A&P I Fall 2018 Exam 2A

1) The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the A) desmosome.B) hemidesmosome.C) gap junction.D) tight junction.E) zonula adherens.

2) A type of intercellular junction that stops materials from crossing an epithelium between cells is called a(n) A) tight junction. B) gap junction. C) intermediate junction. D) desmosome. E) All of the answers are correct.

3) Cells that are flat and thin are classified as A) columnar.B) squamous. C) blasts.D) transitional. E) cuboidal.

4) The two major types of cell layering in epithelia areA) simple and proper. B) stratified and pseudostratified. C) squamous and simple. D) simple and stratified. E) cuboidal and columnar.

5) Which cell produces the protein fibers in areolar connective tissue? A) squamous cell B) adipocyte C) fibroblast D) chondroblast E) chondrocyte

6) The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is A) collagen. B) elastin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) connectin.

7) The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are A) tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments. B) loose, dense, and irregular. C) cartilage, bone, and collagen. D) collagen, reticular, and elastic. E) polar, cellular, and permeable.

8) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except A) protection of underlying tissue. B) excretion of salts and wastes. C) maintenance of body temperature. D) synthesis of vitamin C. E) detection of sensations.

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9) The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are A) adipocytes. B) keratinocytes. C) fibroblasts. D) melanocytes. E) dendritic cells.

10) The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are A) carotene, hemoglobin, and xanthophyll. B) carotene, melanin, and hemoglobin. C) melanin, chromatin, and chlorophyll. D) xanthophyll, hemoglobin, and melanin. E) melanin, carotene, and chromatin.

11) Cyanosis signifies that a patient hasA) had too much sun. B) been kept out of the sun. C) an allergic reaction. D) oxygen-starved skin. E) been exposed to cyanide.

12) Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation? A) increased activity by melanocytes B) production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells C) reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis D) chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes E) loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo

13) Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight?A) vitamin AB) vitamin B C) vitamin CD) vitamin D E) vitamin E

14) Children in northern regions experience months of inadequate sunlight exposure on the skin. To prevent possible abnormal bone development, what essential organic nutrient is necessary in the diet?A) vitamin CB) calciumC) cholecalciferolD) proteinE) retinol-A

15) The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the ________ layer. A) papillary B) reticular C) epidermal D) subcutaneous E) hypodermal

16) The protein that permits stretching and recoiling of the skin is A) collagen. B) melanin. C) keratin. D) elastin. E) carotene.

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Figure 5-1 The Components of the Integumentary System

Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following questions:

17) From what structure does sensible perspiration occur? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10

18) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

19) Which layer contains most of the accessory structures?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

20) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?A) body supportB) calcium homeostasisC) protection of internal organsD) blood cell productionE) All of the answers are correct.

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21) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?A) tendonsB) bonesC) ligamentsD) cartilageE) other tissues that connect bones

22) The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called theA) epiphyses. B) diaphyses. C) epiphyseal plates. D) metaphyses. E) periphyses.

23) The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone. A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid

24) Through the action of osteoclasts, A) new bone is formed. B) an organic framework is formed. C) bony matrix is dissolved. D) osteoid is calcified. E) fractured bones regenerate.

25) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain A) blood cells. B) osteocytes. C) chondroblasts. D) bone marrow. E) capillaries.

26) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called A) osteons. B) trabeculae. C) concentric lamellae. D) interstitial lamellae. E) lacunae.

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Figure 6-1 The Structure of Compact Bone

Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following questions:

27) Which structure is called an osteon? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

28) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

29) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) surface growth of bone C) remodeling of compact boneD) remodeling of spongy bone E) osteoporosis

30) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) concentric lamellaeB) circumferential lamellae C) interstitial lamellae D) trabeculae E) periosteum

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31) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. What is the correct order for these events? 1. Enlarged chondrocytes die. 2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.4. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage.5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a superficial layer of bone. A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

32) Bone growth in length occurs by mitosis of A) concentric lamellae.B) cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis. C) growth of trabeculae. D) osteoblasts in the endosteum. E) cartilage cells in the diaphyseal side of the metaphysis.

33) Intramembranous ossification A) produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull. B) explains how a juvenile's bone can grow in length. C) occurs in the diaphysis of a long bone. D) occurs inside a bag of cartilage. E) occurs in all bones before birth.

Figure 6-2 Endochondral Ossification

Use Figure 6-2 to answer the following question(s):

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34) Where does growth in length occur?A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

35) What type of tissue occurs at #1? A) elastic tissue B) fibrocartilage C) boneD) hyaline cartilage E) marrow tissue

36) What process is shown at #6? A) primary ossificationB) secondary ossification C) length growth D) width growth E) fracture repair

37) A lack of exercise could A) cause bones to become thicker. B) cause bones to store more calcium. C) result in porous and weak bones. D) cause bones to become longer. E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity.

38) In normal adult bones, A) there is no turnover of minerals. B) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year. C) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed. D) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases. E) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling.

39) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone A) calcitonin. B) thyroid hormone. C) parathyroid hormone. D) growth hormone. E) testosterone.

40) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways except A) stimulating osteoclast activity. B) increasing the rate of calcium absorption. C) decreasing the rate of calcium excretion. D) raising the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) inhibiting calcitonin secretion.

41) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following, except A) vitamin A. B) vitamin E. C) vitamin C. D) the hormone thyroxine. E) vitamin D.

42) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of A) potassium. B) iron. C) sulfate. D) calcium. E) sodium.

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43) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-related disease be prevented? A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat. B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair. C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C. D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair. E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy.

44) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott's fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) hypertension B) tachycardia C) erythema D) hematoma E) cyanosis

45) What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair?1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone.2. A hematoma occurs.3. An internal callus forms at the site of injury.4. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the bone at the site of repair. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 3, 1, 4, 2 D) 4, 2, 3, 1 E) 2, 3, 1, 4

46) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) guard body entrances and exitsE) All of the answers are correct.

47) At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium, come together to form a A) tendon. B) satellite cell.C) ligament. D) tenosynovium. E) sheath.

48) Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers A) lack a plasma membrane. B) have many nuclei. C) are very small. D) lack mitochondria. E) have large gaps in the cell membrane.

49) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscleB) repeating unit of striated myofibrilsC) storage and release site for calcium ionsD) thin filaments are anchored hereE) largely made of myosin molecules

50) The region of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band.

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51) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of A) actin, myosin, and titin filaments. B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae. C) filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres. D) A bands, H bands, and I bands. E) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres.

52) When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, theA) H bands and I bands get larger. B) zones of overlap get larger. C) Z lines move further apart. D) width of the A band increases. E) All of the answers are correct.

Figure 10-1 Skeletal Muscle Fiber

Use Figure 10-1 to answer the following questions:

53) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) mitochondria B) glycogen C) ATP D) myofibril E) synaptic vesicle

54) Which of the following are found in the structure labeled "3"?A) actinB) myosin C) titinD) tropomyosinE) All of the answers are correct.

55) What physiological process occurs in the structure labeled "7"? A) release of neurotransmitter B) conduction of the action potential into the cell interiorC) activity of acetylcholinesterase D) release of protein and calcium ions into the muscle fiber E) opening of sodium channels and subsequent influx of sodium

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56) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after A) actin binds to troponin. B) troponin binds to tropomyosin. C) calcium binds to troponin. D) calcium binds to tropomyosin. E) myosin binds to troponin.

57) Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the A) synaptic knob. B) motor end plate. C) sarcomere. D) synaptic cleft. E) transverse tubule.

58) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is A) active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. B) active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. D) diffusion of calcium out of the cell. E) diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

59) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs afterA) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the motor end plate.B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft.C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate.D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.E) Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.

60) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the correct sequence of these events?1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.2. The free myosin head splits ATP.3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3 C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6 D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2 E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5

Xtra Credit (1 point each)

1) Close examination of a healthy organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells lines the cavity of the organ. This tissue is a type ofA) epithelium. B) muscle tissue. C) connective tissue. D) neural tissue. E) fat tissue.

2) While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

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3) Suppose that epiphyseal lines appear in a 10-year-old's long bones. Which of the following statements is, therefore, true? A) The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible. B) Administration of growth hormone will stimulate future bone growth in length. C) Osteoclasts will dissolve the metaphysis so length growth can continue until adulthood. D) More growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate rebuilding of growth plates. E) Intramembranous ossification will enable further growth in length.

4) Why does osteoporosis affect more women than men? A) Women typically do not get enough calcium in their diet. B) Men do not remodel the skeleton as fast as women. C) Pregnancy causes deossification of bones in women and will lead to osteoporosis. D) Men exercise more than women and therefore have less osteoporosis. E) Women have a decrease in sex hormones after menopause.

5) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction? A) increases tone in the muscle B) causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp C) increases the muscle's excitability D) produces a strong, continuous state of contraction E) reduces the muscle's ability for contraction

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