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ALL ASSAM APSC CCE (PRELIMS) 2020

FREE MOCK TEST (20-12-2020)

GENERAL STUDIES-1

Time Allowed: 2 (Two) Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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INSTRUCTIONS

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet. 2. This test booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. 4. All items carry equal marks. 5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in the registration form attached along with the question paper/answer (OMR) sheet and submit to the invigilator. Failing to do so, your answer sheet may not be evaluated. 6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 7. Penalty for wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that.

Note: Please keep your mobile phones in switched off mode.

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1. For which did Dr. Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya receive the Academy award? a. Rajpathe Ragini b. Iyaruingam c. Mrityunjoy d. Aai 2. The first Postal Stamp released in the name of Assamese writer a. Lakshminath Bezbaruah b. Hem Baruah c. Mitradev Mahanta d. Surjya Kumar Bhuyan 3. The noval Abijatri is based on the life and deeds a. Aideo Handique b. Chandra Prabha Saikiani c. Nalini Bala Devi d. Rajbala Handique

4. Karengar Ligiri is a play written by a. Parbati Prasad Baroah b. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala c. Bishnu Prasad Rabha d. Phani Sarma 5. Who wrote the essay Hindu View of Life? a. Swami Vivekananda b. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan c. Sri Arabindo d. Ananda Ram Barooah 6. Chira Cheneli Mor Bhasa Janani is a patriotic song written a. Parbati Prasad Barooah b. Bishnu Prasad Rabha c. Mitradev Mahanta d. Lakshminath Bezbaruah

7. The Arjun Bhanjan of Madhabdeva is a. Yatra b. Rupak c. Jhumura d. Natak

8. The Assamese poet known as ‘Sewali Kavi’ is a. Debakanta Baruah b. Ananda Chandra Baruah c. Ratnakanta Borkakoti d. Sailadhar Rajkhowa

9. Who started the tradition of performing Lord Rama plays known Ram Leela? a. Kabir b. Tulsidas c. Ramanuj d. Ramakrishna Paramhangsha

10. First Assamese play to be broadcast over All India Radio in 1935 was a. Jivanar batat b. Been Bairagi c. Lahori d. Bon Kunwari

11. Namghosa contains a collection of Verses numbering a. One Thousand b. One hundred c. Five Thousand d. Five hundred

12. Which one of the following Assamese writers is expert in historical writing? a. Ananda Chandra Baruah b. Mohim Bora c. Surya Kumar Bhuyan

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d. Atul Ch. Hazarika

13. Freedom from fear is a book written by a. Aung San Suu Kyi b. Benazir Bhutto c. Nayantara Sehgal d. Mahatma Gandhi 14. Gita Rahshya was written by a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Swami Dayananda c. Swami Bivekananda d. Ananda Ram Baruah

15. The meaning of Calligraphy is a. Art of drawing b. Art of designing c. Beautifully gardening d. Beautifully handwriting

16. The first Social Assamese drama is a. Manomoti b. Labhita c. Miri Jiori d. Ram Navami 17. Who among the following is popularly known as the poet of Sagar Dekhisa? a. Biren Borkataki b. Nilomani Phukan c. Hem Barua d. Devakanta Barua 18. Name of first Assamese writer who received the Sahitya Academy award a. Raghunath Choudhari b. Jatindra Nath Duarah c. Syed Abdul Malik d. Binanda Barua

19. Which of the following is not an official language of the United Nations? (a) Arabic (b) Chinese (c) Portuguese (d) Spanish 20. Besides India, great Indian one horned rhinoceros is also found in natural habitat of (A) Myanmar (B) Nepal (C) Sri Lanka (D) Bhutan and part of Tibet

21. Ibn Batuta, the celebrated traveler visited Assam in the a thirteenth century b. fourteen century c. tenth century d. fifteen century 22. Adhalekha Dastabej is written by a. Krishnakanta Handique b. Banikanta Kakati c. Sayed Abdul Malik d. Mamoni Roisom Goswami 23. The first poetical work of Sankardev is a. Rukmini Haran b. Anadi Patan c. Kirtan d. Harchandra Upakhyan 24. The system of Thapona, the holy book on the pedestal introduced by a. Sankardev b. Madhavdev c. Damodardev d. Ram Rai

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25. Kokborok is one of the principal languages of a. Manipur b. Assam c. Mizoram d. Tripura 26. The last independent Ahom king was a. Chandrakanta Singha b. Kamleswar Singha c. Jogeswar Singha d. Purandar Singha

27. Hasti Vidyarnava was composed during the reign of a. Rudra Singha b. Rajeswar Singha c. Gadadhar Singha d. Siva Singha 28. The battle of Saraighat was fought in a. 1616 b. 1618 c. 1671 d. 1691 29. In which film Dr. Bhupen Hazarika sang for the first time a. Chirag b. Indramalati c. Bhagya d. Chameli Memsab 30. In the seventh century A.D., the throne of Kamrupa occupied so long by princes of the Bhagadatta, was wrested by a tribal leader named a. Nitipala b. Virstambha c. Salastambha

d. Tirot Singh 31. Which of the following place Nidhanpur inscriptions is found? a. Nidhanpur in the district of Sylhet b. Nidhanpur in the district of Karimganj c. Nidhanpur in the district of Kochbihar d. Nidhanpur in the district of Dhubri

32. The metal central to this age finds frequent mention in the Vedas and the age itself follows after the Chalcolithic age. It can be (a) Palaeolithic Age (b) Iron Age (c) Copper-stone (d) Later Stone Age 33. The beginning of agriculture can be ascribed most suitably to which of these times? 1. 2,500 years ago with the onset of Magadha empire 2. 4,700 years ago with the appearance of the first cities on the Indus 3. Nearly 8,000-10,000 years ago 4. About 25,000 years ago in the first Penistone glacial period 34. The river(s) that do NOT find mention in Rigveda is? (a) Ganga and Yamuna (b) Indus and its othertributaries (c) Saraswati (d) All of the above findmention. 35. The Principle of “Right Faith” as propounded by Mahavira Jaina is that (a) That all sentient beings are destined to salvation

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(b) All must understand their role in spiritual life and strictly follow the doctrine of ahimsa (c) Unshaken belief in the teachings and wisdom of Mahavira (d) Not believing in the theory of a God or a creator 36. EarlyBuddhist andJainatexts mention certain statesthatwerevery largeand knownas mahajanapadas. Consider the following statements about them. 1. Sanghas, which were smaller mahajanapadas, were forbidden to control land resources. 2. In smaller mahajanapadas, sanghas, power was shared by a number of men. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None 37. Kulasangha, mentioned by Kautilya in Arthashastra, is (a) Recruitment manual for new officers (b) A system of government (c) A forum of the members of royal family (d) Procession led by a group of Kingdoms to assert authority over a certain region 38. With reference to Ancient India, in the northern part of the country, the village headman was known as the (a) Gramabhojaka (b) Agrahara (c) Dhammsurna

(d) Sentokwara 39. Ashoka’s policy of “Dhamma Vijaya” meant that 1. Dhamma cannot be spread to another country except by voluntary submission and acceptance of its subjects 2. Every empire should fund welfare projects in neighbouring empires. 3. No empire should try to conquest another empire. Select the correct answer using the codes below. (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) None of the above 40. The history of the Vakatakas is largely known from inscriptions and texts like the Puranas. They became a major power in which of these regions of India? (a) Deccan region (b) Eastern region (c) Kurukshetra region (d) Kashmir region 41. What is the relationship between these two Tamil Epics - Silappatikaram and Manimekalai? (a) Manimekalai is a poetic composition of the prosaic content of Silappatikaram. (b) Both bear the same author and the same date of compilation. (c) Silappatikaram is a commentary on Manimekalai. (d) Manimekalai is a sequel to Silappatikaram

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42. With reference to Kabir, a fifteenth century poet and mystic, consider the following statements. 1. Salvation cannot be attained by search for the knowledge, rather results from complete surrender of oneself. 2. Kabir was critical of social discrimination but maintained that caste system was useful for the division of labour in the society. Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None 43. After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced reforms in the land revenue administration. In this context, inam lands were assigned to 1. officials against the payment for their services 2. religious leaders or religiousinstitutions 3. courtyards for mosques 4. expand the market in the hinterland of theempire

44. The first Federal Court in India was constituted under the a) Regulating Act of 1773 b) Councils Act of 1891 c) Morley Minto Act, 1909 d) Government of India Act, 1935 45. The Secretary of State for India 1) Was a British Cabinet minister 2) Political head of the India Office responsible for the governance of the British Raj 3) Had his permanent seat in Calcutta

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(now Kolkata) 4) Was appointed by the British monarch Select the Solution using the codes below a) 1, 2 and 4 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only 46. Which of the following is/are the federal features of the Constitution? 1) The Constitution is written and not easily amendable. 2) State governments derive authority from the Centre. 3) Equal representation of all states in Rajya Sabha Select the Solution using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only 47. Which of the following features of the Indian constitution are borrowed from the USA Constitution? 1) Vice-President as the ex-officio Chairman of Council of States 2) Independence of Judiciary and judicial review 3) Directive Principles of State Policy 4) Parliamentary Type of Government Select the Solution using the codes below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) None of the above

48. Fundamental rights are available against the actions of a) The State only to private individuals alone b) The State as well as individuals only to private individuals alone c) The State, private individuals and commercial entities to individuals and commercial entities d) Private individuals only to private individuals alone 49. The often used term “fourth estate” of a democracy refers to the a) Inter-governmental organizations b) Political parties c) Local Bodies d) Press and Media 50. In the Constitution, protecting the ‘Dignity of women’ is a theme that appears most prominently in the a) Fundamental rights b) Directive Principles of State Policy c) Fundamental Duties d) Directives outside part IV of the Constitution 51. Which of the following authorities, in the capacity of holding that office as the primary duty, is NOT appointed by the President of India? a) Chairman, UPSC b) Chief Election Commissioner of India c) Chairman, NITI Aayog d) All of the above are appointed by the President. 52. The Cabinet Committees are constituted under a) Provisions in Part V of the Constitution

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b) Transaction of Business Rules (TBR), 1961 c) Government of India Act, 1951 d) Parliamentary Conventions of Good Governance 53. Reservation of Seats for the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) is provided for in the 1) Lok Sabha 2) Rajya Sabha 3) State Legislative Assembly 4) State Legislative Council Select the Solution using the codes below. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 2 only d) D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 54. As per the Constitution, who causes to be laid before the Parliament the Union Budget? a) President of India b) Presiding Officer of the House c) Leader of the House d) Minister of Finance 55. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to 1) Legislate with respect to a matter in the State List 2) Create one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

56. The Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in appeals from high courts in regard to civil matters is a a) Constitutional Provision b) Statutory Provision c) Precedent under a ruling of Supreme Court d) Rule made by the Supreme Court 57. Who or which among the following is authorized to create or abolish the State Legislative Councils? a) President of India on the recommendation of concerned State Cabinet b) Parliament of India c) Union Council of Ministers d) Governor of the Concerned State 58. Local Government’ is a subject mentioned in the a) State List under the 7th Schedule of the Constitution b) Concurrent List under the 7th Schedule of the Constitution c) Union List under the 9th Schedule of the Constitution d) Residuary List under the 9th Schedule of the Constitution 59. Elections in country X will be “Democratic” if a) Country X has a written constitution. b) Country X has a very large voter and elector base. c) If an independent and powerful body supervises elections in Country X. d) Country X has a large number of political parties.

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60. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is always decided by the a) President of India b) Chief Justice of India c) Chief Election Commissioner d) Majority in the ECI 61. What are the mandated functions of NITI Aayog? 1) To assist the Cabinet Secretariat in the performance of its secretarial duties 2) To act as the administrative and executive head of the Ministry of Planning allowing it to juxtapose views from diverse stakeholders 3) To maintain a state-of-the-art Resource Centre and be a repository of research on good governance 4) To actively monitor and evaluate the implementation of programmes and initiatives, including the identification of the needed resources 5) To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government Select the Solution using the codes below. a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 3, 4 and 5 only c) 1 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 62. Consider the following statements. 1) Hindi is the mother tongue of majority of the Indian population. 2) Bengali is the most spoken language after Hindi.

3) The Constitution imposes a duty upon the Centre to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language. Select the Solution using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 63. The ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board is a) Prime Minister b) Minister of Personnel and Grievances c) Cabinet Secretary d) Director, LBSNAA 64. The national income estimates of GDP are released quarterly by the a) Chief Economic Advisor, Ministry of Finance b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) c) Central Statistics Office (CSO) d) Department of Commerce and Industry 65. If the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country is growing, it implies that 1. The nation must be experiencing an expansion of the share of manufacturing vis-à-vis other sectors in the GDP. 2. The nation must be experiencing a general rise in the prices of goods and services on an annual basis. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None

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66. Twin Balance Sheet Problem (TBS), frequently seen in news, deals with which of these major problems? 1) Poor performance of the Public Sector Units (PSUs) 2) Non-performing assets in the Indian Banks 3) Debt accumulation on Indian companies 4) Accretion of foreign currency debt on India Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only 67. Which of these taxation systems is most closely related to what India follows? a) Proportional system b) Regressive system c) Progressive system d) Neither progressive nor proportional 68. E-GRAINS is an initiative of the a) Food Policy Foundation (FPF) b) Down to Earth c) Food Corporation of India (FCI) d) Akshay Patra 69. Venture capitalists and Angel Investors invest in a) Only debt-ridden ventures b) Promising start-ups c) Overseas companies that round-trip money d) Corporate bonds issued by blue chip

companies 70. In the context of International trade, ‘Aggregate Measure of Support’ is often heard concerning which of the following sectors? a) Banking b) Information Technology c) Agriculture d) Manufacturing 71. Consider the following hills and their locations. 1. Shevroy Hills: Eastern Ghats 2. Cardamom Hills: Western Ghats 3. Anaimalai Hills: Garhjat Range Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3

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72. The Vindhyan system of rocks is one of the important rock systems of India. It is known for the production of a) Uranium and thorium b) Iron ore, coal and manganese c) Precious stones and building materials d) Bauxite and mica 73. Eastern Ghats are eroded and cut through by a) Chambal and Mahanadi b) Godavari and Krishna c) Pennar and Gandak

d) Tapti and Kosi 74. As per the Koeppen classification, which of the following regions of India has a Steppe Climate? a) Central India b) Parts of North-western India and leeward side of Western Ghats c) North-eastern India d) Coastal regions of south-eastern India 75. Abnormal accumulation of cold water occurring in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean and the strengthening of Tropical pacific trade winds is an unusual occurrence associated with a) El Nino b) Indian Ocean Dipole c) La Nina d) Either (a) or (b) 76. Which of these are species of hardwood trees? 1. Birch 2. Mahogany 3. Spruce 4. Redwood Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2, 3 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 77. The alluvial soils 1. Vary in nature from sandy loam to clay 2. Are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorous 3. Found usually in mountainous regions 4. Are always deposited within the flood plains

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Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2, 3 and 4 78. Which of the following crops require moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine at the time of harvest? a) Rice and maize b) Wheat and maize c) Wheat and Cotton d) Jute and Cotton 79. A system of agriculture where monoculture is practiced on a large area is a) Subsistence Agriculture b) Plantation Agriculture c) Slash and Burn Agriculture d) Transhumance Agriculture 80. The sector that uses over eighty five per cent of groundwater resources in India is a) Agriculture b) Household sector c) Industrial sector d) Energy sector 81. In the technique of drip irrigation a) Water is applied to the crops using a sprinkler b) Plants are watered by narrow tubings which deliver water directly at the base of the plant c) Canal water is directly supplied to crops d) Plants are dipped in high water for

long 82. India as a “Knowledge Economy” implies a) Only education can result in our economic growth. b) India has become a large export destination for published materials. c) Physical infrastructure must be given for expanding knowledge-based education in Universities. d) India is advancing in the use of knowledge-intensive sectors like Information Technology. 83. This Protected Area is very important because it links the eastern and western populations of many wild animals through the Vindhyan ranges that run from north-east to south-west. It can be a) Panna Tiger Reserve b) Jim Corbett National Park c) Gir Forest National Park d) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary 84. The state of Sikkim borders which of the following regions? 1. Nepal 2. Bihar 3. Bhutan 4. Assam Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 3 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only 85. This river is a major tributary of Brahmaputra river and splits into two separate rivers, the Beki and

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Bholkaduba. The river serves as an international border dividing India and Bhutan. The protected area named after this river is a) Nameri National Park b) Kolong Wildlife Sanctuary c) Singalila National Park d) Manas National Park

86. What is the correct order of these major regions in J&K from east to west? a) Srinagar, Kargil, Leh, Shyok b) Kargil, Srinagar, Shyok, Leh

c) Shyok, Leh, Kargil, Srinagar d) Leh, Shyok, Srinagar, Kargil 87. Consider the following regions and the water body near which they are located: 1. Qatar: A. Mediterranean Sea 2. Cyprus: B. Red Sea 3. Mecca: C. Persian Gulf Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1A, 2B, 3C b) 1C, 2A, 3B c) 1B, 2C, 3A d) 1C, 2B, 3A 88. The Strait of Gibraltar is one of the busiest shipping routes in the world because a) The strait is free from generation of internal waves and high faring currents b) Being near Mediterranean region, sea level is at the higher side aiding ship movement through higher gradient c) It has the most indented coastline in Europe providing ships a natural transit route. d) The strait is the only connection between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea 89. Parties to the Antarctica Treaty System include 1. India 2. Russia 3. China 4. USA 5. Australia Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 2 and 4 only

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b) 2, 4 and 5 only c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 90. Tuberculosis (TB) in India is under-reported. Which of the following can be the appropriate reason(s) for the same? 1) TB, as a disease condition, is stigmatized in the country. 2) We lack the technique to detect Multi-drug resistant TB. 3) TB skin and blood tests, that are quite popular, are not cent percent effective in detecting TB. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 91. Chemotherapy has been known to inhibit the process has of mitosis as a precursor of reducing the effects of cancer in the body. What is mitosis? a) A process of cell division in the body b) Self-suicidal tendencies of cells c) Generation of glucose in cells d) Conscious mapping of DNA over m-RNA 92. A ramjet engine is a more efficient propulsion system for flight within the atmosphere than a rocket propulsion system because 1) A ramjet engine does not require oxygen for its operation unlike rocket engines 2) A ramjet engine does not use thrust for forward movement unlike any traditional rocket engine

Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None 93. Sentinel-5, of the European Space Agency, is dedicated to a) Air quality monitoring b) Observation of Sun’s Core c) Interstellar exploration d) Space rescue missions 94. Copernicus, sometimes seen in news, is a) Satellite based service of the European Union (EU) b) NASA’s latest rover mission to Jupiter’s Moon c) A Giant telescope installed at Greenland to survey the sky d) A network of scientific institutions spread across Russia and Asia 95. DNA sequencing can be used to 1) Detect genetic disorders 2) Identify genetic variations within and across species 3) Understand whether genetic variations are associated with health conditions Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 96. CRISPR, recently seen in news, is a a) Powerful gene editing technique b) Space probe to Jupiter

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c) Electronic storage device capable of very large data storage d) Supercomputer inducted by India 97. B4’ – the ‘Brahmaputra Biodiversity and Biology Boat’ intends to save which of the following islands, that is fast eroding? a) Havelock b) Barren c) Majuli d) Katchal 98. Why are weeds unwanted in crop farms? 1) They serve as hosts for crop diseases or provide shelter for insects to overwinter. 2) They compete with the crop for nutrients and water. 3) They reduce crop quality by contaminating the commodity. Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 99. As global temperature increases 1) Increased frequency of extreme events like drought will reduce crop production. 2) Pest attacks may increase on crops. 3) Acidification of oceans will disturb the marine food chain

Select the correct answer using the codes below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 100. Agro-forestry is a) Altering the agriculture land use category to forest category b) Clearing forests for slash and burn agriculture c) Raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of the waste patches d) Harnessing the practices of local tribal communities in raising crops inside a forest

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