ALLEN M PAPE 00OM313040Combined).pdfPat S ALLEN CARE NSTITUTE KOT (RA) M FOR ACC PA 2014 PAPE ALLEN # 01 00OM313040 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 Corporate

Path to Success

ALLENCAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

PRACTICE TEST PAPER FOR RPMT 2014

PAPER CODE

ALLEN RPMT # 01

0 0 O M 3 1 3 0 4 0

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

Corporate OfficeALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

INSTRUCTIONS (funsZ'k)

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.

If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination and

shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cSBsaA ;fn dksbZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku ij

cSBk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkSj nksuksa dks dksbZ vU; tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA

2. Duration of Test is 3½ Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 800.

ijh{kk dh vof/k 3½ ?k.Vs gS rFkk iz'u i= esa 200 iz'u gSaA vf/kdre vad 800 gSaA

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yksx Vscy] dsYdwysVj ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gSA

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ifjoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kksa dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

iz'u i= gy djus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesa lHkh ist layXu gSa vFkok ughaA

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds 4 vad gSaA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ij 1 vad dkV fy;k tk,xkA mÙkj dks vuqeku ls Hkjuk gkfudkjd gks ldrk gSA

7. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

ijh{kkFkhZ dks gy fd;s x;s iz'u dk mÙkj OMR mÙkj iqfLrdk esa lgh LFkku ij dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy ikWbUV isu ds }kjk mfpr xksys dks xgjk djds

nsuk gSA

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

isfUly dk iz;ksx loZFkk oftZr gSA

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so / bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk dks tc rd uk [kksys a tc rd dgk u tk,sA

FULL SYLLABUS

1/29Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201400OM313040

RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER1. Which one of the following equation represent the

motion of a body with finite constant acceleration. Inthese equations y denotes the displacement of the bodyat time t and a, b and c are the constant of the motion -

(1) y = a

t + bt (2) y = at

(3) y = at + bt² (4) y = at + bt² + ct³2. A train of length 100 m is crossing a bridge 200m

in length at the speed of 72 km per hour. The timetaken by the train to cross the bridge is-(1) 24 sec (2) 15 sec(3) 10 min (4) 10 sec

3. An object is thrown along a direction inclined atan angle of 45° with the horizontal direction. Thehorizontal range of the particle is equal to-(1) Vertical height(2) Twice the vertical height(3) Thrice the vertical height(4) Four times the vertical height.

4. Three particles, A, B and C are projected from thesame point with same initial speeds making angles30°, 45° and 60° respectively with the horizontal.Which of the following statement is correct-(1) A, B and C have unequal ranges(2) Ranges of A and C are equal and less than that

of B(3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater than

that of B(4) A, B and C have equal ranges

5. Inuniform circular motion-(1) Both velocity and acceleration are constant(2) Acceleration and speed are constant but

velocity changes(3) Both acceleration and velocity change(4) Both acceleration and speed are constant

6. A small body of mass m slides without frictionfrom the top of a hemispherical cup of radius r asshown in the following figure. If it leaves thesurface of the cup at a vertical distance 'h' belowthe highest point, then-

(1) h = r (2) r

h3

= (3) r

h2

= (4) 2r

h3

=

1. fuEu lehdj.kksa esa ls dkSulh lehdj.k oLrq dh lekuRoj.k ls xfr dks iznf'kZr djrh gSA bu lehdj.kksa esa y, tle; ij foLFkkiu dks iznf'kZr djrk gS] a, b rFkk c xfrds fLFkjkad gS&

(1) y = a

t + bt (2) y = at

(3) y = at + bt² (4) y = at + bt² + ct³2. ,d Vªsu] ftldh yEckbZ 100 eh- gS] ,d 200 eh- yEch

iqy dks 72 fdeh@?kaVk dh pky ls ikj dj jgh gSA iqy dksikj djus esa Vsªu dks fdruk le; yxsxk&(1) 24 lsd.M (2) 15 lsd.M(3) 10 fefuV (4) 10 lsd.M

3. oLrq dks {ksfrt ds lkFk 45° dks.k ij iz{ksfir djrs gS rksmldh {ksfrt ijkl cjkcj gksxh&

(1) vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ ds

(2) vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dh nqxuh

(3) vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dh frxquh

(4) vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dh pkj xquh4. rhu d.k A, B rFkk C ,d gh fcUnq ls leku osx ls Øe'k%

30°, 45° rFkk 60° dks.k ij iz{ksfir fd;s x, gS rks dkSulk

dFku lR; gS&

(1) A, B rFkk C rhuksa gh vleku ijkl ij gksxsaA

(2) A rFkk C dh ijkl leku ijUrq B dh ijkl ls de

(3) A rFkk C dh ijkl leku ijUrq B ls vf/kd

(4) A, B rFkk C dh ijkl leku gksxh

5. leku oÙkh; xfr esa&(1) osx vkSj Roj.k fLFkj gksrs gSA(2) pky vkSj Roj.k fLFkj gksrs gSa ijUrq osx ifjofrZr gksrk

gSA(3) Roj.k vkSj osx ifjofrZr gksrs gSA(4) Roj.k vkSj pky fLFkj gksrs gSA

6. m nzO;eku dk ,d NksVk d.k] ?k"kZ.k jfgr r f=T;k dh v¼Zxksykdkj lrg ds 'kh"kZ ls fp=kkuqlkj fQlyrk gSA ;fn bldk'kh"kZ ls yEcor~ nwjh h ds rqY; fcUnq ij lrg ls lEidZlekIr gks tkrk gS rks&

(1) h = r (2) r

h3

= (3) r

h2

= (4) 2r

h3

=

2/29 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 00OM313040

RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER7. A body of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal

surface with an intial velocity of 4 m/sec comesto rest after 2 sec. If one wants to keep this bodymoving on the same surface with a velocity of4 m/sec the force requried is-(1) 8 newton(2) 4 newton(3) zero newton(4) 2 newton

8. A particle is projected up to the plane along arough plane inclined at an angle of 45° with the

horizontal, if the coefficient of friction is 1

2, then

the retardation is-

(1) g

2(2)

g

2

(3) g 1

122

+æ öç ÷è ø

(4) g 1

122

-æ öç ÷è ø

9. The blocks A and B are arranged as shown in thefigure. The pulley is frictionless. The mass of Ais 10 kg. The coefficient of friction between blockA and horizontal surface is 0.20. The minimummass of B to start the motion will be-

(1) 2 kg

(2) 0.2 kgA

P

B(3) 5 kg

(4) 10 kg

10. Which of the following statement is not correct-

(1) The rate of change of momentum of a particleis equal to the force acting on it.

(2) The rate of change of momentum of a systemof particles is equal to the external force actingon it.

(3) The net momentum of a system of particlesis always conserved even if a force is acting.

(4) Individual momentum of particle may changebut the total momentum is conserved if anexternal force is not acting on the system.

11. If momentum is increased by 20%, then thekinetic energy will increase by-

(1) 40% (2) 44%

(3) 66% (4) 50%

7. ,d nks fdyksxzke æOe;ku dh oLrq 4 eh/ls izkjfEHkd osx ls{ksfrt /kjkry ij pyrh gS vkSj 2 lsd.M ds ckn fojkevoLFkk esa vk tkrh gSA ;fn ge ml oLrq dks mlh lrg ij4 eh/ls ds fu;e osx ls pykuk pkgrs gS rks vko';d cydk eku D;k gksxk -(1) 8 newton(2) 4 newton(3) zero newton(4) 2 newton

8. ,d d.k dks ?k"kZ.k;qDr ur&lery ij ftldk > qdko dks.k45° gS] vf/kdre <yku dh fn'kk esa iz{ksfir fd;k x;k gSA

;fn ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 1

2 gks rks eanu gksxk&

(1) g

2(2)

g

2

(3) g 1

122

+æ öç ÷è ø

(4) g 1

122

-æ öç ÷è ø

9. CykWd A o B dks fp=kkuqlkj yxk;k x;k gS f?kjuh ?k"kZ.kjfgr gSA A dk nzO;eku 10 fdxzk gSA A dk lrg ds lkFk

?k"kZ.k xq.kakd dk eku 0.20 gS] xfr vkjEHk djus ds fy, B

dk U;wure nzO;eku gksxk&

(1) 2 fdxzk

(2) 0.2 fdxzkA

P

B(3) 5 fdxzk

(4) 10 fdxzk

10. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh ugha gSa -(1) ,d d.k ds laosx ifjorZu dh nj mlis yxus okys cy

ds cjkcj gksrh gSA

(2) ,d fudk; ds laosx ifjorZu dh nj ml ij dk;Zjrcká cy ds cjkcj gksrh gSA

(3) fdlh fudk; ds lEiw.kZ d.kksa dk dqy laosx lnSolajf{kr jgrk gSA tcfd ml ij cká cy dk;ZjrgSA

(4) ;fn fdlh fudk; ij dksbZ cká cy dk;Zjr ugha gS rksmldk dqy laosx lfjf{kr jgsxk tcfd mlesa mifLFkr,d d.k dk laosx ifjofrZr gks ldrk gSA

11. ;fn laosx esa 20% dh of¼ gksrh gS rks xfrt mtkZ esa gksusokyh o`f¼ gksxh -

(1) 40% (2) 44%

(3) 66% (4) 50%


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER12. A chain of mass M and length L is kept on a table

with L

4 portion overhanging from edge. Workk

done by external force to put the hanging portionback on the table-

(1) MgL

16(2)

MgL

32(3)

MgL

8(4)

MgL

12

13. A rigid body of mass m is moving in a circle ofradius r with a constant speed v. The force on the

body is 2mv

r and is directed towards the centre..

What is the work done by this force in movingthe body over half the cirumference of the circle.

(1) 2

2

mv

rp(2) Zero

(3) 2

2

mv

r(4)

2

2

r

mv

p

14. Two concentric shells of masses M1 and M2 arehaving radii r1 and r2. Which of the following isthe correct expression for the gravitational fieldat a distance r

r2

r1

M1

M2

(1) 1 22

G(M M )F

r

+= , for r < r1

(2) 1 22

G(M M )F

r

+= , for r < r2

(3) 22

GMF

r= , for r1 < r < r2

(4) 12

GMF

r= , for r1 < r < r2

15. A satellite is moving round the earth near the earthsurface with velocity v. To make the satelliteescape, the minimum percentage increase in itsvelocity is nearly-(1) 41.4% (2) 82.8%(3) 100% (4) none of the above

12. M æO;eku rFkk L yEckbZ dh ,d tathj est ij bl izdkj

j[kh gS fd mldk L

4 Hkkx yVdk gqvk gSA fdlh cká dkjd

}kjk yVds gq,s Hkkx dks est ij okil ykus ds fy;s fdrukdk;Z djuk gksxkA

(1) MgL

16(2)

MgL

32(3)

MgL

8(4)

MgL

12

13. m nzO;eku dh ,d n`<+ oLrq r f=kT;k ds o`Ùk esa fu;r pky

v ls xfr dj jgh gSA oLrq ij cy 2mv

r gS rFkk bldh

fn'kk dsUnz dh vksj gSA o`Ùk dh vk/kh ifj/kh ij pyus rdbl cy }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gS &

(1) 2

2

mv

rp(2) 'kwU;

(3) 2

2

mv

r(4)

2

2

r

mv

p

14. nks ladsæh; xksyh; dks"k ftuds æO;eku M1 rFkk M2

,oa f=T;k,sa Øe'k% r1 rFkk r2 gSA fuEu esa ls dsUæ lsnwjh ij xq#Roh; {ks= dh rhozrk ds fy;s dkSulk dFkulR; gSA

r2

r1

M1

M2

(1) 1 22

G(M M )F

r

+= , for r < r1

(2) 1 22

G(M M )F

r

+= , for r < r2

(3) 22

GMF

r= , for r1 < r < r2

(4) 12

GMF

r= , for r1 < r < r2

15. i`Foh dh lrg ds fudV ,d mixzg v pky ls pDdj yxk

jgk gSA mixzg dks iyk;u djkus ds fy, mldh pky esa

fdrus izfr'kr dh o`f¼ djuh gksxhA

(1) 41.4% (2) 82.8%

(3) 100% (4) none of the above


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER16. At what temprature will the average velocity of

oxygen molecule be sufficient so as to escapefrom the earth? Escape velocity from the earth is11.0 Km/sec. and the mass of one molecule ofoxygen is 5.34 × 10–26 kg.(K =1.38×10–23 joule/k)(1) 5.80 × 107 K (2) 3.87 × 104 K(3) 3.79 × 106 K (4) 1.56 × 105 K

17. The expression for mean free path is-

(1) 2

kT

2 d P=

pD (2)

2d P

kT

p=D

(3) kT

dP=

pD (4)

dP

kT

p=D

18. In a room where the temperature is 30°C a bodycools from 61°C to 59°C in 4 minutes the timetaken by the body to cool from 51°C to 49°C willbe-(1) 4 min (2) 6 min(3) 5 min (4) 8 min

19. Work done to convert 1 gm ice at –10°C to steamat 100°C is :–(1) 3045 J (2) 6056 J(3) 721 J (4) 616 J

20. A body executes simple harmonic motion. Thepotential energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (K.E.)and total energy (T.E.) are measured as afunction of displacement x from mean position.Which of the following statements is true?(1) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum(2) P.E. is minimum when x = 0(3) PE & K.E. is maximum when x = 0(4) T.E. is zero when x = 0

21. The work done in increasing the size of a soapfilm from 10 cm × 6 cm to 10 cm × 11 cm is3 × 10–4 Joule. The surface tension of the film is-(1) 1.5 × 10–2 N/m(2) 3.0 × 10–2 N/m(3) 6.0 × 10–2 N/m(4) 11.0 × 10–2 N/m

22. Two equal drops of water are falling through airwith a steady velocity of 5 cm/s. If the dropscoalesce, the new steady velocity of the coalesceddrop will be-(1) 5 cm/s (2) 10 cm/s(3) 7.94 cm/s (4) 6 cm/s

16. fdl rki ij vkDlhtu ds v.kqvksa dk vkSlr&osxi`Foh ls iyk;u dj tkus ds fy, i;kZIr gks tk;sxk\

i`Foh ls iyk;u osx 11.0 fdeh@ls rFkk vkDlhtu ds

v.kq dk nzO;eku 5.34 × 10–26 fdxzk gS&

(K = 1.38 × 10–23 twy/K)

(1) 5.80 × 107 K (2) 3.87 × 105 K

(2) 3.79 × 106 K (4) 1.56 × 105 K17. ek/; eqDr iFk (D) dk O;atd gS&

(1) 2

kT

2 d P=

pD (2)

2d P

kT

p=D

(3) kT

dP=

pD (4)

dP

kT

p=D

18. ,d dejs dk rki 30°C gS ,d oLrq blesa 61°C ls 59°C

rd 4 feuV esa B.Mh gksrh gS rks oLrq }kjk 51°C ls 49°C

rd B.Mk gksus esa le; yxsxk&

(1) 4 feuV (2) 6 feuV

(3) 5 feuV (4) 8 feuV19. –10°C ij 1 xzke cQZ dks 100°C dh ok"i esa cnyus ds

fy, fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk :–(1) 3045 twy (2) 6056 twy(3) 721 twy (4) 616 twy

20. ,d oLrq ljy vkorZ xfr djrh gSA bldh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ(P.E.), xfrt ÅtkZ (K.E.), vkSj dqy ÅtkZ (T.E.) ekè;fLFkfr ls foLFkkiu ds :i esa ekih tkrh gS] fuEu ls lR;

dFku pqfu;sA

(1) tc x vf/kdre gS rks K.E. vf/kdre gSA

(2) tc x = 0 gS rks PE U;wure gSA

(3) tc x = 0 gS rks PE o KE vf/kdre gSA

(4) tc x = 0 gS rks TE 'kwU; gSA21. lkcqu dh ,d fQYe ds vkdkj dks 10 lseh × 6 lseh ls

c<+dj 10 lseh × 11 lseh djus esa 3 × 10–4 twy dk;Zdjuk iM+rk gSA fQYe dk i`"B ruko gS&(1) 1.5 × 10–2 U;wVu@eh(2) 3.0 × 10–2 U;wVu@eh(3) 6.0 × 10–2 U;wVu@eh(4) 11.0 × 10–2 U;wVu@eh

22. nks leku ikuh dh cwans gok esa 5 lseh@ls ds fu;r osx ls fxj

jgh gSA ;fn cwans layhu gksrh gS] rks cM+h cwan dk u;k fu;r

osx gksxk&

(1) 5 lseh@ls (2) 10 lseh@ls

(3) 7.94 lseh@ls (4) 6 lseh@ls


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER23. A unifrom thin rod of length L and mass M is

bent at the middle point O as shown in figure.Consider an axis passing through its middlepoint O and perpendicular to the plane of thebent rod. Then moment of inertia about this axisis :

(1) 2

3 mL2 (2)

1

3 mL2

(3) 1

12 mL2 (4) dependent on q

24. The rate of transfer of energy in a wave depends(1) directly on the square of the wave amplitude

and square of the wave frequency(2) directly on the square of the wave amplitude

and square root of the wave frequency(3) directly on the wave frequency and square

of the wave amplitude(4) directly on the wave amplitude and square

of the wave frequency

25. ˆ ˆ Â 2i 4 j 4k= + +r

and ˆ ˆ ˆB 4i 2 j 4k= + -r

are twoo

vectors. The angle between them will be :-(1) 0° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°

26. The switches in figure (a) and (b) are closed att = 0 and reopened after a long time at t = t0. :-

C

e(a)

R

e(b)

RL

+ – + –

(a) The charge on C just after t = 0 is eC(b) The charge on C long after t = 0 is eC(c) The current in L just before t = t0 is Î/R(d) The current in L long after t = t0 is Î/R(1) a & d (2) b & c (3) b & d (4) a & c

27. An LR circuit with a battery is connected att = 0. Which of the following quantities is not zerojust after the connection ?(1) Current in the circuit(2) Magnetic field energy in the inductor(3) Power delivered by the battery(4) emf induced in the inductor

23. yEckbZ L o æO;eku M dh ,d iryh NM+ e/; fcUnwO ij fp=kkuqlkj eqM+h gSA e/; fcUnw O ls xqtjus okyhrFkk eqM+h NM+ ds ry ds yEcor ,d v{k ds ifjr%tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ gSA

(1) 2

3 mL2 (2)

1

3 mL2

(3) 1

12 mL2 (4) dependent on q

24. rjax eas mtkZ lapj.k dh nj fuHkZj djrh gS(1) rjax ds vk;ke ds oxZ ,oa vko `fÙ k ds oxZ ds

lekuqikrh

(2) rjax ds vk;ke ds oxZ ,oa vko`fr ds oxZewy ds

lekuqikrh

(3) rjax ds vk;ke ds oxZ ,oa vko`fr ds lekuqikrh(4) rjax ds vk;ke ,oa rj ax vko` fÙ k ds oxZ d s

lekuqikrhA

25. ˆ ˆ Â 2i 4 j 4k= + +r

vkSj ˆ ˆ ˆB 4i 2 j 4k= + -r

nks lfn'k gS]

buds chp dk dks.k gksxk :-(1) 0° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°

26. fn, x, fp=ks (a) rFkk (b) esa dqath dks t = 0 ij cUn djrsgS rFkk yEcs le; i'pkr~ t = t0 ij iqu% [kksyrs gS :-

C

e(a)

R

e(b)

RL

+ – + –

(a) la/kkfj= C ij vkos'k t = 0 ds rqjUr ckn eC gS(b) la/kkfj= C ij vkos'k t = 0 ds yEcs le; ckn eC gS(c) L esa /kkjk t = t0 ds rqjUr igys Î/R gS(d) L esa /kkjk t = t0 ds rqjUr ckn Î/R gS(1) a o d (2) b o c (3) b o d (4) a o c

27. ,d LR ifjiFk dks t = 0 ij ,d cSVjh ls tksM+k tkrk gSAfuEu esa ls dkSulh jkf'k cSVjh tksM+us ds rqjUr i'pkr~ 'kwU;ugh gS ?(1) ifjiFk esa /kkjk(2) izsjdRo esa pqEcdh; ÅtkZ(3) cSVjh }kjk iznku dh xbZ 'kfDr(4) izsjdRo esa izsfjr fo-ok-cy


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER28. A ray of light falls on the surface of a spherical

glass paper weight making an angle a with thenormal and is refracted in the medium at an angleb. The angle of deviation of the emergent ray fromthe direction of the incident ray(1) (a – b) (2) 2(a – b)(3) (a – b) / 2 (4) (b – a)

29. A ferromagnetic material is kept in a magneticfield. The field is increased till the magnetizationbecomes constant. If the temperature is nowdecreased, the magnetization :-(1) will increase(2) decrease(3) remain constant(4) may increase or decrease

30. A point source of light B is placed at a distanceL in front of the centre of a mirror of width d hungvertically on a wall. A man walks in front of themirror along a line parallel to the mirror at adistance 2L from it as shown. The greatestdistance over which he can see the image of thelight source in the mirror is

d

L

B

2LA

(1) d/2 (2) d (3) 2d (4) 3d31. An arc of radius r carries charge. The linear density

of charge is l and the arc subtends an angle 3

p

at the centre. What is electric potential at the centre

(1)012

lÎ (2)

06

lÎ

(3) 0

lÎ (4)

03

lÎ

32. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i2

with i1 > i2. When the currents are in the samedirection, the magnetic field at a point midwaybetween the wires is 10µT. If the direction of i2

is reversed, the field becomes 30µT. The ratioi1/i2 is :-(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

28. ,d dk¡p ds xksyh; isijosV ij izdk'k fdj.k vfHkyEc

ls a dks.k cukrh gqbZ vkifrr gksrh gS ,oa b dks.k ls ekè;e

esa viofrZr gks tkrh gS rks mRlftZr fdj.k dk vkifrr fdj.k

dh fn'kk ls fopyu dks.k gS&

(1) (a – b) (2) 2(a – b)

(3) (a – b) / 2 (4) (b – a)

29. ,d yksgpqEcdh; inkFkZ ds ,d pqEcdh; {ks= esa j[kk tkrk

gSA {ks= dks rc rd c<+k;k tkrk gS tc rd dh pqEcdu

fu;r uk gks tk,A vc rkieku ?kVkus ij pqEcdu :-

(1) c<+ sxk

(2) ?kVsxk

(3) fu;r jgsxk

(4) c<+ Hkh ldrk gS vkSj ?kV Hkh ldrk gS30. ,d nhokj ij Å/okZ/kj Vaxs d pkSM+kbZ ds ,d niZ.k ds dsUnz

ds lkeus L nwjh ij ,d fcUnq izdk'k L=ksr B fLFkr gSA

fp=kuqlkj ,d euq";] niZ.k ds lekUrj 2L nwjh ij fLFkr

js[kk ds vuqfn'k xfr djrk gSA og vf/kdre nwjh ftl ij

euq";] izdk'k L=ksr dk izfrfcEc niZ.k esa ns[k ldrk gS]

gksxh&

d

L

B

2LA

(1) d/2 (2) d (3) 2d (4) 3d31. ,d r f=T;k dk pki (arc) ftl ij js[kh; vkos'k ?kuRo

l gS] dsUnz ij 3

p dk dks.k vUrfjr djrk gSA dsUnz ij blds

dkj.k foHko dk eku Kkr djksA

(1)012

lÎ (2)

06

lÎ

(3) 0

lÎ (4)

03

lÎ

32. nks lekUrj yEcs rkj ftuesa /kkjk,a i1 rFkk i2 (i1 > i2) gSA

tc /kkjk,¡ leku fn'kk esa gS rks rkjksa ds e/; fcUnq ij pqEcdh;

{ks= 10µT gSA ;fn i2 dh fn'kk dks cny fn;k tk, rks

e/; fcUnq ij pqEcdh; {ks= 30µT gS rks i1/i2 vuqikr

gksxk :-(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER33. Electric field at a distance x from origin is given

as E = 100

3x then potential difference between

points situated at x = 2 meter and x = 5 meter :-(1) 10 V (2) 10.5V(3) 5V (4) 2V

34. Effective resistance between point A and B for followingnetwork is- (each branch of resistance is R)

A

B

(1) 5

R3

(2) 3

R5

(3) R (4) R

2

35. For the circuit shown in fig. Calculate the chargeon 8mF capacitor

30W 8µF

1V

13µF

4V

10W

(1) 20 mc (2) 10 mc(3) 4 mc (4) 2 mc

36. Two identical capacitors A and B are charged tothe same potential V and are connected in twocircuits and t = 0 as shown in figure. The chargeson the capacitors at a time t = CR are,respectively :-

+ –

C

A

R

+ –

C

B

R

(a) (b)

(1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC(3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e

33. ewy fcUnq ls 'x' nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= E = 100

3x ls fn;k tkrk

gS] rks x = 2 ehVj o x = 5 ehVj ij fLFkr fcUnqvksa ds eè;

foHkokUrj gS :-

(1) 10 V (2) 10.5V

(3) 5V (4) 2V

34. fuEu usVodZ (tky) ds fy, A o B fcUnqvkas ds chp izHkkohizfrjks/k gS (izR;sd czkap dk izfrjks/k R gS )

A

B

(1) 5

R3

(2) 3

R5

(3) R (4) R

235. fuEu ifjiFk esa 8mF /kkfjrk ds la/kkfj= ij vkos'k D;k

gksxk%&

30W 8µF

1V

13µF

4V

10W

(1) 20 mc (2) 10 mc(3) 4 mc (4) 2 mc

36. nks ,dleku la/kkfj= A rFkk B dks leku foHko V ls

vkosf'kr fd;k tkrk gS rFkk t = 0 ij n'kkZ;s x;s nks ifjiFkksa

ls tksM+k tkrk gSA t = CR le; ij nksuksa la/kkfj=ks ij vkos'k

Øe'k% gksxk :-

+ –

C

A

R

+ –

C

B

R

(a) (b)

(1) VC, VC (2) VC/e, VC(3) VC, VC/e (4) VC/e, VC/e


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER37. ,d /kkjkekih dks vehVj ;k oksYVehVj esa cnyk tkrk gS

fdl fLFkfr esa midj.k dk izfrjks/k vf/kdre gksxk (/kkjkekihdh vf/kdre ijkl = 1 mA gS)

(1) An ammeter of range 10 A

(2) A voltmeter of range 5 V

(3) An ammeter of range 5 A

(4) A voltmeter of range 10 V

38. ,d foHkoekih rkj dh yEckbZ 10 m gS rFkk bldk izfrjks/k4 W/m gS] lapk;d lSy dk e.m.f. 2 V gS rFkk bldsJs.khØe esa izfrjks/k ckWDl gS ckWDl dk izfrjks/k Kkr djsarkfd foHkoizo.krk 0.1 V/m gks tk;s&(1) 80 W (2) 120 W(3) 40 W (4) 4 W

39. ,d yEck] lh/kk] Bksl /kkrq dk rkj ftldh f=T;k 2 feeh-gSA blesa /kkjk vuqçLFk dkV ij ,d leku :i ls forfjrgSA blds v{k ls 2 feeh- nwjh ij pqEcdh; {ks= B gS] rksrkj dh v{k ls 1 feeh- nwjh ij pqEcdh; {ks= dk ekugksxk :-(1) B (2) 4B (3) 2B (4) B/2

40. ,d yEch ifjukfydk }kjk mRiUu pqEcdh; {ks= 'B' gSA

bldks rhu leku Hkkxksa esa foHkä dj fn;k tkrk gS o leku

Qsjksa dks fdlh ,d Hkkx ij yisVk tkrk gS] rks uohu

ifjukfydk }kjk mRiUu pqEcdh; {ks= dk eku Kkr djksA

(1) 2B (2) 3B

(3) B/2 (4) dksbZ ugha41. fn;s x;s fp= esa 20 V lsy ls izokfgr /kkjk Kkr djs&

10V 5V 20V 30V

5W 10W 5W 11W

25 V

(1) 7.2 A (2) 10 A (3) 1 A (4) 14.2 A42. ,d ijek.oh; bysDVªkWu ds pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ ,oa dks.kh;

laosx Øe'k% 'M' rFkk L gS] rks ijek.oh; bysDVªkWu dkfof'k"V vkos'k gksxk%&

(1) M

2L(2)

2M

L(3)

L

2M (4) dksbZ ugha

43. fdlh LFkku ij pqEcdh; ;kE;ksrj esa i`Foh ds pqEcdh;

{ks= dk {kSfrt ?kVd 0.26G gS] rFkk ufr dks.k 60º gSaA

ogk¡ i`Foh dk pqEcdh; {ks= fdruk gS :-

(1) 0.52G (2) 0.13 G

(3) 0.58 G (4) 0.26 3 / 2 G

37. A galvanometer may be converted into ammeteror voltmeter. In which of the following cases theresistance of the device will be largest ? (Assumethe maximum range of galvanometer = 1 mA)(1) An ammeter of range 10 A(2) A voltmeter of range 5 V(3) An ammeter of range 5 A(4) A voltmeter of range 10 V

38. A potentiometer wire has a length of 10 m andresistance 4 W/m. An accumulator of e.m.f. 2 Vand a resistance box are connected in series withit. Calculate the resistance to be introduced in thebox so as to get a potenitial gradient of 0.1 V/m.(1) 80 W (2) 120 W (3) 40 W (4) 4 W

39. A long, straight and solid metal wire of radius2 mm carries a current uniformly distributed overits circular cross section. The magnetic field at adistane 2 mm from its axis is B. Magnetic fieldat a distance 1 mm from the axis of the wire is(1) B (2) 4B (3) 2B (4) B/2

40. A straight long solenoid is produced magneticfield 'B' at its centre. If cut into three equal partsand same number of turns wound on one parts inFind magnetic field produced by new solenoid atits centre.(1) 2B (2) 3B(3) B/2 (4) None

41. In the circuit shown, current through 20 V cell is

10V 5V 20V 30V

5W 10W 5W 11W

25 V

(1) 7.2 A (2) 10 A (3) 1 A (4) 14.2 A42. Magnetic moment and angular momentum of an

orbital electron are 'M' and L respectively.Specefic charge of orbital electon :-

(1) M

2L(2)

2M

L(3)

L

2M(4) None

43. In magnetic maderian of a certain place, thehorizontal component of the earth's magnetic fieldis 0.26G and the dip angle is 60º. What is themagnetic field of earth at this location :-(1) 0.52G (2) 0.13 G

(3) 0.58 G (4) 0.26 3 / 2 G


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER44. mÙky ysUl ls cuk izfrfcEc fdl izdkj ls izHkkfor gksxk

;fn ysUl dk e/; Hkkx fp=kuqlkj dkyk djds vikjn'kZddj fn;k tk;s\

(1) izfrfcEc dk e/; Hkkx fn[kk;h ugha nsxkA

(2) ysUl ds 'ks"k Hkkx }kjk dksbZ izfrfcEc izkIr ugha gksxkA

(3) lEiw.kZ izfrfcEc izkIr gksxk ijUrq mldh rhozrk eUn

gksxhA

(4) nks izfrfcEc izkIr gksaxs ,d Åijh v¼Z Hkkx ds dkj.k

rFkk nwljk fupys v¼Z Hkkx ds dkj.kA45. ,d ;kSfxd lw{en'kh esa iz;ksx fd;s x;s nks ysUlks dh Qksdl

nwfj;k¡ 1.5 lseh rFkk 6.25 lseh gSaA ;fn bldh vfHkn`';dls ,d oLrq dks 2 lseh dh nwjh ij j[kk tkrk gS] rks nksuksaysUlksa ds chp dh nwjh gS ;fn izfrfcEc lehi fcUnq ij gS%&(1) 11 cm (2) 9.25 cm(3) 7.75 cm (4) 6 cm

46. nks fudkWy fizTe izkjEHk esa ØkWflr gS vc bues ls ,ddks 60° ?kqek nsus ij fuxZr izdk'k vkifrr dk izfr'krgksxk:-(1) 1.25 (2) 25.0 (3) 37.5 (4) 50°

47. l1 = 7500Å rjaxnS/;Z ds yky izdk'k ls izkIr n oha pedhyhfÝat] l2 = 6000Å rjaxnS/;Z ds gjs izdk'k ls izkIr (n + 1) ohapedhyh fÝat ds laikrh gS rc n dk eku Kkr djks?(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2

48. P-N laf/k foHko izkphj ds dkj.k fojks/k (izfrjks/k) djrkgS :-(1) N Hkkx esa Lora= bysDVªkWu ,oa P Hkkx esa gksyksa dk(2) P Hkkx esa Lora= bysDVªkWu ,oa N Hkkx esa gksyksa dk(3) N Hkkx esa flQZ Lora= bysDVªkWuksa dk(4) P Hkkx esa flQZ gksyksa dk

49. ,d U;wVªkWu 92U235 ij VDdj ekjrk gS rks 36Kr93 o 56Ba140

ds lkFk fuEu izkIr gksrs gSa–(1) a–d.k (2) 2–U;wVªkWu(3) 3–U;wVªkWu (4) 2–b d.k

50. Vin = 50 mV fn;k x;k gSA fp=kuqlkj 2 izo/kZd fn[kk;sgSA V0 dk eku gksxk :-(1) 10 KV(2) 10 V V0A = 201 A = 102Vin

(3) Zero(4) 2 × 106 V

44. How will the image formed by a convex lens beaffected, if the central portion of the lens is paintedwith black paint as shown in figure ?

(1) The central portion of the image will be absent(2) No image is formed by the remaining portion

of the lens(3) The full image will be formed, but it will be

less bright(4) There will be two images, one due to upper

half and other due to lower half45. In a compound microscope the focal lengths of

two lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25cm. If an objectis placed at 2 cm from objective lens, the distancebetween the two lenses is for image at Near point:-(1) 11 cm (2) 9.25 cm(3) 7.75 cm (4) 6 cm

46. Two Nicol prisms are first crosed and then oneof them is rotated through 60°. The percentageof incident light transmitted is :-(1) 1.25 (2) 25.0 (3) 37.5 (4) 50°

47. nth bright fringe of red light (l1 = 7500Å)coincides with (n + 1)th bright fringe of green light(l2 = 6000Å). The value of n ?(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 2

48. In P-N junction, the barrier potential offersresistance to :-(1) Free electrons in N region and holes in P region(2) Free electrons in P region and holes in N region(3) Only free electrons in N region(4) Only holes in P region

49. A neutron strikes a 92U235 nucleus and 36Kr93 and

56Ba140 are produced with the following(1) a–particle (2) 2–neutrons(3) 3–neutrons (4) 2–b particles

50. Given Vin = 50 mV. The amplifiers are connectedas shown. The value of V0 is :-(1) 10 KV(2) 10 V V0A = 201 A = 102Vin(3) Zero(4) 2 × 106 V


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER51. In which of the following does reaction go nearest

to completion :-(1) K = 10–2 (2) K = 1(3) K = 10 (4) K = 102

52. At a certain temperature equilibrium constant (Kc)is 16 for the reaction, SO2(g) + NO2(g) � SO3(g) + NO(g) if we take2 mol of each of the four gases in 10 litrecontainer, what would be the equilibriumconcentration of NO:(1) 0.32 mol/L (2) 1.6 mol/L(3) 0.4 mol / L (4) 0.2 mol /L

53. Solubility product of AgBr solution is 4 × 10–13 Ag+

concentration in it is 1 × 10–6 mol L–1. What willbe the Br– ion concentration in it ?(1) 4 × 10–19 mol L–1 (2) 4 × 107 mol L–1

(3) 4 × 10–7 mol L–1 (4) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1

54. Cl2 changes to Cl– and ClO¯ in cold NaOHequivalent weight of Cl2 will be :-

(1) M (2) M

2(3)

M

3(4)

2M

3

55. Reaction is,(a) Fe2(SO4)3 + (b) BaCl2 ® (c) BaSO4 + (d)FeCl3

How many moles of BaCl2 is needed to

produce1

mole2

of FeCl3 :-

(1) 3

4(2)

3

2

(3) 5

4(4)

1

256. Calculate the number of atoms of oxygen present

in 176 gm of CO2 :-(1) 2.408 × 1026 (2) 4.816 × 1023

(3) 1.204 × 1022 (4) 4.816 × 1024

57. The number of moles of BaCO3 which contains1.5 moles of oxygen atoms is :-(1) 1.5 (2) 3.0 (3) 0.5 (4) 1.0

58. For the reaction,A + 2B ® C + DDH = –25 kcal; DS = 90 cal deg–1 at 27ºC :-The reaction :-(1) Is irreversible at 27ºC(2) Is Feasible at 27ºC(3) Represents equilibrium state at 27ºC(4) Will occur above 27ºC

51. fuEu esa ls fdlds fy;s vfHkfØ;k iw.kZ gksus ds djhc gksldrh gS :-(1) K = 10–2 (2) K = 1(3) K = 10 (4) K = 102

52. fuEu vfHkfØ;k ds fy, ,d fuf'pr rki ij lkE; fLFkjkad(Kc), 16 gSA SO2(g) + NO2(g) � SO3(g) + NO(g);fn izkjEHk esa çR;sd pkjksa xSlksa ds 2 mol, 10 yhVj ik=esa mifLFkr gSA lkE; ij NO dh lkUærk D;k gksxh :-(1) 0.32 mol/L(2) 1.6 mol/L(3) 0.4 mol / L(4) 0.2 mol /L

53. AgBr foy;u dk foys;rk xq.kuQy 4 × 10–13 gSA ;fnfoy;u esa Ag+ dh lkUærk 1 × 10–6 mol L–1 gS rc foy;uesa Br– vk;u dh lkUærk Kkr dhft, ?(1) 4 × 10–19 mol L–1 (2) 4 × 107 mol L–1

(3) 4 × 10–7 mol L–1 (4) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1

54. B.M+s NaOH esa Cl2, Cl– vkSj ClO¯ esa ifjofrZr gksrk gSACl2 dk rqY;kadh Hkkj gksxk :-

(1) M (2) M

2(3)

M

3(4)

2M

3

55. vfHkfØ;k gS,(a) Fe2(SO4)3 + (b) BaCl2 ® (c) BaSO4 + (d)FeCl3

crkb;s FeCl3 ds 1

mole2

cukus gsrq fdrus eksy BaCl2

yxsxk :-

(1) 3

4(2)

3

2

(3) 5

4(4)

1

256. 176 gm CO2 esa mifLFkr vkWDlhtu ds ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k

Kkr dhft, :-(1) 2.408 × 1026 (2) 4.816 × 1023

(3) 1.204 × 1022 (4) 4.816 × 1024

57. BaCO3 ds eksyksa dh la[;k gS ftlesa vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksads 1.5 eksy gS :-(1) 1.5 (2) 3.0 (3) 0.5 (4) 1.0

58. 27ºC ij vfHkfØ;k,A + 2B ® C + D ds fy, 27°C ijDH = –25 kcal; DS = 90 cal deg–1 gS :-rks vfHkfØ;k :-(1) 27ºC ij vuqRØe.kh; gksxh(2) 27ºC ij lEHko gSA(3) 27ºC ij lkE;koLFkk esa gksxh(4) 27ºC ds Åij gksxh


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER59. The enthalpy of combustion of carbon, hydrogen

and sucrose are – 393.5, – 286.2 and – 5644.2 kJmol–1 respectively. Calculate the enthalpy offormation of sucrose :-(1) – 6323.9 kJ (2) – 2226 kJ(3) + 2226 kJ (4) None

60. The manganese (Z = 25) has the outer configuration:

(1)3d

(2)3d

(3)3d

(4)3d

61. If electron, hydrogen, helium and neon nuclei areall moving with the velocity of light, then thewavelengths associated with these particles are inthe order :-(1) Electron < Hydrogen < Helium < Neon(2) Neon < Hydrogen < Helium < Electron(3) Electron > Hydrogen > Helium > Neon(4) Electron > Helium > Hydrogen > Neon

62. Which of the following molecules has the smallestbond angle ?(1) NH3 (2) H2O (3) H2Se (4) H2S

63. The linear structure is assumed by :-(I) SnCl2 (II) NCO– (III) NO2

+ (IV) CS2

(1) I, II and III(2) II, III and IV(3) I, III and IV(4) None

64. In which of the following arrangements, the orderis according to the property indicated against it?(I) I < Br < F < Cl

Increasing electron gain enthalpy(II) Li < Na < K < Rb

Increasing metallic radius(III) B < C < N < O

Increasing first ionization energy(IV)Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F–

increasing ionic size(1) I, II and III (2) I and III only(3) I, II and IV (4) I and II only

59. dkcZu] gkbMªkstu rFkk lqØksl ds ngu dh ,UFksYih Øe'k%– 393.5, – 286.2 rFkk – 5644.2 kJ mol–1 gSaA lqØksl

ds fuekZ.k dh ,UFksYih Kkr dhft, :-

(1) – 6323.9 kJ (2) – 2226 kJ

(3) + 2226 kJ (4) dksbZ ugha

60. eSaxuht (Z = 25) dk cká foU;kl gS :-

(1)3d

(2)3d

(3)3d

(4)3d

61. ;fn bysDVªkWu] gkbMªkstu] ghfy;e o fu;ksu ukfHkd çdk'kds osx ls xfreku gS, rks budh rjaxnS/;ks Z dk lgh Øegksxk :-

(1) bysDVªkWu < gkbMªkstu < ghfy;e < fu;ksu

(2) fu;ksu < gkbMªkstu < ghfy;e < bysDVªkWu

(3) bysDVªkWu > gkbMªkstu > ghfy;e > fu;ksu

(4) bysDVªkWu > ghfy;e > gkbMªkstu > fu;ksu62. lcls de cU/k dks.k gS ?

(1) NH3 (2) H2O(3) H2Se (4) H2S

63. js[kh; lajpuk gS :-(I) SnCl2 (II) NCO– (III) NO2

+ (IV) CS2

(1) I, II and III(2) II, III and IV(3) I, III and IV(4) None

64. lgh Øe gS ?(I) I < Br < F < Cl

E.A.

(II) Li < Na < K < Rb

/kkfRod f=T;k(III)B < C < N < O

izFke IE

(IV)Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F–

vk;fud vkdkj(1) I, II and III (2) I and III only

(3) I, II and IV (4) I and II only


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER65. The amount of energy released when 106 atoms

of iodine in vapour state are converted into I– ionis 4.8 × 10–13 J. What is the electron affinity ofiodine in kJ/mole ?(1) 489 kJ (2) 289 kJ(3) 259 kJ (4) 389 kJ

66. 2(P) H O NaOH+ ¾¾®

2 2O ,400ºC H O,at 25ºC2(P) (Q) NaOH O¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾¾® +

(Q) is used for oxygenating in submarine.

(P) and (Q) are :-

(1) Na2 O2 and O2

(2) Na2O and O2

(3) Na2O2 and Na2O

(4) Na2O and Na2O2

67. CO2 + NH2 + H2O ¾¾® X

X + NaCl ¾¾® Y + NH4Cl

2Y ¾¾® Z + H2O + CO2. 'Z' is :-

(1) Na2CO3 (2) (NH4)2CO3

(3) NH4HCO3 (4) NaHCO3

68. Which of the following is correct :-(1) P – O bonds in P4O6 molecule are 6(2) P – P bonds in P4 molecule are 6(3) P – O – P bonds in P4O10 molecule are 8(4) Both (1) and (3)

69. The correct increasing order of acidity is :-(1) H2O3 > CO2 > H2O(2) H2O < H2O2 > CO2

(3) H2O < H2O2 < CO2

(4) CO2 > H2O2 > H2O70. Consider the following reaction :-

D

+ Br X + HBr

Identify structure of X among following

(1)

DCH2

(2)

DCH3

(3)

DCH3

(4)

D

H C2

65. vk;ksMhu (ok"i voLFkk) ds 106 ijek.kqvksa dks I– esa cnyus

ij 4.8 × 10–13 J ÅtkZ mRlftZr gksrh gSA vk;ksMhu dh

kJ/mole esa bysDVªkWu cU/kqrk gksxh ?

(1) 489 kJ (2) 289 kJ

(3) 259 kJ (4) 389 kJ

66. 2(P) H O NaOH+ ¾¾®

2 2O ,400ºC H O,at 25ºC2(P) (Q) NaOH O¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾¾® +

(Q) dk mi;ksx iuMqCch esa vkWDlhtu mRiknd ds :i esafd;k tkrk gSA

(P) and (Q) are :-(1) Na2 O2 and O2

(2) Na2O and O2

(3) Na2O2 and Na2O

(4) Na2O and Na2O2

67. CO2 + NH2 + H2O ¾¾® X

X + NaCl ¾¾® Y + NH4Cl

2Y ¾¾® Z + H2O + CO2. 'Z' gS :-

(1) Na2CO3 (2) (NH4)2CO3

(3) NH4HCO3 (4) NaHCO3

68. lgh gS :-(1) P4O6 esa P – O cU/kksa dh la[;k 6 gSA(2) P4 v.kq esa P – P cU/kksa dh la[;k 6 gSA(3) P4O10 esa P – O – P cU/kksa dh la[;k 8 gSA(4) Both (1) and (3)

69. vEyh;rk dk lgh Øe gS :-(1) H2O3 > CO2 > H2O(2) H2O < H2O2 > CO2

(3) H2O < H2O2 < CO2

(4) CO2 > H2O2 > H2O70. fuEu vfHkfØ;k ij fopkj dhft, :-

D

+ Br X + HBr

fuEu esa ls X dh lajpuk igpkfu,

(1)

DCH2

(2)

DCH3

(3)

DCH3

(4)

D

H C2


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER

71.

OH

Conc. H SO2 4

D Major product :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

72. Among the following compounds the order ofdecreasing reactivity towards electrophilicsubstitution is :-

CH3

(I) (II)

OCH3

(III)

CF3

(IV)(1) I > II > III > IV (2) III > I > II > IV(3) II > I > III > IV (4) III > IV > I > II

73. Which of the following alkene is most reactivetowards electrophilic addition reaction :-

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3 – CH = CH2

(3)

CH3

CH3

C=CH2

(4) CH2=CH–Cl

74. Ph–CH=CH–PhCl2

CCl4

X2NaNH2 Y

H2

Pd/CaCO3Z

Identify product (Z) of the reaction :-

(1) Ph

HC=C

H

Ph(2)

Ph

HC=CH2

(3) Ph

HC=C

Ph

H(4) Ph – C º C – Ph

71.

OH

Conc. H SO2 4

D eq[; mRikn :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

72. fuEu ;kSfxdks esa bysDVªkWu Lusgh iz frLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k ds iz frfØ;k'khyrk dk ?kVrk Øe nhft, :-

CH3

(I) (II)

OCH3

(III)

CF3

(IV)(1) I > II > III > IV (2) III > I > II > IV(3) II > I > III > IV (4) III > IV > I > II

73. bysDVªkWu Lusgh ;ksxkRed vfHkfØ;k ds izfr dkSulh ,YdhulokZf/kd fØ;k'khy gksxh :-

(1) CH2 = CH2

(2) CH3 – CH = CH2

(3)

CH3

CH3

C=CH2

(4) CH2=CH–Cl

74. Ph–CH=CH–PhCl2

CCl4

X2NaNH2 Y

H2

Pd/CaCO3Z

vfHkfØ;k dk mRikn (Z) igpkfu, :-

(1) Ph

HC=C

H

Ph(2)

Ph

HC=CH2

(3) Ph

HC=C

Ph

H(4) Ph – C º C – Ph


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER75. Number of functional groups present in the

following compound is :-

NH2

NH

O O O

OHHO

O

OO

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8

76.2 5

KCN Na Tildon2 5 C H OH reagent

C H Cl A B C¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®

[C] is :-

(1) CH3CH2Cl (2) CH3CH2CH2NO(3) CH3CH2CH2Cl (4) CH3CH(OH)CH3

77. Which is the correct formula of Freon-12 :-

(1) CCl2 F2 (2) CF2 Cl(3) CHCl2F (4) CCl3 F

78. Which reagent used to prepare propanamide toethanamine :-

(1) Br2 + KOH (2) LiAlH4

(3) Na + C2H5OH (4) Sn + HCl79. Which of the following tests is not used for testing

proteins :-

(1) Ninhydrine test (2) Millon's test(3) Molisch's test (4) Biuret test

80. Whihc of the following medicine is used in thetreatment of Tuberculosis :-

(1) Penicillin (2) Streptomycin(3) chloromycetin (4) Luminal

81. Symbolic name of orlon is :-

(1) PTFE (2) PAN(3) PVC (4) PMMA

82. Which of the following alcohol does not give redcolour in victor meyer test :-

(1) Isobutyl alcohol(2) Isopropyl alcohol(3) Benzyl alcohol(4) Ethanol

83. Which of the following reactants can be used inthe williamson's ether synthesis :-

(1) C2H5OH + H2SO4

(2) C2H5OH + Al2O3

(3) C2H5Cl + C2H5ONa(4) C2H5Cl + Ag2O

75. fuEu ;kSfxd esa fØ;kRed lewgksa dh la[;k gS :-

NH2

NH

O O O

OHHO

O

OO

(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 8

76.2 5

KCN Na Tildon2 5 C H OH reagent

C H Cl A B C¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®

[C] gS :-

(1) CH3CH2Cl (2) CH3CH2CH2NO(3) CH3CH2CH2Cl (4) CH3CH(OH)CH3

77. ÝhvkWu-12 dk lw= gksxk :-

(1) CCl2 F2 (2) CF2 Cl(3) CHCl2F (4) CCl3 F

78. izksisukekbM ls ,Fksusehu cukus ds fy;s dkSulk vfHkdeZdiz;qDr gksrk gS :-(1) Br2 + KOH (2) LiAlH4

(3) Na + C2H5OH (4) Sn + HCl

79. izksVhu ds ijh{k.k esa fuEu ijh{k.k iz;qDr ugha gksrk gS :-

(1) fuugkbfMªu ijh{k.k (2) feykWu ijh{k.k

(3) eksfy'k ijh{k.k (4) ckb;wjsV ijh{k.k

80. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vkS"k/kh dk mi;ksx V~;qcjD;qyksfll(risfnd) ds mipkj ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS :-

(1) isfuflfyu (2) LVsªIVksekblhu(3) DyksjksekblhVhu (4) Y;qfeuy

81. vksjykWu dk lwpdh; uke gS :-

(1) PTFE (2) PAN(3) PVC (4) PMMA

82. fuEu dkSulk ,sYdksgkWy foDVj es;j ijh{k.k esa yky jax ughnsrk gS :-

(1) vkblksC;qfVy ,sYdksgkWy(2) vkblksizksfiy ,sYdksgkWy(3) csUthy ,sYdksgkWy(4) ,Fksuksy

83. fofy;elu~ bZFkj la'ys"k.k esa dkSuls fØ;kdkjd iz;qDr gksldrs gS :-

(1) C2H5OH + H2SO4

(2) C2H5OH + Al2O3

(3) C2H5Cl + C2H5ONa(4) C2H5Cl + Ag2O


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER84. The oxidation of toluene to benzyaldehyde by

chromylchloride is called :-

(1) Stephen Reaction(2) Etard reaction(3) Darzen reaction(4) Resenmund reaction

85. The use of the product obtained as a result ofreaction between acetone and chloroform is :-

(1) Hypnotic (2) Antiseptic(3) Anaesthetic (4) Fire extingnisher

86. A cell reaction would be spontaneous if the cellpotential and DrG are respectively :-(1) positive and negative(2) negative, negative(3) zero, zero(4) positive, zero

87. If x is specific resistance (in S–1 cm) of theelectrolyte solution and y is the molarity of thesolution, then Lm (in S cm2 mol–1) is givenby :-

(1)1000x

y (2) y

1000x

(3) 1000

xy (4) xy

1000

88. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte is aand its van't Hoff factor is i. The number of ionsobtained by complete dissociation of1 molecule of the electrolyte is :-

(1)i 1+ a -

a(2) i – a – 1

(3)i 1-a

(4) i 1

1

+ + a-a

89. Assuming complete ionisation, the solutionhaving maximum freezing point will be :-(1) 1 M CaF2 (2) 1.5 M Al2 (SO4)3

(3) 2 M NaCl (4) 1 M AgNO3

90. The fraction of volume occupied by atoms in abody centered cubic unit cell is :-(1) 0.32 (2) 0.48 (3) 0.68 (4) 0.74

91. The heat evolved in physiosrption lies in the range(in kj/mol) of :-(1) 20-40 (2) 40-100(3) 100-200 (4) 200-400

84. Vky wbu dk c s ats afYMgkbM esa Øksfey DyksjkbM } kjkvkWDlhdj.k dgykrk gS :-

(1) LVhQu vfHkfØ;k(2) ,VkMZ vfHkfØ;k(3) Mkjtu vfHkfØ;k(4) jkstsueq.M vfHkfØ;k

85. ,flVksu ,oa DyksjksQkWeZ dh vfHkfØ;k }kjk iz kIr mRikn fdlmi;ksx esa fy;k tkrk gS :-

(1) funzkdkjh (2) iwfrZjks/kh(3) fu'psrd (4) vfXu'kked

86. lsy vfHkfØ;k Lor% gksxh ;fn lsy foHko o DrG gksxh:-

(1) +ve o –ve

(2) –ve, –ve

(3) 0, 0

(4) +ve, 0

87. fdlh fo|qr vi?kVuh; foy;u dk fof'k"V izfrjks/k x o

eksyjrk y gS rks Lm gksxk :-

(1)1000x

y (2) y

1000x

(3) 1000

xy (4) xy

1000

88. fdlh fo|qr vi?kV; dh fo;kstu dh ek=k a gS o okUVgkQdkjd i gS rks 1 v.kq fo|qr vi?kV; ds iw.kZ fo;kstu lsizkIr vk;u gksxh :-

(1)i 1+ a -

a(2) i – a – 1

(3)i 1-a

(4) i 1

1

+ + a-a

89. fuEu esa ls fdldk fgekad fcUnq vf/kdre gSA ;fn iw.kZvk;fur gks :-(1) 1 M CaF2 (2) 1.5 M Al2 (SO4)3

(3) 2 M NaCl (4) 1 M AgNO3

90. dk; dsUnz hr ?kuh; lajpuk esa ijek.kq ds }kjk ?ksjk x;k vk;rubdkbZ lsy ds vk;ru dk izHkkt gksxk :-(1) 0.32 (2) 0.48 (3) 0.68 (4) 0.74

91. HkkSfrd vf/k'kks"k.k esa mRlftZr Å"ek gksxh (kj/mol esa) :-

(1) 20-40 (2) 40-100

(3) 100-200 (4) 200-400


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER92. How many electrons are there in one coulomb of

electricity ?(1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) 1.64 × 10–24

(3) 6.24 × 1018 (4) 6.24 × 10–24

93. The magnetic moment of complex given beloware in the order

Ni(CO)4 [Mn(CN)6]–4 [Cr(NH3)6]

+3 [CoF6]–3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I < II < III < IV(3) IV > II > I > III (4) IV < II < I < III

94. For an octahedral complex which of the followingd-electron configuration will give maximumCFSE

(1) High spin d6 (2) low spin d4

(3) Low spin d5 (4) High spin d7

95. The effective atomic no. of Co in Co(CO)4 is 35,and hence it is less stable. It attains stability by-

(1) Oxidation of Co

(2) Reduction of Co

(3) Dimerisation

(4) Tetramerisation

96. If D0 < P the correct electronic configuration d4

system will be :

(1) 02gt eg4 (2) 4

2gt eg0

(3) 32gt eg1 (4) 2

2gt eg2

97. The fraction of chlorine precipitated by AgNO3

solution from [Cu(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 is :

(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4

98. The element which form oxides in all theoxidation states form +1 to +5, is :

(1) P (2) Sb (3) N (4) As

99. Nitrogen gas is absorbed by

(1) Aluminium carbide(2) Calcium carbide(3) Ferrous sulphate(4) Calcium hydroxide

100. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent in the reactionwith :

(1) Ba(OH)2 (2) Zn(3) KOH (4) H2C2O4

92. 1 dwykWe /kkjk esa fdrus bysDVªkWu gksxh ?

(1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) 1.64 × 10–24

(3) 6.24 × 1018 (4) 6.24 × 10–24

93. fn;s x;s ladqy dk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ dk Øe gS&

Ni(CO)4 [Mn(CN)6]–4 [Cr(NH3)6]

+3 [CoF6]–3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I < II < III < IV

(3) IV > II > I > III (4) IV < II < I < III

94. v"BQydh; ladqy ds fy,] fdl d-bysDVªkWfud foU;kl

ds fy, vf/kdre CFSE gS&

(1) High spin d6 (2) low spin d4

(3) Low spin d5 (4) High spin d7

95. Co dk izHkkoh ijekf.od Øekad [Co(CO)4] esa 35 gS]

vr% ;g U;wu LFkk;h gS] ;g LFkkf;Ro izkIr dj ldrk gS&

(1) Co ds vkWDlhdj.k }kjk

(2) Co ds vip;u }kjk

(3) f}yd izfØ;k ls

(4) prq%yd ls96. ;fn D0 < P gS] rks d4 ds fy, lgh bysDVªkWfud foU;kl

gksxk&

(1) 02gt eg4 (2) 4

2gt eg0

(3) 32gt eg1 (4) 2

2gt eg2

97. [Cu(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 dh AgNO3 ls vfHkfØ;k djus ijvo{ksfir Dyksjhu dk fHkUu gS&

(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4

98. rRo ftlds vkWDlkbZM cuus ij mldk vkWDlhdj.k vad+1 ls +5 lHkh cu ldrk gS&

(1) P (2) Sb (3) N (4) As

99. ukbVªkstu xSl fdlds }kjk vo'kksf"kr gS&

(1) ,Y;wfefu;e dkckZbZM(2) dsfYl;l dkckZbZM(3) QSjl lYQsV(4) dsfYl;e gkbMªkWDlkbZM

100. H2SO4 futZyhdkjd dh Hkkafr fdldh vfHkfØ;k esa dk;Zdjrk gS&

(1) Ba(OH)2 (2) Zn(3) KOH (4) H2C2O4


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER101. A property found in all living beings and absent

in non livings is :-(1) Extrinsic growth (2) Reproduction(3) Metabolism (4) Both (1) & (3)

102. A taxonomic aid based on contrasting charactersgenerally in a pair called couplet is :-(1) Key (2) Lock(3) Flora (4) Catalogue

103. According to five kingdom classification,kingdom fungi includes :-(1) Multicellular, prokaryotic heterotrophs(2) Multicellular, eukaryotic heterotrophs(3) Unicellular, prokaryotic , autotrophs(4) Multicellular, eukaryotic, autotrophs

104. Red tide is caused by :-(1) Red algae(2) Some diatoms(3) Some euglenoids(4) Some dienoflagellates

105. In moss spore dispersal takes place with the helpof :-(1) Peristome (2) Elaters(3) Stomium (4) Both (1) & (2)

106. Heterosporous pteridophytes are :-(1) Lycopodium and Selaginella(2) Dryopteris and Equisetum(3) Pteris and Dryopteris(4) Selaginella and Salvinia

107. The most advanced members of gymnospermsbelong to order :-(1) Gnetales (2) Coniferales(3) Ginkgoales (4) Cycadales

108. Find the correct match :-(1) Potato - bulb(2) Colocasia - corm(3) Onion - tuber(4) Mint - rhizome

109. Garlic, garder pea, Asparagus, lupin, Colchicum,soyabean, Aloe , Gloriosa , groundnut, Tulip andmuliathi .How many families do these plants belong to ?(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

110. All are leaf modification except :-(1) Pitcher of Nepenthese(2) Spines of cacti(3) Phyllode of Australian acacia(4) Tendril of watermelon

101. ,d y{k.k tks lHkh tho/kkfj;ksa esa ik;k tkrk gS rFkk futhZoksaesa ugha ik;k tkrk gSa] gS :-(1) cká o`f¼ (2) iztuu(3) mikip; (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa

102. ,d ofxZdh lgk;d tks foi;kZlh y{k.kksa ij vk/kkfjr gStks izk;% tksM+ksa esa gksrs gS ftUgsa ; qfXer dgrs gSa] gS :-(1) daqth (2) rkyk(3) ¶yksjk (4) dSVsykWx

103. ik¡p txr oxhZdj.k ds vuqlkj txr QatkbZ ds lnL; gksrsgSa :-(1) cgqdksf'kdh; , izksdSfj;ksfVd ijiks"kh(2) cgqdksf'kdh; , ;wdSfj;ksfVd ijiks"kh(3) ,ddksf'kdh;, izksdSfj;ksfVd Loiks"kh(4) cgqdksf'kdh; , ;wdSfj;ksfVd Loiks"kh

104. yky rjax fdlds }kjk gksrh gS :-(1) yky 'kSoky(2) dqN Mkb,Ve }kjk(3) dqN ;wXyhukWbM(4) dqN Mk;uks¶ySftysV

105. ekWl esa chtk.kq dk izdh.kZu fdlds }kjk gksrk gS ?

(1) isjhLVkse (2) bysVj

(3) LVksfe;e (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa

106. fo"kechtk.kqd VSfjMksQkbV~l gSa :-(1) Lycopodium rFkk Selaginella(2) Dryopteris rFkk Equisetum(3) Pteris rFkk Dryopteris(4) Selaginella rFkk Salvinia

107. ftEuksLieZ dss lokZf/kd fodflr lnL; fdl x.k esa ik;stkrs gSa :-(1) uhVsYl (2) dksuhQjsYl(3) ftadks,Yl (4) lkbdsMsYl

108. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft;s :-(1) vkyw - 'kYddUn(2) vjch - /kudUn(3) I;kt - dan(4) iksnhuk - izdUn

109. yglqu, m|ku eVj , lrkoj, Y;wfiu, dksfYpde, lks;kchu,

?khDokj, Xyksfj;kslk , ewaxQyh] V~;wfyi] eqySBhA ;s ikS/ks fdrus

dqyksa ds lnL; gSa ?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

110. lHkh iÙkh dk :ikarj.k gS flok; ____ ds :-(1) fuisaFkht dk ?kM+k(2) dsDV~l ds 'kwy(3) vkWLVªsfy;u vdsfl;k dk i.kkZHkoÙr(4) rjcwt dk izrku


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER111. Find the incorrect match for aestivation of

corolla :-(1) Cassia - papilionaceous(2) China rose - twisted(3) Calotropis - Velvate(4) Beans - vexillary

112. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis is found in :-(1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem(3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root

113. Organic food and sap are transported by :-(1) Simple permanent tissue(2) Secretory tissue(3) Complex permanent tissue(4) Secondary meristematic tissue

114. Vascular bundle in sunflower stem is :-(1) Conjoint (2) Collateral(3) Open (4) All of these

115. Which of the following statement is notcorrect ?(1) Boron is essential for pollen tube growth(2) Rapid interveinal chlorosis is a deficiency

symptom of Iron(3) Necrosis of tips in young leaves is the

deficiency symptom of magnesium(4) Premature leaf fall is a deficiency sympton of

phosphorus116. Read the following statements :-

(i) Most of the water flow in roots occurs viaapoplast

(ii) In apoplastic pathway water movement takesplace through mass flow

(iii) Mass flow of water occurs due to cohesiveand Adhesive properties of water

(iv) In apoplastic movement water do not crossplasma membrane

How many of the above given statements arecorrect ?(1) i (2) ii (3) iii (4) iv

117. DCMU inhibits the photosynthesis byblocking :-(1) PS I(2) PS II(3) C3 cycle(4) All of these

118. Which hormone act as antagonist to GA in mostsituation :-(1) Auxin (2) ABA(3) Ethylene (4) Cytokinin

111. nyi= ds foU;kl laEca/k esa xyr fekyu dks igpkfu;s :-(1) dsfl;k - iSfifyvksusfl;l

(2) xqM+gy - O;kofrZr

(3) dsyksVªkWfil - dksjLi'khZ

(4) lse - oSDthyjh112. Ldysjadkbek dh cuh v/kLRopk ik;h tkrh gS :-

(1) ,dchti=h rus esa (2) f}chti=h rus esa(3) ,dchti=h ewy esa (4) f}chti=h ewy esa

113. dkcZfud Hkkstu rFkk jl dk laogu fdlds }kjk fd;k tkrk gS ?(1) ljy LFkk;h Ård(2) L=koh Ård(3) tfVy LFkk;h Ård(4) f}fr;d foHkT;ksÙkd

114. lwjteq[kh ds rus esa laogu caMy gksrk gS :-(1) la;qDr (2) cfg%iks"kokgh(3) [kqyk gqvk (4) mijksDr lHkh

115. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa dkSulk dFku lgh ugha gS ?

(1) ijkxufydk dh o`f¼ ds fy;s ck sju egRoiw.kZgSA

(2) ubZ ifÙk;ksa esa rhozrk ls bUVjosuy gfjr fgurk

(3) ubZ ifÙk;ksa ds 'kh"kZ ij mÙkd{k ;

(4) vifjiDo ifÙk;ksa dk >M+uk

116. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks i<+s :-

(i) tM+ esa tyizokg eq[;r% ,iksIykLV ds }kjk gksrk gSA

(ii) ,iksIykLV esa ty izokg lkeqghd izokg ds }kjkgksrk gSA

(iii)ty dk lkeqghd izokg ty esa lglatu rFkkvklatu xq.k dh otg ls gksrk gSA

(iv) ,iksIykLV esa ty IykTek >hYyh dks ikj ughdjrk gSA

mijksDr dFkuksa eas fdrus dFku lgh gSa \

(1) i (2) ii (3) iii (4) iv

117. DCMU izdk'kla'kys"k.k dks fdls ck/khr dj jksd nsrkgS :-(1) PS I(2) PS II(3) C3 pØ(4) blesa ls lHkh

118. dkSu gkWekZsu GA ds ,UVkxksfuLV (fojks/kd ds tSlk dkedjrk gSA :-(1) vkWDthu (2) , ch ,(3) bFkkbZfyu (4) lkbVksdkbfuu


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER119. Amino acids can enter in Respiratory pathways

At the level of :-(1) Pyruvic acid (2) Acetyl CoA(3) Kreb's cycle (4) All of these

120. Which of the following act as mobile carrier inmitochondrial ETS :-(1) UQ (2) CytoC(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) FADH2

121. Co2 compenensation point is in between0-5 PPM in :-(1) C3 plant (2) C4 plant(3) CAM palnt (4) All of these

122. During meisosis splitting of the centromere occursduring :-(1) Anaphase - I (2) Anaphase - II(3) Metaphase - I (4) Prophase - II

123. Which of the following is related todetoxification :-(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) Mitochondria(3) Golgi body (4) Ribosome

124. Which of the following is not a double membranebound structure :-(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast(3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome

125. Which of the following is the structure of Alanineamino acid :-

(1) CH NH2

H

COOH

(2) CH NH2

CH3

COOH

(3) CH NH2

CH OH2

COOH

(4) CH NH2

CH2–CH –OH2

COOH

126. In a dihybrid cross between AABB and aabb theratio of AaBb, Aabb, aaBB and aaBb in F2

generation is :-(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1(3) 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 4 : 2 : 2

127. In a dihybrid cross when one pair of Alleles showco-dominance and another pair of Allele showmendelian Inheritance then find out thephenotypic ratio in F2 generation :-(1) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 6 : 2 : 2 : 1(4) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1

119. vehuks vEy 'olu iFk esa fdl Lrj ij izos'k djrkgS :-(1) ikblfod vEy (2) ,lhVkby dks ,Utkbe A(3) ØsCl pØ (4) blesa lHkh

120. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu ekbVksdkSUMªh;y bVh ,l esa eksckbydSfj;j ds :i esa iz;ksx gksrk gS :-(1) UQ (2) CytoC(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) FADH2

121. Co2 izfrdjfcUnq 0-5 PPM ds e/; gksrk gS :-

(1) C3 ikS/kk (2) C4 ikS/kk

(3) lh , ,e ikS/kk (4) mi;qZDr lHkh

122. v/kZlw=h foHkktu es lsUVªheh;j dk foHkktu fdl izoLFkkesa gksrk gS :-(1) ,ukQst - I (2) ,ukQst - II(3) esVkQst - I (4) izksQst - II

123. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dksf'kdkax fujkfof"kdj.k ls lacaf/krgS :-(1) var% iznzO;h tkfydk (2) lw=df.kdk(3) xkWYthdk; (4) jkbckslkse

124. fuEu es ls dkSulk dksf'kdkax] ,d nksgjh f>Yyh;ks ls vkofjrlajpuk ugha gS :-(1) lw=df.kdk (2) gfjryod(3) dsUnzd (4) yk;lkslkse

125. fuEu esa ls dkSulh lajpuk ,ysuhu vehuks vEy dhgS :-

(1) CH NH2

H

COOH

(2) CH NH2

CH3

COOH

(3) CH NH2

CH OH2

COOH

(4) CH NH2

CH2–CH –OH2

COOH

126. nks thuiz:i AABB ,oa aabb ds chp ladj.k ls mRikfnrAaBb, Aabb, aaBB ,oa aaBb larfr;ksa dk F2 vuqikrD;k gksxk :-(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1(3) 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 4 : 2 : 2

127. ,d f}ladj Øk Sl ftles a ,d tk sM+ h ; q XefoDeihlgizHkkfodrk n'kkZrh gS rFkk nwljk ;qXefodYi esaMsfy;uoa'kkxrh dks n'kkZrh gSA bl ØkSl ls thu izk:i vuqikr D;kizkIr gksxk :-(1) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 6 : 2 : 2 : 1(4) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER128. When the F2 phenotypic frequencies are plotted

a bell shape curve is obtained in :-

(1) Mendelian dihybrid cross

(2) Multiple Allile

(3) Polygenic inheritance

(4) Epistatic gene interaction

129. In a cross between individuals homozygous for(a b) and wild type (++) In this cross 1600 out of2000 individuals were of parental type then. Findout the distance between a and b gene :-(1) 80 map unit (2) 40 map unit(3) 20 map unit (4) 50 map unit

130. At a particular locus the frequency of dominentAllele 'A' is 0.8 and that of recessive allele a is0.2. Then find out the Number of Hetrozygous ina population of 4000 :-(1) 1800 (2) 3000 (3) 1440 (4) 1660

131. A DNA consist of 4000 base pair find out thenumber of Nucleosome, glucosidic linkage andphosphodiester bond present in it :-(1) 40, 4000, 7998 (2) 20, 8000, 7998(3) 80, 8000, 8000 (4) 20, 4000, 8000

132. Which of the following statements is notcorrect :-(1) Each operon has its specific operator and

specific repressor.(2) Lac operator is present in both lactose and

tryptophan operon(3) Regulatory proteins can act both positively

and negatively(4) All of these

133. Which of the following statement is/arecorrect ?(i) High degree of polymorphism in repetitive

sequence is the basis of DNA finger printing(ii) 3 × 106 bp are different from person to person(iii)Less then 2 percent of genome code for

proteins(iv) SNPs occur At 1.4 million locations in Human

being.(1) i and ii (2) i, ii and iii(3) i, ii and iv (4) i, ii, iii and iv

134. Which of the following will not be produced byE.coli in the absence of lactose ?(1) b-galactosidase (2) Permease(3) Transacetylase (4) All of these

128. tc F2 larfr dh y{k.k izk:i vko`fr;ksa dks ,d oØ ijcuk;k tkrk gS rks osy vkdkj (?kaVh tSlk) oØ fdlesa izkIrgksrk gS :-(1) esaMsfy;u f}ladj Øksl(2) cgq;qXe fodYih(3) cgqizHkkoh thu vUrjfØ;k,a(4) izoy thu vUrjfØ;k,¡

129. nks lnL; tks (a b) rFkk oU;thu (+ +)ds fy, le;qXethgSa ds e/; ØkSl djok;k x;k bles F2 ih<+h esa 2000 esa1600 lnL; iSrd izdkj ds feysA a rFkk b thu ds e/; nwjh fudkysa :-(1) 80 map unit (2) 40 map unit(3) 20 map unit (4) 50 map unit

130. fdlh ,d fof'k"V foLFky ij izHkkoh 'A' fodYih dhckjackjrk 0.8 gS rFkk a fodYih 0.4 gSA fdlh ;kn`fPNdlaxeu djrh lekf"V esa 4000 tula[;k esa fo"ke;qXeh dhla[;k D;k gksxh :-(1) 1800 (2) 3000 (3) 1440 (4) 1660

131. ,d Mh-,u-, esa 4000 {kkj;qXe mifLFkr gSA blesa mifLFkrU;qfDy;kslkse] XykbdksflfMd ca/ku rFkk QksLQksMkbLVj caèkudh la[;k crk,¡ :-(1) 40, 4000, 7998 (2) 20, 8000, 7998(3) 80, 8000, 8000 (4) 20, 4000, 8000

132. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa es dkSu lgh ugaha gS :-

(1) izR;sd vkSisju ds ikl ,d fof'k"V izpkyu rFkk fof'k"Vlaned gksrk gSA

(2) Lac izpkyu nksuksa ySDVkst rFkk fVªIVksQSu vkSisju esamifLFkr gksrk gSA

(3) fu;ked izksVhu /kukRed rFkk ½.kkRed nks rjhds lsdke dj ldrk gSA

(4) bleas ls lHkh A

133. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa es dkSu ls dFku lgh gSa :-

(i) Mh-,u-, ds iqujkdfr vuqØeksa esa mPp dksVh dhcgq:firk DNA vaxqyh{kki.k dk vk/kkj gSA

(ii) euq"; esa 3 × 106 bp ,d nwljs fHkUu gksrs gSaA

(iii) 2 izfr'kr ls de thukse izksVhu dks dwVysf[kr djrs gSaA

(iv) SNPs euq"; esa 1.4 fefy;u LFkkuksa ij mifLFkrgksrk gSA

(1) i vkSj ii (2) i, ii vkSj iii

(3) i, ii vkSj iv (4) i, ii, iii vkSj iv

134. ySDVkst ds vuqifLFkfr esa blesa ls dkSu bZ- dksykbZ }kjk ughamRikfnr gksrk gS ?(1) chVk-XySDVkslkbVst (2) ijeh,Tk(3) Vªkal,flVkbyst (4) mijksDr lHkh


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER135. The number of linkage group found in human

male and female are :-(1) 23 and 23 (2) 24 and 23(3) 2 and 1 (4) 24 and 24

136. Organisms that are able to maintain their constantinternal environment with respect to changingexternal environment, are called as :-(1) Conformer (2) Regulator(3) Homeostasis (4) Partial regulator

137. According to Allen's rule :-(1) Mammals living in hot climate have shorter

ears & limbs(2) Mammals living in cold climate have shorter

ears & limbs.(3) Size of an organism does not depends upon

climate(4) Mammals living in cold climate have longer

ear & limbs138. According to rivet-popper hypothesis rivets

indicate :-(1) Species(2) Abiotic factors(3) Ecosystem(4) Trophic levels

139. Addition of organic matter to a water body willlead to increase in :-(1) B.O.D(2) C.O.D(3) D.O.(4) Both BOD & COD

140. Next to carbondioxide which of the followinggas relatively contribute the most to globalwarming :-(1) Methane (2) CFC(3) N2O (4) SO2

141. The Earth day is celebrated on :-(1) 21 April (2) 22 April(3) 21 March (4) 22 May

142. "Pusa snowball K-1" is a disease resistant variety of :-(1) Wheat (2) Brassica(3) Cauliflower (4) Cowpea

143. Agriculture contribute how much to the india'sGDP :-(1) 62% (2) 60%(3) 33% (4) 19%

135. euq"; uj rFkk eknk esa mifLFkr lgyXu leqgks dh la[;kcrk,¡ :-(1) 23 vkSj 23 (2) 24 vkSj 23(3) 2 vkSj 1 (4) 24 vkSj 24

136. cnyrs gq, cká okrkoj.k ds lkFk fLFkj vkarfjd okrkoj.kdks cuk;s j[kus okys tho dgykrs gSa :-

(1) la:ih (2) fu;ked

(3) leLFkkiu (4) vkaf'kd fu;ked

137. ,ysu ds fu;ekuqlkj :-(1) xeZ okrkoj.k es fuokl djus okys Lru/kkfj;ks ds NksVs

dku o mikax gksrs gSaA(2) B.Ms okrkoj.k es fuokl djus okys Lruèkkfj;ks NksVs

dku o mikax gksrs gSaA(3) fdlh tho dk vkdkj mlds okrkoj.k ij fuHkZj ugha

djrk gSA(4) B.Ms okrkoj.k es fuokl djus okys Lru/kkfj;ksa ds dku

o mikax yEcs gksrs gSaA138. fjosV ikWij vo/kkj.kk ds vuqlkj fjosV fdUgs bafxr djrs

gSa :-(1) tkfr;ks dksA(2) vtSfod ?kVdks dksA(3) ikfjra= dksA(4) iks"k.k Lrjks dksA

139. ,d tyHkjko {ks= es dkcZfud inkFkZ feyk nsus ls] tydh :-(1) B.O.D c< tk;sxhA(2) C.O.D c< tk;sxhA(3) D.O. c< tk;sxhA(4) BOD o COD nksuksa c<+ tk;sxhA

140. dkcZuMkbvkWDlkbM ds ckn nwljh dkSulh xSl dk lkis{k

;ksxnku oSf'od xjekgV es lokZf/kd gS :-

(1) ehFksu (2) CFC

(3) N2O (4) SO2

141. i`Foh fnol dkSulh fnukad ij euk;k tkrk gS :-(1) 21 vizsy (2) 22 vizsy(3) 21 ekpZ (4) 22 ebZ

142. "iwlk LuksckWy K-1" fuEu es ls fdldh jksx izfrjks/kd fdLegS :-(1) xsagw (2) czslhdk(3) QwyxksHkh (4) yksfc;k

143. d`f"k dk ;ksxnku Hkkjr ds GDP esa fdruk izfr'krgS :-(1) 62% (2) 60%(3) 33% (4) 19%


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER144. Which of the following is not caused by a

fungi :-(1) Brown rust of wheat(2) Red rot of sugarcane(3) Black rot of crucifer(4) Late blight of potato

145. Bottled juices are clarified by the use of :-

(1) Pectinase and Lipase

(2) Protease and pectinase

(3) Amylase and Lipase

(4) Pectinase and Protease146. Which of the following is a common inhabitant

of root ecosystem and an effective biocontrolagent :-(1) Glomus (2) Trichoderma(3) Fusarium (4) Macrophomia

147. In angiosperm the mature female gametophyte ismade up of :-(1) 8 cells & 7 nucleus(2) 7 cells & 8 nucleus(3) 7 cells & 7 nucleus(4) One cell & 8 nucleus

148. Which of the following aquatic plant is pollinatedby insects :-(1) Hydrilla (2) Zostera(3) Water Hyacinth (4) All of the above

149. Which of the followings is not correctly matched :-

1 Longitudinal dehiscence of anther Gossypium

2 Porous dehiscence of anther Capsella

3 Transverse dehiscence of anther Ocimum

4 Valvular deliscence of anther Berberis

150. In 60% of angiosperms pollengrains are shedat :-(1) One celled stage (2) Three nuclei stage

(3) Two celled stage (4) Three celled stage

151. In a road traffic accident a 21 year old boy suffersfrom a punctured wound in thoracic cavity but thenormal anatomy of lungs is preserved. What couldbe the most probable of the wound :-(1) Tachycardia with normal breathing rate

(2) Increased breathing rate

(3) Decreased breathing rate

(4) Cessation of breathing

144. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dodtU; ugha gS :-

(1) xsagw dk Hkwjk fdê

(2) xUus dk jSM jkWV

(3) ØwlhQj dk Cysd jkWV

(4) vkyw dh iNsrh vaxekjh

145. cksry okys] Qyks ds jl dks fdu fd.odks ds iz;ksx lslkQ o LoPN cuk;k tkrk gS ?(1) isfDVust o ykbist(2) izksfV,t o isfDVust(3) ,ek;yst o ykbist(4) isfDVust o izksfV,t

146. fuEu es ls dkSu ewy (tM +) ikfjra= dk lkekU; fuoklhgS rFkk ,d l{ke tSo fu;a=d gS :-

(1) Xyksel (2) VªkbdksMekZ

(3) ¶;wtsfj;e (4) esØksQksfeuk147. vko`rchth ikniks esa ifjiDo eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn~ cuk gksrk

gS :-(1) 8 dksf'kdkvks rFkk 7 dsUnzdks dk A(2) 7 dksf'kdkvks rFkk 8 dsUnzdks dk A(3) 7 dksf'kdkvks rFkk 7 dsUnzdks dk A(4) ,d dksf'kdk rFkk 8 dsUnzdks dk A

148. fuEu esa ls dkSuls tyh; ikni dk ijkx.k dhVks ds }kjkgksrk gS :-(1) gkbfMªyk (2) tksLVsjk(3) tydqaHkh (4) mijksDr lHkh dkA

149. fuEu es ls dkSulk lqesfyr ugha gS :-

1 ijkxdks"kks dk yEcor~ izLQqVu xksflfi;e

2 ijkxdks"kks dk fNfnzr izLQqVu dsIlsyk

3 ijkxdks"kks dk vuqizLFk izLQqVu vkWlhee

4 ijkxdks"kks dk okYoh; izLQqVu cjcsjhl

150. 60% izfr'kr vko`Ùkchth ikniks es ijkxd.k fdl voLFkkes ijkfxr gksrs gS :-(1) ,d dksf'kdh; voLFkk esaA (2) f=dsUnzdh; voLFkk esaA(3) f}dksf'kdh; voLFkk esaA (4) f=dksf'kdh; voLFkk esaA

151. ,d nq?kZuk esa ,d 21 o"khZ; yM+ds dh o{kh; xqgk esa ?kkods :i esa fNnz gks x;k ysfdu QsQM+ksa dh lkekU; vkarfjdlajpuk dks dksbZ uqdlku ugha igqpkA blds QyLo:i fuEuesa ls fdl dh lEHkkouk lokZf/kd gS :-

(1) lkekU; 'olu nj ds lkFk mPp ân; xfr

(2) mPp 'olu nj

(3) fuEu 'olu nj

(4) 'olu dk :duk


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER152. In mammalian lungs, gaseous exchange occurs

through :-(1) Simple diffusion (2) Active transport(3) Facilitated diffusion (4) Through aquaporins

153. Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?(1) Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by

oxygen content in arterial blood(2) At the time of expiration diaphragm becomes

dome shaped (relaxed)(3) Open type of blood vascular system is

predominant in Arthropods(4) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves

can increase the rate of heart beat154. In hospital, a canula is inserted in the arm to

facilitate faster distribution of some injectablematerial/ drug with minimal risk to the body. Thecanula in usually inserted in the :-(1) Artery (2)Vein(3) Lymphatic (4) Muscle

155. Jaundice is due to disorder in the _________ :-(1) Skin & mucous membrane(2) GIT & salivary glands(3) Kidneys & blood vascular system(4) Liver & Bile duct

156. Which of the following microoganisms are mostcommonly found in the vermiform appendix ofrabbit :-(1) Bacteria - Rumenococcus, Protozoa -

Trichonympha(2) Bacteria - Clostridium, Protozoa - Antidinium(3) Bacteria - Rumenococcus, Protozoa -

Antidinium(4) Bacteria - Cellobiopatus ' Protozoa -

Trichonympha157. Which one of the following is not the function of

mammalian kidney :-(1) Regulation of acid base balance(2) Synthesis of hormones like erythropoietin,

Renin(3) Synthesis of plasma protein like Angiotensinogen.(4) Maintenance of arterial blood pressure

158. Health does not simply mean' absence of disease'or physical fitness. Followings are aspects of goodhealth, except :-(1) Brings economic prosperity(2) Increase productivity(3) Increase longevity of people(4) Increase infant and maternal mortality

152. Lru/kkjh QsQM+ksa esa xsl fofue; gksrk gS :-

(1) lkekU; folj.k ls (2) lfØ; ifjgou ls

(3) lqlk/; folj.k ls (4) ,DokiksfjUl ls153. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh ugh gS ?

(1) /keuh; :f/kj esa mifLFkr vkDlhtu dh ek=k lsefLr"d dk 'olu dsUnz mRizsfjr gksrk gSA

(2) cfg'olu ds le; Mk;Ýke vuq f'kf Fkyu lsxqEcknkdkj gks tkrk gSA

(3) [kqyk jDr ifjlapj.k rU= vkFkksZiksM~l esa eq[;r% ik;ktkrk gSA

(4) vuwdEih rfU=dkvksa }kjk rfU=dk lUns'k ân; xfr dksc<+krs gSA

154. vLirkyksa esa] nokvksa ;k dqN vUr% izs"k.kh inkFkks± ds 'kjhjesa rhoz forj.k ds fy, 'kjhj dks de uqdlku igqapkrs gq,dsuqyk dks ckg esa Mkyk tkrk gSA dsuqyk dks lkkekU;r% MkyrsgS :-(1) /keuh esa (2) f'kjk esa(3) yfldk okfguh esa (4) is'kh esa

155. ihfy;k _________ dh vlkekU;rk ds dkj.k gksrk gS :-(1) Ropk ,oa 'ys"ke f>Yyh(2) tBjkU= ekxZ ,oa ykj xzfUFk;ka(3) o`Dd ,oa jDr ifjlajp.k rU=(4) ;d`r ,oa fiÙk ufydk

156. fuEu esa ls dkSu ls lw{etho [kjxks'k dh d`fe:i ifj'ksf"kdkesa lkekU;r% ik;s tkrs gS :-

(1) thok.kq - :esuksdksdl, izksVkstksvk - VªkbdksfuEQk

(2) thok.kq -DyksfLVªfM;e, izksVkstksvk - ,UVhfMfu;e

(3) thok.kq - :esuksdksdl, izksVkstksvk - ,UVhfMfu;e

(4) thok.kq -lsyksck;ksisVl] izksVkstksvk-VªkbdksfuEQk

157. fuEu es a ls dkSu lk Lru/kkjh o`Dd dk dk;Z ugh agS :-

(1) vEy {kkj larqyu dk fu;U=.k(2) gkWeksZu tSls , sfjFkzksiksbfVu rFkk jsfuu dk fuekZ.k(3) IykTek izksVhu tSls ,fUT;ksVsfUlukstu dk fuekZ.k(4) /keuh; jDr nkc dk fu;eu

158. LokLFk dk vFkZ ek= jksx dh vuqifLFkfr vFkok ^'kkjhfjdLoLFkrk* ugha gS fuEu vPNs LokLFk ds ifj.kke gS vykok:-

(1) vkfFkZd lEiUrk vkrh gSA

(2) mRikndrk c<+rh gSA

(3) O;fDr dh vk;q c<+rh gSa

(4) uotkr rFkk ekr` e`R;q nj esa c<+ksrjh gksrh gSA


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER159. Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which

cause typhoid fever in human beings. Typhoid canbe characterised by :-

(1) Sustained high fever

(2) Constipation

(3) Intestinal perforation

(4) All are correct

160. Humoral immune response is mediated by :-

(1) Antibodies

(2) Immunoglobulins

(3) T8-cells

(4) Both (1) and (2)

161. Followings are the the examples of primarylymphoid organs :-

(1) Bone Maroow

(2) Thymus

(3) Bursa of fabricus

(4) All of the above

162. Transmission of HIV does not occur by :-

(1) Sexual contact with infected persons

(2) By transfusion of contaminated blood

(3) By sharing infected needles

(4) From normal mother to her child throughplacenta

163. Immunotherapy of cancer involves use of :-

(1) Interleukin (2) a-interferon

(3) b-interferon (4) g-interferon

164. The principle of vaccination is based on theproperty of _____of the immune system. :-

(1) Autoimmunity (2) Allergy

(3) Memory (4) Specificity

165. After the completion of 5 cycles in PCR, howmany copies of DNA will be made ?

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 32 (4) 64

166. Isolation of DNA from human cells can beacheived by :-(1) Lysozyme(2) Cellulase(3) Chitinase(4) Lipase

159. Salmonella typhi ,d jksxtud thok.kq gS tks ekuo esaVk;Qk;M cq[kkj djrk gSA Vk;Qk;M dks fuEu y{k.kksa lsigpkuk tk ldrk gS :-

(1) rhoz Toj

(2) dCt

(3) vkar fNæ.k

(4) lHkh lgh gS

160. g;~eksjy izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k fuEu ds }kjk e/;LFk dh tkrh gS

(1) ,UVhcMht

(2) bE;wuksXyksC;qfyul

(3) T8-dksf'kdk

(4) nksuksa (1) rFkk (2)

161. fuEu esa ls dkSu izkFkfed ylhdk vax gS :-

(1) vfLFk eTtk

(2) Fkkebl

(3) clkZ vkQ QSfczDl

(4) mijksDr lHkh

162. HIV dk laØe.k ugha gksrk gS :-

(1) laØfed O;fDr ds lkFk ySafxd laca/k ls

(2) nwf"kr :f/kj ds p<+kus ls

(3) laØfer lqbZ ds vknku&iznku ls

(4) lkekU; ekrk ls vijk ds }kjk mlds cPps esa

163. dSalj dh izfrj{kk fpfdRlk esa fdldk mi;ksx fd;k tkrkgS :-

(1) bUVjY;wfDu (2) a-baVjQsjksu

(3) b-baVjQsjksu (4) g-baVjQsjksu

164. Vhdkdj.k dk fl¼kUr izfrj{kk ra= ds fdl _______ y{k.kij fuHkZj djrk gS :-

(1) Loizfrj{kk (2) ,ythZ

(3) eSeksjh (4) fof'k"Vrk

165. PCR ds 5 pØ iw.kZ gksus i'pkr DNA ds fdrus izfr:icusxs ?

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 32 (4) 64

166. ekuo dksf'kdk ls DNA dk i`Fddj.k fd;k tkrkgS :-(1) yk;lkstkbe(2) lSY;wykst(3) dkbfVust(4) ykbist


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER167. How many documented varieties of basmati are

grown in India :-

(1) 17 (2) 27 (3) 37 (4) 7

168. In RNAi process, transgenic plant can be protectedfrom the infestation of pest by preventing :-

(1) Transcription (2) Replication

(3) Translation (4) Both (1) & (2)

169. Origin of mammal like reptile occured in :-

(1) Cretaceous (2) Jurassic

(3) Permian (4) Cambrian

170. Biston betularia represent example of :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Mutation

(3) Survival of thefittest

(4) Both (1) & (3)

171. Which one of the following conditions lead to nochange in gene frequency :-

(1) Mutation (2) Gene flow

(3) Sexual selection (4) Random mating

172. Which one of the following represent connectinglink between ape and man :-

(1) Ramapithecus (2) Dryopithecus

(3) Australopithecus (4) Homo habilis

173. Which one of the following is the closest livingrelative of dinosaurs :-

(1) Crocodile (2) Bird(3) Snake (4) Lizard

174. During human evoluation agriculture started :-

(1) 18,000 year ago (2) 10,000 year ago

(3) 75,000 year ago (4) 20,000 year ago175. In the final match of Allen cricket league a cricket

player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which oneof the following groups of bones is directlycontributing to this action :-(1) Femur, Malleus, Tibia, Metatarsal(2) Ilium, Ulna, Patella , Carpal(3) Sternum, Femur Scapula, Fibula(4) Tarsal , Femur, Metatarsal, Tibia

176. Actin binding sites are located on :-(1) Tropomyosin (2) HMM

(3) LMM (4) Both (2) and (3)

167. Hkkjr esa cklerh dh fdruh vf/kd`r fdLesa mxkbZ tkrhgS :-

(1) 17 (2) 27 (3) 37 (4) 7

168. RNA i izfØ;k esa ijkthuh ikni dks ihM+d ds laØe.kls cpkus ds fy;s fdldks vo:¼ fd;k tkrk gS :-

(1) vuqys[ku (2) izfrfyfidj.k

(3) vuqoknu (4) nksuks (1) rFkk (2)

169. lfjlì ds leku Lruh dk mnHko gqvk Fkk :-

(1) fØVsf'k;l (2) tqjSfld

(3) ijfe;u (4) dSefcz;u

170. fcLVu fcVqysfj;k mnkgj.k iznf'kZr djrk gS :-

(1) izkd`frd oj.k

(2) mRifjorZu

(3) ;ksX;re dh mÙkjthfork

(4) nksuks (1) & (3)

171. fuEu esa ls dkSulh n'kk thu vko`Ùkh esa ifjorZu ugha djrhgS :-

(1) mRifjorZu (2) thu izokg

(3) ySafxd p;u (4) ;knfPNd laxe

172. fuEu esa ls dkSu ekuo rFkk dfi ds e/; dh la;ksth dM+hdks bafxr djrk gS :-

(1) jkekfiFksdl (2) Mªk;ksfiFksdl

(3) vkLVªsyksfiFksdl (4) gkseks gsfcfyl

173. fuEu esa ls dkSu Mk;uklsj dk lcls fudV dk thfor lac/khgS :-

(1) exjePN (2) i{kh(3) liZ (4) fNidyh

174. ekuo mn~fodkl ds nkSjku d`f"k izkjEHk gqbZ :-

(1) 18,000 o"kZ iwoZ (2) 10,000 o"kZ iwoZ

(3) 75,000 o"kZ iwoZ (4) 20,000 o"kZ iwoZ175. ,ysu fØdsV yhx ds Qkbuy esa esp esa ,d fØdsV f[kykM+h

eSnku esa rst nksM+dj xsan dk ihNk dj jgk gSaA fuEu esa lsdkSulk vfLFk;kas dk lewg bl fØ;k esa izR;{k :i ls lg;ksxdj jgk gSa\ :-(1) Qhej, esfy;l, Vhfc;k, esVkVklZy(2) bfy;e , vyuk, iVsyk, dkiZy(3) LVuZe, Qhej, Ldsiqyk, fQcwyk(4) VklZy , Qhej , esVkVklZy, Vhfc;k

176. ,fDVu ;ksth LFky dgk¡ fLFkr gS \(1) Vªksiksek;ksflu (2) HMM

(3) LMM (4) mijksDr(2) o (3) nksuksa ij


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER177. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake , a resident

of eight floor of a multistoreyed building in Kota.starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Whichhormone initiated this action :-(1) Adrenaline

(2) Epinephrine

(3) Thyroxine

(4) Both (1) and (2)

178. The source of somatostatin is same as that of :-

(1) Vasopressin & adrenaline

(2) Insulin & glucagon

(3) Somatotropin & Prolactin

(4) Thyroxine & Calcitonin

179. Transitional epithelium occurs in :-

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Ureter

(3) Urinnary bladder

(4) All of these

180. Cartilage eating cell is :-

(1) Chondroblast

(2) Chondrocyte

(3) Chondroclast

(4) Fibroblast

181. Dorsal blood vessel in earthworm :-

(1) Distributes blood after 13 segments

(2) Distributes blood in all segments

(3) Collects blood in first 13 segments

(4) Distributes blood in first 13 segments

182. The number of spiracles in cockroach is :-

(1) six pairs

(2) 13 (3 + 10) pairs

(3) 10 only

(4) 20 only

183. Counter current multiplier exchange systemoperate in :-

(1) Vasa Recta & Cortical Nephrons

(2) Juxtaxmedullory nephrons & Vasa Recta

(3) Juxtaglomerular apparatus & Vasa Recta

(4) Cortical nephrons & Macula Densa

177. Hkwdai ds >Vdksa ls Mjdj ,d dksVk fLFkr cgqeaftyh bekjrds v"V ry dk fuoklh vfr 'kh?kzrk ls lhf<+;ksa ls uhpsmrjus yxkA fuEu esa ls fdl gkWeksZu us bl fØ;k dks izkjEHkfd;k gS \(1) ,fMªufyu(2) ,sihusÝhu(3) Fkk;jksDlhu(4) mi;qZDr (1) o (2)

178. fuEu esa ls fdudk lzksr lksesVksLVsfVu dk Hkh lzksr gS :-

(1) oslksizsflu (Vasopressin) o vMªsfuyu (adrenaline)

(2) balqfyu (Insulin) o Xywdkxksu (glucagon)

(3) lksesVksVªksfiu (Somatotropin) izksysfDVu (Prolactin)

(4) FkkbjksDlhu (Thyroxine) o dSyflVksfuu (Calcitonin )

179. vUrorhZ midyk feyrh gS :-

(1) jhuy isyfol esa

(2) ew=okfguh esa

(3) ew=k'k; esa

(4) miq;ZDr lHkh esa

180. mikfLFk Hk{kd dksf'kdk gS :-(1) Chondroblast

(2) Chondrocyte

(3) Chondroclast

(4) Fibroblast

181. dspaw, ls i`"B jDr okfgdk :-

(1) 13 os [k.M ds i'pkr jDr dk forj.k djrh gSA

(2) lEiw.kZ [k.Mksa esa jDr dk forj.k djrh gSA

(3) izFke 13 [k.Mksa esa jDr dk ,d=.k djrh gSA

(4) izFke 13 [k.Mksa esa jDr dk forj.k djrh gSA

182. dkdjksp esa jU/kzksa dh la[;k gS:-(1) N tksM+h(2) 13 (3 + 10) tksM+h(3) dsoy 10

(4) dsoy 20

183. izfrizokg xq.kd fofue;d rU= dke djrk gS :-

(1) oklk jsDVk rFkk oYdqVh; usÝku esa

(2) e/;ka'k vklUu usÝku rFkk oklk jsDVk esa

(3) tDlVk Xykses:yj midj.k rFkk oklk jsDVk esa

(4) oYdqVh; usÝku rFkk esdwyk MsUlk esa


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER184. Which one of the following statements is incorrect

with respect to synapses :-

(1) Impulse transmission across the electricalsynapse is always faster than that of thechemical synapse

(2) Chemical synapse are characterized by thepresence of synaptic cleft.

(3) At electrical synapse, impulse transmissionoccurs with the help of neurotransmitter

(4) If inhibitory neuro transmitter (GABA) bindswith post synaptic membrane then the Cl–

gated channels open and hyperpolarization ofneuron occurs

185. Foramen of Monro connects :-

(1) Third ventricle to fourth ventricle

(2) Lateral ventricles to Diocel

(3) First & second ventricle to third ventricle

(4) Both 2 & 3

186. If egg is not fertilized, the corpus luteum :-(1) remains alive for three months.(2) changes into corpus haemorrhagicum.(3) secretes progesterone in excess.(4) changes into corpus albicans.

187. Estrous cycle is characteristic of :-(1) All primate females(2) Human female only(3) All mammalian females other than primates.(4) All mammalian females.

188. Read following statements carefully and selecthow many of them are correct :-(a) Cowper's gland is present in frog.(b) Mitochondria of sperm occur in its middle

piece.(c) Ovarian follicles are never present in frog's

ovary.(f) Polar bodies are formed during

spermatogenesis.(e) Whale is an oviparous animal.(1) One(2) Two(3) Three(4) Four

189. How many secondary spermatocytes will berequired to form 100 spermatozoans :-(1) 100 (2) 200(3) 50 (4) 10

184. lkbusIl ls lEcfU/kr fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh ughagS :-

(1) fo|qr lkbusIl ls vkosx dk lapj.k jklkf;du flusIldh vis{kk ges'kk rst gksrk gSA

(2) jklk;fud flusIl esa flusfIVd njkj mifLFkr gksrhgSA

(3) fo|qr flusIl esa vkosx dk lajpj.k raf=dk lapkjh dhenn ls gksrk gSA

(4) ;fn bUghfcVjh U;wjksVªkalehVj i'p flusfIVd f>Yyhls tqM+rk gS rks DyksjkbM lapkfyr pSuy [kqyrs gS vkSjU;wjksu dk vfr/kzqo.k gksrk gSA

185. eksujks dk fNnz tksM+rk gS :-(1) r`rh; osfUVªdy dks prqFkZ osfUVªdy ls(2) ik'oZ osfUVªdy dks Mk;kslhy ls(3) izFke ,oa f}rh; osfUVªdy dks r`rh; osfUVªdy ls(4) 2 ,oa 3 nksuksa

186. vxj v.Mk fu"ksfpr ugha gksrk gS] rks ihr fiaM :-(1) rhu ekg rd ftUnk jgrk gSA(2) dkiZl gheksjsftde esa ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA(3) vR;f/kd izkstsLVªksu L=kfor djrk gSA(4) dkiZl ,fYcdUl esa ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA

187. en pØ vfHky{kf.kd gS :-(1) lHkh izkbesV eknkvksa dk(2) dsoy ekuo eknk dk(3) izkbesV~l ds vfrfjDr lHkh Lru/kkjh eknkvksa dk(4) lHkh Lru/kkjh eknkvksa dk

188. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd if<+;s rFkk fdrus lgh gS]Nk¡fV;s :-

(a) dkmij xzafFk;ka es<+d esa ik;h tkrh gSA

(b) ekbVksdkfUMª;k 'kqØk.kq ds e/; Hkkx esa gksrk gSA

(c) v.Mk'k; iqfVdk es<+d ds v.Mk'k; esa dHkh ugha ik;h

tkrh gSA

(f) /kzqodk; 'kqØtuu ds nkSjku curh gSA

(e) Ogsy ,d v.Mt izk.kh gSA

(1) ,d(2) nks(3) rhu

(4) pkj189. 100 'kqØk.kq cuus esa fdrus f}rh;d 'kqØk.kq tuu dksf'kdkvksa

dh vko';drk gksxh :-(1) 100 (2) 200(3) 50 (4) 10


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER190. Which statement is correct :-

(1) Eggs of hen are megalecithal & isolecithal.

(2) Eggs of frog are mesolecithal & telolecithal.

(3) Eggs of cockroach are megalecithal &centrolecithal.

(4) Both 2 & 3

191. In which of the following technique zygoteupto 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopiantube :-

(1) IUT

(2) ZIFT

(3) GIFT

(4) ICSI

192. What is false about MTP :-

(1) It is relatively safe during Ist trimester.

(2) Government of India legalized MTP in 1978

with some conditions.

(3) Humanitarian is one of the conditions of

MTP.

(4) All of the above

193. Choose the correct option :-

(A) Order (B) Characters (C) Example

(1) Perissodactyla

® Odd toed ungulates® Simple stomach® Horns absent

- Cows, Deer

(2) Monoteremata

® Teeth absent® Mammary glands without nipple® Pinna present

- Ornithorhyncus- Tachyglossus

(3) Rhyncocephalia

® Living fossil of Australia® 3rd eye functional

- Sphenodon

(4) Cetacea® Blubber present® Testes internal® Hair absent

- Balaenoptera

194. How does Entamoeba differs from Ameoba ?

(1) Entamoeba has no contractile vacuole vaccute

(2) Entamoeba is a parasite

(3) Entamoeba has pseudopodia

(4) Both 1 & 2

190. lgh dFku dks pqfu;s :-(1) eqxhZ ds v.Ms vfrihrdh rFkk leihrdh gksrs gSA(2) es<+d ds v.Ms e/;ihrdh rFkk xksyk¼Zihrdh gksrs

gSA(3) dkWdjksp ds v.Ms vfrihrdh rFkk dsUæihrdh gksrs gSA(4) 2 o 3 nksuksa

191. fuEu esa ls fdl rduhd esa 8 CyksLVkseh;Zl rd ds Hkzw.k dks

QSysfi;u ufydkvksa esa LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS :-

(1) IUT

(2) ZIFT

(3) GIFT

(4) ICSI

192. MTP ds lUnHkZ esa xyr D;k gS :-(1) MTP xHkkZoLFkk ds izFke rhu ekg esa vis{kkÏr lqjf{kr

gksrk gSA

(2) Hkkjr ljdkj us 1978 bZ- esa MTP dks dqN 'krks± ds

lkFk dkuwuh LohÏfr nhA

(3) â;wesuhVsfj;u MTP dh 'krks± esa ls ,d gSA

(4) mi;qZDr lHkh

193. lgh fodYi dks pqfu;s :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(A) x.k (B) y{k.k (C) mnkgj.k

isfjlksMsDVkbyk

® fo"ke vaxqyh; tUrq® ljy vek'k;® lhax vuqifLFkr

xk;] fgju

eksuksfVªesVk

® nkar vuqifLFkr® Lru xzafFk;ka pwpd jfgr® d.kZ iYyo mifLFkr

vfuZFkksfjdalVsdhXyksll

fjUdksflQSfy;k

® vkLVªsfy;k dk thfor thok'e® rhljk us= fØ;k'khy

LQsuksMksu

lhVsfl;k

® Cycj mifLFkr® o`"k.k mnjxqgk esa mifLFkr® jkse vuqifLFkr

cSyhuksIVsjk

194. ,.V vehck] vehck ls fdl izdkj fHkUu gksrk gS ?(1) ,.Vvehck esa ladqpu'khy fjfDrdk ugha gksrh gSA(2) ,.Vvehck ijthoh gSA(3) ,.Vvehck esa dwVikn gSA(4) 1 ,oa 2 nksuksa


RPMT-2014PRACTICE TEST PAPER195. Mark the wrong combination :-

(1) Taenia - Cysticercus larva(2) Star fish - Bippinaria larva(3) Earthworm - Larva absent(4) Neries - Glochidium larva

196. The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) & (d)select the correct answer with respect to acommon characteristics of two of these animals.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)(1) (a) & (b) have radial symmetry(2) (a) & (b) have true coelom(3) (c) & (d) have open blood vascular system(4) (b) & (c) respire through gills.

197. Which of the following is represented bymedusa ?(1) sea anemones (2) jelly fishes(3) corals (4) Hydra

198. Neopilina is a connecting link between Annelida& Mollusca & belongs to the class :-(1) Insecta (2) Monoplacophora(3) Polychaeta (4) Gastropoda

199. Gemmule in a sponge is :-(1) An external bud(2) An internal bud(3) A collection of choanocytes(4) A sexual phase

200. Transfer of Taenia to secondary host occurs in theform of :-(1) Cysticercus (2) Hexacanth(3) Onchosphere (4) Sporocyst

195. xyr dk pquko dhft, :-(1) Vhfu;k - flLVhldZl ykokZ(2) rkjk ehu - fcfIiusfj;k ykokZ(3) dsapqvk - ykokZ vuqifLFkr(4) uhfjt - XyksfpfM;e ykokZ

196. pkj tUrqvksa ds fp=ksa (a), (b), (c) o (d) dks /;kuiwoZdnsf[k;s rFkk fdUgha nks esa leku y{k.k dks Nk¡fV;saA

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)(1) (a) rFkk (b) vjh; leehfr j[krs gSA(2) (a) rFkk (b) lR; xqgk j[krs gSaA(3) (c) rFkk (d) [kqyk jDr ifjlapj.k ra= j[krs gSA(4) (b) rFkk (c) Dykse ls 'olu djrs gSaA

197. fuEu esa ls dkSu esMwlk }kjk iznf'kZr gksrk gS :-

(1) lh ,suheksUl (2) tsyh fQ'k

(3) dksjYl (4) gkbMªk198. 'fuvksIykbuk' ,sfufyMk rFkk eksyLdk ds e/; la;kstd dM+h

gS rFkk fdl oxZ ls lEcU/k j[krk gS :-(1) bUlsDVk (2) eksuksIysdksQksjk(3) ikWyhdhVk (4) xsLVªksiksMk

199. xsE;wy Liat esa gS :-(1) ,d cká eqdqyu(2) ,d vkUrfjd eqdqyu(3) dhi dksf'kdkvksa dk laxzg(4) ,d ySafxd voLFkk

200. Vhfu;k dk f}rh;d iks"kd esa LFkkukUrj.k fdl voLFkk esagksrk gS :-(1) flLVhldZl (2) gsDlkdsUFk(3) vkUdksLQh;j (4) LiksjksflLV

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ALLEN M PAPE 00OM313040Combined).pdfPat S ALLEN CARE NSTITUTE KOT (RA) M FOR ACC PA 2014 PAPE ALLEN # 01 00OM313040 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 Corporate