350-080

Cisco 350-080

CCIE Data Center Written ExamVersion: 24.0

Topic 1, Cisco Data Center Architecture

QUESTION NO: 1 Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the datacenter core? (Choose three.) A. virtualization B. unified I/O C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card D. support for Data Center Service Modules E. high performance F. high availability

Answer: B,E,F

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus 7000 F2-Series Module also delivers integrated FCoE, greatly simplifying the

network infrastructure and reducing costs by enabling the deployment of unified data center

fabrics to consolidate data center traffic onto a single, general-purpose, high-performance, highly

available network. With the Cisco Nexus 7000 F2-Series Module, FCoE can be deployed in

director-class modular platforms for the access and core of converged networks. In addition to

FCoE host and target support, the module provides virtual expansion port (VE-port) support,

allowing creation of FCoE Inter-Switch Links (ISLs) and enabling scalable, multi-hop FCoE

topologies.

QUESTION NO: 2 Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco 350-080 Exam

"Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - www.actualtests.com 2

Which option is valid for connecting the fabric interconnects to the I/O module? A. A, B, C, and D are valid. B. A and B are valid. C. A, B, and D are valid. D. Only A is valid.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Cisco UCS 2200 Series Fabric Extenders bring the unified fabric into the blade server enclosure,

providing multiple 10 Gigabit Ethernet connections between blade servers and the fabric

interconnect, simplifying diagnostics, cabling, and management. It is a second-generation I/O

module (IOM) that shares the same form factor with the first-generation Cisco UCS 2100 Series

Fabric Extenders IOM and is backward-compatible with the shipping Cisco UCS 5108 Blade

Server Chassis.

The Cisco UCS 2200 Series extends the I/O fabric between the Cisco UCS 6100 and 6200 Series

Fabric Interconnects and the Cisco UCS 5100 Series Blade Server Chassis, enabling a lossless

and deterministic Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) fabric to connect all blades and chassis

together. Since the fabric extender is similar to a distributed line card, it does not perform any

switching and is managed as an extension of the fabric interconnects. This approach removes

switching from the chassis, reducing overall infrastructure complexity and enabling Cisco UCS to

scale to many chassis without multiplying the number of switches needed, reducing TCO and

allowing all chassis to be managed as a single, highly available management domain.

The Cisco UCS 2200 Series also manages the chassis environment (the power supply and fans

as well as the blades) in conjunction with the fabric interconnect. Therefore, separate chassis

management modules are not required. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-6200-series-fabric-interconnects/data_sheet_c78-675243.html

QUESTION NO: 3 FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. Whatare the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field C. STP independence D. 10 Gbps bandwidth

Cisco 350-080 Exam


E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

The advantages of using FabricPath include:

• MAC address scalability with conversational learning

• Spanning Tree Protocol independence: No reliance on Spanning Tree anymore. Each switch

has a complete view of the Layer 2 topology, and it calculates the Layer 2 forwarding table based

a shortest-path-first calculation.

• Traffic distribution for unicast: Unicast Layer 2 traffic can take multiple equal-cost Layer 2

paths.

• Traffic distribution for multicast on multiple distribution trees: Multicast traffic can be

distributed along two multidestination trees.

• More direct communication paths: Any topology is possible, so cabling two access or edge

switches directly to each other creates a direct communication path, unlike what happens with

Spanning Tree.

• Simplicity of configuration: The configuration of FabricPath is very simple. Tuning may still be

advised but by default the switches negotiate switch-ids allocation with a protocol called Dynamic

Resource Allocation Protocol (DRAP).

• Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field: Layer 2 loops, as they are known of today in

Spanning-Tree-Protocol-based Layer 2 networks, are mitigated by dropping frames that have

been propagated across too many hops. The Layer 2 FabricPath frames include a Time to Live

(TTL) field that is decremented at each hop. The value of the TTL field is 32. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/guide_c07-690079.html (introduction, see the bullets)

QUESTION NO: 4 Which three concepts influenced the evolution of data centers? (Choose three.) A. Consolidation B. Expansion C. Automation D. Virtualization E. Commoditization F. Economics

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

Data center transformation takes a step-by-step approach through integrated projects carried out

Cisco 350-080 Exam


over time. This differs from a traditional method of data center upgrades that takes a serial and

siloed approach.[9] The typical projects within a data center transformation initiative include

standardization/consolidation, virtualization, automation and security. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_center

Topic 2, Cisco Data Center Infrastructure—Cisco NX-OS

QUESTION NO: 5 A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. Themodule is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this? A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type. B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules. C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only. D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect theintegrity of the system.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The F2-Series Cisco’s VDC feature helps enable the virtualization of a single physical device in

one or more logical devices. Each of the provisioned logical devices is configured and managed

as if it were a separate physical device Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/data_sheet_c78-685394.html

QUESTION NO: 6 Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switchesare true? (Choose two.) A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration. B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created. C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all membersof the channel group. D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicateacross peer ports in an ISL. E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port

Cisco 350-080 Exam


channel.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

A user-configured channel group cannot be converted to an autocreated channel group. However,

you can convert an autocreated channel group to a manual channel group. This task is

irreversible. The channel group number does not change, but the member ports operate according

to the properties of the manually configured channel group, and channel group autocreation is

implicitly disabled for all the member ports.

If you enable persistence, be sure to enable it at both ends of the SAN port channel.

The port channel protocol expands the port channel functional model in Cisco SAN switches. It

uses the exchange peer parameters (EPP) services to communicate across peer ports in an ISL.

Each switch uses the information received from the peer ports along with its local configuration

and operational values to decide if it should be part of a SAN port channel. The protocol ensures

that a set of ports are eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel. They are only eligible to be

part of the same port channel if all the ports have a compatible partner. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/b_Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter7.html (san port channel protocol)

QUESTION NO: 7 Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches istrue? A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces. B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces. C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID anddestination ID load balancing are used. D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches. E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remaininactive.

Answer: E

Explanation:

You can configure each SAN port channel with a channel group mode parameter to determine the

port channel protocol behavior for all member ports in this channel group. The possible values for

a channel group mode are as follows:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/b_Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter7.html

QUESTION NO: 8 Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager? A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switches B. save and copy configuration files and software images C. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channels D. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEX E. configure FCoE

Answer: C

Explanation:

Device Manager provides two views: Device View and Summary View. Use Summary View to

monitor interfaces on the switch. Use Device View to perform switch-level configurations including

the following:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/fund/DCNM-SAN-LAN_5_2/DCNM_Fundamentals/dm.html

QUESTION NO: 9 If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when amodule that does not match the resource type is installed? A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an “admin down” state. B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated. C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0. D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Starting with Cisco NX-OS Release 6.2(2), there is no need to support the interoperability of F1

and F2 Series modules in any VDC, either in a dedicated mode or in a shared mode. If you have

configured F1 and F2 Series modules as supported line cards in a storage VDC during an In-

Service Software Upgrade (ISSU) to Cisco NX-OS Release 6.2(2) or later releases, before ISSU,

reconfigure your storage VDC by using the limit-resource module-type command to avoid any

unnecessary disruption to the system. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide/manage-vdc.html

QUESTION NO: 10 Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.) A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Enabled B. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired C. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Disabled D. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: Desired E. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:

Port Flow-Control Influences on Link Flow Control

Port Flow Control States

Link Flow Control State

Port Receiving Data

(Sends Pause Frames)

Port Transmitting Data (Receives Pause Frames)

Enabled

Enabled

Enabled

Enabled

Desired

Enabled

Enabled

Disabled

Disabled

Desired

Enabled

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Enabled

Desired

Desired

Enabled

Desired

Disabled

Disabled

Disabled

Enabled

Disabled

Disabled

Desired

Disabled

Disabled

Disabled

Disabled

Answer: A, B, E Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/interfaces/configuration/guide/if_cli/if_basic.html#73563

QUESTION NO: 11 In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configurefull remote access via management 0? A. Two IP addresses, one for each supervisor B. Three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisor C. One IP address that is shared among supervisors D. None—management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created

Answer: C

Explanation:

Fully redundant switch contains two supervisor modules. If these modules are Supervisor 1

modules, they each have a CMP. Although only one supervisor module is active at any one time,

the CMP software in each supervisor module is always active. For a high-availability configuration,

you should connect four Ethernet cables to these supervisor modules—one for each 9ther 0

interface and one for each cmp-mgmt interface. You should also configure three IP

addresses—one for each cmp-mgmt interface and one that is shared between the active and

Cisco 350-080 Exam


standby supervisor 9ther 0 interfaces. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/qa_c67-556624.html

QUESTION NO: 12 VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choosetwo.) A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status,from one device to another. B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs. C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes. D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled. E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

You can copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin stat, and admin

status, from one device to another.

Procedure

Step 1 From the Feature Selector pane, choose Switching > VLAN to open the VLAN pane.

Step 2 In the Summary pane, click the Device View tab.

Step 3 Click the device from which you want to copy the VLAN.

Step 4 Expand the view for the device. The system lists the VLANs configured on that device.

Step 5 Highlight the VLAN that you want to copy.

Step 6 From the menu bar, choose Actions > Copy.

Step 7 In the Summary pane, click the device to which you want to paste the VLAN.

Step 8 From the menu bar, choose Actions > Paste.

Step 9 (Optional) From the menu bar, choose File > Deploy to apply your changes to the device. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/dcnm/layer2/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Layer_2_Switching_Configuration_Guide_Release_6-x/b_Cisco_DCNM_Layer_2_Switching_Configuration_Guide_Release_6-x_chapter_011.html#task_1268189

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 13 Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through whichmethod? A. Changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216 B. Using the command system jumbomtu 9216 C. Using the command interface MTU 9216 D. Configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoSpolicy map

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus device is a Layer 2 switch, and it does not support packet fragmentation. A

maximum transmission unit (MTU) configuration mismatch between ingress and egress interfaces

may result in packets being truncated.

When configuring MTU, follow these guidelines:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/qos/6x/b_5500_QoS_Config_6x/b_5500_QoS_Config_602N12_chapter_0110.html (see ‘MTU’)

QUESTION NO: 14 Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose two.) A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication moderesponds to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server falls back to local authentication. B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+. C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials. D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings require an authentication license. E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Local authentication always is the fallback method for RADIUS and TACACS+ authentication

modes. If none of the servers configured for the current authentication mode is available, the

DCNM-LAN server uses the local database to authenticate login requests. This behavior is

designed to help you prevent accidental lockout from DCNM-LAN.

For users who need fallback support, the usernames of their local user accounts must be identical

Cisco 350-080 Exam


to their usernames on the authentication servers. Also, we recommend that their passwords in the

local user accounts should be identical to their passwords on the authentication servers in order to

provide transparent fallback support. Because the user cannot determine whether an

authentication server or the local database is providing the authentication service, using

usernames and passwords on authentication servers that are different than the usernames and

passwords in the local database means that the user cannot be certain which username and

password should be given. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/7_x/dcnm/Fundamentals_Guide/fund_hd/DCNM_Fundamentals/fund_svr_aaa.html#pgfId-1424519

QUESTION NO: 15 What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000 SeriesFabric Extender? A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo. B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS. C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required. D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The system qos is a type of MQC target. You use a service-policy to associate a policy map with

the system qos target. A system qos policy applies to all interfaces on the switch unless a specific

interface has an overriding service-policy configuration. The system qos policies are used to

define system classes, the classes of traffic across the entire switch, and their attributes. To

ensure QoS consistency (and for ease of configuration), the switch distributes the system class

parameter values to all its attached network adapters using the Data Center Bridging Exchange

(DCBX) protocol.

If service policies are configured at the interface level, the interface-level policy always takes

precedence over system class configuration or defaults Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus2000/sw/configuration/guide/rel_521/b_Configuring_the_Cisco_Nexus_2000_Series_Fabric_Extender_rel_5_2/b_Configuring_the_Cisco_Nexus_2000_Series_Fabric_Extender_rel_5_2_chapter_01.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 16 DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three ofthese? (Choose three.) A. Collecting the running configuration B. Raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement C. Discovering all devices by default D. Discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-levelaccounts E. Using LLDP to discover network adaptors

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:

Discovering an unmanaged device changes its status to Managed. During the discovery, DCNM

retrieves the running configuration of the device.

If you are rediscovering a device, the configuration data that DCNM retrieves replaces any existing

configuration data for the device. Whenever the configuration data that DCNM has for the device

is not accurate, such as when a device administrator has used the command-line interface to

change the running configuration, you can use this procedure to update the configuration data that

DCNM has for the device. This feature is particularly useful when the device is a VDC whose

resource allocation was changed, such as changes to the interfaces assigned to the VDC. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/dcnm/fundamentals/configuration/guide/dcnm_fundamentals_configuration/fund_devs_creds.html

QUESTION NO: 17 You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems?(Choose two.) A. Microsoft Windows Server B. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise Server C. Oracle Enterprise Linux D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux E. Vmware ESX

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of one of the following operating

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systems:

If the server system runs the Microsoft Windows operating system, the Cisco DCNM-LAN server

software runs as a service. By default, the Cisco DCNM-LAN server starts automatically when you

boot up the server system. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/installation/guide/install/inst_deploying.html#wp1086261

QUESTION NO: 18 Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features,including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.) A. GLBP B. HSRP C. IRDP D. VRRP

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Ethernet routing Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/dcnm/fundamentals/guide/dcnm/DCNM-SAN-LAN_published/DCNM_Fundamentals/fund_overview.html

QUESTION NO: 19 The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets thatare addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature enables local forwardingof such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link. Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choose two.) A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default. B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain submode. C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANsmapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets switched

Cisco 350-080 Exam


through the peer gateway router. D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol.

Answer: B,CReference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-3000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-685753.html (vPC peer gateway)

QUESTION NO: 20 A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexusdevices to appear as a single port channel to a third device. Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.) A. Enable feature vPC B. Define domains C. Establish peer keepalive connectivity D. Create a peer link E. Configure the peer link as a trunk port F. Create port channels and vPCs G. Define port channel load-balancing method H. Make sure configurations are consistent

Answer: A,B,C,D,F,H

Explanation:

To enable the vPC functionality, you must create a peer-keepalive link and a peer-link under the

vPC domain for the two vPC peer switches to provide the vPC functionality.

To create a vPC peer link you configure an EtherChannel on one Cisco Nexus device by using two

or more Ethernet ports. On the other switch, you configure another EtherChannel again using two

or more Ethernet ports. Connecting these two EtherChannels together creates a vPC peer link.

Peer-Keepalive Link and Messages

The Cisco NX-OS software uses a peer-keepalive link between the vPC peers to transmit periodic,

configurable keepalive messages. You must have Layer 3 connectivity between the peer switches

to transmit these messages; the system cannot bring up the vPC peer link unless a peer-keepalive

link is already up and running.

If one of the vPC peer switches fails, the vPC peer switch on the other side of the vPC peer link

senses the failure when it does not receive any peer-keepalive messages. The default interval

Cisco 350-080 Exam


time for the vPC peer-keepalive message is 1 second. You can configure the interval between 400

milliseconds and 10 seconds. You can also configure a timeout value with a range of 3 to 20

seconds; the default timeout value is 5 seconds. The peer-keepalive status is checked only when

the peer-link goes down.

vPC Domain

To create a vPC domain, you must first create a vPC domain ID on each vPC peer switch using a

number from 1 to 1000. This ID must be the same on a set of vPC peer devices.

You can configure the EtherChannels and vPC peer links by using LACP or no protocol. When

possible, we recommend that you use LACP on the peer-link, because LACP provides

configuration checks against a configuration mismatch on the EtherChannel.

The vPC peer switches use the vPC domain ID that you configure to automatically assign a unique

vPC system MAC address. Each vPC domain has a unique MAC address that is used as a unique

identifier for the specific vPC-related operations, although the switches use the vPC system MAC

addresses only for link-scope operations, such as LACP. We recommend that you create each

vPC domain within the contiguous network with a unique domain ID. You can also configure a

specific MAC address for the vPC domain, rather than having the Cisco NX-OS software assign

the address.

The vPC peer switches use the vPC domain ID that you configure to automatically assign a unique

vPC system MAC address. The switches use the vPC system MAC addresses only for link-scope

operations, such as LACP or BPDUs. You can also configure a specific MAC address for the vPC

domain.

vPC peer links

Many configuration and operational parameters must be identical on all interfaces in the vPC. After

you enable the vPC feature and configure the peer link on both vPC peer switches, Cisco Fabric

Services (CFS) messages provide a copy of the configuration on the local vPC peer switch

configuration to the remote vPC peer switch. The system then determines whether any of the

crucial configuration parameters differ on the two switches.

Enter the show vpc consistency-parameters command to display the configured values on all

interfaces in the vPC. The displayed configurations are only those configurations that would limit

the vPC peer link and vPC from coming up.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus3000/sw/interfaces/6_x/b_Cisco_n3k_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_602_U11/b_Cisco_n3k_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_602_U11_chapter_0110.html#concept_090B6DECCB594BC7AE8368433FFB3B3B

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 21 When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type ofoperations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot beapplied as a rule? (Choose two.) A. port-profile B. command C. access-list D. feature-group E. OID

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

User roles contain rules that define the operations allowed for the user who is assigned the role.

Each user role can contain multiple rules and each user can have multiple roles. For example, if

role1 allows access only to configuration operations, and role2 allows access only to debug

operations, then users who belong to both role1 and role2 can access configuration and debug

operations. You can also limit access to specific VLANs, virtual routing and forwarding instances

(VRFs), and interfaces.

The Cisco NX-OS software provides four default user roles:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_rbac.html

QUESTION NO: 22 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multi access and multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTVconfiguration is applied. Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.) A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, theframe is logically forwarded to the overlay interface. B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet andsends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site,the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface. D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet andsends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Every time the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site,

the frame is logically forwarded to the Overlay interface. This instructs the edge device to perform

the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and send it to the Join interface toward the

routed domain.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html (overlay interface)


Cisco 350-080 Exam


The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 isresetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP statechanges? (Choose two.) A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello messagehold time. B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello messagehold time. C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from takingover as the HSRP active router. D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from takingover as the HSRP active router. E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150. F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

The odd number VLANs are active on N7K1-AGG1 while even number VLANs are active on

N7K2-AGG2. This is done by configuring a higher HSRP priority on the Active HSRP interface.

The

Active HSRP router will respond to the ARP requests so alternating the priority configuration helps

to share the control plane load.

Default HSRP hello and hold timers are used in this configuration. Since HSRP is vPC aware, the

aggressive hello and hold timers do not offer any benefit on the Nexus 7000. In addition, the dual-

active exclude interface-VLAN configuration with vPC+ also removes the dependency on fast

hellos to learn HSRP MAC address in the access-edge layer. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/3-0/IG/VMDC_3-0_IG.pdf (page 41, FHRP with HSRP)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 24 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulatedtraffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network. Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.) A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be definedas a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channelsubinterface. B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay. C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface. D. Join interface can be a loopback interface. E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as alogical one.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

The Join interface is a Layer 3 entity and with the current NX-OS release can only be defined as a

physical interface (or subinterface) or as a logical one (i.e. Layer 3 port channel or Layer 3 port

channel subinterface). A single Join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV

overlay. Multiple overlays can also share the same Join interface.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html (join interface)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 25 Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2cuse a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by acombination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features areprovided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.) A. encryption—scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorizedsources B. password—a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent foradded protection C. authentication—determines that the message is from a valid source D. message integrity—ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit E. user—to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting

frames over the network. The security features provided in SNMPv3 are the following:

SNMPv3 provides for both security models and security levels. A security model is an

authentication strategy that is set up for a user and the role in which the user resides. A security

level is the permitted level of security within a security model. A combination of a security model

and a security level determines which security mechanism is employed when handling an SNMP

packet. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/sm_snmp.html (snmpv3)

QUESTION NO: 26 The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What arethe differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain. B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain. C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links. D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport modefabricpath). E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

Answer: A,C,D

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

A vPC+ must still provide active-active Layer 2 paths for dual-homed CE switches or clouds, even

though the FabricPath network allows only 1-to-1 mapping between the MAC address and the

switch ID. vPC+ provides the solution by creating a unique virtual switch to the FabricPath

network.

The FabricPath switch ID for the virtual switch becomes the outer source MAC address (OSA) in

the FabricPath encapsulation header. Each vPC+ domain must have its own virtual switch ID.

Layer 2 multipathing is achieved by emulating a single virtual switch. Packets forwarded from host

A to host B are sent to the MAC address of the virtual switch as the transit source, and traffic from

host B to host A is now load balanced.

The vPC+ downstream links are FabricPath edge interfaces that connect to the CE hosts.

The First Hop Routing Protocols (FHRPs), which include the Hot Standby Routing Protocol

(HSRP) and the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP), interoperate with a vPC+. You

should dual-attach all Layer 3 switches to both vPC+ peer switches. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fabricpath/513_n1_1/N5K_FabricPath_Configuration_Guide/fp_n5k_interfaces.html (Figure 3-2)

QUESTION NO: 27 Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range ofmessage formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XML-

Cisco 350-080 Exam


based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home whensending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX-OS Software? (Choose three.) A. short-text-destination B. prerecorded audio alerts C. CiscoTAC-1 D. dial911 E. full-text-destination

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

Cisco UCS delivers Call Home messages in the following formats:

The XML format enables communication with the Cisco Systems Technical Assistance Center.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0101110.pdf (page 2)

QUESTION NO: 28 Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2communications? A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain. B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain. C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associatedpromiscuous ports. D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.

Answer: C

Explanation:

A community port is a host port that belongs to a community secondary VLAN. Community ports

communicate with other ports in the same community VLAN and with associated promiscuous

ports. These interfaces are isolated at Layer 2 from all other interfaces in other communities and

from all isolated ports within the private VLAN domain.

Because trunks can support the VLANs that carry traffic between promiscuous, isolated, and

community ports, the isolated and community port traffic might enter or leave the device through a

trunk interface. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-

Cisco 350-080 Exam


os/layer2/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_Layer_2_Switching_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_Layer_2_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0110.html

QUESTION NO: 29 Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.) A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices. B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices. C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions. D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAAservers are down.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Remote AAA services provided through RADIUS and TACACS+ protocols have the following

advantages over local AAA services:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_Security_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_011.html#con_1234977

QUESTION NO: 30 What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC? A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FcoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back acheckpoint B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACLcapture enablement C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMPconfiguration D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and writeerase

Answer: B

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

With Admin VDC, network administrators can perform common, system-wide tasks in a context

that is not handling data plane traffic. Admin VDC also allows customers another option to secure

their Nexus 7000, as they can more easily restrict access to the Admin VDC than might be

possible with a traditional Ethernet or Storage VDC. The tasks that can be performed only in

Admin VDC are below:

Reference: https://learningnetwork.cisco.com/thread/66801

QUESTION NO: 31 What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration? A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface. B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface. C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface. D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.

Answer: C

Explanation:

To enable VLAN-based quality of service (QoS) filtering in the MAC access control lists (ACLs),

use the mac packet-classify use vlan command in global configuration mode. To return to the

default settings, use the no form of this command.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/qos/command/reference/qos_book/qos_m1.pdf (page 3)

QUESTION NO: 32 In a virtual port channel (vPC) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic? A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirements B. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modes C. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active mode D. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address non-standardreplies to the physical MAC address

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: C

Explanation:

HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol) and VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol) are both

network protocols that provides high availability for servers IP default gateway.

vPC domain at aggregation layer usually performs L2/L3 boundary so each vPC peer device is

configure with interface VLAN (or SVI) and HSRP or VRRP runs on top of this interface.

HSRP and VRRP in the context of vPC have been improved from a functional and implementation

standpoint to take full benefits of the L2 dual-active peer devices nature offered by vPC

technology:

HSRP and VRRP operate in active-active mode from data plane standpoint, as opposed to

classical active/standby implementation with STP based network.

No additional configuration is required. As soon as vPC domain is configured and interface VLAN

with associated HSRP or VRRP group is activated, HSRP or VRRP will behave by default in

active/active mode (on data plane side).

From a control plane standpoint, active-standby mode still applies for HSRP/VRRP in context of

vPC; the active HSRP/VRRP 24thernet responds to ARP request. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/design/vpc_design/vpc_best_practices_design_guide.pdf

QUESTION NO: 33 On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, andwhat is the main purpose of virtual output queues? A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basis B. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queues C. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to otheregress ports D. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual outputqueues E. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


The Cisco Nexus 5000 Series implements virtual output queues (VOQs) on all ingress interfaces,

so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other egress ports. But virtual

output queuing does not stop there: every IEEE 802.1p class of service (CoS) uses a separate

VOQ in the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series architecture, resulting in a total of 8 VOQs per egress on

each ingress interface, or a total of 416 VOQs on each ingress interface. The extensive use of

VOQs in the system helps ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basis.

Congestion on one egress port in one CoS does not affect traffic destined for other CoSs or other

egress interfaces, thus avoiding head-of-line (HOL) blocking, which would otherwise cause

congestion to spread. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5020-switch/white_paper_c11-462176.html (virtual output queues)

QUESTION NO: 34 On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root forthe multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for eachmultidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.) A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID. B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address. C. Higher system ID is preferred. D. Lower system ID is preferred.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Within the FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the first multidestination tree in the

topology (“Tree 1”). FabricPath switches compare three parameters in order to elect the root for

Tree 1 in each topology, with higher values being better in all cases. The parameters, in order of

preference, are:

Once a switch becomes the root for Tree 1 in a toplogy, it selects a root for each additional

multidestination tree in the topology (based on the above parameters) and assigns each

multidestination tree a unique FTAG value.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-687554.html (multidestination trees)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 35 After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog: %STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking portport-channel100 on VLAN0010. What is the cause of this message? A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled. B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled. C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port. D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.

Answer: D

Explanation: The devices that are in both the FabricPath domain and CE domain are considered

to be edge devices or gateway devices. Edge ports have a FabricPath root guard-like function

enabled implicitly. If a superior BPDU is received on an edge port, the port is placed in the Layer 2

Gateway inconsistent state until the condition is cleared.

%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking port

port-channel100 on VLAN0010.

As a best practice, you should configure all edge devices with the lowest STP priority of all devices

in the STP domain to which they are attached. By setting all of the edge devices to be the root

bridge, the entire FabricPath domain looks like one virtual bridge to the CE domain. The same

recommendation applies to a virtual port channel+ (vPC+) domain; you must configure each

device (primary and secondary) as the root.

You configure all FabricPath edge devices by manually setting the bridge priority lower than any

STP bridge or by entering these commands.

Sw7-vpc(config)# spanning-tree vlan <x> root primary

sw7-vpc(config)# spanning-tree vlan 1-50 root primary

To have a loop-free topology for the CE/FabricPath hybrid network, the FabricPath network

automatically displays as a single bridge to all connected CE devices. The STP domains do not

cross into the FabricPath network. If multiple STP domains are defined, BPDUs and topology

change notifications (TCNs) are localized to the domain. If a connected STP domain is

multihomed to the FabricPath domain, a TCN must be able to reach to all devices in the STP

domain through the FabricPath domain. As a result, the TCN is sent to the FabricPath domain

through the IS-IS protocol data unit (PDU) by default.

Reference:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513_n1_1/n5k_ops_fabricpath.html (see Fabricpath versus classical Ethernet networks, see the paragraphjust below figure 1-2)

QUESTION NO: 36 On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component? A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches theCPU

Answer: C

Explanation:

Only the traffic sent through the Inband interface is subject to CoPP, because this is the only traffic

that reaches the Supervisor module through the forwarding engines (Fes) on the line cards. The

Nexus 7000 Series Switch implementation of CoPP is hardware-based only, which means that

CoPP is not performed in software by the Supervisor module. CoPP functionality (policing) is

implemented on each FE independently. When the various rates are configured for CoPP policy-

map, consideration must be taken in regard to the number of line cards in the system.

The total traffic received by the Supervisor is N times X, where N is the number of Fes on the

Nexus 7000 system, and X is the rate allowed for the particular class. The configured policer

values apply on a per FE basis, and the aggregate traffic prone to hit the CPU is the sum of the

conformed and transmitted traffic on all of the Fes. In other words, traffic that hits the CPU equals

the configured conform rate multiplied by the number of Fes.

CoPP configuration is only implemented in the default virtual device context (VDC); however, the

CoPP policies are applicable for all VDCs. The same global policy is applied for all line cards.

CoPP applies resource sharing between VDCs if ports of the same Fes belong to different VDCs

(M1 Series or M2 Series LC). For example, ports of one FE, even in different VDCs, count against

the same threshold for CoPP.

If the same FE is shared between different VDCs and a given class of control plane traffic exceeds

the threshold, this affects all VDCs on the same FE. It is recommended to dedicate one FE per

VDC in order to isolate CoPP enforcement, if possible. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/116043-copp-nexus7000-tshoot-00.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 37 2012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hello-message from 10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message discarded 2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1 You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued thecommand show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the interface. What is the problem based on the debug output? A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting toEthernet1/18. C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18. D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interfaceconnecting to Ethernet1/18. E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18.

Answer: D

Explanation:

This command enables PIM feature on Nexus 7000.

Feature pim

This command configures Static PIM RP for specific multicast group ranges.

Ip pim rp-address 10.1.255.101 group-list 239.1.0.0/16

ip pim rp-address 10.1.255.101 group-list 239.5.0.0/16



PIM sparse mode is enabled on Global server VLANs.

DR Priority decides the PIM designated router for a VLAN. The priority is alternating between even

and

odd VLANs so each AGG will be the DR for half of the VLANs.

PIM hello timer is 5000msec on the global SVIs.

Ip pim ssm range none

ip pim pre-build-spt

interface Vlan201

ip pim sparse-mode

ip pim dr-priority 2

ip pim hello-interval 5000

interface Vlan202

ip pim sparse-mode

Cisco 350-080 Exam



interface Vlan815

ip pim sparse-mode

ip pim dr-priority 2


interface Vlan816

ip pim sparse-mode


The Layer 3 port channels are configured with default hello timer.

Interface Vlan1001

ip pim sparse-mode


interface port-channel101

ip pim sparse-mode

interface port-channel102

ip pim sparse-mode

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/3-0/IG/VMDC_3-0_IG.pdf (page 48 to 51)

QUESTION NO: 38 What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy? A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checks B. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methods C. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topology D. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP)configuration

Answer: B

Explanation:

Anycast-RP has two implementations: one uses Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) and

the other is based on RFC 4610, Anycast-RP Using Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM). This

section describes how to configure PIM Anycast-RP.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


You can use PIM Anycast-RP to assign a group of routers, called the Anycast-RP set, to a single

RP address that is configured on multiple routers. The set of routers that you configure as

Anycast-RPs is called the Anycast-RP set. This method is the only RP method that supports more

than one RP per multicast group, which allows you to load balance across all RPs in the set. The

Anycast RP supports all multicast groups.

PIM register messages are sent to the closest RP and PIM join-prune messages are sent in the

direction of the closest RP as determined by the unicast routing protocols. If one of the RPs goes

down, unicast routing ensures these message will be sent in the direction of the next-closest RP.

You must 29thernet29 PIM on the loopback interface that is used for the PIM Anycast RP. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/multicast/configuration/guide/n7k_multic_cli_5x/pim.html (anycast-RP)

QUESTION NO: 39 Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on CiscoNexus switches? A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors. B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration. C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying theconfiguration against the hardware and software resources available before applying it. D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading NX-OSSoftware on the switch with ISSU. E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus 7000.

Answer: C

Explanation:

To configure the Dry Run support, perform this task:

Command

Purpose

Step 1

Router(config)# configure session session_name

Creates a configuration session and enters the dry run mode

Step 2

Router(dry-run-config)# {default | exit | ip | no | validate}

Choose the option to configure the dry run session

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Step 3

Router(dry-run-config)# ip access-list {extended | standard} acl_name

Choose the type of ACL

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/15-0SY/configuration/guide/15_0_sy_swcg/ios_acl_support.html#wp1107995

QUESTION NO: 40 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform whichtasks? A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site cantransmit multicast and broadcast. B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network. C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a givenVLAN within a site. D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The OTV control plane uses IS-IS Link State Packets (LSPs) to propagate MAC address to IP

address mappings to all edge devices in the overly network. These address mappings contain the

MAC address, VLAN ID, and associated IP address of the edge device that the MAC address is

reachable from.

The authoritative edge device uses IGMP snooping to learn all multicast MAC addresses in the

local site. OTV includes these MAC addresses in a special group-membership LSP (GM-LSP) that

is sent to remote edge devices on the overlay network. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/OTV/config_guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION NO: 41 Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing,and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on manageddevices. B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes tomanaged devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has thenetwork operator role. C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LANserver settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices. D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or usedefault credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device. E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers aresupported.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

DCNM-LAN implements user-based access to allow you to control who can access a DCNM-LAN

server by using the DCNM-LAN client. User access is secured by a password. DCNM-LAN

supports strong passwords.

When you ensure that each person who accesses DCNM-LAN has a unique user account, user-

based access allows you to determine what actions are taken by each user.

In addition, DCNM-LAN allows you to assign a role to each user. Roles determine what actions a

user can take in the DCNM-LAN client

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/fund/DCNM-SAN-LAN_5_2/DCNM_Fundamentals/fund_svr_aaa.pdf (page 2, see the note)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 42 Nexus# conf t Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10 % Permission denied Nexus(config)# ? no Negate a command or set its defaults username Configure user information. End Go to exec mode exit Exit from command interpreter What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands? A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode. B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation ofLayer 3 interfaces. C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator. D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode. E. The AAA server is currently not responding.

Answer: C

Explanation:

You can create and manage users accounts and assign roles that limit access to operations on

the Cisco MXE-OS device. Role-based access control (RBAC) allows you to define the rules for

an assign role that restrict the authorization that the user must have to access management

operations.


The Cisco MXE-OS software provides the following default user roles:

•

network-admin—Complete read-and-write access to the entire Cisco MXE-OS device

•

network-operator—Complete read access to the entire Cisco MXE-OS device

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_4cdp.html (configuring CDP)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 43 Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN?(Choose three.) A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supportedwith any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device. B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by theDCNM server, and the administrator can supply the device management IP address andcredentials. C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device. D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configurationchange management. E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version.

Answer: C,D,E

Explanation:

Configuration Change Management has the following configuration guidelines and limitations:

•

You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device.

•

Configure archival jobs and archival settings based upon the needs of your organization.

•

We recommend enabling the Default archival job and configuring the job to run at the lowest

frequency that your backup policy tolerates.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/dcnm/fundamentals/configuration/guide/dcnm_fundamentals_configuration/fund_cfg_mgmt.html

QUESTION NO: 44 Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choosethree.) A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRProuters will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required. B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRProuters will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled. C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts

Cisco 350-080 Exam


while providing the default router redundancy. D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration. E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is alsoremoved.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

HSRP allows you to configure multiple groups on an interface. You can configure two overlapping

Ipv4 HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts while providing the default router

redundancy expected from HSRP.

HSRP has been enhanced for vPC environments, so both the active and standby router can

forward data traffic. The primary router (higher priority) responds to ARP requests. Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_NX-OS/IOS_HSRP_Comparison

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 45 Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB countersare collected and reported individually per VDC. B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration ispossible. C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled. D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption. E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Layer 3 interfaces support Virtual Routing and Forwarding instances (VRFs). VRFs exist within

virtual device contexts (VDCs). By default, Cisco NX-OS places you in the default VDC and default

VRF unless you specifically configure another VDC and VRF. A Layer 3 logical interface (VLAN

interface, loopback) configured in one VDC is isolated from a Layer 3 logical interface with the

same number configured in another VDC. For examplI, loopback 0 in VDC 1 is independent of

loopback 0 in VDC 2

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t2/snmpv3ae.html http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/interfaces/configuration/guide/if_cli/if_layer3int.html

QUESTION NO: 46 Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is onlycompatible with other Cisco routers. B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a processrestart. When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes a grace periodthat tells NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface. C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if itexperiences a cold reboot. D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, orif the network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down adjacency withthe restarting OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart. E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: D

Explanation:

OSPFv2 automatically restarts if the process experiences problems. After the restart, OSPFv2

initiates a graceful restart so that the platform is not taken out of the network topology. If you

manually restart OSPF, it performs a graceful restart, which is similar to a stateful switchover. The

running configuration is applied in both cases. The graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the

data forwarding path through the process restart.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/high_availability/configuration/guide/ha_network.html (see the fourth note on the page)

QUESTION NO: 47 Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. Close-session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config. B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. Close-session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session. C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions. D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software. E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used forcommunication with the device.

Answer: E

Explanation: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/xml/user/guide/nxos_xml_interface.pdf (page 11)

QUESTION NO: 48 Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocolbridges? A. C84C.75FA.6000 B. 0100.5E11.02FD C. C84C.76FA.6000 D. 4000.0000.0001

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: A

Explanation:

Layer 2 Gateway Spanning Tree Protocol (L2G-STP) builds a loop-free tree topology. However, it

has some limitations. One limitation is that the STP root must always (virtually) be in the

FabricPath cloud. For example, it is not possible to have two FabricPath networks connected

through a CE cloud. A bridge ID for STP consists of a MAC address and bridge priority. When

running in FabricPath mode, the system automatically assigns the edge devices with the MAC

address c84c.75fa.6000 from a pool of reserved MAC addresses. As a result, each device has the

same MAC address used for the Bridge ID.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513_n1_1/n5k_ops_fabricpath.html

QUESTION NO: 49 Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchangeMAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the feature isiscommand before OTV adjacencies can be established. B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability withother OTV edge peers. C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically jointhe overlay network. D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicastpackets that are then sent to the other sites.

Answer: C

Explanation:

One of the uplink interfaces of the edge device. The join interface is a point-to-point routed

interface. The edge device joins an overlay network through this interface. The IPaddress of this

interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC address present in this site.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/OTV/config_guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_OTV_Configuration_Guide_chapter_010.pdf (page 2)

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QUESTION NO: 50 How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers? A. IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peers B. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer link C. IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMP D. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC peers

Answer: B

Explanation:

The IGMP vPC Incremental Sync feature sends incremental updates to the peer link using Cisco

Fabric Service (CFS), instead of sending all Join and Leave messages. The routes between peers

are synced while the peer link is being set up.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/multicast/configuration/guide/b_multicast/b_multicast_chapter_011.html (overview of IGMPvPC Incremental Sync)

QUESTION NO: 51 What does the command “IP ARP synchronize” do in a vPC configuration? A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency

Answer: C

Explanation:

Starting from Cisco NX-OS 5.0(2) and 4.2(6), Layer 3 vPC peers synchronize their respective ARP

tables. This feature is transparently enabled and helps ensure faster convergence time upon

reload of a vPC switch. When two switches are reconnected after a failure, they use Cisco Fabric

Services protocol over Ethernet to perform bulk synchronization of the ARP table.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/design_guide_c07-625857.html#_Toc271759463

QUESTION NO: 52 What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath? A. 128 B. 32 C. 64 D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology

Answer: B

Explanation:

switch(config)# [no] fabricpath ttl unicast numhops configures the TTL value for the unicast traffic

in the VDC. The range is from 1 to 64 and the default value is 32.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx-os/fabricpath/configuration/guide/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x_chapter_011.html#task_47542D4FEFCA42B28CE09EABE255BE9A

QUESTION NO: 53 Nexus# 38ther igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111 Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output? A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled onthe switch with the feature igmp command. B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopbackinterface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state. C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI. D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode. E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLANdatabase.

Answer: D

Explanation:

If IGMP snooping is enabled on one device but not on the other, the device on which snooping is

disabled floods all multicast traffic.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/multicast/configuration/guide/n7k_multic_cli_5x/igmp_snoop.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 54 Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2,which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch? A. feature pim ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1 ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 B. feature pim ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.1 2.2.2.2 ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.2 2.2.2.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 C. interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode !

Cisco 350-080 Exam


ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1 ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 D. feature pim feature msdp ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip msdp originator-id loopback1 ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1 ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2 ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword ! ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

Answer: A

Explanation:

Now you need to define something called the RP set. This is the set of all the routers which would

act as RP. You need to have a loopback on each prospective RP router, which is different than the

loopback that is being used as the RP address Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-multicast/115011-anycast-pim.html

QUESTION NO: 55 When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse theoverlay? A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control-groupmulticast address for transport B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlay C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-groupmulticast address for transport D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: C

Explanation:

The OTV internal interfaces carry the VLANs to be extended and the OTV site VLAN (used within

the data center to provide multihoming). They behave as regular Layer 2 switch port trunk

interfaces; in fact, they send, receive, and process the Spanning Tree Protocol BPDUs as they

would on a regular LAN bridge device.

The overlay interfaces encapsulate Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast packets and are

logical 41thernet41ess, multicast-capable interfaces.

The join interfaces are point-to-point routed interfaces that are used by the OTV edge devices to

join the overlay network. Currently, the OTV implementation uses the IP address of the physical

join interface to advertise reachability of MAC-addresses present in the site. In a future release,

the plan is to use the loopback address for this purpose.

The same OTV VDCs can be used by multiple VDCs deployed at the aggregation tier, as well as

by other Layer 2 switches connected to the OTV VDCs. This is done by configuring multiple OTV

overlays. It’s important to note that the extended VLANs within these multiple overlays should not

overlap. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html

QUESTION NO: 56 Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a datacenter? (Choose three.) A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode. B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before anymulticast configuration is possible on the switch. C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIMfeature with the feature pim command. D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance. E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

PIM version 2 Sparse Mode is supported. Cisco NX-OS does not support PIM version 1 Sparse

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Mode or Dense Mode. The NX-OS cannot fallback to Dense Mode operation. PIM command-line

interface (CLI) configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM

feature with the feature pim command. Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_NX-OS/IOS_Multicast_Comparison

QUESTION NO: 57 On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command? Switch# config terminal switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10 switch(config)# A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module B. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1–10 C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs. D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module

Answer: A

Explanation:

switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan vlan-id configures the

specified CE VLAN(s) on F Series modules for conversational MAC learning. Enter the no form of

the command to return to traditional (or nonconversational learning) MAC learning mode. The

default MAC learning mode for CE VLANs is traditional. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx-os/fabricpath/configuration/guide/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x_chapter_011.html (Configuringthe MAC Learning Mode for CE VLANs)

QUESTION NO: 58 Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine,and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated? A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management informationtree is updated.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated. C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated. D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.

Answer: A

Explanation:

A typical request comes into the data management engine (DME) and is placed in the transactor

queue in FIFO order. The transactor gets the request from the queue, interprets the request, and

performs an authorization check. After the request is confirmed, the transactor updates the

management information tree. This operation is done in a single transaction. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/api/b_ucs_api_book.pdf (page 15)

QUESTION NO: 59 In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. CiscoFabricPath switches compares which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.) A. Root priority B. System ID C. Bridge ID D. Switch ID E. Port ID F. Subswitch ID

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

Within the FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the first multidestination tree in the

topology (“Tree 1”). FabricPath switches compare three parameters in order to elect the root for

Tree 1 in each topology, with higher values being better in all cases. The parameters, in order of

preference, are: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-687554.html

QUESTION NO: 60 By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. DSA key generated with 512 bits B. RSA key generated with 768 bits C. RSA key generated with 1024 bits D. DSA key generated with 1024 bits E. RSA key generated with 2048 bits

Answer: C

Explanation:

You can generate an SSH server key based on your security requirements. The default SSH

server key is an RSA key generated using 1024 bits. To generate SSH server keys, perform this

task:

Command

Purpose

Step 1

switch# configure terminal

Enters configuration mode.

Step 2

switch(config)# ssh key {dsa[force] | rsa [bits [force]]}

Generates the SSH server key.

The bits argument is the number of bits used to generate the key. The range is 768 to 2048 and

the default value is 1024.

Use the force keyword to replace an existing key.

Step 3

switch(config)# exit

Exits global configuration mode.

Step 4

switch# show ssh key

(Optional) Displays the SSH server keys.

Step 5

switch# copy running-config startup-config

(Optional) Copies the running configuration to the startup configuration.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/sec_ssh.html (Generating SSH server keys)

QUESTION NO: 61

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch. B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel onwhich traffic is to be forwarded. C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair. D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain. E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

In releases prior to NX-OS 6.1(2), the sub-switch ID (sSID) field identifies the source or destination

VPC+ port-channel interface associated with a particular VPC+ switch pair. FabricPath switches

running VPC+ use this field to identify the specific VPC+ port-channel on which traffic is to be

forwarded. The sSID value is locally significant to each VPC+ switch pair. Note that, because this

field is 8 bits, using the sSID to identify VPC+ port-channels imposes a limit of roughly 250 VPC+

port-channels per VPC+ switch pair (244 to be precise). Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-687554.html

QUESTION NO: 62 In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to preventunnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU? A. GLBP redirect timer B. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer C. GLBP hold timer D. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer E. GLBP extended hold timer F. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: E

Explanation:

GLBP supports high availability through stateful restarts and stateful switchovers. A stateful restart

occurs when the GLBP process fails and is restarted. A stateful switchover occurs when the active

supervisor switches to the standby supervisor. Cisco NX-OS applies the run-time configuration

after the switchover.

If GLBP hold timers are configured for short time periods, these timers might expire during a

controlled switchover or in-service software upgrade (ISSU). GLBP supports extended non-stop

forwarding (NSF) to temporarily extend these GLBP hold timers during a controlled switchover or

ISSU.

With extended NSF configured, GLBP sends hello messages with the extended timers. GLBP

peers update their hold timers with these new values. The extended timers prevent unnecessary

GLBP state changes during the switchover or ISSU. After the switchover or ISSU event, GLBP

restores the hold timers to their original configured values. If the switchover fails, GLBP restores

the hold timers after the extended hold timer values expire. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3_glbp.html (High Availability and Extended NonstopForwarding)


vPC+ is configured between which switches?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23 B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12 C. Switch-ID 100 only D. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100

Answer: A

Explanation:

FabricPath implements a resource-allocation protocol called DRAP that automatically provisions

key parts of the FabricPath namespace, specifically Switch IDs and FTAGs.

When a FabricPath switch brings up its FabricPath interfaces, the system forms an IS-IS

adjacency to the connected FabricPath switch and the switches begin a negotiation process that

ensures that all FabricPath switches have a unique Switch ID, and that the type and number of

FTAG values in use are consistent. While this negotiation occurs, the FabricPath interfaces are

brought up but the interfaces are not added to the FabricPath topology and no data-plane traffic is

passed on the interfaces.

Every switch must have a unique Switch ID in order to participate in the FabricPath domain. A new

switch initially selects a random Switch ID and checks to see if that value is already in use. If a

conflict is detected, DRAP allocates a different value until no conflict exists.

While the FabricPath network automatically ensures each switch has a unique Switch ID, a

configuration command is provided for the network administrator to statically assign a Switch ID to

a FabricPath switch. If you choose to manually configure Switch IDs, be certain that each switch

has a unique value – any switch with a conflicting ID will suspend data-plane forwarding on

FabricPath interfaces as long as a conflict exists. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-687554.html

QUESTION NO: 64 SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMPmessages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3?(Choose two.) A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol B. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol C. Community String Match protocol D. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol E. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Cisco NX-OS uses two authentication protocols for SNMPv3:

Cisco NX-OS uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) as one of the privacy protocols for

SNMPv3 message encryption and conforms with RFC 3826. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_2/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cli/sm_9snmp.html (User-based securitymodel, see the bullets)

QUESTION NO: 65 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivitybetween separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving thefault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.) A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport. B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport. C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with theAdjacency Server. D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as anAdjacency Server.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Starting with NX-OS 5.2(1) release, OTV can be deployed with unicast-only transport. As

previously described, a multicast enabled transport infrastructure lets a single OTV update or Hello

packet reach all other OTV devices by virtue of leveraging a specific multicast control group

address.

The OTV control plane over a unicast-only transport works exactly the same way as OTV with

multicast mode. The only difference is that each OTV devices would need to create multiple

copies of each control plane packet and unicast them to each remote OTV device part of the same

logical overlay. Because of this head-end replication behavior, leveraging a multicast enabled

transport remains the recommended way of deploying OTV in cases where several DC sites are

involved. At the same time, the operational simplification brought by the unicast-only model

(removing the need for multicast deployment) can make this deployment option very appealing in

scenarios where LAN extension connectivity is required only between few (2-3) DC sites.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


To be able to communicate with all the remote OTV devices, each OTV node needs to know a list

of neighbors to replicate the control packets to. Rather than statically configuring in each OTV

node the list of all neighbors, a simple dynamic means is used to provide this information. This is

achieved by designating one (or more) OTV Edge device to perform a specific role, named

Adjacency Server. Every OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay, needs to first

“register” with the Adjacency Server (by start sending OTV Hello messages to it). All other OTV

neighbor addresses are discovered dynamically through the Adjacency Server. Thereby, when the

OTV service needs to be extended to a new DC site, only the OTV edge devices for the new site

need to be configured with the Adjacency Server addresses. No other sites need additional

configuration. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html

QUESTION NO: 66 Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choosetwo.) A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs. B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed. C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs. D. Only options drop and forward are permitted.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

VACLs use access maps to link an IP ACL or a MAC ACL to an action. The device takes the

configured action on packets permitted by the VACL. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_0/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os_config/sec_vlanacls.html

QUESTION NO: 67 Which two statements about a “Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check” are true? A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default. B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are

Cisco 350-080 Exam


suspended. C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use gracefulconsistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode. D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondarypeer device are suspended.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Beginning with Cisco NX-OS Release 5.0(2)N2(1) and later releases, when a Type 1 mismatch

occurs, by default, the primary vPC links are not suspended. Instead, the vPC remains up on the

primary switch and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch performs Type 1 configurations without

completely disrupting the traffic flow. The secondary switch brings down its vPC until the

inconsistency is cleared.

However, in Cisco NX-OS Release 5.0(2)N2(1) and earlier releases, this feature is not enabled for

dual-homed FEX ports. When Type-1 mismatches occur in this topology, the VLANs are

suspended on both switches. The traffic is disrupted on these ports for the duration of the

inconsistency.

To minimize disruption, we recommend that you use the configuration synchronization feature for

making configuration changes on these ports.

To enable a graceful consistency check, use the graceful consistency-check command. Use the

no form of this command to disable the feature. The graceful consistency check feature is enabled

by default. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/operations/n5k_vpc_ops.html#wp425067

QUESTION NO: 68 Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled? A. Cisco AV-pair B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute D. privilege level attribute

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


AAA authorization is the process of assembling a set of attributes that describe what the user is

authorized to perform. Authorization in the Cisco NX-OS software is provided by attributes that are

downloaded from AAA servers. Remote security servers, such as RADIUS and TACACS+,

authorize users for specific rights by associating attribute-value (AV) pairs, which define those

rights with the appropriate user. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_aaa.html#wp1281679

QUESTION NO: 69 Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are trueabout LACP port priority? (Choose three.) A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535. B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP. C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather thanthe hot standby links within the port channel. D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier. E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

LACP uses the following parameters:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/EtherChannel.html (LACP ID Parameters)

QUESTION NO: 70 Nexus7000# config t Nexus700(config)# interface 51thernet 2/11 Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50 Nexus700(config-if)# exit

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Nexus700(config)# What will this command sequence achieve? A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50 B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50 C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14 D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50

Answer: D

Explanation:

In private VLANs, host ports are part of the secondary VLANs, which are either community VLANs

or isolated VLANs. Configuring a private VLAN host port involves two steps. First, you define the

port as a private VLAN host port and then you configure a host association between the primary

and secondary VLANs.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/layer2/421_n2_1/b_Cisco_n5k_layer2_config_gd_rel_421_N2_1/Cisco_n5k_layer2_config_gd_rel_421_N2_1_chapter5.html#task_1170903789

QUESTION NO: 71 With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, totalprocesses, and CPU state? A. show memory detailed B. show process cpu sorted C. show system resources D. show hardware capacity

Answer: C

Explanation:

You can use this command to display system-related CPU and memory statistics.

Switch#show system resourcesLoad average: 1 minute: 0.36 5 minutes: 0.39 15 minutes:

0.44Processes : 1068 total, 1 runningCPU states : 0.5% user, 5.5% kernel, 94.0% idleMemory

usage: 8245436K total, 3289920K used, 4955516K freeCurrent memory status: OK

Field

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Description

Load

Number of processes that are running. The average reflects the system load over the past 1, 5,

and 15 minutes.

Processes

Number of processes in the system and how many processes are actually running when the

command is issued.

CPU status

CPU usage percentage in user mode, kernel mode, and idle time in the last one second. For a

dual-core Supervisor, CPU is averaged across both cores.

Memory usage

Total memory, used memory, free memory, memory used for buffers, and memory used for cache

in kilobytes. Buffers and the cache are included in the used memory statistics.

Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NX-OS_Troubleshooting_Guide_--_Troubleshooting_Memory


Cisco 350-080 Exam


During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is ina down state. What’s the cause of this issue? A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch. B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch. C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch. D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Virtual Port Channels are actually a big part of the Networkers presentation I have done for the

last 2 years, so I am familiar with a lot of the issues people have with them.

I have heard issues you raise discussed before, and we are working on making it better. I think

some of the newer features would help your reader.

The consistency checker exists to keep bad things from happening on your vPC port-channel (like

Cisco 350-080 Exam


“unexplained” packet drops). There are two types of consistency check failures. The ones that will

bring down the entire port-channel (these are type 1s) and the ones that will only cause an error,

or keep a single or group of VLANs from becoming active on the port-channel (type 2).

Decisions for what a type 1 and 2 are were made by the engineering team.

For example the MTU mismatch will bring your vPC port-channel down, and it does so in a non

vPC port-channel as well. I am sure that you can see the types of issues that having a link with a

MTU of 9000 and one of 1500 can cause for a port-channel. Reference: http://blog.ipspace.net/2011/11/nexus-vpc-and-consistency-checker.html

QUESTION NO: 73 What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS? A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only thecontrol-plane traffic. C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Ethanalyzer is a tool that collects frames that are destined to, or originate from, the Nexus 5000

control plane. Node to switch or switch to switch traffic can be seen with this tool.

SPAN is a feature whereby frames that are transient to the switch are copied to a second port for

analysis. Node to switch or node to node traffic can be seen via this method.

The main difference between the Ethanalyzer and SPAN feature is that the Ethanalyzer captures

control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.Of course for remote span (across layer3), we

use ERSPAN. Reference: http://pankajccie.blogspot.com/

QUESTION NO: 74 Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Ciscoswitches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a

Cisco 350-080 Exam


single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system?(Choose four) A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part ofa vPC domain. B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one systemto the other when needed D. vPC member ports forming the PortChannel E. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peers F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios.

Answer: A,B,C,D

Explanation:

To summarize, a vPC system consists of the following components:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/design_guide_c07-625857.html#_Toc271759437

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 75 Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches istrue? A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX. B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual linksor channels. C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF. D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Onlyactive/active is supported.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Adapter-FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or

channels. Each channel is identified by a unique channel number and its scope is limited to the

physical link.

The physical link connects a port on a server network adapter with an Ethernet port on the switch.

This allows the channel to connect a vNIC on the server with a Vethernet interface on the switch.

Packets on each channel are tagged with a VNTag that has a specific source virtual interface

identifier (VIF). The VIF allows the receiver to identify the channel that the source used to transmit

the packet.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/adapter-fex/6x/b_5500_Adapter_FEX_Config_6x/b_5500_Adapter_FEX_Config_602N11_chapter_01.html#concept_C9C92B1136EB40529664852E2605840B

QUESTION NO: 76 Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch? Flow ID. 44 Initiator VSAN: 200 Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a: cc: 19:12: db

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Target VSAN: 200 Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c: de: ad: be: ef Target LUN: ALL LUNs Flow Verification Status: Initiator Verification Status: success Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator Linecard Status: success Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked Feature Status: Write-Acceleration enabled Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024 Configuration Status: flow verification failed A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist B. The zone set has not been activated C. The target is not logged into the fabric D. The pWWN used for the target is invalid

Answer: C

Explanation:

For SCSI flow statistics, the initiator must connect to an SSM on a Cisco MDS switch while the

target can connect to any other switch in the fabric. The SCSI flow initiator and target cannot

connect to the same switch.

QUESTION NO: 77 Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide alossless class of Ethernet traffic? A. LLDP B. LACP C. PFC D. FIP

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: C

Explanation:

The priority flow control (PFC) feature applies pause functionality to specific classes of traffic on

the Ethernet link. For example, PFC can provide lossless service for the FcoE traffic and best-

effort service for the standard Ethernet traffic. PFC can provide different levels of service to

specific classes of Ethernet traffic (using IEEE 802.1p traffic classes). Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/421_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_421_n1_1/Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_421_n1_1_chapter2.html

QUESTION NO: 78 On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.) A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage C. FIP negotiation timing D. Peer does not support LLDP E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

switch# show lldp interface ethernet 1/4

Interface Information:

Enable (tx/rx57thernetY/Y/Y Port Mac address: 00:0d:ec:d5:a3:8b

Peer's LLDP TLVs:

Type Length Value

---- ------ -----

0’1 007 0400c0dd 145486

002 007 0300c0dd 145486

003 002 0078

128 061 001b2102 020a0000 00000002 00000001 04110000 c0000001 00003232

00000000 00000206 060000c0 00080108 100000c0 00890600 1b210889

14001b21 08

000 000

If LLDP is disabled, the VFC will not come online.

You can enable LLDP transmit and receive with the interface ethernet 1/4 command:

switch(config)# interface eth58thernet4

Cisco 350-080 Exam


switch(config-if)# lldp ?

receive Enab58thernetreception on interface

transmit Enable LLDP transmission on interface

Example:

switch# show lldp in58thernetethernet 1/4

Interface Information:

Enable (tx/rx/d58thernetY/Y Port Mac address: 00:0d:ec:d5:a3:8b

Peer's LLDP TLVs:

Type Length Value

---- ------ -----

0’1 007 0400c0dd 145486

002 007 0300c0dd 145486

003 002 0078

128 061 001b2102 020a0000 00000002 00000001 04110000 c0000001 00003232

00000000 00000206 060000c0 00080108 100000c0 00890600 1b210889

14001b21 08

(For releases earlier than 458thernet use the “sh platform software dcbx internal info interface

ethernet x/y” command.)

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/troubleshooting/guide/N5K_Troubleshooting_Guide/n5K_ts_fcoe.html

QUESTION NO: 79 When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choosetwo.) A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module. B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module. C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module. D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

You must configure Ethernet ports and FC ports in a specified order:

If the order is not followed, the following errors are displayed:

ERROR: Ethernet range starts from first port of the module

Cisco 350-080 Exam


ERROR: FC range should end on last port of the module

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/nxos/commands/l2/port.html(Usage guidelines)

QUESTION NO: 80 When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channelsrequired?

A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup. B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the commandchannel-group <number> mode active. C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the commandchannel-group <number> mode passive. D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink. E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the commandchannel-group <number> mode on.

Answer: E

Explanation:

channel-groupchannel-number[mode {on |active |passive}] Configures the port in a channel

group and sets the mode. The channel-number range is from 1 to 4096. The port channel

associated with this channel group is automatically created if the port channel does not already

exist. All static port channel interfaces are set to mode on.

Reference:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/interface/configuration/guide/n1000v_if/n1000v_if_5portchannel.html

QUESTION NO: 81 Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.) A. accounting B. authentication C. authorization D. network monitoring E. network planning

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

NetFlow captures a rich set of traffic statistics. These traffic statistics include user, protocol, port,

and type of service (ToS) information that can be used for a wide variety of purposes such as

network application and user monitoring, network analysis and planning, security analysis,

accounting and billing, traffic engineering, and NetFlow data warehousing and data mining.

Network Application and User Monitoring

NetFlow data enables you to view detailed, time- and application-based usage of a network. This

information allows you to plan and allocate network and application resources, and provides for

extensive near real-time network monitoring capabilities. It can be used to display traffic patterns

and application-based views. NetFlow provides proactive problem detection and efficient

troubleshooting, and it facilitates rapid problem resolution. You can use NetFlow information to

efficiently allocate network resources and to detect and resolve potential security and policy

violations.

Network Planning

NetFlow can capture data over a long period of time, which enables you to track and anticipate

network growth and plan upgrades. NetFlow service data can be used to optimize network

planning, which includes peering, backbone upgrade planning, and routing policy planning. It also

enables you to minimize the total cost of network operations while maximizing network

performance, capacity, and reliability. NetFlow detects unwanted WAN traffic, validates bandwidth

and quality of service (QoS) usage, and enables the analysis of new network applications.

NetFlow offers valuable information that you can use to reduce the cost of operating the network.

Denial of Service and Security Analysis

Cisco 350-080 Exam


You can use NetFlow data to identify and classify denial of service (DoS) attacks, viruses, and

worms in real-time. Changes in network behavior indicate anomalies that are clearly reflected in

NetFlow data. The data is also a valuable forensic tool that you can use to understand and replay

the history of security incidents.

Accounting and Billing

NetFlow data provides fine-grained metering for highly flexible and detailed resource utilization

accounting. For example, flow data includes details such as IP addresses, packet and byte counts,

timestamps, type-of-service, and application ports. Service providers might utilize the information

for billing based on time-of-day, bandwidth usage, application usage, or quality of service.

Enterprise customers might utilize the information for departmental chargeback or cost allocation

for resource utilization. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/netflow/configuration/12-4t/nf-12-4t-book/ios-netflow-ov.html

QUESTION NO: 82 A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine namedVM001 using SPAN. The customer has another virtual machine configured as a sniffer host calledVM002. What configuration is required, and what other changes will need to be made? (Choosetwo.) VSM-PRI-188# 61thern vethernet 5 Vethernet5 is up Port description is VM001, Network Adapter 2 HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e) Owner is VM “VM001”, adapter is Network Adapter 2 Active on module 5 Vmware DVS port 484 Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10 Port mode is access VSM-PRI-188# 61thern vethernet 6 Vethernet6 is up

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Port description is VM002, Network Adapter 1 HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020) Owner is VM “VM002”, adapter is Network Adapter 1 Active on module 5 Vmware DVS port 485 Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10 Port mode is access A. Monitor session 1 type span Source interface veth5 both Destination interface veth6 No shut B. monitor session 1 source vlan 10 destination interface veth6 no shut C. monitor session 1 type er-span source interface vlan 10 destination ip 10.1.1.10 no shut D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1V E. Move VM002 to Module 5 F. Restart the VEM on module 5

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 83 Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.) A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source D. Destination interface can be a physical port E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Each local SPAN session must have at least one destination port (also called a monitoring port)

that

receives a copy of traffic from the source ports or VLANs. A destination port has these

characteristics:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0/system_management/configuration/guide/n1000v_sys_manage/system_7span.pdf (page 2)


Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame with source MACaddress 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19. Which statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to showthat 0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and no longer dynamically learned onEth5/1/6. B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has movedports, and the upstream network needs to be notified of the new location. C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame. D. The MAC address table will not be updated as a result of receiving this frame on an uplink.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


E. Reverse Path Forwarding will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by FabricInterconnect A. F. Deja vu will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Another difference in end-host mode is that MAC address learning occurs only on server ports, not

on uplink ports. The fabric interconnect learns and stores only MAC addresses that are located

within the system, such as the addresses of the physical servers in the blade chassis and any

virtual servers the physical servers may be hosting. When the fabric interconnect receives a frame

from a server destined for a MAC address that cannot be found in its local MAC address table, it

assumes that the destination must be outside the system and will send the frame to the server’s

pinned uplink.

End-host mode has a scalability advantage as well. In end-host mode, the fabric interconnect’s

MAC address table will grow proportionally to the size of the Cisco Unified Computing System, not

to the size of the entire data center, enabling better long-term scalability Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-623265.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the MAC poolnamed “vmware”. Which two possible MAC addresses could be assigned to the vNICs? (Choosetwo.) A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01 B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01 C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01 D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01 E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

Cisco UCS Management domains can coexist along with many other UCSM domains and with

servers other than Cisco UCS servers, all of which can have their own sets of unique hardware

identifiers and pools. The presentation of duplicate WWNs and MAC addresses to the LAN or SAN

could naturally be a major source of complications.

To avoid these issues, adopt an enumeration scheme for domains, such that domain ID’s are

embedded in the high-order byte range of all pools, including MAC, WWNN, WWPN and UUID.

Best practices are to embed either a simple domain ID, or a site/domain pair, along with a fabric

side indicator to guarantee uniqueness and identify fabric source. For example, a MAC pool block

would take the form 00:25:B5:23:BX:YY, where 00:25:B5 designates Cisco UCS, 23 indicates site

2, domain 3, and B indicates the B-side fabric. Smaller environments could shorten the encoding

to just domain and fabric side, as in 00:25:B5:1A:XX:YY.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-manager/whitepaper_c11-697337.html

QUESTION NO: 86 What are two benefits of a FabricPath network? (Choose two.) A. Simplicity of configuration B. Automatic OSPF routing C. Scalability D. Dynamic link selection E. Spanning tree loop prioritization.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Simplified network, reducing operating expenses - FabricPath is extremely simp–e to

configure. The only necessary configuration consists of distinguishing the core ports, which link

the switches, from the edge ports, where end devices are attached. No parameters need to be

tuned to achieve an optimal configuration, and switch addresses are assigned automatically.

Cisco® FabricPath is an innovation in Cisco NX-OS Software that brings the stability and

scalability of routing to Layer 2. The switched domain does not have to be segmented anymore,

providing data center–wide workload mobility. Because traffic is no longer forwarded along a

spanning tree, the bisectional bandwidth of the network is not limited, and massive scalability is

now possible. Figure 1 shows some of the advantages of a network that uses Cisco FabricPath.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/at_a_glance_c45-605626.pdf


The interface remains in a down state after entering the command that is shown in the exhibit.What is the cause of the problem? A. The feature interface-vlan command must be configured. B. The VDC contains only F1 interfaces. C. There are IP address conflicts. D. The VDC is “type OTV.” E. The command copy run start was not entered.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Starting with Cisco NX-OS Release 6.2(2), we do not support the interoperability of F1 and F2

Series modules in any VDC, either in a dedicated mode or in a shared mode. If you have

configured F1 and F2 Series modules as supported line cards in a storage VDC during an In-

Service Software Upgrade (ISSU) to Cisco NX-OS Release 6.2(2) or later releases, before ISSU,

reconfigure your storage VDC by using the limit-resource module-type command to avoid any

unnecessary disruption to the system. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide.pdf

QUESTION NO: 88 Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During acompatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer toverify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which two statements about virtualport channel graceful consistency checks are true? (Choose two.) A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default. B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device aresuspended. C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default. To enable this feature, use the gracefulconsistency-check command under the vPC domain configuration mode. D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondarypeer device are suspended. E. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Beginning with Cisco NX-OS Release 5.0(2)N2(1) and later releases, when a Type 1 mismatch

occurs, by default, the primary vPC links are not suspended. Instead, the vPC remains up on the

primary switch and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch performs Type 1 configurations without

completely disrupting the traffic flow. The secondary switch brings down its vPC until the

inconsistency is cleared.

However, in Cisco NX-OS Release 5.0(2)N2(1) and earlier releases, this feature is not enabled for

dual-homed FEX ports. When Type-1 mismatches occur in this topology, the VLANs are

suspended on both switches. The traffic is disrupted on these ports for the duration of the

inconsistency. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/operations/n5k_vpc_ops.html (graceful consistency check)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 89 Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During acompatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer toverify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which option is considered as aType-2 misconfiguration? A. port MTU mismatch B. native VLAN mismatch C. STP interface settings D. VLAN mismatch

Answer: D

Explanation:

If the PortChannel ports are suspended, a mismatch occurred in the PortChannel ports between

the switches that are supposed to bring up the PortChannel. For example, a vPC on the Cisco

Nexus 7000 Series is configured with ports that individually connect to two different PortChannels

on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series.

Alternatively, if the access-layer ports are not configured for a channel, the Cisco Nexus 7000 and

5000 Series will operate normally with spanning tree. If the ports on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series

are configured in passive channel-group mode and the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series ports are not

configured for PortChannels, the Cisco Nexus 7000 and 5000 Series run spanning tree again on

those ports. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/design_guide_c07-625857.html (vPC consistency check)

QUESTION NO: 90 Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.) A. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports. B. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (toswitch traffic over the FabricPath domain). C. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 or F2 ports only. D. Only M1 or M2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports. E. Only F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switchtraffic over the FabricPath domain). F. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 ports only.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/117298-config-fabricpath-00.html

QUESTION NO: 91 Which PIM mode is supported in Cisco NX-OS? A. sparse mode B. dense mode C. sparse-dense mode D. dense-sparse mode

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco NX-OS supports multicasting with Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) sparse mode. PIM

is IP routing protocol independent and can leverage whichever unicast routing protocols are used

to populate the unicast routing table. In PIM sparse mode, multicast traffic is sent only to locations

of the network that specifically request it. PIM dense mode is not supported by Cisco NX-OS.

To access multicast commands, you must enable the PIM or PIM6 feature. Multicast is enabled

only after you enable PIM or PIM6 on an interface of each router in a domain. You configure PIM

for an IPv4 network and PIM6 for an IPv6 network. By default, iGMP and MLD are running on the

system.

PIM, which is used between multicast-capable routers, advertises group membership across a

routing domain by constructing multicast distribution trees. PIM builds shared distribution trees on

which packets from multiple sources are forwarded, as well as source distribution trees, on which

packets from a single source are forwarded.

The distribution trees change automatically to reflect the topology changes due to link or router

failures. PIM dynamically tracks both multicast-capable sources and receivers, although the

source state is not created in Bidir mode.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/multicast/configuration/guide/b_multicast/b_multicast_chapter_010.html#concept_26C4810D8DCF4CBAAD4845502124ACF9

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Which configuration command (or commands) will produce the output that is shown in the exhibit? A. no feature igmp B. no feature igmp snooping C. vlan 201 no ip igmp snooping D. vlan configuration 201 no ip igmp snooping E. interface vlan 201 no ip igmp snooping

Answer: D

Explanation:

Global IGMP snooping overrides the VLAN IGMP snooping. If global snooping is disabled, you

cannot enable VLAN snooping. If global snooping is enabled, you can enable or disable VLAN

snooping.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/metro/me3400/software/release/12-2_58_se/configuration/guide/ME3400_scg/swigmp.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam



The following message output was displayed while configuring PIM on Nexus 7000. Whichcommand should be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to allow the desiredconfiguration? A. feature multicast B. feature pim C. ip multicast-routing D. ip pim routing

Answer: B

Explanation:

Feature PIM enables PIM. By default PIM is disabled. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/multicast/configuration/guide/n7k_multic_cli_5x/pim.html


When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that isshown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP. B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch. C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC. D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The copp-system-p-policy policy has optimized values suitable for basic device operations. You

must add specific class and access-control list (ACL) rules that meet your DoS protection

requirements. The default CoPP policy does not change when you upgrade the Cisco NX-OS

software. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_cppolicing.html

QUESTION NO: 95 How many ACL capture sessions can be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? A. ACL capture is not supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch. B. Only one ACL capture session can be active at any given time in the system across virtualdevice contexts. C. Only one ACL capture session can be active in each virtual device context. D. The number of ACL capture sessions depends on the space that is available within the ACLTernary Content Addressable Memory. E. Only one ACL capture session is supported per VLAN.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/116044-nexus-7000-acl-capture-00.html

QUESTION NO: 96 On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured? A. Access ports B. SPAN destination port

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. trunk ports D. public VLAN-enabled ports

Answer: A

Explanation:

You can configure port security on interfaces that you have configured as Layer 2 access ports.

On an access port, port security applies only to the access VLAN. VLAN maximums are not useful

for access ports.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-OS_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter_010001.html#con_1210960

QUESTION NO: 97 Which statement is true about DHCP snooping on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform? A. DHCP snooping cannot be enabled globally and on a per-VLAN basis. B. By default, DHCP snooping is disabled globally and on all VLANs. C. You can enable DHCP snooping on a single VLAN only. D. For DHCP snooping to function properly, all DHCP servers must be connected to the devicethrough untrusted interfaces.

Answer: B

Explanation:

When you use the feature dhcp command to enable the DHCP snooping feature, there is a delay

of approximately 30 seconds before the I/O modules receive DHCP snooping or DAI configuration.

This delay occurs regardless of the method that you use to change from a configuration with

DHCP snooping disabled to a configuration with DHCP snooping enabled. For example, if you use

the Rollback feature to revert to a configuration that enables DHCP snooping, the I/O modules

receive DHCP snooping and DAI configuration approximately 30 seconds after you complete the

rollback.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nx-os/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_dhcpsnoop.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 98 Which two statements about VDC configuration and limitations are true? (Choose two.) A. Standard VDCs cannot share interfaces, VLANs, or VRF tables. B. Any user can create VDCs. C. Only the network administrator role can use the switchto vdc command. D. After a network administrator uses the switchto vdc command, the network administratorbecomes a VDC administrator for the new VDC. E. There is no CLI command to return to the original VDC.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

VDCs have the following configuration guidelines and limitations: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/virtual_device_context/configuration/guide/b-7k-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-Virtual-Device-Context-Configuration-Guide.pdf (page 53)


You configured a port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch as a trunk port. Which VLANs are allowed onthe trunk port based on the port configuration in the exhibit? A. No VLANs are allowed by default. Use the switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-4094 command toallow all VLANs. B. Only Native VLAN 1 will be allowed. C. VLANs 1 to 3967, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed. D. VLANs 1 to 3900, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed. E. VLANs 1 to 4094 are allowed.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Sets the allowed VLANs for the trunk interface. The default is to allow all VLANs on the trunk

Cisco 350-080 Exam


interface: 1 to 3967 and 4048 to 4094. VLANs 3968 to 4047 are the default VLANs reserved for

internal use by default; this group of VLANs is configurable. By default, all VLANs are allowed on

all trunk interfaces.

You cannot add internally allocated VLANs as allowed VLANs on trunk ports. The system returns

a message if you attempt to list an internally allocated VLAn as an allowed VLAN. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_2/nx-os/interfaces/configuration/guide/if_nxos/if_access_trunk.html

QUESTION NO: 100 Which three prerequisites must be met before configuring FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000switch? (Choose three.) A. Ensure that the Enhanced Layer 2 license is installed on the switch. B. The FabricPath feature set must be installed on the default and non-default VDCs. C. Spanning tree must be disabled on the switch. D. Ensure that you are working on the F Series module. E. Ensure that you are working on the M Series module. F. The FabricPath feature set must be installed only on the default VDC.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

FabricPath forwarding has the following prerequisites:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx-os/fabricpath/configuration/guide/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x_chapter_011.html#reference_30D28E8661BB4CE78ED56E7EE99DF477

QUESTION NO: 101 Which two types of multicast trees are supported by Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.) A. private trees B. shared trees C. unicast trees

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D. anycast trees E. unidirectional trees F. bidirectional trees

Answer: B,F

Explanation:

A shared tree represents the shared distribution path that the multicast traffic takes through the

network from a shared root or rendezvous point (RP) to each receiver. (The RP creates an SPT to

each source.) A shared tree is also called an RP tree (RPT)

A bidirectional shared tree represents the shared distribution path that the multicast traffic takes

through the network from a shared root, or rendezvous point (RP), to each receiver. Multicast data

is forwarded to receivers encountered on the way to the RP.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/multicast/configuration/guide/n7k_multic_cli_5x.pdf (page 17 and 18)


The engineer needs to check if keepalive messages between two servers in the address range9.9.9.0/24 arrive from the device that is directly connected via the trunk interface. Which twoconfigurations should be applied on the switch port to achieve displayed output? (Choose two.) A. ip access-list LO_FILTER statistics per-entry 10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any 20 permit ip any any B. ip access-list LO_FILTER 10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any 20 permit ip any any

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. ip access-list LO_FILTER 10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any 20 deny ip any any D. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Nexus5K(config-if)# ip access-group LO-FILTER in E. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-list LO-FILTER in F. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-group LO-FILTER out

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Command or Action

Purpose

Step 1

switch# configure terminal


Step 2

switch(config)# interface {76thernet[chassis/]slot/port | port-channel channel-number}

Enters interface configuration mode for the specified interface.

Step 3

switch(config-if)# {ip port access-group |ipv6 port traffic-filter} access-list in

Applies an Ipv4 or Ipv6 ACL to the interface or EtherChannel. Only inbound filtering is supported

with port ACLs. You can apply one port ACL to an interface.

Step 4

switch# show running-config

(Optional)

Displays ACL configuration.

Step 5

switch# copy running-config startup-config

(Optional)

Copies the running configuration to the startup configuration.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-682225.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 103 Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime DCNMprovides? (Choose three.) A. configuration of change control B. single shared database for LAN and SAN configuration data C. single point for integration with third-party test tools D. ability to manage vPCs E. autodiscovery of storage controllers F. host driver management G. support for script automation

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

Feature

Benefit

Provisioning

Automated discovery

• Using automated network discovery, provides up-to-date physical and logical inventory

information

• Tracks inventory and performance information in real time; information can be used as a source

of truth for asset tracking or as a data source for a configuration management database (CMDB)

Provisioning GUI, tools and wizards

• Prebuilt GUI, tools and wizards for provisioning SAN services such as zone assignment and

access control list (ACL) assignment

• Prebuilt GUI, tools and wizards for provisioning LAN services such as OTV

• Template- and wizard-based provisioning of FcoE connectivity based on link type and platform

Provisioning templates

• Prebuilt templates for provisioning LAN and SAN components

• Prebuilt template deployment scheduler and rollback mechanism

• Customizable templates with conditional statements

• Create new templates using template editor

• Import configuration script and turn it into template

Configuration and change management

• Provides predeployment validation of configuration changes, reducing opportunities for human

error

• Using historical configuration archive coupled with configuration comparison, enables you to

identify the last-known good state if configuration problems occur

• Provides capability to back up configuration files from all switches

Cisco 350-080 Exam


One-command multiswitch CLI access

• Enables user to use the global command line as the interface for multiple switches at the same

time and view output on those switches

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/virtual-security-gateway-nexus-1000v-series-switch/data_sheet_c78-618245.html

QUESTION NO: 104 DRAG DROP

Answer:

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 106 OTV is a MAC-in-IP method that extends Layer 2 connectivity across a transport networkinfrastructure. Which three options are high-availability features? (Choose three.) A. OTV fast convergence B. fast failure detection C. added the track-adjacency-nexthop command to enable overlay route tracking D. added support for unicast cores using an adjacency server E. added support for Ipv6 unicast forwarding and multicast flooding across the OTV overlay

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


The overlay network maps MAC addresses to IP addresses of the edge devices. Once OTV

identifies the correct edge device to send a Layer 2 frame to, OTV encapsulates the frame and

sends the resulting IP packet using the transport network routing protocols.

OTV supports one or more separate overlay networks running Ipv4 or Ipv6 unicast forwarding or

multicast flooding. Each overlay network supports one or more VLANs. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/wan_otv/configuration/xe-3s/asr1000/wan-otv-xe-3s-asr1000-book/wan-otv-confg.html#GUID-585B852F-BB08-4937-9601-E425DE4A33B6

QUESTION NO: 107 Which three statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose three.) A. Only FabricPath VLANs can cross a FabricPath domain. B. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F1 or F2 ports only. C. With FabricPath, vPC must be changed to vPC+. D. F1 ports must be placed into a separate VDCs. E. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F2 ports only.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

After you enable FabricPath on the switches that you are using, you can configure an Ethernet

interface or a port-channel interface as a FabricPath interface. If one member of the port channel

is in FabricPath mode, all the other members will be in FabricPath mode. After you configure the

interface as a FabricPath interface, it automatically becomes a trunk port, capable of carrying

traffic for multiple VLANs. You can also configure all the ports on the switch as FabricPath

interfaces simultaneously.

The following interface modes carry traffic for the following types of VLANs:

•

Interfaces on the switch that are configured as FabricPath interfaces can carry traffic only for

FabricPath VLANs.

•

Interfaces on the switch that are not configured as FabricPath interfaces carry traffic for the

following:

–

FabricPath VLANs

–

Classical Ethernet (CE) VLANS

Reference:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fabricpath/513_n1_1/N5K_FabricPath_Configuration_Guide/fp_n5k_interfaces.html


What is the purpose of this command on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? A. The command enables conversational learning on FabricPath VLANs 1 through 10 for the FSeries module. B. The command enables the FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1 through 10. C. There is no need for this command because conversational learning is enabled by default for allVLANs. D. The command enables conversational learning on a classic Ethernet VLAN for the F Seriesmodule.

Answer: D

Explanation:

With conversational MAC learning, the interface learns only the source MAC address of an

ingressing frame if that interface already has the destination MAC address present in the MAC

address table. If the source MAC address interface does not already know the destination MAC

address, it does not learn that MAC address. Each interface learns only those MAC addresses

that are actively speaking with the interface. In this way, conversational MAC learning consists of a

three-way handshake. The interface learns the MAC address only if that interface is having a

bidirectional conversation with the corresponding interface. Unknown MAC address are forwarded,

or flooded, throughout the network.

This combination of conversational MAC address learning and multiple FEs on each F Series

module produces greatly reduced mAC address tables on each F Series module.

For CE VLANs, you can configure conversational learning per VLAN on the F Series module using

the command-line interface (CLI). CE VLANs use traditional MAC address learning by default.

Traditional MAC learning is not supported on FabricPath VLANs with Cisco Release NX-OS 5.1 or

higher.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/fabricpath/configuration/guide/fp_switching.html (conversational Mac Address Learning)

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Which three statements describe the use of the vPC peer link in this topology? (Choose three.) A. The peer link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between SW1 and SW2. B. The peer link is used for control plane traffic only. C. The peer link provides necessary transport for multicast traffic. D. The peer link is used for the communication of orphaned ports. E. The peer link does not prevent the loops in the topology. F. The peer link always consists of two 10GB ports in a port-channel.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

The peer link, also known as the multichassis EtherChannel trunk (MCT), connects the vPC peer

switches. The peer link is always forwarding. The bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) or Link

Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) packets that are received by the secondary vPC peer on a

vPC port are forwarded to the primary vPC peer through the peer link for processing.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


The peer link is used to synchronize the MAC addresses of the vPC peer switches to provide the

necessary transport for multicast traffic. It is also used for forwarding traffic that originates at, or is

destined for, orphan ports (that is, a non-vPC port).

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/VSS30dg/campusVSS_DG/VSS-dg_ch2.html

QUESTION NO: 110 What is the default vPC peer-keepalive timeout on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch? A. 5 seconds B. 256 milliseconds C. 500 milliseconds D. 1 second

Answer: D

Explanation:

If one of the vPC peer devices fails, the vPC peer device on the other side of the vPC peer link

senses the failure by not receiving any peer-keepalive messages. The default interval time for the

vPC peer-keepalive message is 1 second, and you can configure the interval between 400

milliseconds and 10 seconds. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/interfaces/configuration/guide/if_cli/if_vPC.html

QUESTION NO: 111 On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, ACL capture sessions are supported on which two modules?(Choose two.) A. M1 modules B. M2 modules C. F1 modules D. F2 modules E. M3 modules

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/116044-nexus-7000-acl-capture-00.html (see Caveats)

QUESTION NO: 112 Which three configurations for ACL capture are valid? (Choose three.) A. on a VLAN interface B. in the ingress direction on all interfaces C. in the ingress direction only on the M2 module D. in the egress direction on all interfaces E. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces F. in the ingress direction only on M1 module

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:

Access Control List (ACL) capture provides you the ability to selectively capture traffic on an

interface or virtual local area network (VLAN) When you enable the capture option for an ACL rule,

packets that match this rule are either forwarded or dropped based on the specified permit or deny

action and can also be copied to an alternate destination port for further analysis. An ACL rule with

the capture option can be applied:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/116044-nexus-7000-acl-capture-00.html (see introduction)


Cisco 350-080 Exam


A new Nexus device, Router-B, was recently added to the network. The engineer wants to makeRouter-B the designated IGMP querier for this network. Which two configurations should beapplied to the devices on the network to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.251 255.255.255.0 B. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.249 255.255.255.0 Router-B(config)# feature igmp C. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp version 2 Router-B(config)# feature igmp D. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp querier Router-B(config)# feature pim E. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1 Router-B(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

Both IGMPv1 and IGMPv2 support membership report suppression, which means that if two hosts

on the same subnet want to receive multicast data for the same group, then the host that receives

a member report from the other host suppresses sending its report. Membership report

suppression occurs for hosts that share a port.

If no more than one host is attached to each VLAN switch port, then you can configure the fast

leave feature in IGMPv2. The fast leave feature does not send last member query messages to

hosts. As soon as the software receives an IGMP leave message, the software stops forwarding

multicast data to that port.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


IGMPv1 does not provide an explicit IGMP leave message, so the software must rely on the

membership message timeout to indicate that no hosts remain that want to receive multicast data

for a particular group. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/IGMPSnooping.html


The customer is trying to configure a rendezvous point, but for some reason it is failing. Whichconfiguration should be applied on both Nexus devices to configure the rendezvous point? A. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10 RT-2(config)#interface lo0 B. RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24 RT-2(config)#interface lo0 RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10 RT-2(config)#interface lo0 RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse D. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106 RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24 RT-2(config)#interface lo0 RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse E. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106 F. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10 G. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106 RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border

Answer: CReference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/fwsm/fwsm41/configuration/guide/fwsm_cfg/intfce_f.html

QUESTION NO: 115 Which of the following is a feature of Fabric Extender? A. The Fabric Extender provides two user queues for its QoS support, one for all no-drop classesand one for all drop classes. B. The class-all-flood and class-ip-multicast class maps are used on the Fabric Extender. C. The Fabric Extender inherits the CoS configured on the upstream switch. D. For a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ 10GE Fabric Extender, all fabric interfaces can be bundled into asingle fabric port channel.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The problem is that the remote routers are announcing themselves with PIM Hello messages from

their own IP addresses and my router registers these addresses as PIM neighbours.

The gateway in the routing table however contains the HSRP virtual address. When the router

wants to join the multicast group, it looks for the route to the Rendezvous Point which has the

HSRP virtual address as the next hop. Because this next-hop HSRP address is not one of the

known PIM neighbours, the PIM-SM RFC specifies no Join should be sent.

Changing the static route to use an actual IP address of one of the HSRP routers makes the

Cisco 350-080 Exam


multicast work, but of course this makes the HSRP useless.

I have not tested VRRP because the other side did not want to change the network. VRRP would

probably not have this problem since it does not use a virtual router IP, but uses the real IP

address of the master router.

QUESTION NO: 116 Basic zoning changes are accomplished through the use of four SW_ILS frames. Which optionidentifies these frames in the correct order? A. RCA, UFC, SFC, ACA B. ACA, RCA, SFC, UFC C. SFC, UFC, ACA, RCA D. ACA, SFC, UFC, RCA E. UFC, SFC, RCA, ACA

Answer: DReference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/tsf.html


Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 118 Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose two.) A. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernetdevices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPathcloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to the destinationswitch ID. B. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switchexclusively based on the destination switch ID. C. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernetdevices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPathcloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a source address to the destinationswitch ID. D. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switchexclusively based on the source switch ID.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

In FabricPath topologies, there are two types of “functions” (which can be performed by all

FabricPath hardware): Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/guide_c07-690079.html (spine and edge)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 119 In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tablesare built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID? A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually. B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID. C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID. D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Each device in the topology is identified by a switch-id and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built

based on reachability to each switch-id (as opposed to reachability to a MAC address). The

switch-id is dynamically assigned via the Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol (DRAP), so no

manual allocation of switch-ids is required. However, it is possible to manually assign a SW-ID

while a dynamic check for misconfiguration is performed. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/guide_c07-690079.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2).The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches. On SW1 and SW2, portsconnecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 arealso connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statementdescribes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology? A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2. B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane. C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer linkconnectivity is lost. D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.

Answer: C

Explanation:

A routed “link” (it is more accurate to say “path”) is used to resolve dual-active scenarios in which

the peer link connectivity is lost. This link is referred to as a vPC peer-keepalive or fault-tolerant

link. The peer-keepalive traffic is often transported over the management network through the

management 0 port of the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch or the management 0 ports on each

Cisco Nexus 7000 Series supervisor. The peer-keepalive traffic is typically routed over a dedicated

Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) instance (which could be the management VRF, for

example).

The keepalive can be carried over a routed infrastructure; it does not need to be a direct point-to-

Cisco 350-080 Exam


point link, and, in fact, it is desirable to carry the peer-keepalive traffic on a different network

instead of on a straight point-to-point link. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/design_guide_c07-625857.html


During troubleshooting of vPCs, it is observed that virtual port channel 2 is in the down state.Based on the show command output, what is a possible cause of this issue? A. The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch. B. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch. D. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The consistency checker exists to keep bad things from happening on your vPC port-channel (like

"unexplaine“" packet dr”ps). There are two types of consistency check failures. The ones that will

bring down the entire port-channel (these are type 1s) and the ones that will only cause an error,

or keep a single or group of VLANs from becoming active on the port-channel (type 2).

Decisions for what a type 1 and 2 are were made by the engineering team.

For example the MTU mismatch will bring your vPC port-channel down, and it does so in a non

vPC port-channel as well. I am sure that you can see the types of issues that having a link with a

MTU of 9000 and one of 1500 can cause for a port-channel.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/design_guide_c07-625857.html

QUESTION NO: 122 Which three options are valid SPAN sources? (Choose three.) A. VLANs, because when a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces in theVLAN are SPAN sources B. fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender C. Layer 2 subinterfaces D. satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender E. Layer 3 subinterfaces F. Remote Span Ethernet Ports

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

The interfaces from which traffic can be monitored are called SPAN sources. These include

Ethernet, virtual Ethernet, port-channel, and VLAN. When a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source,

all supported interfaces in the VLAN are SPAN sources. Traffic can be monitored in the receive

direction, the transmit direction, or both directions for Ethernet and virtual Ethernet source

interfaces.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/troubleshooting/configuration/guide/n1000v_trouble/n1000v_trouble_15span.html

QUESTION NO: 123 Which four statements about SNMP implementation on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch aretrue? (Choose four.) A. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context. B. By default, Cisco NX-OS uses the default VDC for SNMP. C. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities. D. SNMP is VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMPnotification host receiver. E. Only SNMP version 3 is supported on NX-OS. F. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per switch. G. Each VDC can have multiple SNMP sessions configured in it.

Answer: A,B,C,D

Explanation:

The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an application-layer protocol that provides a

message format for communication between SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a

standardized framework and a common language used for the monitoring and management of

devices in a network.

SNMP has different versions such as SNMPv1, v2, and v3. Each SNMP version has different

security models or levels. Most Enterprise customers are looking to implement SNMPv3 because

it offers encryption to pass management information (or traffic) across the network. The security

level determines if an SNMP message needs to be protected and authenticated. Various security

levels exist within a security model:

Cisco NX-OS supports the following SNMP standards:

As NX-OS is truly modular and highly available, the NX-OS implementation of SNMP supports

stateless restarts for SNMP. NX-OS has also implemented virtualization support for SNMP; NX-

OS supports one instance of SNMP per virtual device context (VDC). SNMP is also VRF-aware,

which allows you to configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the network management

host.

Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1609856&seqNum=3 (see the topic,‘SNMP’)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 124 Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.) A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain. B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain. C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links. D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port. E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain. F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

A vPC+ domain enables Cisco Nexus 7000 Series enabled with FabricPath devices to form a

single vPC+, which is a unique virtual switch to the rest of the FabricPath network. You configure

the same domain on each device to enable the peers to identify each other and to form the vPC+.

Each vPC+ has its own virtual switch ID.

Enabling the vPC peer switch feature is not necessary when you are using vPC+. All FabricPath

edge switches use a common reserved bridge ID (BID c84c.75fa.6000) when sending BPDUs on

CE edge ports.

A vPC+ must still provide active-active Layer 2 paths for dual-homed CE devices or clouds, even

though the FabricPath network allows only 1-to-1 mapping between the MAC address and the

switch ID. vPC+ creates a unique virtual switch to the FabricPath network (see the figure below).

The FabricPath switch ID for the virtual switch becomes the outer source MAC address (OSA) in

Cisco 350-080 Exam


the FabricPath encapsulation header. Each vPC+ domain must have its own virtual switch ID.

Layer 2 multipathing is achieved by emulating a single virtual switch. Packets forwarded from host

A to host B are tagged with the MAC address of the virtual switch as the transit source, and traffic

from host B to host A is now load balanced.

You must have all interfaces in the vPC+ peer link as well as all the downstream vPC+ links on an

F Series module with FabricPath enabled. The vPC+ downstream links will be FabricPath edge

interfaces, which connect to the CE hosts.

The vPC+ virtual switch ID is used to assign the FabricPath Outer Source Address (OSA) to the

FabricPath vPC+ peer devices (see “Configuring FabricPath Switching,” for information about

FabricPath encapsulation). You must assign the same switch ID to each of the two vPC+ peer

devices so the peer link can form.

The F1 Series modules have only Layer 2 interfaces. To use routing with a vPC+, you must have

an M Series module inserted into the same Cisco Nexus 7000 Series chassis. The system then

performs proxy routing using both the N7K-F132-15 module and the M Series modules in the

chassis (see the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series NX-OS Unicast Routing Configuration Guide for

information on proxy routing with the F1 Series modules).

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nx-os/fabricpath/configuration/guide/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x/b-Cisco-Nexus-7000-Series-NX-OS-FP-Configuration-Guide-6x_chapter_0100.html#concept_E80184F865C940C4B53B41506A7444A6

Topic 3,

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969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696

969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696969696

9696Cisco Storage Networking

QUESTION NO: 125 Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoEframe from the directly connected FCoE host? A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to thefabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port. C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to theFibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port. D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the FCoE it is forwarded to another switch over

its VE port.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/502_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_502_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_502_n1_1_chapter_011.html

QUESTION NO: 126 A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch.Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue? switch# show npv status npiv is enabled External Interfaces: =============== InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of External Interfaces: 4 A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch? B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state C. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN? D. The local host interface is not able to login

Answer: B

Explanation:

To display the status and VSAN membership of the different servers and external interfaces, and

to verify that NPIV is enabled on the switch, enter the show npv status command.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


switch# show npv status

npiv is enabled

External Interfaces:

====================

Interface: fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID: 0xee0006, State: Up

Interface: fc1/9, VSAN: 1, FCID: 0xee0007, State: Up

Number of External Interfaces: 2

Server Interfaces:

==================

Interface: fc1/19, VSAN: 1, NPIV: Yes, State: Up

Number of Server Interfaces: 1

Reference:https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_3_x/troubleshooting/guide/ts_npv.pdf (page 3)

QUESTION NO: 127 What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.) A. Up to 25 m bus length B. Only one device per SCSI bus C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus D. Half-duplex operation E. Full-duplex operation

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

There are several revisions of the SPI document. SPI includes Fast SCSI data transfer speeds up

to 10 Megatransfers (20 Mbytes/sec for 16-bit). The Ultra SCSI (Fast-20) modification of SPI

includes doubling the data throughput to 20 Megatransfers/sec (40 Mbytes/sec for 16-bit). Ultra

SCSI speeds reduce the maximum single-ended cable length to 1.5 m (5 ft) with 5 or more

devices and 3 m (10 ft) for systems having up to 4 devices. The maximum recommended

differential cable length remains at 25 m (82 ft). Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCSI#Parallel_SCSI

QUESTION NO: 128

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame? A. Ethernet FCS B. Source address C. Destination address D. EtherType E. Protocol type

Answer: D

Explanation:

FIP is encapsulated in an Ethernet packet with a dedicated EtherType, 0x8914. The packet has a

4-bit version field. Along with the source and destination MAC addresses, the FIP packet also

contains a FIP operation code and a FIP operation subcode. The following table describes the FIP

operation codes. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/513_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_513_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_513_n1_1_chapter_010.html

QUESTION NO: 129 Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol? A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path. B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernetsegments. C. It is not used to build the FCoE links. D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus 5000 Series FCoE implementation could establish point-to-point FCoE links to

first-generation converged network adapters (CNAs) without FIP, but FIP is required to build more

complex topologies in which FCoE links can map to an Ethernet path that consists of more than

one Ethernet link segment. The final revision of FC-BB-5 completed the definition of FIP and was

soon followed by Cisco ® NX-OS Software Release 4.1(3)N1(1), the first software release for the

Cisco Nexus 5000 Series that offers FIP capabilities.


Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 130 Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric? A. show flogi database B. show system fc login C. show npv flogi-table D. show npv fcns database E. show interface vfc X flogi F. show interface flogi

Answer: A

Explanation: In a Fibre Channel fabric, each host or disk requires an FCID. Use the show flogi

database command to verify if a storage device is displayed in the Fabric login (FLOGI) table as in

the examples below. If the required device is displayed in the FLOGI table, the fabric login is

successful. Examine the FLOGI database on a switch that is directly connected to the host HBA

and connected ports.

Examples

The following example displays details on the FLOGI database.

switch# show flogi database

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

INTERFACE VSAN FCID PORT NAME NODE NAME

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

sup-fc0 2 0xb30100 10:00:00:05:30:00:49:63 20:00:00:05:30:00:49:5e

fc9/13 1 0xb200e2 21:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c 20:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c

fc9/13 1 0xb200e1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61

fc9/13 1 0xb200d1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64

fc9/13 1 0xb200ce 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb

fc9/13 1 0xb200cd 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7

Total number of flogi = 6.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/san-

os/command/reference/CR02_sh.html#wp1248139

QUESTION NO: 131 Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated. B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE. C. The system is running with the default QOS policies. D. The link is oversubscribed.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Priority flow control (PFC) is not negotiated with FCOE-capable adapters (CNA). This causes

packet drop to be noticed on FCoE traffic from the servers.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/troubleshooting/guide/N5K_Troubleshooting_Guide/n5K_ts_fcoe.html

QUESTION NO: 132 Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.) A. Priority flow control B. Buffer-to-buffer credits C. TCP retransmission D. Ethernet checksum E. QoS policies

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Lossless behavior on Ethernet is provided by using a priority flow control (PFC) mechanism that

prevents packet loss during congestion conditions.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html#con_9123829467906736740 (see the note)

QUESTION NO: 133

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel? A. Cannot be disabled B. Cannot have the QoS changed C. Can have "Packet Drop" enabled D. Is multicast optimized? E. Can have the MTU changed

Answer: A

Explanation:

A system class that sets the quality of service for the lane reserved for basic Ethernet traffic.

Some properties of this system class are preset and cannot be modified. For example, this class

has a drop policy that allows it to drop data packets if required. You cannot disable this system

class.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_010100.html (Refer to table 1)

QUESTION NO: 134 When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that canexist in the team? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 16

Answer: B

Explanation:

The maximum number of physical links allowed is 2. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/operations/n5k_fcoe_ops.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 135 Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE? A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabled B. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16 C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel D. It's hard-set but can disable all but one class E. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight

Answer: C

Explanation:

By default, the software classifies all unicast and multicast Ethernet traffic into the default drop

system class. This class is identified by qos-group 0.

This class is created automatically when the system starts up (the class is named class-default in

the CLI). You cannot delete this class and you cannot change the match criteria associated with

the default class. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/QoS.html

QUESTION NO: 136 Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct? A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoENPV mode. B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch. C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot functionas a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder. D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features suchas IVR. E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarderand Fibre Channel Bridge functions.

Answer: E

Explanation:

Not only does the Cisco MDS 9000 10-Gbps 8-Port FCoE Module take advantage of migration of

FCoE into the core layer, but it extends enterprise-class Fibre Channel services to Cisco Nexus

7000 and 5000 Series Switches and FCoE initiators. This capability:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/mds-9000-10-gbps-8-port-fcoe-module/data_sheet_c78-643937.html (the power of intelligent fabrics, see thebullet)

QUESTION NO: 137 DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primaryareas of this operation? A. Analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoring B. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device manager C. Definition of flows, information collection, and data presentation D. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation

Answer: C

Explanation:

The primary areas of monitoring network performance of SAN is as follows:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/fund/DCNM-SAN-LAN_5_2/DCNM_Fundamentals/perfmon.html

QUESTION NO: 138 Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000platforms? (Choose two.) A. port security B. fabric binding C. IVR D. port tracking E. FICON

Answer: C,E

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


The Fibre Channel features supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 are related to Port

security, fabric binding, and port tracking.

Reference: http://www.andovercg.com/datasheets/cisco-nexus_5000_installation.pdf


Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10).The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB. Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from thehost to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link? A. show fspf traffic vsan 10 B. show vsan 10 C. show trunk protocol D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10

Answer: B

Explanation:

The following example shows how to display information about a specific VSAN:

switch# show vsan 100

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/vsan.html

QUESTION NO: 140

Cisco 350-080 Exam


What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment? A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command

Answer: A

Explanation:

Reference:https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=o3jeY1SwOYcC&pg=PA460&lpg=PA460&dq=VLAN+discovery,+FCF+discovery,+FLOGI+and+FDISC,+FC+command&source=bl&ots=cZSJqQRMpn&sig=GCwEWMK4ulWQa6e_JbTGr9RQ3Zg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=Pt0wVfuYOcPfaqXqgOgB&ved=0CDsQ6AEwBg#v=onepage&q=VLAN%20discovery%2C%20FCF%20discovery%2C%20FLOGI%20and%20FDISC%2C%20FC%20command&f=false

QUESTION NO: 141 Given a host with two NICs assigned to an N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this typeof configuration (Choose three.) port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data

Cisco 350-080 Exam


vmware port-group switchport mode trunk switchport allowed vlan 400-410 channel-group auto mode active no shut state enabled A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects B. Pair of N5K's in VPC. C. Standalone N5K D. Pair of N5K's in non-VPC E. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

N5k-1(config)# int mgmt 0

N5k-1(config-if)# ip address 172.25.182.51/24

N5k-1(config-if)# vrf context management

N5k-1(config-vrf)# ip route 0.0.0.0/0 172.25.182.1

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/configuration_guide_c07-543563.html

QUESTION NO: 142 NPV and NPIV are features that are used to overcome resource limitations in which Fibre Channelfield? A. FCID B. Domain ID C. WWPN D. LUN ID E. VSAN

Answer: B

Explanation:

Fibre Channel protocol-related timer values can be configured for distributed services, error

Cisco 350-080 Exam


detection, and resource allocation. You must uniquely associate the WWN to a single switch. The

principal switch selection and the allocation of domain IDs rely on the WWN. Cisco Nexus 5000

Series switches support three network address authority (NAA) address formats

The configured domain ID can be preferred or static. By default, the configured domain ID is 0

(zero) and the configured type is preferred. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/b_Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX-OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide.pdf (page 25)

QUESTION NO: 143 Given the following output: San-port-channel 12 is up Hardware is Fibre Channel Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d: ec :d3 :5c:00 Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is on Port mode is NP Port vsan is 1 Speed is 8 Gbps Member [1]: fc2/3 Member [2]: fc2/4 What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate? A. The speed of the slowest interface in the port channel B. The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channel C. The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are up D. The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used

Answer: C

Explanation:

speed { 10 | 100 | 1000 | auto } Sets the speed for the port-channel interface. The default is auto

for autonegotiation.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/interfaces/configuration/guide/if_cli/if_portchannel.html

QUESTION NO: 144 Which three technologies enable lossless Ethernet? (Choose three.) A. Priority Flow Control B. Enhanced Transmission Selection C. Ethernet Credits D. Congestion Notification E. VLAN-Aware Transmission F. IP Type of Server Field

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

Currently, the distinct interconnect technologies transport different traffic from different

applications. The primary Ethernet extensions are as follows: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-501770.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which of these technologies is illustrated by the topology in the exhibit? A. vPC+ B. standard vPC C. enhanced vPC D. express vPC E. fabric vPC

Answer: C

Explanation:

Enhanced vPC enables you to support server connectivity with one topology and address

requirement for both high availability and high bandwidth. Enhanced vPC is technology that

supports the topology, where a Cisco Nexus 2000 Fabric Extender (FEX) is dual-homed to a pair

of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices while the hosts are also dual homed to a pair of FEXs using a

vPC.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513_n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.pdf

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 146 What are the three prerequisites for enabling FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 7000? (Choose three.) A. M Series module B. F Series module C. no-drop QoS policy D. NPIV feature E. FCoE module license F. Fabric Extender configured

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

Product

License

Cisco Nexus 7000 Series

Each F Series module that runs FCoE requires an FCoE license. FCoE enabled in a nondefault

VDC does not require the Advanced Services License. For a complete explanation of the Cisco

NX-OS licensing scheme and how to obtain and apply licenses, see the Cisco NX-OS Licensing

Guide.

Cisco MDS 9500 Series

FCoE does not require a license. For a complete explanation of the Cisco NX-OS licensing

scheme and how to obtain and apply licenses, see the Cisco NX-OS Licensing Guide.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx-os/fcoe/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_NX-OS_FCoE_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_NX-OS_FCoE_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0101.html#reference_A33C9A360D18408DA3BEF0C406FE9094

QUESTION NO: 147 Which two statements about Fibre Channel Class 2 are true? (Choose two.) A. Fibre Channel Class 2 provides a connection-oriented class of service. B. The F_BSY frame is part of Class 2. C. Class 2 acknowledges frame delivery. D. BB_Credits do not exist in Class 2. E. Dedicated bandwidth is allocated when using Class 2.

Answer: B,C

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

An issue exists in that if an Enc_Header is added to a frame and a Class 2 F_RJT or F_BSY is

generated by a legacy switch within the Inter-Fabric, the Inter-Fabric Router that receives the

Class 2 F_RJT or F_BSY does not have the proper addressing information needed to return the

frame to the device that originated the Class 2 frame that was rejected or busied.

Reference: http://www.t11.org/ftp/t11/pub/fc/ifr/06-597v3.pdf

QUESTION NO: 148 Which two options describe the results of a switch sending an RCF SW_ILS frame to neighborswitches? (Choose two.) A. All traffic in all VSANs is suspended. B. Zone merging is reinitiated. C. The principal switch remains the same. D. New Fibre Channel domains can be allocated. E. The switch name is changed.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

You can choose to reject RCF request frames on a per-interface, per-VSAN basis. By default, the

RCF reject option is disabled (that is, RCF request frames are not automatically rejected).

The RCF reject option takes effect immediately. Reference: http://h20628.www2.hp.com/km-ext/kmcsdirect/emr_na-c01810727-1.pdf

QUESTION NO: 149 Which three parameters are carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.) A. control messages B. SCSI commands C. parameters that specify redundant paths D. iSCSI PDUs E. primitive signals

Answer: A,B,D

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

A connection is a TCP connection. Communication between the initiator and target occurs over

one or more TCP connections. The TCP connections carry control messages, SCSI commands,

parameters, and data within iSCSI Protocol Data Units (iSCSI PDUs).

Reference:https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=yLu6AgAAQBAJ&pg=PA374&lpg=PA374&dq=cisco+parameters+are+carried+by+an+iSCSI+TCP+session&source=bl&ots=0lVvrI-hii&sig=00us82I9YTwcOYc91wvrBjphfdA&hl=en&sa=X&ei=W-gwVf3xI4vmasHbgcAO&ved=0CDEQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=cisco%20parameters%20are%20carried%20by%20an%20iSCSI%20TCP%20session&f=false

QUESTION NO: 150 Which statement about ESS SW_ILS frames is true? A. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the management server of a requesting switch to theManagement Server of a responding switch. B. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the name server of a requesting switch to the NameServer of a responding switch. C. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the domain controller of a requesting switch to theDomain Controller of a responding switch. D. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the alias server of a requesting switch to the AliasServer of a responding switch. E. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the time server of a requesting switch to the TimeServer of a responding switch.

Answer: C

Explanation:

switch(config)# fcan lo bri dis fc.type==0x22&&((fc.d_id==\"ff.fc.ef\"\|\|fc.s_id==\"ff.fc.ef\"))

Warning:Couldn't obtain netmask info (eth2:no IPv4 address assigned).

Capturing on eth2

9.472181 ff.fc.ef -> ff.fc.61 0x5e0a 0xffff SW_ILS ACA

9.472777 ff.fc.61 -> ff.fc.ef 0x5e0a 0x5e09 SW_ILS SW_ACC (ACA)

9.474551 ff.fc.ef -> ff.fc.61 0x5e0b 0xffff SW_ILS SFC

9.475706 ff.fc.61 -> ff.fc.ef 0x5e0b 0x5e0a SW_ILS SW_ACC (SFC)

9.476694 ff.fc.ef -> ff.fc.61 0x5e0c 0xffff SW_ILS UFC

9.483612 ff.fc.61 -> ff.fc.ef 0x5e0c 0x5e0b SW_ILS SW_ACC (UFC)

9.488187 ff.fc.ef -> ff.fc.61 0x5e0d 0xffff SW_ILS RCA

9.493703 ff.fc.61 -> ff.fc.ef 0x5e0d 0x5e0c SW_ILS SW_ACC (RCA)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/tsf.html

QUESTION NO: 151 Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are true? (Choose two.) A. A connection request is made to Port 3225 or configured port. B. A connection request is made to Port 3260 or configured port. C. Fibre Channel over TCP/IP uses the TCP window management and sliding window for flowcontrol. D. A special frame is always used to identify peers.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

The basic FCIP configuration uses the peer's IP address to configure the peer information. You

can also specify the peer's port number to configure the peer information. If you do not specify a

port, the default 3225 port number is used to establish connection.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_1_x/1_3/fm/configuration/guide/IPstorg.html

QUESTION NO: 152 Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.) A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints. B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames. C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior isidentical to a normal E Port. D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters. E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of theCisco MDS switch.

Answer: C,D

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

The FCIP profile contains information about local IP address and TCP parameters. The profile

defines the following information:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/fm/configuration/guide/fcip.html (Modifying FCIP links)


How is the VLAN configuration accomplished in the Device Manager? A. This configuration is done under the IP selection. B. This configuration is done under Interface selection. C. This configuration cannot be done in Device Manager. D. This configuration is done by clicking the VSAN drop-down list and choosing VLAN All.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cisco Network Assistant gives you the option to check the total power usage of the Cisco IP

phones and access points connected to the Power over Ethernet (PoE) Cisco Catalyst ® switches.

This allows you to supervise power budgeting and displays information about whether you have

enough power to connect additional powered devices to the switch.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/cloud-systems-management/network-assistant/prod_white_paper0900aecd802d1b95.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 154 What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one linkdown because of an error? A. 500 B. 166 C. 250 D. 125 E. 1000

Answer: D

Explanation:

FSPF tracks the state of links on all switches in the fabric, associates a cost with each link in its

database, and then chooses the path with a minimal cost. The cost associated with an interface

can be administratively changed to implement the FSPF route selection. The integer value to

specify cost can range from 1 to 65,535. The default cost for 1 Gbps is 1000 and for 2 Gbps is

500.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a0080662d28.html (about FSPF link cost)


Which two options describe possible causes of the failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A. Two switches have the same zone set name, but different zone names and different zonemembers.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. Two switches have the same zone set name and zone name, but different zone members. C. The zoneset export interface command is used for the wrong interface. D. The zoneset merge command can only be executed for VSAN 1. E. The adjacent switch is down at the point of the zone merge.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

When merging switch fabrics, you must ensure that the zones in both active zone sets have

unique names, or that any zones with the same name have exactly the same members. If either of

these conditions is violated the E port connecting the two fabrics will appear in an isolated state.

For example, two switches may have the same zone set name, and the same zone names, but

different zone members. As a result, the VSAN is isolated on the TE port that connects the two

switches.

This issue can be resolved by doing one of the following:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/prod_troubleshooting_guide_chapter09186a008067a309.html (mismatched active zone sets with the same VSAN)

QUESTION NO: 156 Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats iscsi x/ydetail command? (Choose three.) A. PDU or frame drop occurrences B. speed of the iSCSI interface C. data CRC error D. buffer credits E. TMF-REQ and TMF-RESP F. duplex of the iSCSI interface

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

Along with the traffic rate and the number of each iSCSI PDU types, it shows the number of FCP

frames received and forwarded, the number of iSCSI login attempt, succeed, and failure. It also

shows the number of different types of iSCSI PDUs sent and received that are noncritical or occur

less frequently, such as NOP in and out (NOP-In and NOP-Out), text request and response (Text-

REQ and Text-RESP), and task management request and response (TMF-REQ and TMF-RESP).

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Various types of errors and PDU or frame drop occurrences are also counted and displayed. For

example, Bad header digest shows the number of iSCSI PDUs received that have a header digest

that fails CRC verification. The iSCSI Drop section shows the number of PDUs that were dropped

due to reasons such as target down, LUN mapping fail, Data CRC error, or unexpected Immediate

or Unsolicited data. These statistics are helpful for debugging purposes when the feature is not

working as expected. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/san-os/configuration/guide/ciscsi.html

QUESTION NO: 157 Given an E3 WAN link, which mode of compression would be the most appropriate choice? A. Mode high B. Mode medium C. Mode low D. Mode 1 E. Mode 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

In SAN-OS 2.0, three compression modes are available per FCIP interface on the IPS-4, IPS-8,

and MPS-14/2:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/HA_Clusters/HA_Clusters/HA_FCI_4.html (compression modes and rate)


Cisco 350-080 Exam


When a CNA host connects to the virtual interface of the switch, what will happen? A. The switch will not initialize because it is in the wrong mode. B. The host will negotiate using DCBX and connect properly. C. The host will negotiate using DCBX and will change parameters as required, but a shut/no shutis needed on the interface. D. The host will not connect. The vFC port number does not match the Ethernet interface.

Answer: A

Explanation:

In expansion port (E port) mode, an interface functions as a fabric expansion port. This port may

be connected to another E port to create an Inter-Switch Link (ISL) between two switches. E ports

carry frames between switches for configuration and fabric management. They serve as a conduit

between switches for frames destined to remote N ports. E ports support class 3 and class F

service.

An E port connected to another switch may also be configured to form a SAN port channel.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/HA_Clusters/HA_Clusters/HA_FCI_4.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


What action must be taken to make fc1/1 capable of being an ISL port channel member operatingat 4 GB? A. One of the interfaces between fc1/2 and fc1/6 must be placed in out-of-service mode to free upbandwidth in the port group so that fc1/1 can use that bandwidth. B. Interface fc1/1 must be placed into dedicated rate mode. C. The B2B credit value of interface fc1/1 must be raised to a minimum of 100. D. No action is necessary because shared rate mode ports are fine for ISLs. E. No action is possible because module 1 is oversubscribed and will only support ISLs if the portsoperate at 2GBs.

Answer: B

Explanation:

To add an interface to a PortChannel, follow these steps:

Command

Purpose

Step 1

switch# config t

switch(config)#


Step 2

switch(config)# interface fc1/15

switch(config-if)#

Configures the specified port interface (fc1/15).

Step 3

switch(config-if)#channel-group 15

Adds physical Fibre Channel port 1/15 to channel group 15. If channel group 15 does not exist, it

is created. The port is shut down.

To add a range of ports to a PortChannel, follow these steps:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Command

Purpose

Step 1

switch# config t

switch(config)#


Step 2

switch(config)# interface fc1/1 - 5

switch(config-if)#

Configures the specified range of interfaces. In this example, interfaces from 1/1 to 1/5 are

configured.

Step 3

switch(config-if)#channel-group 2

Adds physical interfaces 1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, and 1/5 to channel group 2. If channel group 2 does not

exist, it is created.

If the compatibility check is successful, the interfaces are operational and the corresponding states

apply to these interfaces.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/pc.html

QUESTION NO: 160 Which two statements about the FCIP Write Acceleration feature are true? (Choose two.) A. WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of WAN latency for write operations. B. The Write Acceleration feature does not have to be enabled on both sides of the FCIP link. C. The FCIP Write Acceleration feature can only be used with multilink port channels if they areconstructed with port channel protocol. D. The Write Acceleration feature cannot be used across FSPF equal cost paths in FCIPdeployments. E. The Write Acceleration feature works by immediately returning the SCSI status on the initiatorside of the FCIP link.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

The SCSI write acceleration feature enables you to significantly improve application write

performance when storage traffic is routed over wide area networks using FCIP or Fibre Channel.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


When write acceleration is enabled, WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of

WAN latency for write operations.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/6_2/configuration/guides/ioa/ioa/scsi_wa_ta.html (Scsi write acceleration)


Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot? A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC. B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array. C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly. D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Provision a special LUN with the correct size to install the OS image. This LUN must be LUN 0

and will be used by the server to obtain the OS image. In addition, configure LUN masking so that

the server has access to the LUN. This configuration is typically performed using the pWWN of the

server: the corresponding vHBA's pWWN. The LUN masking procedure is specific to the storage

array and is usually performed using the array's device manager or command-line interface (CLI). Reference: https://communities.cisco.com/thread/38370

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Answer:

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:


Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 168 Which SCSI action returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may beissued? A. Read Capacity

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. Test Unit Read C. Report LUNs D. Read E. Inquiry

Answer: C

Explanation:

The REPORT LUNS command (see table 119) requests that the peripheral device logical unit

inventory accessible to the I_T nexus be sent to the application client. The logical unit inventory is

a list that shall include the logical unit numbers of all logical units having a PERIPHERAL

QUALIFIER value of 000b. Logical unit numbers for logical units with PERIPHERAL QUALIFIER

values other than 000b and 011b may be included in the logical unit inventory. Logical unit

numbers for logical units with a PERIPHERAL QUALIFIER value of 011b shall not be included in

the logical unit inventory

Reference: http://www.seagate.com/staticfiles/support/disc/manuals/scsi/100293068a.pdf

QUESTION NO: 169 Which statement about the FCIP Tape Acceleration feature is true? A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides only tape write acceleration. B. After receiving all the data, the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch proxiesthe successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation. C. Cisco SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP connectedtape drives by using UDP over the WAN. D. The FCIP Tape Acceleration feature can be used with multilink port channels if the portchannels are constructed with a port channel protocol. E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Tapes are storage devices that store and retrieve user data sequentially. Cisco MDS NX-OS

provides both tape write and read acceleration.

Applications that access tape drives normally have only one SCSI WRITE or READ operation

outstanding to it. This single command process limits the benefit of the tape acceleration feature

when using an FCIP or FC tunnel over a long-distance WAN link. It impacts backup, restore, and

restore performance because each SCSI WRITE or READ operation does not complete until the

host receives a good status response from the tape drive. The SCSI tape acceleration feature

Cisco 350-080 Exam


helps solve this problem. It improves tape backup, archive, and restore operations by allowing

faster data streaming between the host and tape drive over the WAN link.

In an example of tape acceleration for write operations, the backup server in the following figure

issues write operations to a drive in the tape library. Acting as a proxy for the remote tape drives,

the local Cisco MDS switch proxies a transfer ready to signal the host to start sending data. After

receiving all the data, the local Cisco MDS switch proxies the successful completion of the SCSI

WRITE operation. This response allows the host to start the next SCSI WRITE operation. This

proxy method results in more data being sent over the FCIP or Fibre Channel tunnel in the same

time period compared to the time taken to send data without proxying. The proxy method improves

the performance on WAN links.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/ioa/ioa/scsi_wa_ta.html

QUESTION NO: 170 Which two statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are true? (Choose two.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. FCIP Tape Acceleration enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface. B. The Cisco MDS switch proxies a transfer ready to signal the host to start receiving data. C. FCIP Tape Acceleration uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control. D. FCIP Tape Acceleration reduces each I/O processing time by two RTT. E. FCIP Tape Acceleration only supports the read acceleration.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Tapes are storage devices that store and retrieve user data sequentially. Cisco MDS NX-OS

provides both tape write and read acceleration.

Applications that access tape drives normally have only one SCSI WRITE or READ operation

outstanding to it. This single command process limits the benefit of the tape acceleration feature

when using an FCIP tunnel over a long-distance WAN link. It impacts backup, restore, and restore

performance because each SCSI WRITE or READ operation does not complete until the host

receives a good status response from the tape drive. The FCIP tape acceleration feature helps

solve this problem. It improves tape backup, archive, and restore operations by allowing faster

data streaming between the host and tape drive over the WAN link.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/ipsvc/nxos/ipsvc/cfcip.html#pgfId-2465141

QUESTION NO: 171 Which statement about the SAN Extension Tuner is true? A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots. B. The virtual N Ports that are created will register the FC4 features that are supported with thename server. C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented. D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled. E. The data pattern that is used for the data that is generated between the virtual N Ports can bean all-zero pattern or an all-ones pattern. No other data patterns can be used.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Before tuning the SAN fabric, be aware of the following guidelines:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00806

Cisco 350-080 Exam


630a9.html


Answer:

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 174 What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging? A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link B. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links C. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the networkedge D. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints

Answer: A

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

Link sharing is critical to I/O consolidation. For link sharing to succeed, large bursts from one traffic

type must not affect other traffic types, large queues of traffic from one traffic type must not starve

other traffic types' resources, and optimization for one traffic type must not create high latency for

small messages of other traffic types. The Ethernet pause mechanism can be used to control the

effects of one traffic type on another. PFC is an enhancement to the pause mechanism. PFC

enables pause based on user priorities or classes of service. A physical link divided into eight

virtual links (Figure 1) with PFC provides the capability to use pause on a single virtual link without

affecting traffic on the other virtual links. Enabling pause based on user priority allows

administrators to create lossless links for traffic requiring no-drop service, such as Fibre Channel

over Ethernet (FCoE), while retaining packet-drop congestion management for IP traffic.

The current Ethernet pause option stops all traffic on a link; essentially, it is a link pause for the

entire link. However, PFC creates eight separate virtual links on the physical link and allows any of

these links to be paused and restarted independently. This approach enables the network to

create a no-drop class of service for an individual virtual link that can\ coexist with other traffic

types on the same interface. PFC allows differentiated quality-of-service (QoS) policies for the

eight unique virtual links. PFC also plays a primary role when used with an arbiter for intraswitch

fabrics, linking ingress ports to egress port resources.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/ieee-802-1-data-center-bridging/at_a_glance_c45-460907.pdf (see table 1, first row)


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which statement about the interface that is connected to the NPV core switch is true? A. The switch that connects to the hosts is identified in the design as an NPV edge switch, and theport that connects to the core is an NP port. B. The interface that is connected to the NPV switch will need to be configured as an N-Port. C. The interface that is connected to the NPV core will become an FP port. D. The link between the NPV core switch and edge will come up as an E port.

Answer: A

Explanation:

N Port virtualization (NPV) reduces the number of Fibre Channel domain IDs in SANs. Switches

operating in the NPV mode do not join a fabric; rather, they pass traffic between NPV core switch

links and end devices, which eliminates the domain IDs for these edge switches.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00808a0bce.html

QUESTION NO: 176 When an NP port becomes operational, the NP switch first logs itself into the core switch bysending a FLOGI request (using the port WWN of the NP port). What will occur next? A. The switch registers with the fabric name server. B. The switch will perform a PLOGI to the port login server. C. The switch will register parameters using FDISC. D. The NPV switch will perform a PLOGI using FDISC to register with the fabric name server.

Answer: A

Explanation:

After completing the FLOGI request, the switch registers itself with the fabric name server on the

core switch (using the symbolic port name of the NP port and the IP address of the edge switch). Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/san_switching/6x/b_5500_SAN_Switching_Config_6x/b_5500_SAN_Switching_Config_602N12_chapter_0100.html#con_1482494

QUESTION NO: 177

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Refer to the exhibit.

Which option describes the capability that the FCoE setting allows? A. configures the FEX to send FCoE traffic only to this switch B. allows mapped VLAN-VSAN traffic to reach the FEX C. configures FEX for A-B SAN capabilities D. allows interface Ethernet 101/1/1 to exchange DCBX information

Answer: A

Explanation:

Although Ethernet traffic is dual homed between a FEX and a switch pair in an enhanced vPC

topology, FCoE traffic must be single-homed to maintain SAN isolation. Therefore, while enhanced

vPC supports FCoE, a single homed FEX topology can be a better choice when SAN isolation and

high FCoE bandwidth are required.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/fcoe/7x/b_5500_FCoE_Config_7x/b_5500_FCoE_Config_7x_chapter_011.html (see configuring FCoE over EnhancedvPC)


Cisco 350-080 Exam


What is the most likely reason that VSAN 88 is initializing? A. VSAN 88 is not mapped to a FCoE VLAN. B. No host has logged into the VSAN. C. The VSAN is shut down. D. VSAN 88 is not part of the trunk yet.

Answer: B

Explanation: So you can see that the host has logged in, and that the VSAN is up and ready to

go!

Reference: http://www.ccierants.com/2013/06/ccie-dc-nested-npv.html

QUESTION NO: 179 What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command? A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the otherswitches in the Cisco Fabric Services region. B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed. C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases. D. There is no such command.

Answer: B

Explanation: Disabling and Enabling Device Alias Distribution

To disable or enable the device alias distribution, follow these steps:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Command

Purpose

Step 1

switch# config t

switch(config)#


Step 2

switch(config)# no device-alias distribute

Disables the distribution.

switch(config)# device-alias distribute

Enables the distribution (default).

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/cli_4_1/clibook/ddas.html

QUESTION NO: 180 When a switch that supports enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command does it useto determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the other switches in the fabric? A. MR B. ESS C. ELP D. EFP E. none of the above

Answer: C

Explanation:

If the device at the other end of the link is another switch, it will start a different initialization

procedure. The switches will exchange data about their parameters and capabilities (allowed

classes of service, timeout values, supported protocols, etc.) by means of an SW ILS called

“Exchange Link Parameters” (ELP) and an optional one called “Exchange Switch Capabilities”

(ESC). If the parameters are mutually accepted, switches proceed with further operations Reference: http://www.telematica.polito.it/oldsite/protocolli/schiattarella.pdf (p.30)

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Which three statements about the exhibit output related to Cisco Fabric Services are true?(Choose three.) A. The lock can only be released only by the operations manager user on the 10.1.1.11 switch. B. The admin user on the 10.1.1.11 switch must clear the lock. C. The tacacs+ commit command is the only command that can be used to clear the lock. D. Any network-admin user can release the lock with the command clear tacacs+ session. E. The operations manager user has started, but not committed, a configuration change for thefeature tacacs+ command. F. If committed, the changes are automatically saved to the startup configuration on all switches.

Answer: D,E,F

Explanation:

When you configure an application that uses the CFS infrastructure, that application starts a CFS

session and locks the network. When a network is locked, the device software allows configuration

changes to this application only from the device holding the lock. If you make configuration

changes to the application from another device, the device issues a message to inform the user

about the locked status. The configuration changes are held in a pending database by that

application.

If you start a CFS session that requires a network lock but forget to end the session, an

administrator can clear the session. If you lock a network at any time, your user name is

remembered across restarts and switchovers. If another user (on the same machine) tries to

perform configuration tasks, that user's attempts are rejected. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/nx-os/system_management/configuration/guide/sm_nx_os_cg/sm_2cfs.html (locking the network)

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Given the displays from N5K-1 and N5K-2, what is the expected result if the zone mode enhancedvsan 1 command is issued on N5K-1? A. The mode change will complete with a warning that the zone database from N5K-1 will bedistributed throughout the fabric. B. The mode change will not complete due to the mismatch in the default zone mode. C. The mode change prompts the administrator to override the default zone mismatch and makethem the same. D. The mode change completes, and the default zone setting remains unchanged in N5K-1 andN5K-2. E. The default zone setting is set to deny in both switches because it is more secure.

Answer: A

Explanation:

When the zone moe enhanced vsan 1 command is issued on N5k-1, the mode change will

complete with a warning that the zone database from N5k- has been distributed throughout the

fabric.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli_rel_4_0_1a/CLIConfigurationGuide/initconfig.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 183 In DCBX feature negotiation, the switch and CNA exchange capability information andconfiguration values. Which three capabilities are supported in Cisco Nexus 5000 SeriesSwitches? (Choose three.) A. PFC B. support for logical link up or down C. FCoE D. multicast E. speed F. duplex

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

The switch and CNA exchange capability information and configuration values. The Cisco Nexus

devices support the following capabilities:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus6000/sw/fcoe/7x/b_6k_FCoE_Config_7x/b_6k_FCoE_Config_7x_chapter_01.html (DCBX feature negotiation)

QUESTION NO: 184 Which statement about the iSCSI initiator task tag is true? A. The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues. B. The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator. C. During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique. D. SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The initiator assigns a Task Id (or tag) to each SCSI task that it issues. (Recall that a task is a

linked set of SCSI commands.) This Tag is an initiator-wide unique identifier that can be used to

uniquely identify the Task.

Reference: http://www.cs.uml.edu/~bill/cs560/Fall_06/iSCSI.ppt

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 185 Which three management tools are available with DCNM-SAN Manager, Device Manager, andPerformance Manager? (Choose three.) A. Cisco Traffic Analyzer B. Cisco Protocol Analyzer C. Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter 2 D. Cisco Prime LMS E. Cisco Prime NCS F. Cisco Prime NMS

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

You can use DCNM-SAN, Device Manager, and Performance Manager with these management

tools:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/fund/DCNM-SAN-LAN_5_2/DCNM_Fundamentals/dm.html


Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose two.) A. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated receiver for broadcast traffic B. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated sender for broadcast traffic C. the switching mode for which the Fabric Interconnect is configured D. the uplink interface from which multicast traffic will be sourced E. whether the last respond code was accepted or not

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Cisco UCS Manager Release 2.0 enables the following functions in end-host mode:

Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/discussion/11910721/designated-broadcastmulticast-uplink-port


You have associated a newly created service profile to a blade. When you examine the configuredboot order and actual boot order, they do not match. Which two statements describe reasons forthis mismatch? (Choose two.) A. Having a single iSCSI boot target would prevent the profile from associating, and wouldgenerate a configuration error. B. The server must complete a POST cycle before Cisco UCS Manager will update thisinformation. C. The blade needs to be reacknowledged. D. The server is in the process of a firmware upgrade.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


E. There may be a configuration error in the service profile.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

There are two possible scenarios for this problem. First the server might have to complete a

Power on Self Test cycle before UCS can update the information. The other scenario might be that

there is a configuration error in the service profile. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-manager/whitepaper_c11-697337.html


You are configuring a UCS C-Series server for SAN boot over FCoE. The server fails to boot afterthe HBA option ROM loads. Which option describes the most likely solution for this problem? A. Decrease the vNIC MTU. B. Set the vNIC Class of Service to a nonzero value. C. Set the default VLAN to FCOE VLAN. D. Set the vHBA Class of Service to 2. E. Uncheck the PXE Boot option. F. Disable Persistent LUN Binding.

Answer: C

Explanation:

To set up FC interfaces and FCoE VLAN interfaces:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/release/notes/Release_Notes_for_Cisco_C-Series_SW_2_0_3.html


You are connecting a Cisco Nexus 2000 to an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect domain forC-Series integration. Which option describes the next Cisco Nexus 2000 that will be discovered? A. FEX0101 B. FEX0003 C. FEX0102 D. FEX1000 E. FEX1001

Answer: B

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Aug2013/CVD-UnifiedComputingSystemDesignGuide-AUG13.pdf (page 11)


What is the most likely reason for the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit? A. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC have been deleted from Cisco UCSManager. B. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC are assigned to different disjoint Layer2 uplinks. C. There are no Ethernet uplinks that are enabled.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D. The host to which the vNIC belongs is currently powered off. E. The vNIC is currently active and uses the fabric failover peer vNIC.

Answer: B

Explanation:

If you remove all port or port channel interfaces from a VLAN, the VLAN returns to the default

behavior and data traffic on that VLAN flows on all uplink ports and port channels. Depending

upon the configuration in the Cisco UCS domain, this default behavior can cause Cisco UCS

Manager to drop traffic for that VLAN. To avoid this occurrence, we recommend that you either

assign at least one interface to the VLAN or delete the VLAN.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_010101.html#task_3A9E1FA167684C999F54FE68EB1D4B0F


What is the most likely reason for the error? A. There are not enough local hard drives to satisfy the local disk configuration policy. B. One of the resource pools is depleted (WWN, MAC, UUID). C. The destination blade is equipped with an M61KR-B adapter. D. The server is not equipped with adequate memory. E. A User Ack maintenance policy has been applied.

Answer: C

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

iSCSI boot is supported on the following Cisco UCS hardware:

Cisco UCS VIC 1225 Virtual Interface Card Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_011111.html#concept_CFF6B18F18684915816935F89B62CCAC


You are setting up a service profile to iSCSI boot using a Cisco UCS VIC 1240. The service profilereturns a configuration error when you attempt to associate it. What is the problem, based on theexhibit? A. The iSCSI adapter policy is not set. B. iSCSI boot will not work with the default VLAN. C. The default VLAN should not be set as native on the overlay vNIC. D. The MAC address assignment is invalid.

Answer: D

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-manager/116003-iscsi-ucs-config-00.html (see troubleshoot)

Topic 4, Cisco Data Center Virtualization

QUESTION NO: 193 A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICsand is intended for use with an N1Kv. Interface fastethernet 1/10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Interface fastethernet 1/11 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface port-channel10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport allowed vlan all No shut Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile? A. MAC pinning B. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinning C. Mode On D. Mode Active E. No port channel configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:

When multiple uplinks are attached to the same subgroup, the upstream switch must be

configured in a port channel, the links bundled together. The port channel must also be configured

with the channel-group auto mode on (active and passive modes use LACP).

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/port_profile/configuration/guide/n1000v_port_profile/n1000v_portprof_5channel.html

QUESTION NO: 194 What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.) A. perform flow lookups B. intercept packets on service enabled ports

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. run packets through the vPath flow manager D. classify the packets E. flow manager emits an action for the packets F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager

Answer: B,C,E,F

Explanation:

vPath provides the forwarding plane abstraction and programmability required to implement the

Layer 2 to Layer 7 network services such as segmentation firewalls, edge firewalls, load

balancers, WAN optimization, and others. It is embedded in the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series switch

Virtual Ethernet Module (VEM). It intercepts the traffic whether external to the virtual machine or

traffic from virtual machine to virtual machine and then redirects the traffic to the appropriate virtual

service node (VSN) such as Cisco Virtual Security Gateway (VSG), Cisco ASA 1000V, Cisco

Virtual Wide Area Application Services (vWAAS) for processing. vPath uses overlay tunnels to

steer the traffic to the virtual service node and the virtual service node can be either Layer 2 or

Layer 3 adjacent.

The Cisco network virtual service (vService) is supported by the Cisco Nexus 1000V using the

vPath. It provides trusted multitenant access and supports the VM mobility across physical servers

for workload balancing, availability, or scale.

The basic functions of vPath includes traffic redirection to a virtual service node (VSN) and service

chaining. Apart from the basic functions, vPath also includes advanced functions such as traffic off

load, accleration and others.

vPath steers traffic, whether external to the virtual machine or from a virtual machine to a virtual

machine, to the virtual service node. Initial packet processing occurs in the VSN for policy

evaluation and enforcement. Once the policy decision is made, the virtual service node may off-

load the policy enforcement of remaining packets to vPath. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-713736.html

QUESTION NO: 195 Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path thattraffic will be sent out upon? Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data Switchport mode trunk

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210 Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning State enabled Vmware port-group No shut Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200 Switchport mode access Switchport vlan 200 State enabled Vmware port-group No shut A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk B. show module 3 internal pinning C. module vem X execute vemcmd show port D. show module vem mapping E. show interface vethX pinning

Answer: C

Explanation:

To verify a connection between two veth ports on a VEM, follow these steps:

Step 1

On the VSM, enter the show vlan command to view the state of the VLANs associated with the

port. If the VLAN associated with a port is not active, then the port may be down. In this case, you

must create the VLAN and activate it.

Step 2

To see the state of the port on the VSM, enter a show interface brief command.

Step 3

Enter the module vem module-number execute vemcmd show port command to display the

ports that are present on the VEM, their local interface indices, VLAN, type (physical or virtual),

CBL state, port mode, and port name.

The key things to look for in the output are:

•

State of the port.

•

CBL.

•

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Mode.

•

Attached device name.

•

The LTL of the port you are trying to troubleshoot. It will help you identify the interface quickly in

other VEM commands where the interface name is not displayed.

•

Make sure the state of the port is up. If not, verify the configuration of the port on the VSM.

Step 4

To view the VLANs and their port lists on a particular VEM, use the module vem module-number

execute vemcmd show bd command:

n1000V# module vem 5 execute vemcmd show bd

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/troubleshooting/configuration/guide/n1000v_trouble/n1000v_trouble_8layer2.html (verifying a connectionbetween VEM ports)

QUESTION NO: 196 When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these? A. Upstream switch B. Virtual Supervisor Module C. VMware distributed switch D. VMware vSwitch E. Service virtual machine

Answer: E

Explanation:

A service VM (SVM) provides the specialized service like firewall, deep packet inspection

(application aware networking), or monitoring. Each Service VM has three virtual interfaces:

Interface

Description

Management

A regular interface that manages the SVM

Should have Layer 2 or Layer 3 connectivity, depending on its use.

Incoming

Guards the traffic coming into the VSD

Any packet coming into the VSD must go through this interface.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Outgoing

Guards the traffic going out of the VSD.

Any packet that originates in the VSD and goes out must go through the SVM and out through the

outgoing interface.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_2/security/configuration/guide/n1000v_security/n1000v_security_3vsd.html

QUESTION NO: 197 The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are anintelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the CiscoNX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000Vsupports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machinesecurity and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature.DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default. When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trustsettings for the vEthernet and uplink ports? A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels aretrusted. B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels arenot trusted. C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are nottrusted. D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels aretrusted.

Answer: D

Explanation:

DHCP snooping identifies ports as trusted or untrusted. When you enable DHCP snooping, by

default all vEthernet ports are untrusted and all ethernet ports (uplinks), port channels, special

vEthernet ports (used by other features, such as VSD, for their operation) are trusted.You can

configure whether DHCP trusts traffic sources.

In an enterprise network, a trusted source is a device that is under your administrative control. Any

device beyond the firewall or outside the network is an untrusted source. Generally, host ports are

treated as untrusted sources.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


In a service provider environment, any device that is not in the service provider network is an

untrusted source (such as a customer switch). Host ports are untrusted sources.

In the Cisco Nexus 1000V, you indicate that a source is trusted by configuring the trust state of its

connecting interface. Uplink ports, as defined with the uplink capability on port profiles, are trusted

and cannot be configured to be untrusted. This restriction prevents the uplink from being shut

down for not conforming to rate limits or DHCP responses.

You can also configure other interfaces as trusted if they connect to devices (such as switches or

routers) inside your network or if the administrator is running the DHCP server in a VM. You

usually do not configure host port interfaces as trusted. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/security/configuration/guide/n1000v_security/n1000v_security_12dhcpsnoop.html (trusted and untrustedsources)

QUESTION NO: 198 n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status Current Status : Enabled Running Config Status : Enabled Saved Config Status : Disabled What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.) A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v. B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch. C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM. D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM. E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) lets you configure up to 16 interfaces into a port

channel. A maximum of eight interfaces can be active, and a maximum of eight interfaces can be

placed in a standby state. Figure 5-The following figure as well as function as individual links.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


For the Cisco Nexus 1000V, LACP is enabled globally by default.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/vsg/sw/4_2_1_VSG_1_4_1/vpath_vservices/reference/guide/vpath_vservices_overview.html

QUESTION NO: 199 vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choosetwo.) A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSG B. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM C. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager E. deep packet inspection

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Cisco vPath technology steers traffic, whether inbound or traveling from virtual machine to virtual

machine, to the designated Cisco VSGs. A split-processing model is applied in which initial packet

processing occurs in the Cisco VSG for policy evaluation and enforcement. Subsequent policy

enforcement for packets is offloaded directly to Cisco vPath. Cisco vPath provides:

Intelligent traffic steering: Flow classification and redirection to associated Cisco VSGs

Fast path offload: Policy enforcement of flows offloaded by Cisco VSG to Cisco vPath

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Service chaining: Insertion of Cisco VSG along with other network services in the traffic path

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/virtual-security-gateway-nexus-1000v-series-switch/data_sheet_c78-618244.html

QUESTION NO: 200 Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS? A. channel-group auto mode on B. channel-group auto mode active C. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp D. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual E. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning

Answer: E

Explanation:

SUMMARY STEPS

1.

config t

2.

port-profile [type {ethernet | vethernet}] name

3.

channel-group auto mode on [sub-group {cdp | manual}] [mac-pinning]

4.

show port-profile [brief | expand-interface | usage] [name profile-name]

5.

copy running-config startup-config

DETAILED STEPS

Command

Description

Step 1

config t

Example:

n1000v# config t

n1000v(config)#

Enters global configuration mode.

Step 2

Cisco 350-080 Exam


port-profile [type {ethernet | vethernet}] name

Example:

n1000v(config)# port-profile uplinkProf

n1000v(config-port-prof)#

Creates an Ethernet type port profile (the default) and enters port profile configuration mode for

that port profile.

•

name—Specifies the port profile name, which can be up to 80 characters and must be unique for

each port profile on the Cisco Nexus 1000V.

•

type—An Ethernet type port profile can be used for physical ports, and in the vCenter Server, the

corresponding port group can be selected and assigned to physical ports (PNICs).

Note

If a port profile is configured as an Ethernet type, then it cannot be used to configure VMware

virtual ports.

Note

Once a port profile is created, you cannot change its type (Ethernet or vEthernet).

Step 3

channel-group auto mode on [sub-group {cdp |manual}] [mac-pinning]

Example—CDP is configured on the upstream switches:

n1000v(config-port-prof)# channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp


Example—CDP is not configured on the upstream switches:

n1000v(config-port-prof)# channel-group auto mode on manual


Example—Upstream switches do not support port channels:

n1000v(config-port-prof)# channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning


Creates a unique asymmetric port channel (also known as vPC-HM) and automatically assigns it

when the port profile is assigned to the first interface.

Each additional interface that belongs to the same module is added to the same port channel. In

VMware environments, a different port channel is created for each module.

The following options are also defined:

•

mode—Sets the port channel mode toon (active and passive use LACP).

•

sub-group—Identifies this channel group as asymmetric, or connected to more than one switch.

–

cdp—Specifies that CDP information is used to automatically create subgroups for managing the

Cisco 350-080 Exam


traffic flow.

–

manual—Specifies that subgroups are configured manually. This option is used if CDP is not

configured on the upstream switches.

•

mac-pinning—Specifies that Ethernet member ports are assigned to subgroups automatically,

one subgroup per member port. This option is used if the upstream switch does not support port

channels.

Step 4

show port-profile [brief | expand-interface |usage] [name profile-name]

Example:

n1000v(config-port-prof)# show port-profile name AccessProf

(Optional) Displays the configuration for verification.

Step 5


Example:

n1000v(config-port-prof)# copy running-config startup-config

(Optional) Saves the running configuration persistently through reboots and restarts by copying it

to the startup configuration.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-558242.html (summary of recommendations)

QUESTION NO: 201 How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 F. 5

Answer: D

Explanation:

VSM and VEM no longer need to share VLAN, and can even be multiple Layer 3 hops apart.

Compared to Layer 2 mode, the three VLANs are used as follows.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.labminutes.com/blog/2013/03/cisco-nexus-1000v-installation-and-deployment-options

QUESTION NO: 202 A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4

Answer: D

Explanation:

VSM is a virtual machine and require 3 vNICs which should be Intel 1000e driver. Reference: https://vmknowledge.wordpress.com/2013/01/12/understand-cisco-nexus-1000v-deployment/

QUESTION NO: 203 Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true?(Choose three.) A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp-snooping command. B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining theDHCP snooping binding database. C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping bindingdatabase to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP snooping is enabledglobally and for each specific VLAN. D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch. E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or theconfiguration of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature.

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


The DHCP snooping feature is disabled by default. When the DHCP snooping feature is disabled,

you cannot configure it or any of the featuresthat depend on DHCPsnooping. The commandsto

configure DHCPsnooping and its dependent features are unavailable when DHCP snooping is

disabled.

When you enable the DHCPsnooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the

DHCPsnooping binding database. Features dependent on the DHCP snooping binding database

can now make use of it and can therefore also be configured.

Enabling the DHCPsnooping feature does not globally enable it. You must separately enable

DHCPsnooping globally.

Disabling the DHCP snooping feature removes all DHCP snooping configuration from the switch. If

you want to disable DHCP snooping and preserve the configuration, globally disable DHCP

snooping but do not disable the DHCP snooping feature. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus3000/sw/security/503_u3_1/b_Cisco_n3k_Security_Config_503_u3_1/b_Cisco_n3k_security_cg_503_u2_2_chapter_01010.pdf(feature enablement)

QUESTION NO: 204 DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrustedhosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.) A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid responsemessages from DHCP servers B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports C. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information aboutuntrusted hosts with leased IP addresses D. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrustedhosts E. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding tableentry or static IP source entry

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

DHCP snooping acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers. DHCP

snooping performs the following activities:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/5_x/dcnm/security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x/Cisco_DCNM_Security_Configuration_Guide__Release_5-x_chapter13.html#con_1272686

QUESTION NO: 205 What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv? A. Send monitored traffic to a VLAN B. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2 C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interface D. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination

Answer: D

Explanation:

The destination probe is connected to Nexus 7000. We’d want monitored traffic originating from

Nexus 1000v, to be forwarded to the probe.

The destination 10.2.0.1 specified by ERSPAN session (on N1kv) has an ARP entry in vlan 3000.

There is also a corresponding static MAC address entry pointing to the port which the probe is

connected. As a result, the ERSPAN traffic destined for 10.2.0.1 will be forwarded to the probe.

interface Vlan2000

…

ip address 10.1.0.2/24

hsrp 2000

ip 10.1.0.1

interface Vlan3001

…

ip address 10.2.0.1/24

ip arp 10.2.0.88 00AA.BBCC.DD66

interface Ethernet2/2

switchport

switchport access vlan 3000

no shutdown

Cisco 350-080 Exam


mac address-table static 00AA.BBCC.DD66 vlan 3000 interface Ethernet2/2

Reference: http://www.seanxwang.com/2011/09/erspan-with-nexus-1000v-in-virtualized.html(Nexus 7000)

QUESTION NO: 206 Given the following configuration: port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINK vmware port-group switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093 channel-group auto mode on no shutdown state enabled port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINK vmware port-group switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12 channel-group auto mode on no shutdown state enabled VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve thisissue? A. Remove second NIC from each port profile B. Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsert C. Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlapping D. Reinstall VEM E. Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1"

Answer: C

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

UCS is only a layer 2 device with no concept of VDC (or even vrfs from a usable perspective) as

such VLAN 10 is VLAN 10 globally and should only be given to a single tenant, Tenants could of

course share a common VLAN and be seperated by a context based gateway like VSG which can

filter on much more than just IP’s for example all VMs prefixed by TenantAxxxxx cannot talk to any

VMs prefixed by TenantB

Reference: https://vmknowledge.wordpress.com/tag/1000v-communication-issues-between-vsm-and-vem/

QUESTION NO: 207 The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator doesnot see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter. The administrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot: VSM# show svs connections connection VC: ip address: 10.10.10.30 remote port: 80 protocol: vmware-vim https certificatE. default datacenter namE. DC1 DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99 config status: Disabled operational status: Disconnected sync status: - version: - When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen: VSM-PRI-188# conf

Cisco 350-080 Exam


VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use What is the cause of the error? A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configuration B. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configuration C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter D. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter E. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM

Answer: D

Explanation:

During the installation of VSM we should enable HTTP server. Why? Because we need to register

something called “Extension Key” as a vSphere plugin. This XML file based key contains, among

some unimportant things, a certificate required for encrypted communication between vCenter and

VSM. This XML file can be downloaded from HTTP site: https://VSM-Mgmt-Interface-IPAddress

Reference: https://popravak.wordpress.com/2012/12/11/vmware-vsphere-distributed-switch-cisco-nexus-1000v/

Cisco 350-080 Exam



An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given belowconfiguration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.) VSM# show svs domain SVS domain config: Domain iD. 111 Control vlan: 500 Packet vlan: 501 L2/L3 Control modE. L2 L3 control interfacE. NA Status: Config push to VC successful. A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2 B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2 C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2 D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1 E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1 F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: A,CReference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/command/reference/n1000v_cmd_ref/n1000v_cmds_show.pdf (page 167)

QUESTION NO: 209 When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified?(Choose four.) A. name B. best-effort C. burst D. rate E. host control

Answer: A,C,D,E

Explanation:

Name

Description

Name field

The name of the policy.

This name can be between 1 and 16 alphanumeric characters. You cannot use spaces or any

special characters other than - (hyphen), _ (underscore), : (colon), and . (period), and you cannot

change this name after the object has been saved.

Priority drop-down list

The priority assigned to this QoS definition. This can be one of the following:

`

Burst field

The normal burst size for servers which use this policy. This field determines how large traffic

bursts can be before some traffic is considered to exceed the rate limit. The default is 10240. The

minimum value is 0, and the maximum value is 65535.

This setting is not applicable to all adapters.

Rate field

The expected average rate of traffic. Traffic that falls under this rate will always conform. The

default is line-rate, which equals a value of 0 and specifies no rate limiting. The minimum value is

8, and the maximum value is 40,000,000.

The granularity for rate limiting on a Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card adapter is 1Mbps.

These adapters treat the requested rate as a "not-to-exceed" rate. Therefore, a value of 4.5Mbps

Cisco 350-080 Exam


is interpreted as 4Mbps. Any requested rate of more than 0 and less than 1Mbps is interpreted as

1Mbps, which is the lowest supported hardware rate limit.

Rate limiting is not applicable to all adapters. For example, this setting is not supported on the

Cisco UCS M82-8P Virtual Interface Card.

Host Control field

Whether Cisco UCS controls the class of service (CoS). This can be one of the following:

This setting is not applicable to all adapters.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_010011.html#task_9463F54D9EC0498FB977AD8D1A8D2096

QUESTION NO: 210 Which statement best describes the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series? A. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions,and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment. B. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions,and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment. C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, advanced networkingfunctions, and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment. D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching but does not provideadvanced networking functions or a common network management model in a virtualized serverenvironment.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions, and a

common network management model in a virtualized server environment by replacing the virtual

switch in VMware vSphere. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series manages a data center as defined in

VMware vCenter Server. Each server in the data center is represented as a line card in the Cisco

Nexus 1000V Series Switch and can be managed as if it were a line card in a physical Cisco

switch.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/guide_c07-556626.html#_Toc339600370

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 211 Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.) A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-groupconfiguration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these interfacesand an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group (for example,VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group and the same VLAN. B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you canuse the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM management VLANis really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, networkadministrators can designate a special VLAN for network device management. C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined asthe primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts. D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM defined as the primary

module and the other defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts. The two VSMs will

run as an active-standby pair similar to supervisors in a physical chassis, offering high-availability

switch management. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM is not in the data path, so even if both

VSMs are powered down, the VEM will not be affected and will continue to forward traffic.

Each VSM in an active-standby pair is required to run on a separate VMware ESX host. This

requirement helps ensure high availability even if one of the VMware ESX servers fails. You can

also use the anti-affinity option in VMware ESX to help keep the VSMs on different servers. This

option does not prevent the VSMs from ending up on the same server; anti-affinity prevents

VMware Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) from moving the virtual machines to new

machines. If the VSMs end up on the same host due to VMware High Availability, VMware DRS

will post a five-star recommendation to move one of the VSMs.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/guide_c07-556626.html (management vlan; VSM High-Availability Deployment)

QUESTION NO: 212 Which two methods can be used to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM on an ESXi host?(Choose two.) A. Installation using VMware Update Manager

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. Installation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a tar.gz file C. Installation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a .vib file D. Copying VEM executable files to ESXi host /bin E. Installation from the VSM using the vem install host command F. Installation from the VSM using FTP and the vem auto-install command

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Source

Description

VUM

If you are using VMware Update Manager (VUM), then VUM obtains the VEM software from the

VSM through the web server hosted on the VSM. Then VUM installs the VEM software either

during the VSM Add Host operation on the Cisco Nexus 1000V DVS, or after the VEM software is

updated on the VSM.1

Cisco VEM CD

Copy the file containing the VEM software from the Cisco Nexus 1000V CD to the host where you

installed the vCLI or to the ESX 4.0 host /tmp directory.

VSM

Copy the file containing the VEM software from the following url after the VSM has been installed

as a VM:

http://<VSM-IP-ADDR>/

VMware

Download the VEM software from the VMware web site.

Click Download Vmware vSphere 4 Enterprise Plus > Download

Cisco

Download the VEM software from the Cisco web site.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0/install/vem/guide/vem_install_n1000v.html

QUESTION NO: 213 Which two methods can be used in communications between the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM andthe VSM? (Choose two.) A. routed TCP traffic using HTTPS B. routed UDP traffic using port 4785

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. routed UDP traffic using port 7845 D. Layer 2 direct traffic using MAC addresses E. Layer 2 broadcast traffic F. routed TCP traffic using port 4785 G. routed TCP traffic using port 7845

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

The VSM utilizes three network interfaces that provide separate functions. They are the following:

Network Adapter 1 - control interface: This interface is used to communicate to and from the

VSM to VEM. The communication between the VSM and VEM is done through Layer 2 as the

default, which requires the VSM Control Interface and also that all of the VEMs are on the same

Layer 2 domain (same VLAN). Layer3 support is available as well.

Network Adapter 2 - management interface: This interface is used for administrative connectivity

to the VSM, which is the management 0 interface. Layer 3 support is available on this interface for

VSM to VEM communication and is the recommended interface to be used.

Network Adapter 3 - packet interface: This interface is used for the Cisco Nexus 1000V

protocols, such as Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) and multicast traffic. Communication on this

interface occurs only between VSM and VEM.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/guide_c07-704280.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a hostto the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join the VSM. Given theconfiguration in the exhibit, which three configuration items must be included in the configuration?(Choose three.) A. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability I3control. B. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VSM l3control. C. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to System VLAN 1400. D. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VLAN 1400 in the allowed trunk. E. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability l3control. F. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Mode Trunk. G. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VEM l3control.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

attachment suppress interface

Displays attachment suppress interfaces.

capability

Displays switch capabilities including the supported services and subservices.

notification interval

Displays the notification intervals of the supported services.

statistics

Displays the NMSP statistics information.

connection

Displays the message counters on each connection.

summary

Displays the global counters.

status

Displays information about the NMSP connections.

subscription

Displays the subscription information on each NMSP connection.

detail

Displays all services and subservices subscribed on each connection.

summary

Displays all services subscribed on each connection.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/5700/software/release/3e/interface/command_reference/b_int_3e_5700_cr/b_int_3e_5700_cr_chapter_010.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam



An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a hostto the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join the VSM. Given theconfiguration in the exhibit, which configuration needs to be included? A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1 B. vrf context control ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1 C. vrf context management ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.10.10.10.1 D. ip route vrf management 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1

Answer: A

Explanation:

You have to include ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1 to see the module join the VSM. This IP

route specifies the IP addresses needed for the module join with VSM Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Aug2014/CVD-VirtualizationWithCiscoUCSNexus1000VandVMwareDesignGuide-AUG14.pdf

QUESTION NO: 216 Where can port profiles be created for the Cisco Nexus 1000V? A. on the VSM only B. on vCenter only C. on VSM and vCenter D. on VSM and VEM E. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Before beginning this procedure, you must know or do the following:

•

You are logged in to the CLI in EXEC mode.

•

You know which users or groups should have access to the role you are creating.

•

You have already created the users and groups to be assigned to this role in vCenter and have

access to the Cisco Nexus 1000V DVS folder where the VSM resides. See the "Defining DVS

Access in vSphere Client" procedure.

•

You have enabled the port profile role feature using the "Enabling the Port Profile Role Feature"

procedure.

•

You have identified the characteristics needed for this role:

–

role name

–

role description

–

users to assign

–

groups to assign

–

port profile to assign

SUMMARY STEPS

1.

config t

2.

port-profile-role role-name

3.

(Optional) description role-description

4.

(Optional) show port profile role users

5.

(Optional) user user-name

(Optional) group group-name

6.

exit

7.

port-profile [type {ethernet | vethernet}] profile-name

8.

assign port-profile-role role-name

9.

(Optional) show port-profile-role [name role-name]

10.


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/port_profile/configuration/guide/n1000v_port_profile/n1000v_portprof_7role.html (Restricting Port Profile

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Visibility on the VSM)

QUESTION NO: 217 Where can port profiles be applied to a virtual machine? A. on the VSM only B. on vCenter only C. on VSM and vCenter D. on VSM and VEM E. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter

Answer: B

Explanation:

The port group is updated in vCenter Server and the user or group assigned to this role is granted

access. The user or group can assign the port group to a vNIC in a virtual machine or vSWIF or

vMKNIC on a host.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/port_profile/configuration/guide/n1000v_port_profile/n1000v_portprof_7role.html

QUESTION NO: 218 The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which twocomponents together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.) A. virtual supervisor module B. virtual Ethernet module C. virtual machine NICs D. virtual machine kernel NICs

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions, and a

common network management model in a virtualized server environment by replacing the virtual

switch in VMware vSphere. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series manages a data center as defined in

VMware vCenter Server. Each server in the data center is represented as a line card in the Cisco

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Nexus 1000V Series Switch and can be managed as if it were a line card in a physical Cisco

switch.

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components:

Virtual supervisor module (VSM)

Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)

These two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch, with the VSM

providing the management plane and the VEM providing the data plane

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/guide_c07-556626.html#_Toc339600370


A port profile is created in the VSM, but it is not seen in vCenter and cannot be assigned to avirtual machine. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VSM command will resolve thisissue? A. vmware port-group B. vmware port-active C. profile-active D. port-group active E. shutdown / no shutdown

Answer: A

Explanation:

State

Behavior

Disabled (the default)

When disabled, a port profile behaves as follows:

•

Its configuration is not applied to assigned ports.

•

Cisco 350-080 Exam


If exporting policies to a VMware port group, the port group is not created on the vCenter Server.

Enabled

When enabled, a port profile behaves as follows:

•

Its configuration is applied to assigned ports.

•

If configured with the VMware port-group attribute, the port group is created on the vCenter

Server.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/port_profile/configuration/guide/n1000v_port_profile/n1000v_portprof_2create.html

QUESTION NO: 220 Which two statements about dynamic port binding are true? (Choose two.) A. The port is connected when the VM is powered on and disconnected when the VM is poweredoff. B. The port is created when the VM is powered on and destroyed when the VM is powered off. C. The max-port limits are enforced. D. The max-port limits are not enforced. E. The port is always connected.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Port-binding dynamic (specifies dynamic port binding. the port is connected when the vm is

powered on and disconnected when the vm is powered off. max-port limits are enforced. the

default is static port binding.) Reference: http://pingforinfo.com/vmfex-nexus5k-part2/


Cisco 350-080 Exam


The network administrator is adding a new Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to vCenter, but does notsee the new switch under the vCenter networking tab. The administrator issues the command thatis shown in the exhibit on VSM to troubleshoot this problem. When the administrator attempts tofix the issue, the error that is shown in the exhibit is seen. Which option describes the most correctcause of this error? A. There is a missing control VLAN in the VSM configuration. B. There is a missing packet VLAN in the VSM configuration. C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter. D. The VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter. E. The vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The VSM uses the extension key when communicating with the vCenter Server. Each VSM has its

own unique extension key, such as Cisco_Nexus_1000V_32943215

Use the show vmware vc extension-key command to find the extension key of the VSM. It is also

listed in the .xml file.

The extension key registered on the vCenter Server can be found through the MOB.

The same extension key cannot be used to create more than one DVS on the vCenter Server.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0/troubleshooting/configuration/guide/n1000v_troubleshooting/trouble_17system.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 222 Which two items have an impact on the maximum number of virtual interfaces that can be createdon a virtual interface card? (Choose two.) A. number of blades in the chassis B. number of acknowledged links between the Fabric Interconnect and the I/O module C. number of connected uplinks D. number of Fabric Interconnect port ASICs used by uplinks E. number of Fabric Interconnects F. number of VIC

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

When you configure Set Startup Version Only for an I/O module, the I/O module is rebooted when

the fabric interconnect in its data path is rebooted. If you do not configure Set Startup Version Only

for an I/O module, the I/O module reboots and disrupts traffic. In addition, if Cisco UCS Manager

detects a protocol and firmware version mismatch between the fabric interconnect and the I/O

module, Cisco UCS Manager automatically updates the I/O module with the firmware version that

matches the firmware in the fabric interconnect and then activates the firmware and reboots the

I/O module again. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-mgmt/gui/2-1/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21_chapter_0110.html (seethe caution under Activate)

QUESTION NO: 223 Which of the following is an advanced networking function performed by VEM? A. QOS. B. Snooping. C. VSAN creation. D. VLAN pruning.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VEM runs as part of the VMware ESX or ESXi kernel

and replaces the VMware virtual switch (vSwitch). This level of integration helps ensure

that the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is fully aware of all server virtualization events,

Cisco 350-080 Exam


such as VMware vMotion and Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS). The VEM takes

configuration information from the VSM and provides advanced networking functions:

quality of service (QoS), security features, and monitoring features.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/at_a_glance_c45-492852.pdf (see Virtual Ethernet Module)


Which three statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose three.) A. The differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not runSpanning Tree Protocol. This characteristic may seem to be a significant departure from otherEthernet switches, which might potentially cause catastrophic network loops. However, in reality,the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implements a simple and effective loop-prevention strategy thatdoes not require Spanning Tree Protocol. B. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol, it doesnot respond to BPDU packets, nor does it generate them. BPDU packets that are received byCisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped. C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a physicalEthernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and destination MACaddress lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to everyincoming packet on Ethernet interfaces. D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like any logicalEthernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and destination MACaddress lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every

Cisco 350-080 Exam


incoming packet on Ethernet interfaces. E. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series participates in Spanning Tree Protocol, it responds toBPDU packets, and it generate them. BPDU packets that are received by Cisco Nexus 1000VSeries Switches are dropped.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

Another differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not run

Spanning Tree Protocol. Although this may seem to be a significant departure from other Ethernet

switches, potentially causing catastrophic network loops, in reality the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series

implements a simple and effective loop-prevention strategy that does not require Spanning Tree

Protocol.

Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol, it does

not respond to Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) packets, nor does it generate them. BPDU

packets that are received by Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.

The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a physical Ethernet

switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and destination MAC address

lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every incoming

packet on Ethernet interfaces. This logic is used to identify potential loops. Every ingress packet

on a physical Ethernet interface is inspected to help ensure that the destination MAC address is

internal to the VEM. If the source MAC address is internal to the VEM, the Cisco Nexus 1000V

Series Switch will drop the packet. If the destination MAC address is external, the switch will drop

the packet, preventing a loop back to the physical network.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/guide_c07-556626.html (loop prevention)

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Topic 5, Cisco Unified Computing System

QUESTION NO: 225 What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.) A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switches B. Faster throughput C. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environment D. Support for increased number of VSANs E. Support for SAN port channels

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

N Port virtualization (NPV) reduces the number of Fibre Channel domain IDs in SANs. Switches

operating in the NPV mode do not join a fabric; rather, they pass traffic between NPV core switch

links and end devices, which eliminates the domain IDs for these edge switches.

Reference: https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/30791/understanding-and-deploying-ucs-b-series-storage-area-networking

QUESTION NO: 226 Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches? A. admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operator B. admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operator C. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator D. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and network-admin and network-operator (for other Nexus switches) E. admin and read-only

Answer: A

Explanation:


Each user role can contain multiple rules and each user can have multiple roles. For example, if

role1 allows access only to configuration operations, and role2 allows access only to debug

operations, then users who belong to both role1 and role2 can access configuration and debug

Cisco 350-080 Exam


operations. You can also limit access to specific VSANs, VLANs and interfaces.

The Nexus 5000 Series switch provides the following default user roles:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/system_management/521_n1_1/b_5k_System_Mgmt_Config_521N11/b_5k_System_Mgmt_Config_521N11_chapter_0111.html#con_1230629

QUESTION NO: 227 Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress bufferallocated to each QoS group? A. show interface priority-flow-control B. show interface queuing C. show queuing interface D. show policy-map system type queuing E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing

Answer: C

Explanation:

The show queuing interface command displays the configured qos-group and the ingress buffer

allocated for each qos-group. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/qos/513_n2_1/b_Cisco_Nexus_5000_QoS_Config_Guide_513_N2_1/b_Cisco_Nexus_5000_QoS_Config_Guide_513_N2_1_chapter_01000.html#concept_A61D36F0CE354D3DBF8020E9FBD0E2BA (buffering andqueue limits on the cisco nexus 5000 platform)

QUESTION NO: 228 Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choosethree.) A. use summary view in the device manager B. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list C. for each port channel, select Monitor Continually D. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON

Cisco 350-080 Exam


E. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client forperformance collections

Answer: A,B,E

Explanation:

Device Manager provides two views: Device View and Summary View. Use Summary View to

monitor interfaces on the switch. Use Device View to perform switch-level configurations including

the following configurations:

DCNM-SAN Web Client

With DCNM-SAN Web Client you can monitor Cisco MDS switch events, performance, and

inventory from a remote location using a web browser.

Performance Manager

The primary purpose of DCNM-SAN is to manage the network. A key management capability is

network performance monitoring. Performance Manager gathers network device statistics

historically and provides this information graphically using a web browser. Performance Manager

presents recent statistics in detail and older statistics in summary. Performance Manager also

integrates with external tools such as Cisco Traffic Analyzer.

Performance Manager has three operational stages:

Performance Manager can collect statistics for ISLs, hosts, storage elements, and configured

flows. Flows are defined based on a host-to-storage (or storage-to-host) link. Performance

Manager gathers statistics from across the fabric based on collection configuration files. These

files determine which SAN elements and SAN links Performance Manager gathers statistics for.

Based on this configuration, Performance Manager communicates with the appropriate devices

(switches, hosts, or storage elements) and collects the appropriate information at fixed five-minute

intervals. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/fund/DCNM-SAN-LAN_5_2/DCNM_Fundamentals/fmfundov.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 229 Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs? A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported. B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow. C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB. D. The memory bus would be too long. E. The blade would run too hot.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cisco UCS B250 doesn’t support 16 GB DIMMs because the largest DIMM an Intel CPU can

support is 32 GB. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/blade-servers/install/B250.html

QUESTION NO: 230 On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at? A. 800 MHz B. 900 MHz C. 1066 MHz D. 1333 MHz E. 1666 MHz

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-5100-series-blade-server-chassis/b250m2_specsheet.pdf

QUESTION NO: 231 Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.) A. B200 B. C210 C. B250 D. C260 E. C460

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Cisco® Extended Memory Technology is available on the Cisco UCS B250 M1 and UCS B250 M2

Extended Memory Blade Servers and the Cisco UCS C250 M1 and UCS 250 M2 Extended

Memory Rack-Mount Servers. The technology maps four physically distinct DIMMs to a single

logical DIMM as seen on the processor’s memory channel (Figure 1). This mapping supports

extended memory servers with 48 DIMM slots in which traditional servers and blade systems

using the same processors can have only up to 12 slots at full performance, or 18 slots at reduced

Cisco 350-080 Exam


performance.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-5100-series-blade-server-chassis/at_a_glance_c45-555038.pdf

QUESTION NO: 232 Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.) A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation. B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices. C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package. D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches. E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

N port virtualization (NPV) reduces the number of Fibre Channel domain IDs in SANs. Switches

operating in the NPV mode do not join a fabric. They pass traffic between NPV core switch links

and end devices, which eliminates the domain IDs for these edge switches.

NPV is supported by the following Cisco MDS 9000 switches and Cisco Nexus 5000 Series

switches only:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides/int/fm/fm_interfaces/npv.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 233 On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 12

Answer: A

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/blade-servers/install/B250.html (See figure 14)

QUESTION NO: 234 Which statement about NPIV is true? A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port. B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis. C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches. E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.

Answer: A

Explanation:

N port identifier virtualization (NPIV) provides a means to assign multiple FC IDs to a single N port.

This feature allows multiple applications on the N port to use different identifiers and allows access

control, zoning, and port security to be implemented at the application level.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/nx-os/configuration/guides/int/int_cli_4_2_published/cli_interfaces/npv.html (About N Port Identifiervirtualization)

QUESTION NO: 235 When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCSWWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges? A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF B. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF C. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF D. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

Answer: B

Explanation:

A WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs in the ranges from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to

20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF or from 50:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 5F:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. All other

WWN ranges are reserved. To ensure the uniqueness of the Cisco UCS WWNNs and WWPNs in

Cisco 350-080 Exam


the SAN fabric, we recommend that you use the following WWN prefix for all blocks in a pool:

20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-manager/whitepaper_c11-697337.html

QUESTION NO: 236 Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which twostatements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.) A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint. B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling. C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains. D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain. E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

Power capping is one of the main differentiators of the Cisco Unified Computing System. This

feature provides increasing benefits as each individual Cisco UCS instance scales. Power capping

is the capability to limit the power consumption of a system, be it a blade server or a rack server,

to some threshold that is less than or equal to the system's maximum rated power.

For example, if the maximum power rating of a blade server is 340 watts (W), but the power

available to the chassis is only 3334W AC, which is sufficient to supply an average of 300W per

blade, plus the chassis, in the Cisco UCS chassis, each blade can be capped at a maximum of

300W per blade to avoid exceeding the capacity of the power supply. This type of capping is

known as static power capping. Although it helps ensure that the chassis will never draw more

power than allowed, it does not take into account that the various blades may have varying loads,

and at any given time one blade may not be using its full allotment of power while another may

require more.

Another type of capping, dynamic power capping, allows the power management system to

allocate the total pool of power across multiple blades in a chassis. With dynamic power capping,

the system as a whole can conform to a specific power budget, but power can be steered to the

blades that have higher load and require additional power.

To date, dynamic power capping offerings on the market have been limited to a single blade

chassis or chassis as their managed power domain, as discussed previously. The following

sections describe how Cisco has extended dynamic power capping across multiple blade chassis

and implemented it in a fashion that is more useful to operations management than the other,

traditional alternatives.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/white_paper_c11-627731.html

QUESTION NO: 237 Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upondisassociation? (Choose two.) A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased. B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed. C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved. D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storageconfiguration. E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storageconfiguration.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

This policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during the

discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile. Depending upon

how you configure a scrub policy, the following can occur at those times:

Disk Scrub

One of the following occurs to the data on any local drives on disassociation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_011100.html (scrub policy)

QUESTION NO: 238 In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS bladesystem (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades), what type ofbackup would provide the most complete set of information? A. logical configuration B. all configuration

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C. full state D. system configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:

You can perform one or more of the following types of backups through Cisco UCS Manager:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter43.html

QUESTION NO: 239 Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server duringthe discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile? A. boot policy and BIOS policy B. disk scrub and boot policy C. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policy D. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub

Answer: D

Explanation:

This policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during the

discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile. Depending upon

how you configure a scrub policy, the following can occur at those times:

Disk Scrub

One of the following occurs to the data on any local drives on disassociation:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_chapter25.html#concept_140F6E7B34CB4E999E444134BB160DA4

QUESTION NO: 240 Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplink UCS-A /fc-uplink # set mode end-host UCS-A /fc-uplink* # commit-buffer B. UCS-A# scope eth-uplink UCS-A /eth-uplink # set mode end-host WarninG. When committed, this change will cause the switch to reboot UCS-A /eth-uplink* # commit-buffer C. UCS-A# scope fabric-interconnect a UCS-A /fabric-interconnect # set mode end-host UCS-A /fabric-interconnect* # commit-buffer D. UCS-A# scope system UCS-A /system* # set mode end-host UCS-A /system* # commit-buffer

Answer: A

Explanation:

When you change the Fibre Channel switching mode, Cisco UCS Manager logs you out and

restarts the fabric interconnect. For a cluster configuration, Cisco UCS Manager restarts both

fabric interconnects sequentially. The second fabric interconnect can take several minutes to

complete the change in Fibre Channel switching mode and become system ready.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0101.pdf (page 16)

QUESTION NO: 241 Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.) A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA. B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS environmentsend and receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send buffer for a port fills. C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used. D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort, FibreChannel. E. When configuring a system class, the type of adapter in a server may limit the maximum MTUsupported.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

QoS policies assign a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA. You must include a

QoS policy in a vNIC policy or vHBA policy and then include that policy in a service profile to

Cisco 350-080 Exam


configure the vNIC or vHBA.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-2104xp-fabric-extender/110509-ucs-qos-00.html (QoS policies)

QUESTION NO: 242 Where is Cisco UCS vNICs created? A. In the blade BIOS B. In the operating system C. In the service profile D. In the card option ROM

Answer: C

Explanation:

vNIC Template

This policy defines how a vNIC on a server connects to the LAN. This policy is also referred to as

a vNIC LAN connectivity policy.

Beginning in Cisco UCS, Release 2.0(2), Cisco UCS Manager does not automatically create a

VM-FEX port profile with the correct settings when you create a vNIC template. If you want to

create a VM-FEX port profile, you must configure the target of the vNIC template as a VM.

You need to include this policy in a service profile for it to take effect.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_010100.html#task_CB5D8CD4F23C47039343E2B338A17E7E

QUESTION NO: 243 Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment aretrue? (Choose two.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode. B. In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed. C. Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host mode isnondisruptive. D. End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

End-host mode allows the fabric interconnect to act as an end host to the network, representing all

server (hosts) connected to it through vNICs. This is achieved by pinning (either dynamically

pinned or hard pinned) vNICs to uplink ports, which provides redundancy toward the network, and

makes the uplink ports appear as server ports to the rest of the fabric. When in end-host mode,

the fabric interconnect does not run the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) and avoids loops by

denying uplink ports from forwarding traffic to each other, and by denying egress server traffic on

more than one uplink port at a time. End-host mode is the default Ethernet switching mode and

should be used if either of the following are used upstream:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100.html (End-host mode)

QUESTION NO: 244 What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System? A. Fibre Channel storage B. UCS C-Series servers C. NFS storage D. UCS chassis E. Other fabric interconnect

Answer: C

Explanation:

Traditional appliance ports for UCS Release 2.1(1a) and earlier can only pass Ethernet-based

traffic, such as Network File System (NFS) and Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI).

Unified Storage ports introduced in UCS Manager Release 2.1(1a) can pass both Fibre Channel

over Ethernet (FCoE) and Ethernet traffic over the same link. In order to use this feature, the

storage controller must have a converged network adapter (CNA) capable of FCoE and traditional

Ethernet on the same port.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-5100-series-blade-server-chassis/116075-ucs-app-connectivity-tshoot-00.html

QUESTION NO: 245 Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs. B. The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number ofchassis uplinks. C. vNICs are created using software on the host operating system. D. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device. E. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC. F. The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

While this ASIC is capable of PCIe single-root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV), that functionality is not

in play on these servers, as shown in Figure 9. The key to Cisco interface virtualization

technology, as it has been since the first generation, is that the vNIC and sNIC are represented as

PCIe physical functions (devices), not virtual functions (devices) created on the PCIe tree for the

individual server. This allows the OS to see each vNIC as a uniquely configurable and

manageable Ethernet interface and each storage controller as a specific device capable of

communicating with mapped virtual drives within the infrastructure. In contrast, SR-IOV devices

are virtual functions (devices) within a physical function (device). A virtual function is not a full-

featured resource, as it relies on the physical function for all configuration resources. An SR-IOV

device also requires software support in the OS. Within Cisco virtualization technologies, the sNIC

and vNIC are presented to the OS as fully configurable physical functions that require no SR-IOV

support.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0-2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter1.html

QUESTION NO: 246 In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host mode

Cisco 350-080 Exam


used for? A. Sending all broadcasts B. Receiving all traffic from upstream switches C. Receiving broadcast traffic D. Negotiating spanning tree with upstream switches E. Learning MAC addres?ses from upstream switch?es

Answer: C

Explanation:

UCS uses the concept of a “designated receiver” (DR) port that is the single port (or port channel)

chosen by UCSM to receive all multicast and broadcast traffic for all VLANs defined on the Fabric

Interconnect (FI). To make this clear, UCS receives all multicast/broadcast traffic on this port only

and drops broadcast/multicast traffic received on all other ports. Unless you have DJL2, this

method works really well. If you do have DJL2, this would lead to a problem if you defined the

above VLAN configuration and plugged it into pre-2.0 UCS (in EHM). In this situation, UCS would

choose a designated receiver port for ALL VLANs (10-60) and assign it to one of the available

uplinks. Let’s say the system chose port 1 (VLANs 10, 20, and 30) for the DR. In that situation,

those networks (10, 20, 30) would work correctly, but VLANs 40, 50, and 60 (plugged into port 2)

would not receive any broadcast and multicast traffic at all. The FI will learn the MAC addresses of

the destinations on port 2 for 40, 50 and 60, but necessary protocols like ARP, PXE, DHCP (just to

name a few) would be broken for these networks. In case you’re wondering, pin groups do not

solve this problem so don’t waste your time. Instead, you need UCS 2.0+ and DJL2 which allows

specific VLANs to be pinned to specific uplink ports. In addition, you now have a DR port for each

defined VLAN as opposed to globally for the each FI.

Reference: http://jeffsaidso.com/2013/04/enm-source-pinning-failed-a-lesson-in-disjoint-layer-2/

QUESTION NO: 247 Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode? A. Server B. End device C. Node D. Host E. Virtual

Answer: A

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


In end-host mode, Cisco UCS presents an end host to an external Ethernet network. The external

LAN sees the Cisco UCS fabric interconnect as an end host with multiple adapters.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html (Ethernet End-host mode)

QUESTION NO: 248 Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode? A. Trunk B. Physical C. Uplink D. Switch E. End host

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 249 Where SAN Port Channel is created in UCS Manager? A. Under the Admin tab on the FI

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. Under the Server tab in the service profile C. Under the SAN tab on each VSAN D. Under the Admin tab on the chassis E. Under the SAN tab on the Fabric Interconnect

Answer: E

Explanation:

Step 1 - In the Navigation pane, click the SAN tab.

Step 2 - On the SAN tab, expand SAN > SAN Cloud.

Step 3 - Expand the node for the fabric where you want to create the port channel.

Step 4 - Right-click the FC Port Channels node and choose Create Port Channel.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101.html#task_69825D37D6794EB2AD5F5165375DBA3D

QUESTION NO: 250 In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to? A. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches B. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV mode C. To any Fibre Channel switch D. Directly to storage arrays E. Only to Nexus Switches

Answer: A

Explanation:

Before configuring a SAN port channel, consider the following guidelines:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION NO: 251 When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. During the initial configuration from the console B. Once the basic configuration has been applied C. To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnect D. To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect

Answer: B

Explanation:

The import function is available for all configuration, system configuration, and logical configuration

files. You can perform an import while the system is up and running. An import operation modifies

information on the management plane only. Some modifications caused by an import operation,

such as a change to a vNIC assigned to a server, can cause a server reboot or other operations

that disrupt traffic.

You cannot schedule an import operation. You can, however, create an import operation in

advance and leave the admin state disabled until you are ready to run the import. Cisco UCS

Manager will not run the import operation on the configuration file until you set the admin state to

enabled.

You can maintain only one import operation for each location where you saved a configuration

backup file.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter43.html#concept_D789E16C90724AEFB99D565574E45AD5

QUESTION NO: 252 Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS? A. They are created automatically and stored on the FI B. They are created manually and exported to a remote server C. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hours D. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI

Answer: BReference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter43.html#task_D97990B1ED0F4BCB8469D5A671774B5D

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 253 What is the use of an "all configurations" backup in Cisco UCS? A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles B. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created C. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and clusterinformation D. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration

Answer: A

Explanation:

In Cisco UCS, you can use all configurations backup to migrate from cisco 6120 to Cisco 6140

while retaining the same service profiles.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/upgrading/from2-0/to2-0MR/b_UpgradingCiscoUCSFrom2-0To2-0MR/b_UpgradingCiscoUCSFrom1-4To2-0_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION NO: 254 Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System? A. An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details B. A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initialconfiguration C. A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details D. An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initialconfiguration E. A text file with the NX-OS running configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:

You can perform one or more of the following types of backups through Cisco UCS Manager:

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter43.html (backup types)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 255 An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature enabled.Which statement is true? A. A unique vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B B. A vEthernet interface will be created only on Fabric A C. A vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A, and move across to Fabric B in the event offailure D. Fabric B will learn the vEthernet interface from Fabric A through a GARP E. The same vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B

Answer: A

Explanation:

Network Control Policy

This policy configures the network control settings for the Cisco UCS domain, including the

following: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_010100.html

QUESTION NO: 256 An administrator is creating a service profile but receives an error when applying to a blade. Theadministrator checks the faults tab of the service profile and finds the following error (Refer to theexhibit).

What is the cause of this error? A. vNIC has a Fibre Channel QoS policy assigned B. vHBA is assigned to a "best-effort" QoS policy C. vHBA has no QoS policy assigned D. vHBA is assigned to an incorrect VSAN E. vNIC has been assigned to an FCoE VLAN

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: B

Explanation:

System Class

Description

Platinum

Gold

Silver

Bronze

A configurable set of system classes that you can include in the QoS policy for a service profile.

Each system class manages one lane of traffic.

All properties of these system classes are available for you to assign custom settings and policies.

Best Effort

A system class that sets the quality of service for the lane reserved for basic Ethernet traffic.


has a drop policy that allows it to drop data packets if required. You cannot disable this system

class.

Fibre Channel

A system class that sets the quality of service for the lane reserved for Fibre Channel over

Ethernet traffic.


has a no-drop policy that ensures it never drops data packets. You cannot disable this system

class.

Note

FCoE traffic has a reserved QoS system class that should not be used by any other type of traffic.

If any other type of traffic has a CoS value that is used by FCoE, the value is remarked to 0.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_010100.html#task_73D1704DAF1245038067362AA264E08C (see table 1)

QUESTION NO: 257 What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager? "ether VIF x / xxx down, reason: ENM source pinning failed" A. The associated VLANs of a vNIC are not found on an uplink.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


B. Overlapping VLAN IDs exist on upstream disjoint networks. C. The vNIC was not configured for fabric failover. D. The vNIC is pinned to the wrong fabric. E. Overlapping VSAN IDs exist on upstream SAN switches. F. The vHBA was not configured for failover.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The most probable reason for VIF down ENM source pinning failed is that the associated VLANs

of a vNIC are not found on the uplink.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/faults/reference/ErrMess/UCS_SEMs.html#wp1297477

QUESTION NO: 258 Which three statements are possible causes for the "fltAdaptorHostIfLink-down" fault in UCSManager? (Choose three.) A. The fabric interconnect is in the end-host mode, and all uplink ports have failed. B. The server port to which the adapter is pinned has failed. C. A transient error has caused the link to fail. D. The fabric interconnect is in the switch mode, and all uplink ports have failed. E. The link for a network-facing host interface is missing.

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

Message

Adapter [transport] host interface [id]/[id]/[id] link state: [linkState]Adapter [transport] host interface

[chassisId]/[slotId]/[id]/[id] link state: [linkState]

Explanation

This fault typically occurs as a result of one of the following issues:

•

The fabric interconnect is in the End-Host mode, and all uplink ports failed.

•

The server port to which the adapter is pinned failed.

•

A transient error that caused the link to fail.

Reference:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/faults/reference/ErrMess/UCS_SEMs.html#wp1297477

QUESTION NO: 259 On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer aretrue? (Choose two.) A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3 D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Ethanalyzer terminology, internal ethernet interfaces are used:

eth3 = inbound-lo

eth4 = inbound-hi

eth3 handles Rx and Tx of low priority control pkts

IGMP, CDP

TCP/UDP/IP/ARP (for management purpose only)

eth4 handles Rx and Tx of high priority control pkts

FC (FC packets come to Switch CPU as FCoE packets) and FCoE

STP (spanning-tree) , LACP, DCBX (Data Center Bridging)

Reference: http://stor.balios.net/Live2011/BRKCOM-3001_mfrase_Rev_3_Final.pdf (slide 31)

QUESTION NO: 260 Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.) A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after aserver interface failover. B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover. C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs. D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile. E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide

Cisco 350-080 Exam


redundancy on uplink ports.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

When Fabric Failover is enabled, the implicit MAC address of the adapter is synchronized with the

second fabric switch in preparation for a failure. This capability has been present since UCS

Manager version 1.0. Below is an example of a Windows or Linux OS loaded on the bare metal

server with Fabric Failover enabled. The OS has a simple redundant connection to the network

with a single adapter and no requirement for a NIC Teaming configuration.

After the dynamic re-pinning process, the Fabric Interconnect will send Gratuitous ARP messages

for all of the MAC address that were previously using the failed uplink. This GARP process aids

the upstream network in quickly learning the new location of the affected MAC address now using

the new uplink.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/release/notes/OL_24086.pdf


Cisco 350-080 Exam


If uplink 1 fails, to which addresses will Fabric Interconnect B transmit a GARP on Uplink 2? A. AA and BB only B. C1 and C2 only C. A1, B1, AA, and BB D. AA, BB, C1, and C2 E. No GARPs will be transmitted

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Fabric Interconnect B transmit a Garp through MAC AA, MAC BB, MAC C1 and MAC C2 on

Uplink 2.

Reference: http://www.slideshare.net/ciscolatinoamerica/cisco-unified-computing-and-virtualization-architecture-design-and-deployment-recommendation

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 262 A Cisco UCS fabric interconnects in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port types?(Choose four.) A. Uplink Ethernet ports or border ports B. Appliance ports C. Server ports D. Fabric ports E. Backplane ports F. vEth interfaces G. A Fabric Interconnect doesn't learn MAC addresses in End Host mode. Pinning is used instead.

Answer: B,C,E,F

Explanation:

End-host mode offers these main features:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unified-computing/white_paper_c11-692008.html

QUESTION NO: 263 Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric InterconnectA Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anything outside of the Cisco UCS domain.However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric failover, then vNIC 1 can useany uplink port on Fabric Interconnect B. Which statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode. B. A pin group must be configured on the server tab in Cisco UCS Manager. C. In the service profile for Server 1, vNIC 1 must be explicitly assigned to a pin group. D. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server can only be manually pinnedto a single physical interface and not a port channel because of the LACP load-balancingalgorithm. E. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server is either manually pinned toan uplink on both fabric interconnects or the server is automatically pinned, but not both.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


This type of service profile provides the maximum amount of flexibility and control. This profile

allows you to override the identity values that are on the server at the time of association and use

the resource pools and policies set up in Cisco UCS Manager to automate some administration

tasks. You can disassociate this service profile from one server and then associate it with another

server. This re-association can be done either manually or through an automated server pool

policy. The burned-in settings, such as UUID and MAC address, on the new server are overwritten

with the configuration in the service profile. As a result, the change in server is transparent to your

network. You do not need to reconfigure any component or application on your network to begin

using the new server.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-4/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_4/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_4_chapter_011100.pdf


All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host mode.Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4. Which statements are true? (Choose two.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports toFabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B. B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects fromreceiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame. C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame. D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no broadcasts onany other VLAN. E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcastframe. F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies ofthe broadcast frame.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

When the Cisco UCS fabric interconnect is in end-host mode, it assumes that all uplinks are

connected to the same, common Layer 2 domain. The fabric interconnects will each randomly

choose a designated single uplink to receive all broadcast frames entering the system. As a result,

a portion of the broadcast messages will be lost because broadcasts received on all other uplinks

will be ignored and dropped.

If the fabric interconnect in end-host mode is connected to multiple isolated networks. it will not be

able to process all broadcast messages from each isolated network because it does not receive

broadcasts coming in on other links. It will process broadcasts from the network containing the

chosen uplink only (shown in blue in Figure 16).

From the example in Figure 16, fabric interconnect 6100-A chose an uplink connected to DMZ 1

as the broadcast link, but 6100-A is not receiving any broadcast messages from DMZ 2, and

therefore DMZ 2 server vNICs connected to 6100-A will not be able to see any important

broadcast messages from DMZ 2, such as ARP requests.


QUESTION NO: 265 What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager?(Choose three.) A. Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXes B. Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXes C. Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnects

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D. Two RJ45 Ethernet cables E. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

The following table describes maximum configurable vNICs/vHBAs on a VIC adapter based on the

number of FEX uplinks:

Table 2 Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect

Acknowledged link between FEX and FI

Maximum configurable vNICs/vHBA on a VIC adapter for the VIC adapter 1225, 1225T, 1227,

1227T

Maximum configurable vNICs/vHBA on a VIC adapter for the adapter VIC P81E

1

Not supported

Not supported

2

3

4

4

9

10

8

21

22

Table 3 Cisco UCS 6200 Fabric Interconnect

Acknowledged link between FEX and FI

Maximum configurable vNICs/vHBA on a VIC adapter for the VIC adapter 1225, 1225T, 1227,

1227T

Maximum configurable vNICs/vHBA on a VIC adapter for the VIC adapter P81E

1

12

13

2

27

28

4

57

58

8

117

118

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2-1/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration_chapter_01.html#concept_44C01272692745C8B0056AF8CE587699


Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the configurationin the provided exhibit. Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.) A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnects B. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric Extender C. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric Extenders D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card E. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280

Cisco 350-080 Exam


F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander

Answer: A,E,F

Explanation:

The Cisco UCS 6248UP 48-Port Fabric Interconnect is a core part of the Cisco Unified Computing

System. Typically deployed in redundant pairs, the Cisco UCS 6248UP Fabric Interconnects

provide uniform access to both networks and storage.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/servers-unified-computing/ucs-6248up-48-port-fabric-interconnect/index.html


According to the equipment tab in Cisco UCS Manager, which is true?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a server port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCEinterface, and F is a vNIC B. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCEinterface, and F is a vNIC C. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a backplane port, D is a server port, E is a DCEinterface, and F is a vNIC D. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a DCE interface, E is a backplaneport, and F is a vNIC E. A is an fabric port, B is a downlink port, C is an uplink port, D is a server port, E is a VICinterface, and F is a vNIC

Answer: B

Explanation:

A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE

interface, and F is a vNIC.


The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices that notraffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C). Which actions might be used to change this behavior? A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the portchannel IDs do not match. B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always

Cisco 350-080 Exam


be the root bridge. C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the rootbridge. D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are ahigher priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D). E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected.

Answer: C

Explanation:

To change the behavior, modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will

always be the root bridge Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab09/clb09.pdf


Cisco 350-080 Exam


On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this Cisco UCS domain? A. VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports. B. A, D, E, and F. Ports B and C are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect. C. A, E, and F. Ports B, C, and D are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect. D. A and F only. No other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually. E. A only. VLANs are configured on uplinks and are automatically available on any other port withno configuration necessary. F. F only. VLANs are only modified in the service profile.

Answer: D

Explanation:

VLANs can be configured or modified within this cisco UCS domain through A and F only. No

other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_010001.html

QUESTION NO: 270 From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for itsnetwork connectivity? A. UCS-A# show pinning border-interfaces B. UCS-B# show service-profile circuit C. UCS-B(nxos)# show pinning server-interfaces D. You must statically configure which uplink the blades should use, or you will not haveconnectivity.

Answer: C

Explanation:

UCS-A(nxos)# show pinning border-interfaces

UCS-A(nxos)# show pinning server-interfaces

UCS-A(nxos)# show port-channel summary

UCS-A(nxos)# show interface port-channel 1

counters

UCS-A(nxos)# show hardware internal gatos port

eth 1/19

UCS-A(nxos)# show spanning-tree vlan <vlanid>

Reference: http://stor.balios.net/Live2011/BRKCOM-

Cisco 350-080 Exam


3001__Troubleshooting_the_Cisco_Unified_Computing_System.pdf (slide 50)


Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 273 How many concurrent GUI logins are possible per user account on Cisco UCS Manager?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. 128 B. 96 C. 64 D. 32

Answer: D

Explanation:

Feature

Cisco UCS 6100 Series

Cisco UCS 6200 Series

Chassis per Cisco UCS domain

20

20

Maximum combined number of blade and rack servers per Cisco UCS domain

160

160

Maximum number of 2232PP Fabric Extenders per Cisco UCS domain

20 (10 per fabric interconnect)

20 (10 per fabric interconnect)

Local user accounts per Cisco UCS domain

48

48

Concurrent logins per user account

64

This total includes a maximum of 32 concurrent GUI logins and 32 concurrent CLI logins per user

account.

This value is the same for both local and remote user accounts.

64

This total includes a maximum of 32 concurrent GUI logins and 32 concurrent CLI logins per user

account.

This value is the same for both local and remote user accounts.

Active KVM sessions per individual CIMC

4

4

Concurrent CLI logins per Cisco UCS Manager

32

32

Concurrent GUI logins per Cisco UCS Manager

256

256

Number of LDAP groups per Cisco UCS Manager

Cisco 350-080 Exam


28

28

Number of adapter end points per Cisco UCS Manager

160

240

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/configuration_limits/2-0/b_UCS_Configuration_Limits_2_0.html (see the table under General Management configurationlimits)


While attempting to modify a management firmware package, you receive the error that is shownin the exhibit. Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.) A. The management firmware package that is referenced by the service profile has been deleted. B. The Cisco UCS Manager version is 2.1 or later. C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller firmware should be managed via the host firmwarepolicy. D. You cannot modify the management firmware directly when a policy has been assigned. E. The user that is logged into Cisco UCS Manager does not have sufficient privileges.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Cisco UCS uses firmware obtained from and certified by Cisco to support the endpoints in a Cisco

UCS domain. Each endpoint is a component in the Cisco UCS domain that requires firmware to

function. The upgrade order for the endpoints in a Cisco UCS domain depends upon the upgrade

path, but includes the following:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-mgmt/gui/2-1/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21_chapter_01.html


Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 277 How many virtual interfaces do the Cisco UCS 1280, 1240, and 1225 Virtual Interface Cardssupport? A. 128 B. 64 C. 256 D. 1024 E. 100

Answer: C

Explanation:

Models

Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280



Maximum Interfaces (vNIC or vHBA)

256

256

256

Interface Type

Dynamic

Dynamic

Dynamic

VM-FEX

Hardware

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Hardware

Hardware

Failover Handling

Hardware, no driver needed



Form Factor

Mezzanine

Modular LOM

PCIExpress(half height)

Network Thoughput

80 GB

40-80* GB

20 GB

UCS Server Compatibility

UCS M2 (B200, B230, B440) and M3 Blades

UCS M3 Blades

UCS M2 (C260, C240) and M3 Rack Servers

* With use of Port Expander Card for the VIC 1240 in the optional mezzanine slot

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/interfaces-modules/unified-computing-system-adapters/models-comparison.html

QUESTION NO: 278 When you connect two Cisco devices through 802.1Q trunks, the devices exchange spanning treeBPDUs on each VLAN that is allowed on the trunks. Which two statements are correct about theBPDUs that are sent on the native VLAN of the trunk? (Choose two.) A. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00). B. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1q spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00). C. BPDUs are sent to the reserved SSTP multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd). D. BPDUs are tagged with the VLAN number when they are sent. E. BPDUs are untagged when they are sent.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:

The following configuration guidelines and restrictions apply when using 802.1Q trunks and

Cisco 350-080 Exam


impose some limitations on the trunking strategy for a network. Consider these restrictions when

using 802.1Q trunks:

•

A port can be either a Layer 2 or a Layer 3 interface; it cannot be both simultaneously.

•

When you change a Layer 3 port to a Layer 2 port or a Layer 2 port to a Layer 3 port, all layer-

dependent configuration is lost. When you change an access or trunk port to a Layer 3 port, all

information about the access VLAN, native VLAN, allowed VLANs, and so forth, is lost.

•

Do not connect devices with access links because access links may partition a VLAN.

•

When connecting Cisco devices through an 802.1Q trunk, make sure that the native VLAN for an

802.1Q trunk is the same on both ends of the trunk link. If the native VLAN on one end of the trunk

is different from the native VLAN on the other end, spanning tree loops might result.

•

Disabling spanning tree on the native VLAN of an 802.1Q trunk without disabling spanning tree on

every VLAN in the network can cause spanning tree loops. You must leave spanning tree enabled

on the native VLAN of an 802.1Q trunk. If you cannot leave spanning tree enabled, you must

disable spanning tree on every VLAN in the network. Make sure that your network has no physical

loops before you disable spanning tree.

•

When you connect two Cisco devices through 802.1Q trunks, the devices exchange spanning tree

bridge protocol data units (BPDUs) on each VLAN allowed on the trunks. The BPDUs on the

native VLAN of the trunk are sent untagged to the reserved IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast

MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00). The BPDUs on all other VLANs on the trunk are sent tagged

to the reserved Cisco Shared Spanning Tree (SSTP) multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd).

•

Non-Cisco 802.1Q devices maintain only a single instance of spanning tree (the Mono Spanning

Tree) that defines the spanning tree topology for all VLANs. When you connect a Cisco switch to a

non-Cisco switch through an 802.1Q trunk, the Mono Spanning Tree of the non-Cisco switch and

the native VLAN spanning tree of the Cisco switch combine to form a single spanning tree

topology known as the Common Spanning Tree (CST).

•

Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs other than

the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do not recognize these frames as BPDUs and

flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN. Other Cisco devices connected to the non-

Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs. This BPDU reception allows Cisco switches to

maintain a per-VLAN spanning tree topology across a cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices. The

non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single broadcast

segment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud through 802.1Q trunks.

•

Make certain that the native VLAN is the same on all of the 802.1Q trunks that connect the Cisco

devices to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud.

•

If you are connecting multiple Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud, all of the connections

Cisco 350-080 Exam


must be through 802.1Q trunks. You cannot connect Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud

through access ports because doing so places the access port on the Cisco device into the

spanning tree "port inconsistent" state and no traffic will pass through the port.

•

You can group trunk ports into port-channel groups, but all trunks in the group must have the

same configuration. When a group is first created, all ports follow the parameters set for the first

port to be added to the group. If you change the configuration of one of these parameters, the

device propagates that setting to all ports in the group, such as the allowed VLANs and the trunk

status. For example, if one port in a port group ceases to be a trunk, all ports cease to be trunks.

•

If you try to enable 802.1X on a trunk port, an error message appears, and 802.1X is not enabled.

If you try to change the mode of an 802.1X-enabled port to trunk, the port mode is not changed.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_2/nx-os/interfaces/configuration/guide/if_nxos/if_access_trunk.html (guidelines and limitations, 6thbullet)

QUESTION NO: 279 Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface1/4? A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command. B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command. C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command. D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command. E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The switch provides two default system classes: a no-drop class for lossless service and a drop

class for best-effort service. You can define up to four additional system classes for Ethernet

traffic. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/QoS.html

QUESTION NO: 280

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integrationwith Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.) A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 server B. Cisco UCS C250 M2 server C. Cisco UCS C260 M2 server D. Cisco UCS C240 M3 server E. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server

Answer: C,D

Explanation:

Servers

Single-wire Management

Dual-wire Management

Cisco UCS C22 M3 Server

Yes

Yes


Yes

Yes


No

Yes


No

Yes


Yes

Yes


Yes

Yes


No

Yes


Yes

Yes


Yes

Yes

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Yes

Yes

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2-1/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration_chapter_01.html#concept_44C01272692745C8B0056AF8CE587699


Assume that the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects are equipped with 16 portexpansion modules. What is the impact of the last command in the exhibit? A. Fabric interconnect B will reboot. B. The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload. C. The command will generate an error. D. Both fabric A and B expansion modules will reload. E. The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload according to the maintenance policythat is set by Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The commit-buffer command will generate an error because its creating interface 2 1 on eth-

uplink.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101.pdf

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 282 You have configured a Cisco UCS C460 M2 Rack-Mount Server with two VIC 1225 adapters forsingle-wire management with Cisco UCS Manager. Which statement correctly describes theoperation of these adapters? A. One VIC is designated to carry management, and the other VIC is designated to carry datatraffic. B. Both VICs will be used for management and data traffic. C. One VIC will carry management, and both VICs will carry data traffic. D. The Cisco UCS C460 M2 does not support two VIC 1225 adapters simultaneously.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Using Network Controller Sideband Interface (NC-SI), Cisco UCS VIC 1225 Virtual Interface Card

(VIC) connects one cable that can carry both data traffic and management traffic. This feature is

referred to as SingleConnect.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2-2/b_C-Series-Integration_UCSM2-2/b_C-Series-Integration_UCSM2-2_chapter_01.html


Which option describes the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit? A. This output represents a standby VIF. B. This output indicates that fabric failover has been enabled on vNIC 3. C. This output represents a reserved system VIF.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D. This output represents an unpinned interface.

Answer: A

Explanation:

In addition, a cluster configuration actively enhances failover recovery time for redundant virtual

interface (VIF) connections. When an adapter has an active VIF connection to one fabric

interconnect and a standby VIF connection to the second, the learned MAC addresses of the

active VIF are replicated but not installed on the second fabric interconnect. If the active VIF fails,

the second fabric interconnect installs the replicated MAC addresses and broadcasts them to the

network through gratuitous ARP messages, shortening the switchover time. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter4.html

QUESTION NO: 284 Which two FEX connection modes are correct? (Choose two.) A. hard-pinning mode B. soft-pinning mode C. port channel mode D. physical-pinning mode E. vlan pinning mode

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

You can connect the FEX to the FI in two ways. Cisco UCS Manager FI discovers the FEX based

on the FEX/Chassis discovery mode. The FEX connection modes are:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2-1/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration/b_UCSM2-1_C-Integration_chapter_01.html#concept_774B705BE3594D4EA81050E408629FEE

QUESTION NO: 285 Which four port types are included in the VLAN port count? (Choose four.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. border uplink Ethernet ports B. border uplink EtherChannel member ports C. FCoE ports in a SAN cloud D. static and dynamic vNICs created through service profiles E. VLANs F. VSANs G. Private VSANs H. Private VLANs

Answer: A,B,C,D

Explanation:

The following types of ports are counted in the VLAN port calculation:

Based on the number of VLANs configured for these ports, Cisco UCS Manager keepstrack of the

cumulative count of VLAN port instances and enforces the VLAN port limit during validation. Cisco

UCS Manager reserves some pre-defined VLAN port resources for control traffic. These include

management VLANs configured under HIF and NIF ports.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-4/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_4/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_4_chapter_01111.pdf (page 3)

QUESTION NO: 286 What is the default MTU for Fibre Channel on Cisco UCS Manager? A. 2112 B. 2240 C. 2000 D. 9216

Answer: B

Explanation:

MTU drop-down list The maximum transmission unit for the channel. This can be:

This field is always set to fc for Fibre Channel.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_chapter1

Cisco 350-080 Exam


8.pdf (page 3)


How many additional chassis equipped with Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O Modules could be connectedat maximum bandwidth without exceeding the existing port licenses? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5

Answer: B

Explanation:

The maximum bandwidth that can be connected without exceeding existing port licenses is 2.

QUESTION NO: 288 Which feature must be enabled on the upstream Fibre Channel switch if the fabric interconnects isconfigured in end-host mode? A. NPV B. NPIV C. Zoning D. Smart Zoning

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: B

Explanation:

NPV, or N_Port Virtualization, allows an N_port to proxy other N_ports on the NPV-enabled switch

in order to request FCIDs from the connected NPIV-enabled switch. When the Fibre Channel

switch is running in NPV mode, the Fibre Channel services are running remotely on the NPIV-

enabled switch rather than locally on the NPV-enabled switch. The NPV N_port looks like a host to

the NPIV-enabled switch, rather than another switch in the Fibre Channel SAN fabric. NPV mode

on Cisco UCS is called End-Host mode. For Cisco UCS to connect to a Brocade Fibre Channel

switch, End-Host mode (NPV mode) is required on the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series-blade-servers/whitepaper_C07-730016.pdf


Which two statements about the output and diagram are true? (Choose two.) A. FI-A is configured in FC switch mode. B. VSAN trunking is enabled on FI-A. C. The native VSAN should be VSAN 1. D. Cisco UCS will allow all VSANs by default when FC trunking is enabled. E. FI-A requires VSAN pruning.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


F. Interface fc1/8 on MDS-A should be configured as a TE Port.

Answer: B,DReference: Explanation: You can see that VSAN trunking is enabled on FI-A and Cisco UCS will allow all VSANs by defaultwhen FC trunking is enabled. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/6_2/configuration/guides/interfaces/nx-os/cli_interfaces/intf.html

QUESTION NO: 290 You are about to assign a static UUID to a service profile. This particular UUID is also definedwithin the range of a UUID pool. The duplicate UUID in the pool has not yet been allocated. Whatwill be the result of applying the static UUID? A. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID exists within a definedresource pool. B. Applying the static UUID will succeed with no warnings. C. Applying the static UUID will succeed and a minor fault will be raised. D. Applying the static UUID will succeed and an information fault will be raised. E. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID is a duplicate UUID.

Answer: B

Explanation:

UUID suffix pool is a collection of SMBIOS UUIDs that are available to be assigned to servers.

The first number of digits that constitute the prefix of the UUID are fixed. The remaining digits, the

UUID suffix, are variable. A UUID suffix pool ensures that these variable values are unique for

each server associated with a service profile which uses that particular pool to avoid conflicts.

If you use UUID suffix pools in service profiles, you do not have to manually configure the UUID of

the server associated with the service profile. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_01.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 291 What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy? A. to monitor the management interface counters for errors and drops B. to prevent VM traffic from being black-holed during a cluster switchover C. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects D. to ensure that the management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach thegateway

Answer: D

Explanation:

This policy defines how the mgmt0 Ethernet interface on the fabric interconnect should be

monitored. If Cisco UCS detects a management interface failure, a failure report is generated. If

the configured number of failure reports is reached, the system assumes that the management

interface is unavailable and generates a fault. By default, the management interfaces monitoring

policy is disabled.

If the affected management interface belongs to a fabric interconnect which is the managing

instance, Cisco UCS confirms that the subordinate fabric interconnect's status is up, that there are

no current failure reports logged against it, and then modifies the managing instance for the end-

points.

If the affected fabric interconnect is currently the primary inside of a high availability setup, a

failover of the management plane is triggered. The data plane is not affected by this failover.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101000.html#concept_8EFB3986365C4F69A6C3B9BBC14D16FE

QUESTION NO: 292 How many traffic monitoring sessions can you create on Cisco UCS Manager? A. 16 B. 8 C. 24 D. 32

Answer: A

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

You can create upto 16 traffic monitoring sessions on UCS manager.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101001.html#concept_0AB9158BFF4C48778BDD3A059E95E89C

QUESTION NO: 293 Fault suppression allows you to suppress SNMP trap and Call Home notifications during aplanned maintenance period. Which three commands are necessary to activate this suppressionpolices in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.) A. default-chassis-all-maint B. default-chassis-phys-maint C. default-fex-all-maint D. default-FI-phys-maint E. default-blade-phys-maint F. default-vic-phys-maint

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

These policies define which causes and types of faults you want to suppress. Only one policy can

be assigned to a task. The following policies are defined byCisco UCS Manager:

This policy applies only to chassis.

This policy applies only to chassis.

This policy applies only to FEXes.

This policy applies only to FEXes.

This policy applies to chassis, organizations, and service profiles.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110000.html#concept_2979E86A5D50446EBE9F8868DA6F70A9


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Assume that there is no disjoint Layer 2 configuration. Based on the output, what will happen ifuplink eth1/7 on FI-A fails? A. The host will lose Ethernet uplink connectivity on FI-A. B. Fabric failover will force the vNIC that is bound to FI-A to use uplink eth1/7 on FI-B. C. Cisco UCS Manager will disable the host vNIC that is connected to FI-A. D. Traffic from any hosts using this pin group will use e1/8 on FI-A.

Answer: D

Explanation:

D SR is high. There are two possible reasons for this:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.) A. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x64. B. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as E Ports. C. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as TE Ports. D. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as F Ports. E. FC trunking is enabled on the Fabric Interconnect. F. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x640.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

First the domain ID for SAN A is 0X64 and the fcl/8 and fcl/9 on the MDS-A are configured as F

Ports.


Which type of address-port translation is shown? A. server NAT B. dual NAT C. port redirection D. transparent mode

Answer: B

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


When both the source IP address and the destination IP address are translated as a single packet

that goes through a Network Address Translation (NAT) device, it is referred to as twice NAT.

Twice NAT is supported only for static translations.

Twice NAT allows you to configure two NAT translations (one inside and one outside) as part of a

group of translations. These translations can be applied to a single packet as it flows through a

NAT device. When you add two translations as part of a group, both the individual translations and

the combined translation take effect.

A NAT inside translation modifies the source IP address and port number when a packet flows

from inside to outside. It modifies the destination IP address and port number when the packet

returns from outside to inside. NAT outside translation modifies the source IP address and port

number when the packet flows from outside to inside, and it modifies the destination IP address

and port number when the packet returns from inside to outside.

Without twice NAT, only one of the translation rules is applied on a packet, either the source IP

address and port number or the destination IP address and port number.

Static NAT translations that belong to the same group are considered for twice NAT configuration.

If a static configuration does not have a configured group ID, the twice NAT configuration will not

work. All inside and outside NAT translations that belong to a single group that is identified by the

group ID are paired to form twice NAT translations.


Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:


Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:


Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:


Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 301 You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. Yoususpect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with a host HBA. The customer hasboth a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to collect a trace and lookat the R_RDY flows between the MDS and the host. Which of the following actions is the best wayto start troubleshooting this problem? A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing R_RDYs. B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the detail isneeded to examine the R_RDY flow. C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the R_RDY flowbetween the host and MDS. D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2 cannotdecode R_RDYs. E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre ChannelAnalyzer inline.

Answer: E

Explanation:

To use a protocol analyzer, you must insert the analyzer in-line with the device under analysis,

which disrupts input and output (I/O) to and from the device. This problem is worse when the point

of analysis is on an Inter-Switch Link (ISL) link between two switches. In this case, the disruption

may be significant depending on what devices are downstream from the severed ISL link.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


In Ethernet networks, this problem can be solved using the SPAN utility, which is provided with the

Cisco Catalyst Family of Ethernet switches. SPAN has also been implemented with the Cisco

MDS 9000 Family switches for use in Fibre Channel networks. SPAN lets you take a copy of all

traffic and direct it to another port within the switch. The process is non-disruptive to any

connected devices and is facilitated in hardware, which prevents any unnecessary CPU load.

Using Fibre Channel SPAN, you can connect a Fibre Channel analyzer, such as a Finisar

analyzer, to an unused port on the switch and then SPAN a copy of the traffic from a port under

analysis to the analyzer in a non-disruptive fashion.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/storage-networking/mds-9250i-multiservice-fabric-switch/data_sheet_c78-727493.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Given the displays from MDS-1 and MDS-2, which two options describe what will happen whenthey attempt a zone merge for VSAN 120? (Choose two.) A. The zone merge will complete with no warnings and each switch will contain three zones. B. The zone merge will fail because the zone set members are not identical. C. The zone merge will prompt the administrator to add zones ucs-1 and ucs-2 to the switcheswhere they are missing. D. Zone merges are not permitted when running enhanced mode zoning. E. The zone merge will fail because the active zone set names are not identical. F. The zone merge will complete, but the administrator will be prompted to choose which zone setto make active.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

When zone merge for VSAN 120 occurs, it will fail because the zone set members are not

identical and the active zone set names are also not identical.

QUESTION NO: 303 Which two options correctly display IOM-to-Fabric Interconnect connectivity? (Choose two.) A)

B)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C)

D)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Number of Links Wired for the Chassis

1-Link Chassis Discovery Policy




Platform-Max Discovery Policy

1 link between IOM and fabric interconnects

Chassis is discovered by Cisco UCS Manager and added to the Cisco UCS domain as a chassis

wired with 1 link.

Chassis cannot be discovered by Cisco UCS Manager and is not added to theCisco UCS domain.

Chassis cannot be discovered by Cisco UCS Manager and is not added to the Cisco UCS domain.


Chassis is discovered byCisco UCS Manager and added to the Cisco UCS domain as a chassis

wired with 1 link.

2 links between IOM and fabric interconnects


wired with 1 link.

After initial discovery, reacknowledge the chassis and Cisco UCS Managerrecognizes and uses

the additional links.


Cisco 350-080 Exam


wired with 2 link.






wired with 1 link.




wired with 2 links.




wired with 4 link.


If the IOM has 4 links, the chassis is discovered byCisco UCS Manager and added to the Cisco

UCS domain as a chassis wired with 4 links.

If the IOM has 8 links, the chassis is not fully discovered by Cisco UCS Manager.



wired with 1 link.




wired with 2 links.




wired with 4 links.




wired with 8 links.

Chassis is discovered byCisco UCS Manager and added to the Cisco UCS domain as a chassis

wired with 8 links.

QUESTION NO: 304

Cisco 350-080 Exam


What are the two FEX connection modes? (Choose two.) A. hard-pinning mode B. soft-pinning mode C. port channel mode D. physical-pinning mode E. vlan pinning mode

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

You can connect the FEX to the FI in two ways. Cisco UCS Manager FI discovers the FEX based

on the FEX/Chassis discovery mode. The FEX connection modes are:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2-0-2/b_UCSM_202_C-Integration/b_UCSM_202_C-Integration_chapter_01.html (FEX connection mode and discovery)

QUESTION NO: 305 What is the default burst in a LAN QoS policy? A. 10240 B. 9216 C. 20480 D. 1548

Answer: A

Explanation:

The normal burst size for servers, which use this policy. This field determines how large traffic

bursts can be before some traffic is considered to exceed the rate limit. The default is 10240. The

minimum value is 0, and the maximum value is 65535.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_chapter18.html#task_9463F54D9EC0498FB977AD8D1A8D2096

QUESTION NO: 306 Which two statements about disjoint Layer 2 networks are true? (Choose two.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Ethernet Switching mode must be end-host mode. B. Overlapping vlans are supported. C. Each vNIC can communicate with all the disjoint Layer 2 networks. D. Symmetrical configuration is recommended for high availability. E. Default VLAN 1 can be configured explicitly on an Uplink Ethernet Port or Port Channel F. Appliance port cannot be configured with the same VLAN as Uplink Ethernet Port or PortChannel.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:

When you plan your configuration for upstream disjoint L2 networks, consider the following:

Ethernet Switching Mode Must Be End-Host Mode

Cisco UCS only supports disjoint L2 networks when the Ethernet switching mode of the fabric

interconnects is configured for end-host mode. You cannot connect to disjoint L2 networks if the

Ethernet switching mode of the fabric interconnects is switch mode.

Symmetrical Configuration Is Recommended for High Availability

If a Cisco UCS domain is configured for high availability with two fabric interconnects, we

recommend that both fabric interconnects are configured with the same set of VLANs.

VLAN Validity Criteria Are the Same for Uplink Ethernet Ports and Port Channels

The VLAN used for the disjoint L2 networks must be configured and assigned to an uplink

Ethernet port or uplink Ethernet port channel. If the port or port channel does not include the

VLAN, Cisco UCS Manager considers the VLAN invalid and does the following:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_010101.html (guidelines for configuring Upstream disjoint L2 networks)


Answer:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 308 Which switch is not a valid Cisco Nexus 7000 Series model? A. Cisco Nexus 7000 4-slot switch B. Cisco Nexus 7000 8-slot switch C. Cisco Nexus 7000 9-slot switch D. Cisco Nexus 7000 10-slot switch E. Cisco Nexus 7000 18-slot switch

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Cisco Nexus 7000 9-Slot Switch provides: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/switches/nexus-7000-9-slot-switch/index.html

QUESTION NO: 309

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Your organization is purchasing Cisco devices as well as non-Cisco devices for switching. Which three statements are correct about connecting Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud?(Choose three.) A. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs otherthan the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do not recognize these frames as BPDUsand flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN. B. Cisco devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs. ThisBPDU reception allows Cisco switches to maintain a per-VLAN spanning tree topology across acloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices. C. The non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single broadcastsegment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud through 802.1Q trunks. D. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs using the industry standard IEEE 802.1D spanningtree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00), the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud will seamlesslyparticipate in spanning tree protocol. E. Only layer 3 connections will work between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1 cloud. F. Additional equipment will be needed to transmit traffic between Cisco devices and non-Cisco802.1Q cloud direct connectivity is not possible

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

The following configuration guidelines and restrictions apply when using 802.1Q trunks and

impose some limitations on the trunking strategy for a network. Note these restrictions when using

802.1Q trunks:

–

When connecting Cisco switches through an 802.1q trunk, make sure the native VLAN for an

802.1Q trunk is the same on both ends of the trunk link. If the native VLAN on one end of the trunk

is different from the native VLAN on the other end, spanning tree loops might result.

–

Disabling spanning tree on the native VLAN of an 802.1Q trunk without disabling spanning tree on

every VLAN in the network can cause spanning tree loops. We recommend that you leave

spanning tree enabled on the native VLAN of an 802.1Q trunk. If this is not possible, disable

spanning tree on every VLAN in the network. Make sure your network is free of physical loops

before disabling spanning tree.

–

When you connect two Cisco switches through 802.1Q trunks, the switches exchange spanning

tree BPDUs on each VLAN allowed on the trunks. The BPDUs on the native VLAN of the trunk are

sent untagged to the reserved IEEE 802.1d spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-

00-00). The BPDUs on all other VLANs on the trunk are sent tagged to the reserved Cisco Shared

Spanning Tree (SSTP) multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd).

–

Non-Cisco 802.1Q switches maintain only a single instance of spanning tree (the Mono Spanning

Tree, or MST) that defines the spanning tree topology for all VLANs. When you connect a Cisco

Cisco 350-080 Exam


switch to a non-Cisco switch through an 802.1Q trunk, the MST of the non-Cisco switch and the

native VLAN spanning tree of the Cisco switch combine to form a single spanning tree topology

known as the Common Spanning Tree (CST).

–

Because Cisco switches transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs other

than the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco switches do not recognize these frames as BPDUs

and flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN. Other Cisco switches connected to the

non-Cisco 802.1q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs. This allows Cisco switches to maintain a

per-VLAN spanning tree topology across a cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q switches. The non-Cisco

802.1Q cloud separating the Cisco switches is treated as a single broadcast segment between all

switches connected to the non-Cisco 802.1q cloud through 802.1q trunks.

–

Make certain that the native VLAN is the same on all of the 802.1q trunks connecting the Cisco

switches to the non-Cisco 802.1q cloud.

–

If you are connecting multiple Cisco switches to a non-Cisco 802.1q cloud, all of the connections

must be through 802.1q trunks. You cannot connect Cisco switches to a non-Cisco 802.1q cloud

through ISL trunks or through access ports. Doing so causes the switch to place the ISL trunk port

or access port into the spanning tree "port inconsistent" state and no traffic will pass through the

port.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/layer2.html#wp1027047

QUESTION NO: 310 The FCoE VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the corresponding VSAN. Which twostatements about this mapping are true? (Choose two.) A. The VLAN-VSAN mapping must be configured consistently in the entire fabric. B. This mapping can only carry Fibre Channel control and data traffic. C. There must be same VLANs on the A and B SANs. D. IP traffic is allowed if the interface is set to Shared. E. The VLAN must match the CNA setting.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

VSANs from the hosts must be created and for each VSAN, a dedicated VLAN must also be

created and mapped. The mapped VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the

corresponding VSAN. The VLAN-VSAN mapping must be configured consistently in the entire

fabric. The Cisco Nexus device supports 32 VSANs.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/513_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel513_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel513_n1_1_chapter_0110.html (mapping requirements)

QUESTION NO: 311 Which two actions must occur to disable the LAN traffic on an FCoE link to a host? (Choose two.) A. interface Ethernet 1/1 shutdown lan B. The switch sends a LAN logical link status message to the CNA host. C. interface vfc11 shutdown lan D. The switch send a PFC command to the CNA host. E. interface Ethernet 1/1 vlan 10 disable

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Host Interfaces (HIFs) on fabric extender connections to servers in a port channel are supported in

the regular non-vPC fabric extender topology and both the fabric extender straight-through and

fabric extender active-active (A-A) topologies.

Cisco NX-OS supports FCOE only on straight-through topologies. The following figure shows the

two fabric extenders in a straight-through topology. Cisco NX-OS does not support FCoE over A-A

fabric extender HIFs.

Host CNAs can be dually homed in A-A mode to fabric extender HIFs, and the fabric extender

should be in straight-through mode.

Only vPCs are supported across the HIFs to host CNAs . Cisco NX-OS does not support downlink

server vPCs to host CNAs and fabric extender vPCs in A-A mode together. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/502_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_502_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_502_n1_1_chapter_011.html#concept_42380561FC1847889D3E9B42FE1E2828

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 312 You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the defaultmaintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true? A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted. B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges. C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles. D. The change will generate an impact summary message. E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.

Answer: C

Explanation:

When the default maintenance policy is configured, the change will be applied immediately with no

disruption to any bound service profiles.

QUESTION NO: 313 How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnectslicensed? A. All ports are fully licensed by default. B. The first eight ports on the module are licensed by default. C. The expansion modules contribute eight licenses to the global pool by default. D. The expansion modules contribute six licenses to the global pool by default. E. The first six ports on the module are licensed by default.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Each Cisco UCS fabric interconnect comes with several port licenses that are factory installed and

shipped with the hardware. Fabric interconnects can be purchased fully licensed or partially

licensed. Additional licenses can also be purchased after delivery.

At a minimum, each fabric interconnect ships with the following counted licenses pre-installed:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_01101.html#concept_02B3BE130EA54738A97CB23D97198B78

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 314 How many licenses are provided with the purchase of the Cisco UCS 6296 fabric interconnect? A. 18 B. 16 C. 12 D. 8

Answer: A

Explanation:

Each Cisco UCS fabric interconnect comes with several port licenses that are factory installed and

shipped with the hardware. Fabric interconnects can be purchased fully licensed or partially

licensed. Additional licenses can also be purchased after delivery.

At a minimum, each fabric interconnect ships with the following counted licenses pre-installed:

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-0/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_01101.html (see the topic ‘Licenses’)

QUESTION NO: 315 Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data centerenvironments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data tostandard enterprise-management tools. Which two of these lists the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-onlyinterfaces? (Choose two.) A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt D. SoL and NX-OS E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Supported Cisco UCS interfaces and protocols include the following: Reference: http://docslide.us/documents/ciscoucsinterfaceswhitepaper.html

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Topic 6, Cisco Application Networking Services

QUESTION NO: 316 Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing deviceshould send a client request for service. Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select the best server to fulfill a client request?(Choose three.) A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source ordestination IP address, or both B. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URL C. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destinationMAC address, or both D. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header name E. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

Cisco ACE performs a series of checks and calculations to determine the server that can best

service each client request according to the load-balancing algorithm or predictor. Cisco ACE uses

the following predictors to select the best server to satisfy a client request:

Reference: http://www.andovercg.com/datasheets/cisco-ace-4710-app-control-engine.pdf (page 3,see table1)

QUESTION NO: 317 Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuringhealth probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). A probe can be one of manytypes. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.) A. HTTP B. Java scripting C. TCL scripting D. RADIUS

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E. TACACS

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

You can instruct the ACE to check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health

probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). After you create a probe, you assign it to a real

server or a server farm. A probe can be one of many types, including TCP, ICMP, Telnet, HTTP,

and so on. You can also configure scripted probes using the TCL scripting language.

The ACE sends out probes periodically to determine the status of a server, verifies the server

response, and checks for other network problems that may prevent a client from reaching a

server. Based on the server response, the ACE can place the server in or out of service, and,

based on the status of the servers in the server farm, can make reliable load-balancing decisions.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/ace_appliances/vA4_2_0/configuration/slb/guide/slbgd/overview.html (health monitoring)

QUESTION NO: 318 When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason ofthis problem? (Choose two.) A. The interface is shut down B. An access list is denying ICMP C. Routing is not configured properly D. vip icmp-reply is inactive

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

When you edit an ACL, it requires special attention. For example, if you intend to delete a specific

line from a numbered ACL that exists as shown here, the entire ACL is deleted.

!--- The access-list 101 denies icmp from any to any network

!--- but permits IP traffic from any to any network.

router#configure terminal

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

router(config)#access-list 101 deny icmp any any

router(config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any

Cisco 350-080 Exam


router(config)#^Z

router#show access-list

Extended IP access list 101

deny icmp any any

permit ip any any

router#

*Mar 9 00:43:12.784: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console

router#configure terminal

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

router(config)#no access-list 101 deny icmp any any

router(config)#^Z

router#show access-list

router#

*Mar 9 00:43:29.832: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/ace_appliances/vA3_1_0/configuration/slb/guide/slbgd/probe.html

QUESTION NO: 319 Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is beingused as the DNS? A. Client IP B. Proxy IP C. Client and proxy IP D. Neither client nor proxy IP

Answer: A

Explanation:

A source address refers to the source of DNS queries received by the GSS. Source addresses

typically point to an IP address or block of addresses that represent client D-proxies from which

the queries originate.

Using a DNS rule, the GSS matches source addresses to domains hosted by the GSS using one

of a number of different balance methods.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Source addresses are taken from the D-proxy (the local name server) to which a requesting client

issued a recursive request. The D-proxy sends the client queries to multiple name servers,

eventually querying the GSS, which matches the D-proxy source address against its list of

configured source addresses.

DNS queries received by the GSS do not have to match a specific D-proxy to be routed; default

routing can be performed on requests that do not emanate from a known source address. By

default, the GSS provides a fail-safe "Anywhere" source address list. Incoming queries that do not

match your configured source address lists are matched to this list. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/gss4400series/v2-0/configuration/gui/gslb/guide/gui_gslb/Intro.html (sources addresses and source addresslists)

QUESTION NO: 320 In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true? A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSS B. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS cluster C. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queries D. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new master GSS

Answer: C

Explanation:

A failure of any GSS behind the anycast address is transparent to the end user. Also, since

anycast leverages the network's routing tables, the traffic destined to the GSS is based on routing

metrics.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/gss4400series/v3-0/administration/guide/gssadmgd/Anycast.html

QUESTION NO: 321 A Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support "sticky"

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configuration. What is the reason for this issue? A. ACE sticky license is not installed B. ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin context C. ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin context D. Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context

Answer: C

Explanation:

Stickiness is an ACE feature that allows the same client to maintain multiple simultaneous or

subsequent TCP or IP connections with the same real server for the duration of a session. A

session is defined as a series of transactions between a client and a server over some finite period

of time (from several minutes to several hours). This feature is particularly useful for e-commerce

applications where a client needs to maintain multiple connections with the same server while

shopping online, especially while building a shopping cart and during the checkout process.

Depending on the configured SLB policy, the ACE “sticks” a client to an appropriate server after

the ACE has determined which load-balancing method to use. If the ACE determines that a client

is already stuck to a particular server, then the ACE sends that client request to that server,

regardless of the load-balancing criteria specified by the matched policy. If the ACE determines

that the client is not stuck to a particular server, it applies the normal load-balancing rules to the

content request

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/interfaces_modules/services_modules/ace/vA4_2_0/configuration/slb/guide/slbcfggd/sticky.pdf

QUESTION NO: 322 Which is true when describing a connection replication in Cisco ACE? A. It is not supported for SSL connections. B. It is not supported for non-SSL connections. C. It can only be configured manually. D. It has a maximum limit of 50,000 replicated connections.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The ACE does not replicate SSL and other terminated (proxied) connections from the active

context to the standby context.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/ace_appliances/vA1_7_/configuration/administration/guide/admgd/redundcy.html

QUESTION NO: 323 Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.) A. Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNS B. Responds to a DNS query with A-record C. Forwards queries to a name server D. Multiple A-records E. DHCP functionality for the local hosts

Answer: B,C,D

Explanation:

With the CRA answer, requests received from a particular D-proxy are served by the content

server that responds first to the request. Response time is measured using a DNS race,

coordinated by the GSS and content routing agents running on each content server. In the DNS

race, multiple hosts respond simultaneously to an A-record request. The server with the fastest

response time (the shortest network delay between itself and the client's D-proxy) is chosen to

serve the content. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/gss4400series/v3-0/configuration/gui/gslb/guide/gui_gslb/Intro.html

QUESTION NO: 324 KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to reportvirtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP? A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive. B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries. C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives. D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers

Answer: A

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Explanation:

KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE application switches allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site

Selector (GSS), to report virtual IP and real server availability. This information is used by the

Cisco ACE GSS for intelligent global server load balancing (GSLB) across data centers.

KAL-AP communication between the Cisco ACE GSS can be secured using MD5 encryption.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/application-networking-services/ace-4710-application-control-engine/product_bulletin_c25-478675.html (keepalive appliance protocol)

QUESTION NO: 325 What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine? switch/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-F0 v" A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver. B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP. C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server. D. It shows details on HTTP session entries.

Answer: A

Explanation:

To monitor the Fastpath processing queues, use the show np <1|2|3|4> me-stats “-s fp” command

and

verify that FastQ Transmit Backpressure, SlowQ Transmit Backpressure, Drop: Transmit

Backpressure, and Drop: Next-Hop queue full are not incrementing.

ACE/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-s fp -v" | include Backpressure

FastQ Transmit Backpressure: 0 0

SlowQ Transmit Backpressure: 0 0

Hyperion Transmit Backpressure: 0 0

Drop: Transmit Backpressure: 0 0

ACE/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-s fp -v" | include queue

Drop: Next-Hop queue full: 0 0

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/ace-application-control-engine-module/guide_c07-689089.pdf (page 5)

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QUESTION NO: 326 ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimesreferred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes. Which three options are valid ACEprobes? (Choose three.) A. TCP B. ICMP C. HTTP D. IPsec

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

When a server fails in response to the probe, the ACE can check for network problems that

prevent a client from accessing that server. The ACE can place the server out of service.

A probe can be any of several types, including HTTP, HTTPS, ICMP, TCP, Telnet, and UDP. You

can also configure scripted probes using the TCL scripting language.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/interfaces_modules/services_modules/ace/vA5_1_0/configuration/getting/started/guide/ace_module_gsg/h_probe.pdf (page 1)

QUESTION NO: 327 Which option is a benefit of virtualized Application Networking Manager? A. Static workload scaling B. Local authorization C. High availability D. Health monitor probe E. Distributed backup

Answer: D

Explanation:

Cisco ANM 4.2 supports the Cisco ACE capability to probe the destination of a redirect real server,

which is accomplished by associating a health probe with a redirect server farm or a redirect real

server. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/application-networking-services/application-networking-manager/pb_c25_572614.html

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Which command would produce this output? A. show stats HTTP B. show stats load balance C. show stats probe type D. show parameter map

Answer: B

Explanation:

If the timeout is too short, the client-side connection and resulting pmap entry might be removed

before the radius response message is received by the ACE. In this case, the response is dropped

and "Total Layer7 rejections" counter will be incremented under show stats loadbalance radius.

Reference:http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Cisco_Application_Control_Engine_%28ACE%29_Troubleshooting_Guide_--_Show_Counter_Reference_--_Command_Set_5#show_stats_loadbalance_radius

QUESTION NO: 329 A load balancer performs an operation on a predefined parameter, such as the IP address, HTTPcookie, or URL, when a new connection is made so that another connection with the same

Cisco 350-080 Exam


parameter will always reach the same server. Which load-balancing predictor does this statementdescribe? A. round robin B. least-connections C. hashing D. least-loaded

Answer: C

Explanation:

URL hashing is a load-balancing predictor for Layer 7 connections. You can configure URL

hashing on the CSM on a server farm-by-server farm basis. The CSM chooses the real server by

using a hash value based on a URL. This hash value may be computed on the entire URL or on a

portion of it. To select only a portion of the URL for hashing, you can specify the beginning and

ending patterns in the URL so that only the portion of the URL from the specified beginning pattern

through the specified ending pattern is hashed.

Reference: http://www.haproxy.org/download/1.3/doc/configuration.txt

QUESTION NO: 330 Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a clientrequest? A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name B. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic C. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers D. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN

Answer: C

Explanation:

Round Robin selects the next server in the list of real servers based on the server weight

(weighted round-robin). Servers with a higher weight value receive a higher percentage of the

connections. This is the default predictor. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/ace_appliances/vA3_1_0/configuration/slb/guide/slbgd/overview.html (load-balancing predictors)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 331 Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.) A. HTTP B. Telnet C. Java scripting D. TCL scripting E. XML scripting F. SSH

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

When a server fails in response to the probe, the ACE can check for network problems that

prevent a client from accessing that server. The ACE can place the server out of service.

A probe can be any of several types, including HTTP, HTTPS, ICMP, TCP, Telnet, and UDP. You

can also configure scripted probes using the TCL scripting language.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/ace_appliances/vA3_1_0/configuration/slb/guide/slbgd/probe.html

QUESTION NO: 332 What are the three benefits of SSL offload? (Choose three.) A. total offload of encryption from the servers B. partial offload of encryption from the servers C. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 7 switching D. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 5 to 7 switching E. public certificates required on both load balancer and the real server F. public certificate required only on load balancer

Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:

SSL termination can completely relieve servers from the intensive encryption processing. This is

the most usual deployment of SSL offload and it can bring the following benefits:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/services-modules/product_buletin_c25-563569.pdf


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which type of SSL offload configuration is shown in the output? A. SSL termination B. SSL initiation C. end-to-end SSL D. SSL testing

Answer: B

Explanation:

SSL initiation refers to configuring an ACE context for a back-end application in which the ACE

operates as a client that communicates with an SSL server. When you create a Layer 7 policy

map to define the flow between an ACE and an SSL server, the ACE operates as a client and

initiates the SSL session between the ACE and the server. SSL initiation enables the ACE to

Cisco 350-080 Exam


receive clear text from a client and then to establish an SSL session with an SSL server and join

the client connection with the SSL server connection. The ACE encrypts the clear text that it

receives from the client and sends the data as ciphertext to an SSL server. The SSL server can

either be an ACE configured for SSL termination (virtual SSL server) or a real SSL server (web

server).

On the outbound flow from the SSL server, the ACE decrypts the ciphertext from the server and

sends clear text back to the client.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/services-modules/product_buletin_c25-563569.pdf

QUESTION NO: 334 Which protocol message does the Cisco ACE module use to insert or withdraw all RHI routes? A. ICMP B. SCP C. IPv4 D. SCTP

Answer: B

Explanation:

The ACE module and the supervisor engine use Switch-Module Configuration Protocol (SCP)

messages to insert or withdraw all RHI routes. Only one route insertion or withdrawal is allowed

per SCP message. The configuration manager sends all route information to the route manager in

the ACE module. The route manager then forwards the route information to the supervisor engine

through the SCP module. Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/interfaces_modules/services_modules/ace/vA5_1_0/configuration/rtg_brdg/guide/rtbrgdgd/iproute.html

QUESTION NO: 335 In the basic DNS resolution process, which component receives the query and sends it to thelocation that knows the IP address for the destination?

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. DNS resolver B. D-proxy C. root server D. intermediate server E. authoritative server

Answer: B

Explanation:

If the local D-proxy does not have the information requested by the end user, it sends out iterative

requests to the name servers that it knows are authoritative for the domains close to the requested

domain. For example, a request for www.cisco.com causes the local D-proxy to check first for

another name server that is authoritative for www.cisco.com.

Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/app_ntwk_services/data_center_app_services/gss4400series/v3-0/configuration/gui/gslb/guide/gui_gslb/Intro.html


Cisco 350-080 Exam


In the figure, the load balancer acts a transparent TCP proxy, and establishes the connection withthe client on behalf of the real server. What is this type of spoofing called? A. delayed binding B. software-based load balancing C. transport proxy D. application binding

Answer: A

Explanation:

When it establishes a Layer 5 flow, a CSS "spoofs" the back-end TCP connection by acting as a

proxy for the destination device (server) for the client SYN. In other words, the CSS responds to

the client SYN with a SYN/ACK before the CSS sets up the back-end TCP connection with the

server.

This process is referred to as delayed binding. Delayed binding causes the client to respond with

an ACK and an HTTP GET request. This process allows the CSS to gather the information it

needs to select the best service (a server port where content resides or an application running on

a server such as FTP) for the content request.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/dns-bcp.html

QUESTION NO: 337 Which four options describe benefits of the global load-balancing solution? (Choose four.) A. device status within the data center B. performance granularity C. centralized client access D. intelligent traffic management E. reacts quickly for availability only F. server monitoring statistics G. round robin support only for load-balancing

Answer: A,B,D,F

Explanation:

Global load balancing benefits includes device status within the data center, performance

granularity, intelligent traffic management and server monitoring statistics.

Reference: http://www.andovercg.com/datasheets/cisco-4480.pdf

Cisco 350-080 Exam



Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Topic 7, Mix Questions

QUESTION NO: 339 In a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch with both M1 and F1 modules, which two topologies are valid vPCtopologies? (Choose two) A)

B)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


C)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D)

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A. Exhibit A B. Exhibit B C. Exhibit C D. Exhibit D

Answer: A,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 340 A vPC allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear asa single port channel by a third device. Which five options describe mandatory steps to configurevPC? (Choose five.) A. Enable the vPC feature. B. Define domains. C. Establish peer-keepalive connectivity. D. Create a peer link. E. Configure a peer link as a trunk port.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


F. Create port channels and vPCs. G. Define the port channel load-balancing method. H. Copy ALL configurations from Primary Switch to the secondary switch.

Answer: A,B,C,D,F

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 341 FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments.Which thee options describe advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.) A. MAC address scalability with conversational learning B. loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field C. Spanning Tree Protocol independence D. 10-Gb/s bandwidth E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 342 In the Cisco Nexus 7000 FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestinationtree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each multidestination tree.One of the parameters that is used to select the root is the system ID. Which two statements aretrue about the system ID? (Choose two.) A. The system ID is a unique 12-bit value. B. The system ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address. C. A higher system ID is preferred. D. A lower system ID is preferred.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 343 After configuring FabricPath, the following message appears in the syslog:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking portport-channel100 on VLAN0010. What is a possible reason for this message? A. Spanning tree must be disabled, and the message indicates that STP is enabled. B. STP is misconfigured. The root guard must be disabled. C. An inferior BPDU was received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port. D. A superior BPDU was received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 344 Cisco FabricPath switches support ECMP forwarding for known unicast frames. If the destinationswitch ID can be reached through more than one output interface with equal cost, the forwardingengine uses a hash function to pick one of the interfaces. Which three options are valid for hashinput for unicast frames? (Choose three.) A. Use only the source parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed). B. Use the FabricPath switch ID in the FabricPath header. C. Use only the destination parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed). D. Use both the source and the destination parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed). E. Include only Layer 2 input (source or destination MAC address).

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 345 In a FabricPath network, known unicast traffic is sent with the outer destination address populatedwith the destination SID, SSID, and local ID. Which statement describes the outer destinationaddress in the case of unknown unicast? A. The outer destination address is a reserved multicast MAC address known as MC1(010F.FFC2.02C0). B. The outer destination address is a broadcast address (FFFF.FFFF.FFFF). C. The outer destination address is not required because FabricPath uses the FTag to forwardunknown unicast.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


D. The outer destination address is a reserved multicast MAC address known as MC1(010F.FFC1.01C0).

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 346 The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must beexplicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied.Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.) A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data centersite, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface. B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet andsends it to the join interface toward the routed domain. C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data centersite, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface. D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet andsends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain. E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sendsit to the join interface toward the switching domain.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 347 Which three statements about ERSPAN are correct? (Choose three.) A. All ERSPAN replication is performed in the hardware. The supervisor CPU is not involved. B. ERSPAN and ERSPAN ACLs are supported for packets generated by the supervisor. C. You can configure a port as both a source and destination port. D. ERSPAN is not supported for management ports. E. A destination port can be configured in only one ERSPAN session at a time. F. Management ports support ERSPAN.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 348 Which four statements about NetFlow configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch aretrue? (Choose four.) A. You must configure a source interface. If you do not configure a source interface, the exporterwill remain in a disabled state. B. You must configure a valid record name for every flow monitor. C. If you add a member to a port channel that is already configured for Layer 2 NetFlow, itsNetFlow configuration is removed and the Layer 2 configuration of the port channel is added to it. D. If you change a Layer 2 interface to a Layer 3 interface, NetFlow configuration on the interfacewill automatically switch to Layer 3 mode. E. Use v9 export to see the full 32-bit SNMP ifIndex values at the NetFlow connector. F. NetFlow is a licensed feature and is available only in the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKGlicense.

Answer: A,B,C,E

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


The customer has a one-switch fabric, and is connecting another switch. From the Fibre ChannelAnalyzer output in the exhibit, identify who is the principal switch in this two-switch fabric? A. The principle switch is the switch that sent the first EFP in the trace. B. The principle switch is the switch that sent the second EFP in the trace. C. The EFP frame is not used to determine principal switch selection. Principal switch selection isdecided earlier in the ISL link initialization process. D. The principle switch cannot be identified from the information given in the exhibit.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 350 Which three functions are performed by the iSCSI login? (Choose three.) A. Enable a TCP connection for iSCSI use. B. Negotiate redundant path information between the target and the initiator. C. Negotiate the session's parameters. D. Mark the connection as belonging to an iSCSI session. E. Enable a UDP connection for iSCSI use.

Answer: A,C,D

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


The servers in this network are connected to an A-B SAN design. What is required for hosts tosupport a high-availability Fibre Channel connection to a storage controller? A. Multipath drivers should be installed on all the servers. B. Multipath drivers should be installed on the CNA of S1 and S3. C. High availability for Fibre Channel is controlled by the storage controller, and there is no needto add or make changes on the server side. D. S1 and S3 require that multipath drivers are installed, but S2 does not. E. Multipath drivers should be installed on all CNAs of all servers.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 352 Which protocol is used in the exchange of DCB capabilities? A. DCBX B. 802.1Qaz C. LLDP D. LACP

Cisco 350-080 Exam


E. FCoE

Answer: C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 353 You find that a vFC interface is down. Although the switch sent a VLAN response, the responsewas not received by the CNA, which caused the vFC interface to go down. Which statementdescribes the most probable cause of this problem? A. DCBX is misconfigured. B. CNA does not support FCoE. C. CoS settings are mismatched between the switch and the host. D. The VLAN ID of the bound interface to the vFC is a non-FCoE VLAN ID. E. There is a firmware issue on the FCoE driver.

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 354 Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.) A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-groupconfiguration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these interfacesand an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group (for example,VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group and the same VLAN. B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you canuse the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM management VLANis really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, networkadministrators can designate a special VLAN for network device management. C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined asthe primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts. D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server. E. mgmt 0 interface on the VSM always use VLAN 1 for communication with VEM modules.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 355 Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.) A. virtual supervisor module B. virtual Ethernet module C. virtual machine NICs D. virtual machine kernel NICs E. virtual interface card

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 356 You are integrating a UCS C-Series server with a UCS Fabric Interconnect running version 2.0software. Which two options describe the hardware that is required for this integration? (Choosetwo.) A. Cisco Nexus 2148T Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter B. Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter C. Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS M81KR adapter D. Cisco Nexus 2232 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter E. Cisco Nexus 2232 Fabric Extender and Cisco N2XX-AIPCI02 adapter F. only the Cisco UCS P81E adapter G. Cisco Nexus 5548 switch and Cisco UCS VIC 1225 adapter

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose two.) A. Interface eth1/5 is configured as an uplink. B. Jumbo frames have been configured on the best-effort class. C. Packets are being dropped on the interface. D. PFC is disabled on the system. E. The default CoS configuration is being used.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Assuming that all blades are equipped with Cisco UCS VIC 1280 adapters, which two statementscan be confirmed from the output? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco IOM model is a 2104XP. B. The Cisco IOM model is a 2204XP. C. The Cisco IOM model is a 2208XP. D. Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are missing. E. Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are not associated with a service profile. F. Link Group Preference is set to Port Channel.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which two statements about the diagram are true? (Choose two.) A. Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC switching mode. B. Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC end-host mode. C. The topology is not supported. D. The uplinks from each FI can carry multiple VSANs. E. The uplinks from each FI can carry a single VSAN only.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 360 Which three statements about Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect fiber channel end-host mode aretrue? (Choose three.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect sends BPDUs northbound. B. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect never learns northbound dynamic MAC addresses. C. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns dynamic MAC addresses from direct attachedstorage fiber channel ports. D. vNIC fabric failover is never available in end-host mode. E. Link status changes on uplink ports are propagated to host vNICs. F. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns southbound dynamic MAC addresses. G. vHBA fabric failover is enabled by default.

Answer: C,E,F

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 361 What is the maximum combination of static vNICs and vHBAs for Cisco UCS Manager version 2.1when using ESX 5.1? A. 18 eNICs and 8 fNICs B. 24 eNICs and 8 fNICs C. 12 eNICs and 8 fNICs D. 18 eNICs and 9 fNICs

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 362 Which two actions must be done before configuring iSCSI boot for a server? (Choose two.) A. The storage array must be licensed for iSCSI boot. B. The operating system must be iBFT-compatible. C. Zoning must be configured. D. Boot parameters must be configured in the global group policy. E. IP subnet of iSCSI initiator has to be in the same subnet as that of storage array.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam



When you assign this disk policy to Server 1/1, it fails. Which option describes the reason for thisfailure? A. The RAID controller does not support single disk configurations. B. Only RAID0 and RAID1 are supported. C. The server is equipped with a local disk. D. Protection is enabled on the existing disk.

Answer: C

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which two things can be determined from the SEL log output? (Choose two.) A. The server experienced a crash. B. The server experienced correctable memory errors. C. DIMMs in channel 2 are experiencing memory errors. D. DIMMs in channel 0 are experiencing memory errors. E. Memory errors have crossed two thresholds.

Answer: B,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 365 Which three predictors are supported on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?(Choose three.)

Cisco 350-080 Exam


A. Hash Address, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source IPaddress, the destination IP address, or both B. Hash URL, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the requested URL C. Hash MAC, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source MACaddress, the destination MAC address, or both D. Hash Header, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the HTTPheader name E. Highest bandwidth, selects the server that processed the highest amount of network trafficbased on the average bandwidth that the server used over a specified number of samples F. First Come First Server, always selects the first server in the list of real servers.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 366 Which three options are valid ACE health probes? (Choose three.) A. SIP B. ECHO C. Finger D. IPsec E. TFTP F. SSH

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 367 A load balancer can be defined as a network device that makes forwarding decisions that arebased on parameters in Layers 4 to 7 of the OSI model. Which three parameters are involved inforwarding decisions? (Choose three.) A. TCP Destination Port B. DNS Record C. HTTP Session Cookie D. SNMP GET E. String recognized in the connection data F. Uniform Resource Locater

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 368 In one-armed design, which method must be used to achieve symmetric load balancing in ACE? A. Dual NAT B. Round Robin C. Dynamic Routing Protocol D. MAC Probe

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 369 Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.) A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is viewedin Fabric Manager. B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting. C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches. D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment. E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone change.

Answer: C,E

Explanation:


Cisco 350-080 Exam


Which statement about the exhibit is true? A. OTV does not extend STP across sites. Each site runs its own STP, rather than including allsites in a large STP domain. This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such asPVRST+ or MST, in each site. B. OTV extends STP across sites. Each site runs its own STP, which includes all sites in a largeSTP domain. This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such as PVRST+ or MSTin each site. C. OTV does not extend STP across sites. Each site runs multiple STPs that include all sites in alarge STP domain. This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such as PerPVRST+or MST, in each site. D. OTV extends STP across sites. Each site runs its own STP, which includes all sites in a largeSTP domain. This topology does not allow the use of different STP modes, such as PVRST+ orMST, in each site.

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 371 Which three statements about OTV are true? (Choose three.) A. An internal interface is a Layer 2 interface on the edge device that connects to the VLANs thatare to be extended. These VLANs typically form a Layer 2 domain known as a site and cancontain site-based switches or site-based routers. The internal interface is a Layer 2 access ortrunk interface regardless of whether the internal interface connects to a switch or a router. B. An external interface is a Layer 2 interface on the edge device that connects to the VLANs thatare to be extended. These VLANs typically form a Layer 2 domain known as a site and cancontain site-based switches or site-based routers. The external interface is a Layer 2 access ortrunk interface regardless of whether the external interface connects to a switch or a router. C. An overlay interface is a logical multiaccess multicast-capable interface. The overlay interfaceencapsulates Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast headers. D. An overlay interface is a logical multiaccess multicast-capable interface. The overlay interface

Cisco 350-080 Exam


encapsulates Layer 3 frames in IP unicast or multicast headers. E. The join interface is one of the uplink interfaces of the edge device. The join interface is a point-to-point routed interface. The edge device joins an overlay network through this interface. The IPaddress of this interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC address that is present in thissite. F. The join interface is one of the uplink interfaces of the edge device. The join interface is a point-to-point routed interface. The edge device joins an overlay VLAN through this interface. The IPaddress of this interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC address that is present in thisVLAN.

Answer: A,C,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 372 Which three statements about IPv4 ACLs and the IPsec feature are true? (Choose three.) A. Cisco SAN-OS software allows only name-based IPv4 ACLs. B. The IPsec feature considers source and destination IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. C. IKE traffic (UDP port 500) is encrypted. D. The IPsec feature does not support port number ranges. E. Inbound and outbound traffic is evaluated against the same outbound IPv4 ACL.

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 373 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DIMM bank color on the left in the correct order of population for a B230 serveron the right.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 374 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the call home severity on the left to the correct description on the right.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


QUESTION NO: 375 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the actions on the left to the correct order for a step-by-step FCIP link configurationon the right.

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Answer:

Explanation:

Cisco 350-080 Exam


Cisco 350-080 Exam


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