of restrictions imposed on the use of horses for its extraction by a committee.

Courses of Action: I. People should be instructed not to go to snake-prone areas. II. The ministry of health should request the environment and forest ministry for permission to make available retired horses for the purpose of preparing antivenom serum. III. Suitable anti-venom serum should be imported soon.

1) All follow 2) Only III follows 3) Only II and III follow 4) Only I and II follow 5) None of these

208. Statement: A second-year medical student was mistaken for an outlaw and shot dead by the police on a highway. The incident has made the medical

students go on the rampage. Courses of Action: I. The policemen concerned should

be suspended immediately and an enquiry should be conducted. II. The whole matter should be entrusted to the Central Bureau of Investigation. III. Compensation should be given to the parents of the victim.

1) All follow 2) Only I and II follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) Only II and III follow 5) None of these

209. Statement: India's national bird does not have a safe sanctuary in the nation's capital itself. Last week about a dozen of them were brutally killed in some parts of the city and such killings have been going on for last couple of months.

Courses of Action: I. Killing of national bird should be declared as treason. II. Poachers should be banned from entering forests. IE. The nation's interest should be kept above all and no action should be taken towards such trivial issues.

1) Only I and II follow 3) Only III follows 5) None of these

210. Statement: Delay in monsoon is likely this year in India. Courses of Action: I. People should be made aware of this.

II. The Central Government should keep a close watch on the crop and weather situation. III. The Union Ministry of Agriculture should be ready to draw up a contingency plan and it should advise the states to be ready with alternative crop­ping strategies.

1) All follow 2) Only II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) Only I and II follow 5) None of these Directions (Q. 211-215): Read the following informa­

tion carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for admitting students in

the Postgraduate Management Course in an Institute: The student must (0 be a graduate with at least 50 per cent marks, (ii) not be less than 21 years as on 1 st December 2010.

Directions (Q. 216-220): Each of the following questions consists of unmarked figures followed by five figures marked 1,2,3 ,4 and 5. Select a figure from the marked figures which will continue the series established by the unmarked figures.

Problem Figures Answer Figures

2) Only I follows 4) None follows

(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in the en­trance examination.

(iv) be able to pay Rs 50,000 at the time of admission. However, if the student fulfils all the conditions except (a) at (i) above, but has at least two years' work experi­

ence, his/her case is to be referred to Chairman-Ad­missions.

(b) at (iv) above, but can pay at least Rs 30,000 at the time of admission and the remaining amount within a month, his/her case is to be referred to the Director.

You are given the following cases as on 1.12.2010. Depending upon the information provided in each case and based on the conditions mentioned above, recommend your decision. You are not to assume anything. .

Mark your answer as per the following: 1) if the case is to be referred to Chairman-Admissions. 2) if the student is not to be admitted. 3) if the case is to be referred to the Director. 4) if the student is to be admitted. 5) if the information provided is not adequate.

211. Subodh Mahapatra has secured 68% marks in the entrance examination. HecanpayRs 50,000/- atthe time of admission. He has secured 47% marks in his graduation. He completed his graduation atthe age of20 in the year2006 and since then he has been working in an organisation.

212. Prakash Paranjpe has secured 65% marks in graduation and 85% marks in the entrance examination. He can pay Rs 50,000/- at the time of admission. He has been work­ing for the past two years in an organisation.

213. Nupur Kashyap has secured 75% marks in the entrance examination. She can pay Rs 30,000/- at the time of ad­mission and the remaining amount after two weeks. She was bora on 8th January, 1989.

214. Sudha Nandgaonkar was born on 19th June, 1988. She has secured 7 5 % and 5 5 % marks in graduation and entrance examination respectively. She can pay Rs 50,000/- at the time of admission.

215. Prema Sharma is a first-class graduate. She has been working in an organisation for the past four years. She was born on30th July, 1986. Shecanpay Rs 35,000/-atthe time of admission and the remaining amount after a week. She has secured 65% marks in the entrance examination.

216.

217.

218.

Directions (Q. 221-225): In each of the following questions in four out of the five figures, element i is related to element ii in the same particular way. Find out the figure in which element i is not so related to element ii.