2012 Penology Exam Questionnaire

SET B- 2012 GUIDE QUESTIONS ON PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAM. Updated as of 01 Aug 2012. Compiled, Edited and Updated by J/SINSP MICHELLE NG-BONTO, Legislative Liaison Officer, BJMP-NHQ. “Sharing this reviewer will bring you Good Karma”. Kindly Share this reviewer to our fellow jail officers who will be taking the exam. Godbless & Godspeed!!

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Rank/Name of Reviewee:_____________________________________________

Region:______________ Jail/Assignment:_______________________________

Nota Bene:

The actual Penology Officer Exam will cover 150 Items plus 10 items on Examinee’s Descriptive Information. You need to finish the actual exam at the maximum rate of 3 hours, by spending only 1.2 minutes of your time reading, comprehending and answering each item of the exam.

This Reviewer is NOT FOR SALE. This reviewer is edited, compiled and updated by the proponent as part of her advocacy to help fellow BJMP personnel in their quest for self-enrichment and career growth. This questionnaire aims to prepare your mental and physical stamina on the day of the exam. It is strongly suggested that you read the latest policies and issuances of the BJMP, the BJMP Manual and laws such as RA 6713, RA 9263.

PART II- SET B. (1-80 Test Items) –01 Aug 2012 Review

(Questions re: IWD, Leadership, Latest Policies & Related Laws)

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter of the correct answer.

C. INMATES WELFARE AND DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS (15%)

1. “Morning Meeting” is found in what BJMP program? a. Livelihood Program component b. Jail disciplinary Program component c. Therapeutic Community Modality Program d. Community Relations Service Program

2. The following are the purpose of “Morning Meeting”, except: a. To start the day b. To demonstrate common concerns and solve immediate problems c. Enhance sense of community d. To confront the person who made you feel bad

3. Which among the following statements is not included in the guiding principles of IWDP? a. In accordance with the UN Standard’s Minimum Treatment of Inmates b. Responsive and dynamic, providing treatment that is holistic and responsive in nature c. Provides for retributive treatment d. Creation is based on mutual trust and confidence

4. This kind of IWD service takes the form of subsistence such as food, clothing, hygienic supplies,etc.

a. Health Services b. Provisions for Basic Needs c. Livelihood Services d. Educational Services

5. This IWD activity is concerned with the development of work values, individual worth and dignity, emotional catharsis and individual creativity.

a. Religious Services b. Livelihood Services c. Sports and Recreation Services d. Educational Services


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6. This program consists of a set of physical, psychosocial, intellectual, vocational and spiritual activities of interventions which facilitates inmate’s enhancement and well-being. a. Counseling Program b. Psycho – Diagnostic Program c. Inmates’ Welfare and Development Program d. Peer Counselling

D. BJMP ADMINISTRATIVE MATTERS (10%)

(Latest Policies, Issuances/Pertinent Laws)

7. What is the corresponding disciplinary measure imposed under the BJMP

Standard Operating Procedures when a visitor is caught in possession of a Nuisance Contraband for the second time? a. The visitor shall be filed an appropriate case in court b. The visitor shall be subjected to pay fines c. The visitor shall be given a warning and the contraband shall be confiscated and turned over to the Property Custodian for proper disposal d. The visitor shall be considered a delinquent visitor and shall be banned from entering the facility

8. Under the BJMP Standard Operating Procedures, a visitor caught in possession of an Illegal Contraband shall be: a. Denied immediate entry to the facility b. Shall be arrested by the jail authorities c. shall be turned-over to the nearest police station for filing of appropriate cases d. All of the above

9. Prior to classification and segregation of female inmates in relation to the BJMP SOP on Pregnant inmates, the jail administration is mandated to conduct : a. Random Pregnancy tests to Female inmates prior to segregation b.Mandatory Pregnancy test to Female inmates prior to segregation c.Voluntary Pregnancy Test to Female inmates prior to segregation d. None of the above

10. Infants whose mothers are detained in BJMP jails are among those covered by the policy on “Pregnant Inmates and their Infants.” Under this policy, an infant is defined as: a. A child in his/her toddler years b. A child from Zero (0) to Twelve (12) Months Old c. A Child from Zero (0) to Seventy – Two (72) Hours of Birth d. None of the Above

11. It is defined as the amount of force that a person uses which would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm. It is said to be the last resort in the use of force continuum.

a. Non-Deadly Force b. Deadly Force c. Weaponless COntrol d. Impact Weapons

12. It is the use of physical force towards an inmate with any device other than deadly force or firearm designed to temporarily incapacitate an inmate.

a. Deadly Force b. Non - Deadly Force c. Weaponless COntrol d. Impact Weapons


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13. Which among the following is an example of an impact weapon?

a. Night Sticks b. Firearm c. Pepper gun spray d. Restraining Devices

14. Acts, which includes negotiation, persuasion and/or verbalization that is resorted to when the mere presence of jail officers is not enough to contain the situation requiring the personnel to give orders to ensure compliance by the inmates. a. Verbal tussle b. Verbal Containment c. Verbal Abuse d. Verbal altercation

15. A situation of high probability that a hazard, condition or activity caused by an inmate or group of inmates which will be injurious to themselves, to jail personnel and visitors is so likely to occur almost immediately and without warning. a. Imminent Danger b. Immediate Danger c. Hostile Intent d. hostile Act

16. Any condition or practice in a place of employment where such a danger exists, which could reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm, immediately or before the happening of such danger. a. Imminent Danger b. Immediate Danger c. Hostile Intent d. hostile Act

17. Which of the following best explains the accountability of public officials and employees to the people?

a. It is provided in the Constitution b. It is expected of very public employee c. They must prove that they are deserving of trust of the people d. They are guided by norms, conduct and discipline

18. Which of the following is not a ground for impeachment of public officials?

a. Betrayal of Public Trust b. Graft and Corruption c. Traffic Violations d. Culpable Violation of the Constitution

19. Which of the following cases best explain the need for a policy on discipline?

a. Chartering red tape b. Betraying public trust c. Fabricating public documents d. Humiliating the under privileged

20. Which of the following acts is not meritorious?

a. Serving everyone regardless of party affiliation? b. Responding to letters and request upon receipt thereof within 15

days c. Acting immediately on public transactions d. Receiving token or gifts from clients


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21. As a public official you must observe norms of conduct in the performance of your official duties. Which of the following norms you should refrain from practicing?

a. Political party affiliation b. Simple living c. Professionalism d. Justness and sincerity

22. Which of the following has the sole power to try and decide all cases of impeachment?

a. House of Representatives b. Senate c. Ombudsman d. Sandiganbayan

23. Public officers and employees are accountable to:

a. the private sector b. the underprivileged c. the people d. the government

24. Which of the following has the exclusive power to initiate all cases of impeachment?

a. House of Representatives b. Senate c. Ombudsman d. Sandiganbayan

25. If you are administratively disciplined, the object is not to:

a. improve public service b. preserve the people’s faith and confidence in the government c. punish you d. emphasize the positive aspect of personnel discipline

26. Which of the following lessons you do not consider as the result of being preventively suspended:

a. the value of exemplary performance b. the value of quality outputs c. the behavior of being non-productive d. the quality of high standards of behavior

27. Which among the following are not considered “Public Officials” under

Republic Act 6713?

a. Elective and Appointive Officials b. Employees in the career or non-career service whether or not they

receive compensation c. Military and Police Personnel d. None of the above

28. In an organization, the resource management system needs to have check and balance in order for an organization to function smoothly. In BJMP, what particular office is responsible for this function?

a. Directorate for Intelligence b. Legal Service c. Internal Audit Service d. Directorate for Investigation & Prosecution


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29. Who appraise the Chief, BJMP on the on-going investigation of erring personnel?

a. Chief, Legal Service b. Director for Investigation and Prosecution c. Chief, Inspectorate Unit d. All of the above

30. The doctrine of Command Responsibility was institutionalized in all government offices, particularly at all levels of command in the PNP and other law enforcement agencies. The supervisor or officer is held liable of this offense if he has: a. Knowledge that a crime or offense shall be committed by his

subordinates or by others within his AOR b. Knowledge that a crime or offense is being committed by his

subordinates, or by others within AOR c. Knowledge that a crime or offense has been committed by his

subordinates or by others within his AOR. d. All of the above

31. Which one among the following functions is discharged by the Warden?

a. Draft and promulgate rules, policies, programs and standards on jail management.

b. Exercise close supervision over all directorates, regional offices, provincial offices including district, city and municipal jails.

c. Ensure the security and development of inmates. d. All of the above.

32. The third highest official of the BJMP is:

a. Chief Directorial Staff b. Deputy Chief for Operations c. Deputy Chief for Administration d. Director for Logistics

33. With the enactment of Republic Act No. 9263, the rank of

Superintendent is appointed by:

a. Secretary, DILG b. Chief, BJMP c. Regional Director d. None of the above

34. The appointing authority for Jail Officer 2 is:

a. Chief, BJMP b. Regional Director c. Undersecretary for Public Safety d. None of the above

35. The required training for the rank of Jail Officer 1 is: a. PSJSC b. PSSSC c. JBRC d. PSOOC


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36. Chief Superintendent is the rank required to hold the helm of Directorates at the National Headquarters. Which of the following Directorates is not a Program Director?

a. Directorate for Program Development b. Directorate for HRRM c. Directorate for Logistics d. Directorate for Operations

37. What non-work related factor contributes to employees being non- productive/ non-performer in our bureau? a. Lack of training b. Personal problems c. Lack of work orientation d. All of the above

38. Punctuality and attendance form part of an employees performance evaluation. As an immediate superior, when do you rate your subordinate the numeral rating of 6? a. Not more than 9-12 days absent b. Not more than 13-16 days absent c. Not more than 5-8 days absent d. Not more than 4 days absent

39. Which of the following designations chaired the National Personnel Selection and Promotion Board ( NPSPB)? a. CDS b. DCA c. DCO d. DHRRM

40. Which of the following designations act as Chairman of the Grievance Committee in the National Headquarters? a. CDS b. DCA c. DCO d. Director for PRM

41. Which among the following designations is not a member of the Regional PRAISE Committee?

a. Chief, Logistics Div b. Chief, Comptrollership Div c. Chief, Operations Div d. Chief, Program Dev’t Div

42. The suspended personnel for three (3) months do not enjoy the: a. Mid/Year End Bonus b. RCA c. Longevity Pay d. None of the above

43. The following personnel is qualified to receive his Terminal Leave Benefits (TLB) except personnel who: a. Opt to retire before age 56 b. Resign from the service with no leave credits c. Left his station without official leave d. Apply and qualify for CDD


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44. It is the bureau’s policy to consider the entry of individuals who meet the criteria under the Minimum Qualification Standards, except in cases of: a. Individuals who are exceptionally skilled b. Individuals whose technical expertise is in the field of penology c. Applicants who have previous government service but more than 40

years old when number of years served is deducted. d. Individuals whose technical know-how is urgently needed by the

Bureau

45. Under the Merit Selection & Promotion Plan (MSPP), a qualified next-in-rank personnel and/or any aggrieved party who is not considered for promotion to the next higher position may present his case to : a. Directorate for Investigation and Prosecution b. Legal Service c. Grievance Machinery d. Directorate for Intelligence

46. The effective date of appointment shall be the date of : a. issuance of such appointment b. actual assumption to office c. on-the-job training d. None of the above

47. Records management is defined as the application of systematic

and scientific control of record information which is required in the

operation of an organization. Which of the following activities do not

involve records management?

a. Creation of records b. Storage of records c. Disposition of records d. Auction of records

48. Records management plays a vital function to any organization.

Which one among the following is not considered as function of

records management?

a. Program the record’s file cycle b. Simplify correspondence c. Ensure improved quality of information d. Aid management in its fundamental responsibilities

49. ____________ is the organization’s operation wherein exchanges of

written ideas between two sources occur.

a. Report Management b. Records Creation c. Policy Creation d. Directives Creation


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50. Which of the following is not considered as problem in handling records?

a. Cost of keeping and maintaining records b. Lack of specific records policy c. Increased production of records by means of office automation,

photocopier, etc. d. Makes essential information easily accessible

51. Easy and quick access to records define a sound records

management. Which of the following is adopted for effective records

management?

a. Records Custodian adopts records Classification system b. Records Custodian adopts records charged-out cards c. Records Custodian disposes records without documentation d. Records Custodian maintains records in a dark room

52. Under RA 6713, government agencies should act promptly on letters ,

telegrams or other means of communication within how many days?

a. Within Ten (10) days b. Within fifteen (15) Days c. Within Thirty (30) days d. None of the Above

53. Under RA 6713, what is the maximum number of signatory which should be

contained in papers and documents in order to be processed expeditiously?

a. One ( 1) Signatory b. Two (2) Signatory c. Three (3) Signatory d. Four (4) Signatory

54. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall always uphold the public interest over and above personal interest.

a. Commitment to public interest b. Justness and Sincerity c. Responsiveness to the Public d. Professionalism

55. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall extend prompt, courteous, and adequate service to the public, simplify and systematize policy, rules and procedures, avoid red tape and develop an understanding and appreciation of the socio-economic conditions prevailing in the country.

a. Commitment to public interest b. Justness and Sincerity c. Responsiveness to the Public d. Professionalism

56. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall at all times be loyal to the Republic and to the Filipino people, promote the use of locally produced goods, resources and technology and encourage appreciation and pride of country and people.

a. Nationalism and Patriotism b. Commitment to Democracy c. Commitment to public interest d. Justness and Sincerity


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57. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall commit themselves to the democratic way of life and values, maintain the principle of public accountability, and manifest by deeds the supremacy of civilian authority over the military. They shall at all times uphold the Constitution and put loyalty to country above loyalty to persons or party.

a. Nationalism and Patriotism b. Commitment to Democracy c. Commitment to public interest d. Justness and Sincerity

58. Married male employees with more than one (1) legal spouse are entitled to avail of Paternity Leave. Regardless of whichever spouse gives birth, the maximum number of deliveries which can be availed of is:

a. Two (2) deliveries b. Three (3) deliveries c. Four (4) deliveries d. Five (5) deliveries

59. Which of the following statement is false with regard to the availment of the

three (3) day Special Leave Privileges?

a. It maybe availed of for personal milestones including death anniversaries b. Parental Obligations such as attendance in school programs c. It may only be availed of in a continuous manner d. It maybe availed of during domestic emergencies, calamity, accident, hospitalization

60. When an official or employee who is on leave without pay for One (1) Year, fails to report for work at the expiration of the leave applied for, he shall be considered:

a. AWOL b. Automatically separated from the service c. Shall be furnished with a Return to Work Order d. Shall be considered dropped from the Rolls

61. Study Leave is a time off-from work with pay for those qualified officials and employees who are taking e.g. board exam or completion of master’s degree. What is the maximum number of months that maybe availed of, under the Study Leave Program?

a. Three (3) Months

b. Four (4) months c. Five (5) Months d. Six (6) Months

62. . Period of Grant is the number of months availed of under the Study Leave Program. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for One (1) month?

a. Three Months b. Six (6) Months c. One (1) Year d. Two (2)Years


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63. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for two to three (2-3) months?


64. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for more than three (3) months?


65. It is said to be the art of influencing and directing people in a manner that wins their obedience, confidence, respect and enthusiastic cooperation in achieving a common objective:

a. Planning b. Coordinating c. Leadership d. Directing

66. This leadership theory contends that effective leaders are born; not

made. Also known as the “Great Man Theory”

a. Leader-Behaviour Approach

b. Trait Approach

c. Lead-Member-Exchange Theory

d. Transformational Leadership Theory

67. This theory espouses that behaviors exhibited by leaders are more

important than their physical, mental, or emotional traits.

a. Trait Approach

b. Lead-Member-Exchange Theory

c. Leader-Behaviour Approach


68. According to this theory, leaders do not treat all subordinates in the same manner, but establish close relationship with some (in-group) while remaining aloof from others (out-group).

a. Lead-Member-Exchange Theory

b. Leader-Behaviour Approach

c. Trait Approach



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69. This theory is focused on the importance of a leader’s charisma to leadership effectiveness. Its’ 4 aspects includes Charisma, Inspiration, Intellectual Stimulation and Consideration. a. Lead-Member-Exchange Theory

b. Leader-Behaviour Approach

c. Trait Approach


70. This theory reflects a philosophy that leaders must be servants first

and must place the needs of subordinates customers, and community ahead of their own interest.

a. Situational Leadership Theory

b. Servant Leadership Theory

c. Transformational Leadership Theory

d. Theory Fiedlers’ Contingency Model

71. Leadership is defined as:

a. influence b. the ability to make things happen c. process by which one individual influences others towards the

attainment of organizational goals; d. All of the above

72. Situational Leadership theory posits that the effectiveness of task and relationship- oriented leadership depends upon the maturity of a leader’s subordinate. Subordinate Maturity is best defined as: a. Ability of subordinates to pass on to others his/her supposed task b. Ability of subordinates to accept responsibility for their own task-

behavior c. Ability of subordinates to analyze a given situation d. Ability of subordinates to express his/her opinions, perspectives to

the leader

73. According to Fiedler’s Contingency Theory, “favorability” of the situation determines the effectiveness of a leader. Favorability is best defined as: a. Respect & trusts of the follower b. Extent to which subordinates responsibilities can be structured &

performance measured c. The control and leaders has over subordinates rewards d. All of the above

74. This kind of leadership speaks of cost- benefit exchange process and

motivates subordinates in exchange for rewards for services rendered.

a. Transactional Leadership

b. Transformational Leadership

c. Charismatic Leadership

d. Laissez Faire


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75. Passive leaders who are reluctant to give direction, generally refrain

from participating in group or individual decision making and to some

extent involves abdication of leadership role.

a. Transactional Leadership

b. Transformational Leadership

c. Charismatic Leadership

d. Laissez Faire

76. Under RA 9263, the appointing authority for the Rank of Senior Superintendent is:

a. The President of the Republic of the Philippines b. The Secretary of thte DILG, upon recommendation of the Chief, BJMP

and attested by the CSC c. The Commission on Appointments d. The Civil Service Commission

77. As provided for under the law, under what instance shall the Chief, BJMP become the appointing authority for Jail Officers 1- SJO4? a. When the Regional Director Waives the appointment of NOR in his

AOR b. When the Regional Director transmits the appointment papers of

NOR from his jurisdiction to the BJMP-NHQ c. When the NORs to be promoted are assigned at the BJMP-NHQ d. All of the above

78. The appointing authority for the Rank of Jail Chief Superintendent to Jail Director is: a. The President of the Republic of the Philippines upon

recommendation of the SILG with proper attestation of CSC b. The Secretary of the DILG, upon recommendation of the

Commission on Appointments c. The President of the Republic of the Philippines upon

recommendation of the SILG with proper indorsement by the Chairman of CSC

d. None of the above

79. Any uniformed personnel of the BJMP who is relieved and assigned to a position lower than what is establish for his grade in the staffing pattern of the bureau and has not been assigned to a position commensurate to his grade for two (2) years, shall be: a. Eligible to file a case of Opression to the Civil Service Commission b. Separated or retired from the service c. Assigned to the Regional Office while waiting for the position

commensurate to his Grade d. Given the option to choose his jail of assignments as a sort of

leverage


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80. Any uniformed personnel of the BJMP who has not been promoted for a continuous period of ten (10) years, a. shall be separated from the service b. shall be retired from the service c. shall be subject to attrition by Non-Promotion d. All of the above

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End of Set B.

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Documents

2012 Penology Exam Questionnaire