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ALL ASSAM APSC CCE (PRELIMS) 2020
FREE MOCK TEST (20-12-2020)
GENERAL STUDIES-2 (CSAT)
Time Allowed: 2 (Two) Hours Maximum Marks: 200
_______________________________________________________________________________
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. 2. This test booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 4. All items carry equal marks. 5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in the registration form attached along with the question paper/answer (OMR) sheet and submit to the invigilator. Failing to do so, your answer sheet may not be evaluated. 6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 7. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that. Note: Please keep your mobile phone in switched off mode.
1. The number of times the digit 5 will
appear while writing the integers from 1
to 1000 is
(a) 269
(b) 271
(c) 300
(d) 302
2. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and
black such that opposite faces are of same
colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes
of two different sizes such that 32 cubes
are small and the other four cubes are Big.
None of the faces of the bigger cubes is
painted blue. How many cubes have only
one face painted?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
3. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B
is placed on the top of A, the weight
increases by 60%. How much weight will
reduce with respect to the total weight of
A and B, if B is removed from the top of
A?
(a) 60%
(b) 45.5%
(c) 40%
(d) 37.5%
4. Mr 'X' has three children. The birthday
of the first child falls on the 5th Monday
of April, that of the second one falls on
the 5th Thursday of November. On which
day is the birthday of his third child, which
falls on 20th December?
(a) Monday
(b) Thursday
(c) Saturday
(d) Sunday
5. Consider the following Statements and
Conclusions:
Statements:
1. Some rats are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
3. No dog is a cow.
Conclusions:
I. No cow is a cat.
II. No dog is a rat.
III. Some cats are rats.
Which of the above conclusions is/are
drawn from the statements?
(a) I, II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and III
6. The number of parallelograms that can
be formed from a set of four parallel lines
intersecting another set of four parallel
lines, is
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 36
7. In a school every student is assigned a
unique identification number. A student is
a football player if and only if the
identification number is divisible by 4,
whereas a student is a cricketer if and
only if the identification number is
divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to
100 is assigned to a student, then how
many of them play cricket as well as
football?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
8. When a runner was crossing the 12 km
mark, she was informed that she had
completed only 80% of the race. How
many kilometres was the runner
supposed to run in this event?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 16.5
9. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he
wants to buy a mobile handset; but he
finds that he has only 75% of the amount
required to buy the handset. Therefore,
he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then
(a) Raju still does not have enough
amount to buy the handset.
(b) Raju has exactly the same amount as
required to buy the handset.
(c) Raju has enough amount to buy the
handset and he will have 500 with him
after buying the handset.
(d) Raju has enough amount to buy the
handset and he will have 1000 with him
after buying the handset.
10. In 2002, Meenu's age was one-third of
the age of Meera, whereas in 2010,
Meenu's age was half the age of Meera.
What is Meenu's year of birth?
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 1998
11. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10
balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300
and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket
costs three times a ball does, then what is
the price of a racket?
(a) Rs. 70
(b) Rs. 90
(c) Rs. 210
(d) Rs. 240
12. In a conference, out of a total 100
participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the
total participants are vegetarian, then
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. At least 30 Indian participants are
vegetarian.
2. At least 10 Indian participants are non-
vegetarian.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. P, Q and R are three towns. The
distance between P and Q is 60 km,
whereas the distance between P and R is
80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the
South of P. What is the distance between
Q and R?
(a) 140 km
(b) 130 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 100 km
14. All members of a club went to
Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first
day, 80% went for shopping and 50%
went for sightseeing, whereas 10% took
rest in the hotel. Which of the following
conclusion(s) can be drawn from the
above data?
1. 40% members went for shopping as
well as sightseeing.
2. 20% members went for only shopping.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. In a school, 60% students play cricket.
A student who does not play cricket, plays
football. Every football player has got a
two-wheeler. Which of the following
conclusions cannot be drawn from the
above data?
1. 60% of the students do not have two-
wheelers.
2. No cricketer has a two-wheeler.
3. Cricket players do not play football.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16. The ratio of a two-digit natural
number to a number formed by reversing
its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs
is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
17. In an examination, A has scored 20
marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less
marks than A, how much has B scored?
(a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 400
(d) 420
18. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a
gap of every 2 days and every 3 days
respectively. If on 1st January both of
them went for a swim together, when will
they go together next?
(a) 7th January
(b) 8th January
(c) 12th January
(d) 13th January
19. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a
race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with
different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start
of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y
and Z were to compete in a race of 1000
m, how many metres start will Y give to Z?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
20. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y
is less than or equal to 40, then which one
of the following is always correct?
(a) x is greater than y
(b) (y - x) is greater than 15
(c) (y - x) is less than or equal to 15
(d) (x - y) is greater than or equal to 65
21. Ena was born 4 years after her
parents' marriage. Her mother is three
years younger than her father and 24
years older than Ena, who is 13 years old.
At what age did Ena's father get married?
(a) 22 years
(b) 23 years
(c) 24 years
(d) 25 years
22. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile
handsets of a specific company. But the
retailer offered very good discount on
that particular handset. Rakesh could buy
10 mobile handsets with the amount he
had. What was the discount the retailer
offered?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
23. The average marks of 100 students are
given to be 40. It was found later that
marks of one student were 53 which were
misread as 83. The corrected mean marks
are
(a) 39
(b) 39.7
(c) 40
(d) 40.3
24. If every alternative letter of the
English alphabet from B onwards
(including B) is written in lower case
(small letters) and the remaining letters
are capitalized, then how is the first
month of the second half of the year
written?
(a) JuLY
(b) jULy
(c) jUly
(d) jUlY
25. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three
pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the
average of the three single digit odd
prime numbers. Length of the second
piece is equal to that of the first plus one-
third the length of the third. The third
piece is as long as the other two pieces
together. The length of the original sheet
of paper is
(a) 13 units
(b) 15 units
(c) 16 units
(d) 30 units
26. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5,
7, how many such 5s are there which are
not immediately preceded by 3 but are
immediately followed by 7?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None
27. A joint family consists of seven
members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three
females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of
D's father F. B and D are siblings and A is
daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?
1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) none of these
28. Each face of a cube can be painted in
black or white colours. In how many
different ways can the cube be painted?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
29. How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the
equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are
natural numbers?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 10
30. If $ means 'divided by'; @ means
'multiplied by'; # means 'minus', then the
value of 10#5@1$5 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 9
31. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves
remainder 0 when divided by 3. How
many values of B are possible?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Directions for the following 3 (three)
items:
Read the following information and
answer the three items that follow:
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in
several tests. Either C or F scores the
highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F
scores the highest, B scores the least. In
all the tests they got different marks; D
scores higher than A, but they are close
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
scores higher than A.
32. If F stands second in the ranking, then
the position of B is
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
33. If B scores the least, the rank of C will
be
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Second or third
34. If E is ranked third, then which one of
the following is correct?
(a) E gets more marks than C
(b) C gets more marks than E
(c) A is ranked fourth
(d) D is ranked fifth
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Read the following statements SI and S2
and answer the two items that follow:
S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than
the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.
S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater
than the weight of Mohan or that of
Sohan.
35. Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) Weight of Mohan is greatest
(b) Weight of Sohan is greatest
(c) Weight of Rohan is greatest
(d) Whose weight is greatest' cannot be
determined
36. Which one of the following statements
is correct?
(a) Weight of Mohan is least
(b) Weight of Sohan is least
(c) Weight of Rohan is least
(d) 'Whose weight is least' cannot be
determined
37. What is X in the sequence 132, 129,
124, 117, 106, 93, X?
(a) 74
(b) 75
(c) 76
(d) 77
38. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in
every 24 hours. The clock was set right to
show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on
Monday. When the clock shows the time
6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the
correct time?
(a) 5:36 p.m.
(b) 5:30 p.m.
(c) 5:24 p.m.
(d) 5:18 p.m.
39. If the numerator and denominator of
a proper fraction are increased by the
same positive quantity which is greater
than zero, the resulting fraction is
(a)always less than the original fraction
(b) always greater than the original
fraction
(c) always equal to the original fraction
(d) such that nothing can .be claimed
definitely
40. What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16,
144, 36, 100, 64, X ?
(a) 48
(b) 64
(c) 125
(d) 256
41. In a group of 15 people; 7 can read
French, 8 can read English while 3 of them
can read neither of these two languages.
The number of people who can read
exactly one language is
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 4
42. A printer numbers the pages of a book
starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all.
How many pages does the book have ?
(a) 1040
(b) 1048
(c) 1049
(d) 1050
43. Consider the following sequence that
follows some arrangement:
c_accaa_aa_bc_b
The letters that appear in the gaps are
(a) abba
(b) cbbb
(c) bbbb
(d) cccc
44. A family has two children along with
their parents. The average of the weights
of the children and their mother is 50 kg.
The average of the weights of the children
and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of
the father is 60 kg, then what is the
weight of the mother ?
(a) 48 kg
(b) 50 kg
(c) 52 kg
(d) 54 kg
45. Suppose you have sufficient amount
of rupee currency in three denominations:
Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many
different ways can you pay a bill of Rs.
107?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
46. 'A' started from his house and walked
20 m towards East, where his friend 13'
joined him. They together walked 10 m in
the same direction. Then 'A' turned left
while 'B' turned right and travelled 2 m
and 8 m respectively. Again 'B' turned left
to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right
to reach his office. 'A' turned right and
travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is
the shortest distance between the two
offices?
(a) 15 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 19 m
(d) 20 m
47. Consider two statements S1 and S2
followed by a question:
S1: p and q both are prime numbers.
S2: p + q is an odd integer.
Question: Is pq an odd integer?
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the
question
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the
question
(c) Both S1 and S2 taken together are not
sufficient to answer the question
(d) Both S1 and S2 are necessary to
answer the question
48. Which year has the same calendar as
that of 2009 ?
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2015
49. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the
sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are
integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly
divisible by 3. The only possible value of B
is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
50. If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as
fast but not faster than C; then, as
compared to A, C runs
(a) slower than A
(b) faster than A
(c) with same speed as A
(d) Given data isnot sufficient to
determine
51. Each of A., B, C and D has Rs 100. A
pays Rs 20 to B, who pays Rs 10 to C, who
gets Rs 30 from D. In this context, which
one of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) C is the richest
(b) D is the poorest.
(c) C has more than what A and D have
together.
(d) B is richer than D
52. Examine the following statements:
1.Lady's finger is tastier than cabbage.
2.Cauliflower is tastier than lady's finger.
3.Cabbage is not tastier than peas.
The conclusion that can be drawn from
these statements is that
(a) peas are as tasty as lady's finger.
(b)peas are as tasty as cauliflower and
lady's finger.
(c) cabbage is the least tasty of the four
vegetables.
(d) cauliflower is tastier than cabbage
53. Shahid and Rohit start from the same
point in opposite directions. After each 1
km, Shahid always turns left and Rohit
always turns right. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(a) After both have travelled 2 km, the
distance between them is 4 km.
(b) They meet after each has travelled
3km.
(c) They meet for the first time after each
has travelled 4 km.
(d)They go on without ever meeting again
54. In a 500 metres race, B starts 45
metres ahead of A, but A wins the race
while B is still 35 metres behind. What is
the ratio of the speeds of A to B assuming
that both start at the same time?
(a) 25: 21
(b) 25: 20
(c) 5:3
(d) 5:7
55. Two equal glasses of same type are
respectively 1/3 and 1/4 full of milk. They
are then filled up with water and the
contents are mixed in a pot. What is the
ratio of milk and water in the pot?
(a) 7 : 17
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 9 : 21
(d) 11 : 23
56. Out of 130 students appearing in an
examination, 62 failed in English, 52 failed
in Mathematics, whereas 24 failed in both
English and Mathematics. The number of
students who passed finally is
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 55
(d) 60
57. In a group of persons travelling in a
bus, 6 persons can speak Tamil, 15 can
speak Hindi and 6 can speak Gujarati. In
that group none can speak any other
language. If 2 persons in the group can
speak two languages only and one person
can speak all the three languages, then
how many persons are there in the
group?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24
58. In a parking area, the total number of
wheels of all the cars (four-wheelers) and
scooters/motorbikes (two-wheelers) is
100 more than twice the number of
parked vehicles. The number of cars
parked is
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 55
59. The mangroves can shed tons of
leaves per acre every year; fungi and
bacteria break down this leaf litter and
consume it, they then are consumed by
tiny worms and crustaceans, which in turn
feed small fish, which feed larger fish and
birds and crocodiles.
Which among the following is the most
logical inference of the above statement?
(a) Coastal areas cannot have food chains
without mangroves.
(b) Mangroves are an essential
component of all marine ecosystems.
(c) Mangroves have a crucial role in some
of the coastal food chains.
(d) The composition of marine flora and
fauna is largely determined by mangroves.
60. "By liberty I mean the eager
maintenance of that atmosphere in which
men have the opportunity to be their best
selves."
Which one of the following expresses the
view implied in the above statement?
(a) Liberty is the absence of restraint
on human action.
(b) Liberty is what law permits people
to perform.
(c) Liberty is the ability to do what one
desires.
(d) Liberty is the maintenance of
conditions for the growth of human
personality.
61. Twelve people form a club. By picking
lots, one of them will host a dinner for all
once in a month. The number of dinners a
particular member has to host in one year
is
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Three
(d) Cannot be predicted
62. An automobiles owner reduced his
monthly petrol consumption when the
prices went up. The price-consumption
relationship is as follows:
Price (in Rs. Per litre) 40 50 60 75
Monthly consumption (in litres) 60 48 40
30
If the price goes up to Rs. 80 per litre, his
expected consumption (in litres) will be
(a) 30
(b) 28
(c) 26
(d) 24
63. Consider the following matrix:
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the
matrix?
(a) 5
(b) 0
(c) 7
(d) 3
64. What is the missing number ‘X’ of the
series 7, X, 21, 31, 43?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
65. A man purchases two clocks A & B at a
total cost of Rs 650.He sells A with 20%
profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the
same selling price for both the clocks.
What are the purchasing prices of A and B
respectively?
(a) Rs 225; Rs 425
(b) Rs 250; Rs 400
(c) Rs 275; Rs 375
(d) Rs 300; Rs 350
Passage:
Many pathogens that cause food borne
illnesses are unknown. Food
contamination can occur at any stage
from farm to plate. Since most cases of
food poisoning go unreported, the true
extent of global food borne illness is
unknown. Improvements in international
monitoring have led to greater public
awareness, yet the rapid globalization of
food production increases consumers’
vulnerability by making food harder to
regulate and trace. “We have the world
on our plates”, says an official of WHO.
66. Which of the following is the most
logical corollary to the above passage?
a). With more options for food come
more risks
b) Food processing is the source of all
food borne illnesses
c) We should depend on locally produced
food only
d) Globalisation of food production should
be curtailed
Passage:
It is no longer enough for us to talk about
providing for universal access to
education, Making available schooling
facilities in an essential prerequisite, but is
insufficient to ensure that all children
attend school and participate in the
learning process. The school may be
there, but children may not attend or they
may drop out after a few months Through
school and social mapping, we must
address the entire gamut of social,
economic, cultural and indeed linguistic
and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent
children from weaker sections and
disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from
regularly attending and complementing
elementary education. The focus must be
on the poorest and most vulnerable since
these groups are the most disempowered
and at the greatest risk of violation or
denial of their right to education.
The right to education goes beyond free
and compulsory education to include
quality education for all Quality in an
integral part of the right to education. If
the education process lacks quality,
children are being denied their right The
Right of Children to free and Compulsory
Education Act lays down that the
curriculum should provide for learning
through activities, exploration and
discovery. This places an obligation on us
to change our perception of children an
passive receiver of knowledge, and to
move beyond the convention of using
textbooks as the basis of examinations
The teaching-learning process must
become stress-free, and a massive
programme for curricular reform should
be initiated to provide for a child-friendly
learning system that is more relevant and
empowering. Teacher accountability
systems and processes must ensure that
children are learning, and that their right
to learn in a child-friendly environment is
not violated. Testing and assessment
systems must be re-examined and
redesigned to ensure that these do not
force children to struggle between school
and tuition centres, and bypass childhood.
67. According to the passage, which of the
following is/are of paramount importance
under the Right to Education?
1. Sending of children to school by all
parents
2 Provision of adequate physical
infrastructure in schools
3. Curricular reforms for developing child-
friendly learning system
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
68. With reference to the above passage,
the following assumptions have been
made
1. The Right to Education guarantees
teachers’ accountability for the learning
process of children.
2 The Right to Education guarantees 100%
enrolment of children in the schools
3. The Right to action intends to take full
advantage of demographic dividend.
Which of the above assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
69. According to the passage, which one
of the following is critical in bringing
quality in education?
(a) Ensuring regular attendance of
children as well as teachers in school
(b) Giving pecuniary benefits teachers to
motivate them to
(c) Understanding the socio-cultural
background of children
(d) Inculcating learning through activities
and discovery
70. What is the essential message in this
passage?
a) The Right to Education now is a
Fundamental Right
(b) The Right to Education enables the
children of poor and weaker sections of
the society to attend schools
c) The Right to Free and Compulsory
Education should include quality
education for all
d) The Government as well as parents
should ensure that all children attend
schools
Passage: Desertification is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to the arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, the even in the humid tropics, impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways: accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the boundary salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid green revolution areas of the country, eg, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline common phenomenon
due to general decline tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains.
A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in the hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses. The consequences of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The already high rates for the tropics are increasing at an alarming rate (e.g. through the major river system - Ganga and Brahmaputra, in the Indian context), due to deforestation and il-suited land management practices subsequent to forest clearing. In the mountain context, the declining moisture retention of the mountain on, drying up of the underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan region could be attributed to drastic changes in the forest cover. An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland lowland interaction, mediated through water. The current concern the tea planter of Assam has is about the damage to tea plantations due to frequent inundation along the flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea productivity in due to rising level of the river bottom because of siltation and the changing course of the river system. The ultimate consequences of site clarification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality, and the consequent decline in food, fodder and fuel wood yields essential for the economic well-being of rural communities.
71. According to the passage, which of the following are the consequences of decline in forest cover? 1. Loss of topsoil 2 Loss of smaller rivers 3 Adverse effects on agricultural production 4 Declining of groundwater Select the correct answer the code given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only d) 1. 2. 3 and 4 72. Which of the following is/are the correct inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. Deforestation can cause change in the course of rivers. 2. Salinization of land takes place due to human activities only. 3. Intense monoculture practice in plains is a major reason for desertification in Tropical Asia, Africa and South America Select the correct answer using the code given below. A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only d) None of the above is correct inference
73. With reference to ‘desertification', as described in the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Desertification is a phenomenon in tropical areas only 2. Deforestation invariably leads to floods and desertification.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1nd 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage:
Many farmers use synthetic pesticides to
kill infesting insects. The consumption of
pesticides in some of the developed
countries is touching 3000 grams/hectare.
Unfortunately, there are reports that
these compounds possess inherent
toxicities that endanger the health of the
farm operators, consumers and the
environment Synthetic pesticides are
generally persistent in environment.
Entering in food chain they destroy the
microbial diversity and cause ecological
imbalance. Their indiscriminate use has
resulted in development of resistance
among insects to insecticides, upsetting of
balance in nature and resurgence of
treated populations. Natural pest control
using the botanical pesticides is safer to
the user and the environment because
they break down into harmless
compounds within hours or days in the
presence of sunlight. Plants with pesticidal
properties have been in nature for
millions of years without any i or adverse
effects on the ecosystem. They are easily
decomposed by many microbes common
in most soils. They help in the
maintenance of biological diversity of
predators and the reduction of
environmental contamination and human
health hazards Botanical pesticides
formulated from plants are biodegradable
and their use in crop protection is a
practical sustainable alternative.
74. On the basin of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. Synthetic pesticides should never be
used in modern agriculture.
2. One of the aims of sustainable
agriculture is to ensure minimal ecological
imbalance.
3 Botanical pesticides are more effective
as compared to synthetic pesticides.
Which of the assumptions given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
75. A person asked ‘A’ what is her relation
to ‘X’ to which she said,” X is the only
brother of my son-in-law’s wife”. What is
the relation of ‘A’ & ‘X’?
a. aunt & nephew
b. grandmother & grandson
c. mother & son
d. father & son
e. can’t be determined
76.__bc__ca__aba__c__ca
a. abcbb
b. bbbca
c. bacba
d. abbcc
77. If “DOG” is coded as “4157”,then
“CAT” is coded as?
a.3178
b.3210
c.3167
d.3120
78. A person stood alone in a desert on a
dark night and wanted to reach his village
which was situated 5km east of the point
where he was standing. He had no
instruments to find the direction but he
located the polestar. The most convenient
way now to reach his village is to walk in
the
a. direction facing the polestar.
b. direction opposite to the polestar.
c. direction keeping the polestar to his
left.
d. direction keeping the polestar to his
right.
79. In a certain code language “MOBILITY”
is written as “1315291292025”, how is
“EXAMINATION” written in that code
a. 5124139142091514
b. 5241139142091514
c. 5241319142091514
d. 571594139551514
80. Pointing to a girl Manish said, ’She is
the only daughter of my grandfather’s
son’. How is the girl related to Manish?
a. daughter
b. sister
c. cousin
d. data inadequate