0999DMD310121006 DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME

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Correct Method Wrong Method

NEET(UG)
TEST # 06 19-09-2021

Test Type : Unit Test # 05
11th Undergoing Students
ALLEN Topic : Collisions and Centre of Mass
1. 1. m, 2m 4m :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
2. 2. 1 kg 3 kg

2 m/s ,
0.5 m/s
5 m/s
:-
(1) 0.75 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 1.25 m/s
3. 3. 9 kg 3 kg 6 kg 3 kg 6 kg
:-
(1) 3 J (2) 6 J (3) 36 J (4) 12 J
4. 4. 30 g 300 m/s 0.60 m/s :-
(1) 5 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 15 kg (4) 20 kg
For the system of particle of masses m, 2m and 4m shown in the figure the position vector of centre of mass is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
+ 10 7 i
2 7 k +
10 7 i
2 7 j
+ 2 7 i
10 7 j +
3 7 i
2 7 k
+ 10 7 i
2 7 k +
10 7 i
2 7 j
+ 2 7 i
10 7 j +
3 7 i
2 7 k
Two particles of masses 1 kg and 3 kg move towards each other under their mutual forces of attraction. When the relative velocity of approach of both particles is 2 m/s, the velocity of their centre of mass is 0.5 m/s. When relative velocity of approach becomes 5 m/s, the velocity of centre of mass will be :-
(1) 0.75 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s (4) 1.25 m/s
A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 3 kg and 6 kg. If momentum of 3 kg piece is , then kinetic energy of 6 kg
piece is :-
(1) 3 J (2) 6 J (3) 36 J (4) 12 J
6 kgms−1 6 kgms−1
A bullet of mass 30 g leaves a rifle with a speed of 300 m/s and the rifle recoils back with a speed of 0.60 m/s. the mass of rifle is :
(1) 5 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 15 kg (4) 20 kg
FTS / Page 1/44NEET(UG) - 2023 / 19092021 Space for Rough Work / NURTURE TEST SERIES - JOINT PACKAGE COURSE 0999DMD310121006
ALLEN 5. 5. m v
m
m
:-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
6. 6. :-
(1) (a, a, 0) (2)
(3) (4) (2a, 2a, 0)
7. 7. 1 kg, 2 kg 3 kg
(1,–2, 3) 2kg
3kg (–1, 3, –2) 5 kg : :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A ball of mass m moving with a velocity v collides head on elastically with another stationary ball of mass m . If after collision
velocity of ball m becomes , then value of
ratio , is
1
2
m1
m2
A plate of uniform thickness is shown in figure. The co-ordinates of centre of mass of the plate are :-
(1) (a, a, 0) (2)
(3) (4) (2a, 2a, 0)
( , , 0)3a 2
3a 2
Centre of mass of three particles of masses 1 kg,
2 kg and 3 kg is at point (1,–2, 3) and centre of mass of two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg is
at point (–1, 3, –2). Where a particle of 5 kg should be placed so that centre of mass of a system of all six particles lies at origin?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
i j k
NEET(UG) - 2023 / 19092021FTS / Page 2/44 Space for Rough Work / NURTURE TEST SERIES - JOINT PACKAGE COURSE 0999DMD310121006
ALLEN 8. 8. 45° 4 m
16 m
m 3m
3 m

m
?
(1) 40 m (2) 20 m
(3) 32 m (4) 28 m
9. 9. 1 : 2

3 : 1
:-
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 7 : 5
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 2 : 3
10. 10. A, B C
A m v
m B 4 m C

A :-
(1)
(4)
A particle of mass 4 m projected at an angle 45° with the horizontal has the range 16 m. At the highest point of the path it explodes into two pieces of masses m and 3m. If one pieces of mass 3 m falls vertically downward at the point of explosion, then at what distance from the projection point the other pieces of mass m will fall?
(1) 40 m (2) 20 m
(3) 32 m (4) 28 m
Two balls with masses in the ratio 1 : 2 moving in opposite direction have a head on elastic collision. If their velocities before, collision were in the ratio 3 : 1, then ratio of their velocities after collision will be :-
(1) 5 : 3 (2) 7 : 5
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 2 : 3
Three blocks A, B and C are placed as shown
in figure. Block A has mass m and moving
with velocity v. Block B of mass m and block
C of mass 4 m are initially at rest. Neglect
friction. Assuming all collisions are elastic the
final velocity of block A is :-
(1) to the left
(4) to the right
3v 5
3v 5
3v 5
3v 5
ALLEN 11. 11. 1 2
e
'pk ,
?
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/6
12. 12. 1
2
t = 2 :
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 10 unit
13. 13.
-
:
(1) 10/3 (2) 5/4
(3) 8/3 (4) 3/2
14. 14. 80
:

:
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 1 sec (4) 8 sec
Ball 1 collides with an another identical ball 2 at rest as shown in figure. For what value of coefficient of restitution e, the velocity of second ball becomes two times that of 1 after collision?
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/6
A particle of mass 1 kg has velocity
and another particle of mass 2 kg has velocity
. Net force on centre of mass of
system at t = 2 sec is :
(1) (2)
3
Two bodies collides as shown in figure. If the collision is perfectly elastic magnitude of impulse exerted by the two bodies on each other during the collision is :
(1) 10/3 (2) 5/4
(3) 8/3 (4) 3/2
A ball is released from a height of 80 m on ground and after colliding to ground it rebounds again. If the coefficient of restitution
for the collision is then the time interval
between 1 and 2 collision is:
(1) 2 sec (2) 4 sec (3) 1 sec (4) 8 sec
1 2
st nd
1 2
ALLEN 15. 15. h
:

:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16. 16. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
17. 17. : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv)
(4) All
A body falls from a height h on a horizontal surface and rebounds. Then it falls again and again rebounds and soon. If the coefficient of
restitution is , the total time taken by the
body to come to rest is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3) Linear momentum as well as kinetic energy
(4) Neither the linear momentum nor the kinetic energy
In a head on elastic collision of two bodies of equal masses, which of the following are correct: (i) The velocities are interchanged. (ii) Only speeds are interchanged. (iii) Momentum are interchanged. (iv) Only magnitude of momentum is interchanged.
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv)
(4) All
ALLEN 18. 18.
4V : ( y- )
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
19. 19. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
20. 20. :
(1) 'pk
(2)
(3)
(4) ,
21. 21. 60 20 3 m/sec ( ) :
(1) 1.08 kJ (2) 0.54 kJ
(3) 2 kJ (4) 1 kJ
A bomb explodes in air when its velocity is . It breaks into two equal parts. If one
goes vertically up at a speed of 4V then velocity of other part just after explosion is: (Assume vertically upwards as +ve y-axis)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
V i
V i
Two observers are situated in different inertial frames then:
(1) The momentum of a body measured by both observers may be same
(2) The momentum of a body measured by both observers must be same
(3) The kinetic energy of a body measured by both observers must be same
(4) None of the above
In an inelastic collision which of the following is incorrect:
(1) The velocity of both the particles may be same after collision.
(2) Kinetic energy is not conserved
(3) Linear momentum of the system is conserved
(4) Velocity of separation will be greater than velocity of approach
A man of mass 60 kg jumps from a trolley of mass 20 kg standing on smooth surface with absolute (w.r.t. ground) velocity 3 m/sec. Find out total energy produced :
(1) 1.08 kJ (2) 0.54 kJ
(3) 2 kJ (4) 1 kJ
ALLEN 22. 22. m
V
t
:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
23. 23. v m ,
2m

:
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
24. 24. 2 (2m, 0) (0, 2m)
1 ,
B x
:
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m
(3) 1.5 m (4) 0.2 m
Three particles of mass m are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral triangle. If they starts moving towards each other with same speed V then displacement of centre of mass of the system in time t is:
(1) (2)
t V 2
A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides elastically in head-on manner with another body of mass 2m at rest. The ratio of kinetic energy of colliding body before and after collision is:
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
Two particles each of mass 2kg are put at (2m, 0) and (0, 2m) as shown in figure. Now a particle of mass 1 kg is put on to the particle B. The change in x coordinate of centre of mass of the system is:
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m
(3) 1.5 m (4) 0.2 m
ALLEN 25. 25. 1 m
25 cm :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
26. 26.
,
-
(1) P (2)
(3) (4)
27. 27. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
28. 28. 45° 'pk
( e ≤ 1)
(1) 45° (2) 30°
(3) 53° (4) 60°
A body dropped from a height 1 m on to a floor rises to a height of 25 cm after the first rebound. the coefficient of restitution is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
3 4
1 4
1 2
2 3
3 4
1 4
1 2
2 3
A bomb at rest explodes into 3 parts of same mass. The momentum of 2 parts are &
. The momentum of the third part will have
a magnitude :-
Position of the centre of mass of the system is:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
( , )8 9
13 9
( , )13 9
8 9
( , )15 9
8 9
( , )8 9
15 9
( , )8 9
13 9
( , )13 9
8 9
( , )15 9
8 9
( , )8 9
15 9
A ball strikes a smooth horizontal ground at an angle of 45° with the vertical. What cannot be the possible angle of its velocity with the vertical after the collision. (Assume e ≤ 1)
(1) 45° (2) 30°
(3) 53° (4) 60°
ALLEN 29. 29.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
30. 30. 5 kg 3 m/s 0.5 m/s 2kg 'pk (e = 4/7)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
31. 31. 'pk , :-
(1)
(2)
(4)
32. 32. 200 500
: ./. ./.
./. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A body at rest breaks into two pieces of equal masses. The parts will move
(1) in same direction
(4) along different lines
A ball of mass 5 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s collides head-on with another ball of mass 2 kg moving with velocity 0.5 m/s towards the first ball. Find velocity of separation after impact (e = 4/7)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
m/s 10 7
m/s 24 7
m/s 34 7
m/s 14 7
m/s 10 7
m/s 24 7
m/s 34 7
m/s 14 7
When two bodies stick together after collision, the collision is said to be
(1) Partially elastic
(2) Total elastic
(3) Total inelastic
(4) None of the above
Two objects of masses 200 gm and 500 gm possess velocities m/s and m/s
respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass in m/s is:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
10i 3 + 5i j
− 25 5 7 i j
5 +i 25 7 j
25 −i 5 7 j
ALLEN 33. 33. m
V
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
34. 34. , ‘‘ ’’ :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 'pk :
35. 35. -1, -2
-1, V -2
, 'pk
-1

(1)
(3)
(4)
A bag of sand of mass m is suspended by a
rope. A bullet of mass is fired at it with a
velocity V and gets embedded into it. The velocity of the bag finally is:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
m 20
20V 21
V 20
V 21
A man hangs from a rope attached to a hot-air balloon. The mass of the man is greater than the mass of the balloon and its contents, the system is stationary in air. If the man now climbs up to the balloon using the rope, the centre of mass of the 'man plus balloon' system will:-
(1) remain stationary
(2) move up
(3) move down
(4) first move up and then return
Two billiards ball undergo a head on collision. Ball-1 is twice as heavy as ball-2, initially, ball-1 moves with a speed 'V' Towards ball-2 which is at rest. Immediately after the
collision, ball-1 Travels at a speed of in the
same direction. What type of collision has occurred.
(1) Inelastic
(2) Elastic
V 3 V
3
ALLEN 36. 36.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
37. 37. 10 1 , -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) ,
38. 38. 40 kg 10 kg x- 2 cm ,
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 1 cm
39. 39. m 3 m :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block resting on a horizontal frictionless table, what is conserved.
(1) Momentum and kinetic energy
(2) Kinetic energy alone
(4) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
A ball is dropped from height 10m. Ball is embedded in sand 1m and stops, then:-
(1) Only momentum remains conserved
(2) Only kinetic energy remains conserved
(3) Both momentum and K.E. are conserved
(4) Neither K.E. nor momentum is conserved
Two blocks of masses 40 kg and 10 kg are placed on x-axis. The first block is moved on the axis by a distance of 2 cm. By what distance should the second block be moved to keep the position of centre of mass unchanged?
(1) 4 cm (2) 6 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 1 cm
A man of mass m stands at one end of a plank of length , which lies at rest on a frictionless surface. The man walks to the centre of the plank and stops. If mass of plank is 3 m, the distance moved by the man relative to ground is :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
8
4
3 4
3 8
8
4
3 4
3 8
ALLEN 40. 40. 12 m/s
, 2 m/s , 'pk
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

(1) (3.3 cm, 10 cm)
(2) (2.5 cm, 4.3 cm)
(3) (10 cm, 2.5 cm)
(4) (5 cm, 10 cm)
A ball is moving with velocity 12 m/s towards a heavy wall which is moving away from the ball with a speed of 2 m/s. Assuming collision to be elastic, the velocity of the ball immediately after collision is :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4 m/si
−8 m/si
−14 m/si
8 m/si
4 m/si
−8 m/si
−14 m/si
8 m/si
Find the coordinates of centre of mass of letter E as shown in figure :-
(1) (3.3 cm, 10 cm)
(2) (2.5 cm, 4.3 cm)
(3) (10 cm, 2.5 cm)
(4) (5 cm, 10 cm)
ALLEN 42. 42. m U
M = nm V
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
43. 43. m V 'pk ,

:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
44. 44. y- V - x- 2V :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
45. 45. 2 4 :
2 ./. 10 ./.
:-
(1) 8.1 m/s (2) 7.3 m/s
(3) 6.4 m/s (4) 5.3 m/s
A bullet of mass m moving with velocity U passes through a wooden block of mass M = nm. The block is resting on a smooth horizontal floor. After passing through the block, the velocity of bullet is V. Its velocity relative to block is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1+ n)V −U n
nV −U n+ 1
nU −V n+ 1
(n+ 1)U +V 2n+ 1
A ball of mass m moving at a speed V makes a head on collision with an identical ball at rest. The kinetic energy of the balls after the
collision is of the original then coefficient
of restitution for the collision is:
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 4
A spaceship is travelling along +y axis with speed V suddenly shots out one fourth of its part with speed 2V along +x axis. The speed of the remaining part is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
3 V0
Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively along same direction. Then the velocity of their centre of mass will be:-
(1) 8.1 m/s (2) 7.3 m/s
(3) 6.4 m/s (4) 5.3 m/s
ALLEN Topic : Thermodynamics
46. 46. HI :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
47. 47. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
48. 48. -
(1)
(2)
(4)
49. 49. CH ΔU = –X KJ/mol CH ΔH –
(1) = ΔU (2) > ΔU
(3) < ΔU (4) = 0
50. 50.
2CO(g) + O (g) → 2CO (g); ΔH = –560 kJ. 10 500 K 70 , 'pk 40 :-
(1) –557 kJ (2) –530 kJ
(3) –563 kJ (4)
51. 51. -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sealed hot bulb containing HI gas is an example of :-
(1) Open system (2) Closed system
(3) Isolated system (4) None of these
Among the following, the intensive property is :-
(1) Mass (2) Volume
(3) Surface tension (4) Enthalpy
Internal energy change during a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is :-
(1) always Negative
(2) always positive
ΔU of combustion of CH is –X KJ/mol.
The value of ΔH for combustion of CH -
(1) = ΔU (2) > ΔU
(3) < ΔU (4) = 0
For the real gases reaction
2CO(g) + O (g) → 2CO (g); ΔH = –560 kJ. In 10 litre rigid vessel at 500 K the initial pressure is 70 bar and after the reaction it becomes 40 bar. The change in internal energy is :-
(1) –557 kJ (2) –530 kJ
(3) –563 kJ (4) None of these
2 2 2 2
In which of the following process work is independent on path :-
(1) Isochoric (2) Adiabatic
(3) Isobaric (4) Isothermal
ALLEN 52. 52.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
53. 53. 2.0 20 40 10 ? ( : 1 = 101.3 )
(1) 4052 (2) 5948
(3) 14052 (4) 9940
54. 54. ΔV ( ) P , -
(1) W = – PdV
(2) W = 0
(4)
55. 55.
-

:-
(1) C ln 2
(2) C ln 2
(3) R ln 2
(4) (C – R) ln 2
If the internal energy of an ideal gas decreases by then the same amount as work done by the system, then the process will be :-
(1) Cyclic (2) Isothermal
(3) Adiabatic (4) Isolated
An ideal gas expands against a constant external pressure of 2.0 atmosphere from 20 litre to 40 litre and absorbs 10 kJ of heat from surrounding. What is the change in internal energy of the system? (given : 1 atm-litre = 101.3 J)
(1) 4052 J (2) 5948 J
(3) 14052 J (4) 9940 J
The work done by a weightless piston in causing
an expansion Δ V (at constant temperature), when the opposing pressure P is variable, is given by :
(1) W = – PdV
(2) W = 0
to half of its initial volume and simultaneously
heated to twice its initial temperature, the
change in entropy of gas (ΔS) is :-
(1) C ln 2
(2) C ln 2
(3) R ln 2
p,m
v,m
v,m
p,m
v,m
v,m
ALLEN 56. 56. 2C + O → 2CO ; ΔH = –220 KJ,
:-
(1) –110 KJ/mol
(2)
–110 KJ/mol
(3)
(4) –220 KJ
57. 57. :-
C H + O → 2CO + H O
; ΔG° = –1234 C + O → CO (g); ΔG° = – 394
H + O → H O ; ΔG° = –237
? H + 2C → C H
(1) –209 (2) –2259
(3) +2259 (4) 209
58. 58. 10 300 K ΔG° ?
(1) –5.74 kJ (2) –574 kJ
(3) + 11.48 kJ (4) +5.74 kJ
59. 59. :
(1) (dG) < 0
(2) (ΔS ) < 0
(3) ΔS > 0
(4) ΔS < 0
2C + O → 2CO ; ΔH = –220 KJ, Which statement is correct for the reaction :-
(1) Heat of combustion of carbon is –110 KJ/mol.
(2) Heat of formation of carbon mono oxide is
–110 KJ/mol.
(4) Heat of combustion of carbon is –220 KJ
(s) 2(g) (g) (s) 2(g) (g)
The free energy change for the following reactions are given below :-
C H + O → 2CO + H O
; ΔG° = –1234 kJ C + O → CO (g) ; ΔG° = – 394 kJ
H + O → H O ; ΔG° = –237 kJ
What is the standard free energy change for the reaction ? H + 2C → C H
(1) –209 kJ (2) –2259 kJ
(3) +2259 kJ (4) 209 kJ
2 2(g) 5 2 2(g) 2(g) 2 ()

2(g) (s) 2 2(g)

2(g) (s) 2 2(g)
The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 10. What will be the value of ΔG° at 300 K ?
(1) –5.74 kJ (2) –574 kJ
(3) + 11.48 kJ (4) +5.74 kJ
Which of the following is always correct for spontaneous process
(1) (dG) < 0
(2) (ΔS ) < 0
(3) ΔS > 0
(4) ΔS < 0
sys
system
universe
sys
system
universe
ALLEN 60. 60. , ΔH = –40kJ ΔS = –50J/K
: : ?
(1) 0.8 K 1K (2) 799 K 800 K
(3) 800 K 801 K (4) 799 K 801 K
61. 61. 1 atm H O(s) :- (1) : (p) 273 K (2) (q) 260 K (3) : (r) 280 K
(1) (1 → r), (2 → p), (3 → q)
(2) (1 → q), (2 → p), (3 → r)
(3) (1 → r), (2 → q), (3 → p)
(4) (1 → p), (2 → q), (3 → r)
62. 62. :
M + O → MO + 351.4 kJ
X + O → XO + 90.8 kJ M + XO MO + X () :-
(1) 422.2 kJ (2) 268.7 kJ
(3) –442.2 kJ (4) 260.6 kJ
63. 63. Δ H° .
(1) C + O → CO
(4) CO + → CO
For a reaction, ΔH = –40kJ and ΔS = –50J/K. At what temperature range will it change from spontaneous to non-spontaneous ?
(1) 0.8 K to 1K (2) 799 K to 800 K
(3) 800 K to 801 K (4) 799 K to 801 K
Match the conditions and the temperature for the 'fusion' process of H O(s) at 1 atm pressure Condition Temperature (1) Spontaneous (p) 273 K (2) At equilibrium (q) 260 K (3) Non-spontaneous (r) 280 K
(1) (1 → r), (2 → p), (3 → q)
(2) (1 → q), (2 → p), (3 → r)
(3) (1 → r), (2 → q), (3 → p)
(4) (1 → p), (2 → q), (3 → r)
2
2
M + O → MO + 351.4 kJ
X + O → XO + 90.8 kJ If follows that the heat of reaction (magnitude) for the following process M + XO MO + X is given by :-
(1) 422.2 kJ (2) 268.7 kJ
(3) –442.2 kJ (4) 260.6 kJ
2
2
2
2
Δ H°.
(4) CO + → CO
2 2(g) 3(g)
f
2 2(g) 3(g)
(g) 1 2 O2(g) 2(g)
ALLEN 64. 64. S + O → SO + 2x kcal
SO + O → SO + y kcal
SO
(1) y – 2x (2) 2x + y
(3) x + y (4) 2x/y
65. 65. ,
H + O →H O +68.3 kcal
CH +2O →CO +2H O +210.8 kcal
:-
(1) –45.9 (2) –47.8 (3) –20 (4) –47.3
66. 66. 2 2.5 kcal
?
(1) –10 Kcal. (2) –20 Kcal.
(3) –30 Kcal (4) –40 Kcal.
67. 67. 25°C ,
: –393.5; –284.8 –890.4 kJ/mole
:-
(1) 890.4 kJ/mole (2) –298.8 kJ/mole
(3) –72.7 kJ/mole (4) –107.7 kJ/mole
68. 68. –220 kJ mol 55kJ :-
(1) 5.6 L (NTP) (2) 22.4 L (NTP)
(3) 14.66 (4) 22
S + O → SO + 2x kcal
SO + O → SO + y kcal
Find out the enthalpy of formation of SO .
(1) y – 2x (2) 2x + y
(3) x + y (4) 2x/y
3 2 2 3
2
2
Given,
H + O →H O +68.3 kcal
CH +2O →CO +2H O +210.8 kcal The enthalpy of formation of methane in kcal will be :-
(1) –45.9 (2) –47.8 (3) –20 (4) –47.3
(s) 2(g) 2(g)
4(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ()
(s) 2(g) 2(g)
4(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 ()
2.5 Kcal enthalpy is released in the combustion of 2 g methane. The enthalpy of combustion of methane will be :-
(1) –10 Kcal. (2) –20 Kcal.
(3) –30 Kcal (4) –40 Kcal.
The combustion enthalpy of carbon, hydrogen and
methane are –393.5; –284.8 and –890.4 kJ/mole respectively at 25°C. The value of standard formation enthalpies of methane at that temperature is :-
(1) 890.4 kJ/mole (2) –298.8 kJ/mole
(3) –72.7 kJ/mole (4) –107.7 kJ/mole
Heat of combustion of propane is –220 kJ mol . which of the following quantity of propane liberates 55 kJ of heat on combustion :-
(1) 5.6L (NTP) (2) 22.4 L (NTP)
(3) 14.66 g (4) 22 g
–1 –1
ALLEN 69. 69. 2870 kcal

–1349 kcal
:-
(1) 728 g (2) 0.728 g
(3) 342 g (4) 0.342 g
70. 70. 1M HCl 1M H SO 10 ml,
1M NaOH
: x y ,
: -
(1) 2x = y (2) x = y
(3) x = 2y (4) 3x = y
71. 71. CH COOH KOH –12 KCal.mol CH COOH :-
(1) +12 KCal
(2) +13.7 KCal
(3) –1.7 KCal
(4) +1.7 KCal
72. 72. HF :-
(1) 57.3 kJ
(2) <57.3 kJ
(3) 19 kJ
(4) >57.3 kJ
73. 73. CH C H : 320 600 , C–C :-
(1) 80 cal (2) 40 cal
(3) 60 cal (4) 120 cal
A person requires 2870 kcal of energy to lead
normal daily life. If heat of combustion of cane
sugar is –1349 kcal then his daily consumption
of sugar is :-
(1) 728 g (2) 0.728 g
(3) 342 g (4) 0.342 g
10 ml each of 1M HCl and 1M H SO are
completely neutralised by 1M NaOH solution
that liberate the heat of x and y respectively.
Which is true :-
2 4 2 4
Heat of neutralization of CH COOH with KOH is –12 KCal.mol . Calculate dissociation enthalpy of CH COOH is :-
(1) +12 KCal
(2) +13.7 KCal
(3) –1.7 KCal
(4) +1.7 KCal
(1) 57.3 kJ
(2) <57.3 kJ
(3) 19 kJ
(4) >57.3 kJ
If enthalpy of atomisation of CH and C H are 320 and 600 calories respectively then bond energy of C–C bond is :-
(1) 80 cal (2) 40 cal
(3) 60 cal (4) 120 cal
4 2 6 4 2 6
ALLEN 74. 74. CH –H

CH I(g) → CH (g) + I(g); ΔH = 54.0 kcal
CH (g) + I (s) → CH I(g) + HI(g); ΔH = 29.0 kcal
HI(g) → H(g) + I(g); ΔH = 79.8 kcal
I (s) → 2I(g); ΔH = 51.0 kcal
(1) 125.2 kcal/mol (2) 91.7 kcal/mol
(3) 101.9 kcal/mol (4) 111.8 kcal/mol
75. 75. PH P H : 228 355 P–P :-
(1) 279 kcal/mol (2) 102 kcal/mol
76. 76. XY, X Y ( )
1 : 1 : 0.5
XY Δ H –200
, X
:-
(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 800
(4) 300
77. 77. ΔH :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
From the following thermochemical equations, find
out bond dissociation enthalpy of CH –H bond.
CH I(g) → CH (g) + I(g); ΔH = 54.0 kcal
CH (g) + I (s) → CH I(g) + HI(g); ΔH = 29.0 kcal
HI(g) → H(g) + I(g); ΔH = 79.8 kcal
I (s) → 2I(g); ΔH = 51.0 kcal
(1) 125.2 kcal/mol (2) 91.7 kcal/mol
(3) 101.9 kcal/mol (4) 111.8 kcal/mol
3
2
The heat of atomisation of PH and P H are 228 and 355 kcal per mol respectively then bond energy of P–P bond will be :-
3 2 4 3 2 4
If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X
and Y (all diatomic molecules) are in the
ratio of 1 : 1 : 0.5 and Δ H for the formation of
XY is –200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation
energy of X will be :-
(1) 200 kJ mol
(2) 100 kJ mol
(3) 800 kJ mol
(4) 300 kJ mol
(1) Heat of formation
(2) Heat of neutralisation
(3) Heat of solution
(4) Heat of fusion
ALLEN 78. 78. S + O → SO ; ΔH = –298.2 kJ mol
SO + ½O → SO ; ΔH = –98.7 kJ mol
SO + H O → H SO ; ΔH = –130.2 kJ mol
H + ½O → H O ; ΔH = –287.3 kJ mol
298 K H SO -
(1) –814.4 KJ (2) –650.3 KJ
(3) –320.5 KJ (4) –433.5 KJ
79. 79. ΔH ΔE
(1) PCl (g) → PCl (g) + Cl (g)
(2) H (g) + Cl (g) → 2HCl (g)
(3) CH OH() + 3O (g) → 2CO (g) + 3H O (g)
(4) C H (g) + H (g) → C H (g)
80. 80. 100°C 90 g
ΔU ?
( ΔH = 40.8 kJ mol , R = 8.314 JK mol )
(1) 4800 kJ (2) 188.494 kJ
(3) 40.8 kJ (4) 125.03 kJ
81. 81. -
(1) 0 (2) ∞
(3) 1 (4)
82. 82. -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
If S + O → SO ; ΔH = –298.2 kJ mol SO + ½O → SO ; ΔH = –98.7 kJ mol SO + H O → H SO ; ΔH = –130.2 kJ mol H + ½O → H O ; ΔH = –287.3 kJ mol Then the enthalpy of formation of H SO at 298 K is -
(1) –814.4 KJ (2) –650.3 KJ
(3) –320.5 KJ (4) –433.5 KJ
2 2 –1
2 2 2 –1
2 2 2 –1
Among the following the reaction for which ΔH = ΔE is
(1) PCl (g) → PCl (g) + Cl (g)
(2) H (g) + Cl (g) → 2HCl (g)
(3) CH OH() + 3O (g) → 2CO (g) + 3H O (g)
(4) C H (g) + H (g) → C H (g)
5 3 2
5 3 2
2 4 2 2 6
The value for ΔU for the reversible isothermal evaporation of 90 g water at 100°C will be
(ΔH of water = 40.8 kJ mol , R = 8.314 JK mol )
(1) 4800 kJ (2) 188.494 kJ
(3) 40.8 kJ (4) 125.03 kJ
evap –1
–1
–1 –1
The heat capacity of a system in isothermal process would be :
(1) 0 (2) ∞
The temperature of the system decreases in an :
(1) Adiabatic compression
(2) Isothermal compression
(3) Isothermal expansion
(4) Adiabatic expansion
ALLEN 83. 83. 27°C 2 4 40
(R = 8.314 Jk mol ) :
(1) w = –28.72
(2) w = –11.488
(3) w = –5.736
(4) w = –4.988
84. 84. ΔH = 40 kJ mol
ΔS = 80 JK mol
: (
ΔH ΔS ) :-
(1) T > 500 K
(2) T < 500 K
(4) T > 298 K
85. 85. 1g 20.7 KJ

(1) –2.48 KJ/mol
(2) –248 KJ/mol
(3) –2.48 J/mol
(4) –248 J/mol
86. 86. 9 142.5 kJ
:
:-
(1) +285 kJ (2) –285 kJ
(3) +142.5 kJ (4) –142.5 kJ
2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litre to 40 litre. The work done (in kJ) by the gas is (R = 8.314 Jk mol ) :
(1) w = –28.72 kJ
(2) w = –11.488 kJ
(3) w = –5.736 kJ
(4) w = –4.988 kJ
–1 –1 –1 –1
& ΔS = 80 JK mol . The reaction is spontaneous at :-
(assume that ΔH & ΔS does not vary with temperature) :-
(1) T > 500 K
(2) T < 500 K
(3) At all temperatures
(4) T > 298 K
–1 –1
In the combustion of 1g of graphite produced 20.7 KJ of heat, what will be the molar enthalpy change?
(1) –2.48 KJ/mol
(2) –248 KJ/mol
(3) –2.48 J/mol
(4) –248 J/mol
heat is required. Hence the enthalpy of
formation of water is :-
(1) +285 kJ (2) –285 kJ
(3) +142.5 kJ (4) –142.5 kJ
ALLEN 87. 87. 5.8 C H (g)
(kJ) ? 2C H + 13O → 8 CO + 10 H O ΔH = –5756 kJ
(1) 575.6 (2) 287.8
(3) 182 (4) 57.56
88. 88. 200 cm , 0.1M H SO , 150 cm , 0.2M KOH :-
(1) 1.7 KJ (2) 2.7 KJ
(3) 9.2 KJ (4) 3.2 KJ
89. 89. CH = CH + H → CH —CH

C—H, C—C, C = C, H—H
: 414, 347, 615 435 KJ mol
:-
(1) –250 KJ
(2) +250 KJ
(3) +125 KJ
(4) –125 KJ
90. 90. H + Cl —→ 2HCl 182 KJ H–H Cl–Cl : 430 242 KJ/mol H – Cl
(1) 245 KJ mol
(2) 427 KJ mol
(3) 336 KJ mol
(4) 154 KJ mol
What amount of energy (in kJ) is released in the combustion of 5.8 g of C H ? 2C H + 13O → 8 CO + 10 H O ΔH = –5756 kJ
(1) 575.6 (2) 287.8
(3) 182 (4) 57.56
4 10
4 10 2(g) 2(g) 2
200 cm of 0.1M H SO is mixed with 150 cm of 0.2M KOH. Find the value of evolved heat.
(1) 1.7 KJ (2) 2.7 KJ
(3) 9.2 KJ (4) 3.2 KJ
3 2 4
CH = CH + H → CH —CH
The bond energy of C—H, C—C, C = C,
H—H are 414, 347, 615 and 435 KJ mol respectively:-
(1) –250 KJ
(2) +250 KJ
(3) +125 KJ
(4) –125 KJ
–1
–1
Heat evolved in the reaction H + Cl —→ 2HCl
is 182 KJ. Bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are
430 and 242 KJ/ mol respectively. The H – Cl bond energy is :
(1) 245 KJ mol
(2) 427 KJ mol
(3) 336 KJ mol
(4) 154 KJ mol
–1
–1
–1
–1
ALLEN Topic : Cell Structure and Function, Biomolecules, Cell division
91. 91. :-
(1)
(2)
(3) 1 2
(4)
92. 92. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
93. 93.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
94. 94. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
95. 95. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
96. 96.
:-
(1) 52% 40%
(2) 80% 20%
(3) 40% 52%
(4) 52% 20%
Unicellular organisms are capable of :-
(1) Showing independent existence
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Not capable to divide
Unicellular organism were first studied by :-
(1) Robert Brown (2) Joseph Priestley
(3) Robert Hooke (4) Leeuwenhoek
Most abundant l ipid in cell membrane
is :-
(1) Glycolipid (2) Cholesterol
(3) Sphingolipid (4) Phospholipid
Which of the following cell organelles is found in both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells?
(1) Mesosome (2) Ribosome
(3) Golgi complex (4) Mitochondria
Which of the following is a universal feature of all living cells ?
(1) Nucleus (2) Chloroplast
In human Beings, the membrane of the
erythrocyte has approximately :-
(1) 52% protein and 40% lipids
(4) 52% carbohydrates and 20% protein
ALLEN 97. 97.
:-
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.3
(3) 0.80 (4) 0.60
(1)
(3)
(4)
99. 99. ' ' -
(1 ) →
→ →
→
(2) → → → →
(3) → →
→ →
(4) → →
→ →
100. 100. (20) ?
(1) 20 (Twenty) (2) 40 (Fourty)
(3) 60 (Sixty) (4) 80 (Eighty)
Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of erythrocytes of human being is :-
(1) 1.8 (2) 1.3
(3) 0.80 (4) 0.60
(4) Non-living structure
Starting from the outside of a cell and moving towards the inside of a cell, which of the following components of a 'typical plant cell' are organised correctly ?
(1) Plasma membrane → primary cell wall
→ secondary cell wall → Middle lamella
→ cytoplasm
lamella → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary
cell wall → primary cell wall → middle lamella
(4) Middle lamella → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm
How many chromosome shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has twenty chromosome ?
(1) 20 (Twenty) (2) 40 (Fourty)
(3) 60 (Sixty) (4) 80 (Eighty)
ALLEN 101. 101. :-
(1) 9 () + 0
(2) 9 () + 2
(3) 9 () + 0
(4) 9 () + 2
102. 102. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
103. 103. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) 'ys
(4)
104. 104. : ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
Microtubular arrangement in centrioles is :-
(1) 9 (doublets) + 0
(2) 9 (doublets) + 2
(3) 9 (triplets) + 0
(4) 9 (triplets) + 2
Vacuole in a plant cell :
(1) Is membrane bounded and contain stored proteins and lipids only.
(2) Lacks membrane and contain water and excretory substances
(3) Lacks membrane and contain air
(4) Is membrane bounded and contain water and excretory substances
Why the golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum ?
(1) GB maintains the functions of ER
(2) ER maintains the functions of GB
(3) Proteins synthesised by ribosomes on the
ER are modified in the cisternae of the GB
(4) Origin of both cell organelles is common
Which is the part of endomembrane system of eukaryotic cells ?
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Peroxisomes
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Lysosomes
ALLEN 105. 105.
-
(1)
(2) :
(3) :
(4)
106. 106. Cis-face ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
107. 107. RER :-
(1) 'ys
(2)
(3)
(4) 'ys
108. 108. Cis face
trans face
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) RER
109. 109. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Packaging of macromolecules which has to be delivered out from cell occur in :-
(1) Golgi body
(1) Near Mitochondria
(2) Near vacuole
(1) Cholesterol and phospholipid synthesis
(2) Detoxification of drugs and steroids
(3) Formation of sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Provide the site for protein synthesis
The product of which organelle are modified
during transport from the Cis-face to trans face
of the golgi apparatus.
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome
(3) Nucleus (4) RER
Which one of the following is semi autonomous cell organelle ?
(1) Peroxisome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Dictyosome
(4) Lysosome
ALLEN 110. 110.
: :-
(1) 9 + 2 9 + 1
(2) 9 + 1 9 + 0
(3) 9 + 0 9 + 2
(4) 9 + 2 9 + 0
111. 111. ATP 'ys :-
(1)
(2) F –
(3)
(4)
112. 112. : -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
113. 113. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
114. 114. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Arrangement of microtubules in a flagellum and a centriole is respectively :-
(1) 9 + 2 and 9 + 1
(2) 9 + 1 and 9 + 0
(3) 9 + 0 and 9 + 2
(4) 9 + 2 and 9 + 0
Synthesis of ATP or oxidative phosphorylation takes place in :-
(1) Perimitochondrial space
1 1
(1) Stroma
(3) Outermembrane of chloroplast
(1) Lysosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Golgibody
The central part of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called :-
(1) Spoke (2) Doublet
(3) Hub (4) Linker
ALLEN 115. 115.
DNA , RNA , (70s)
,
:-
(3) (4)
116. 116. ?
(1) DNA +
(2) RNA +
(4)
117. 117. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
118. 118. ...............
.........
, :
:-
(1) ,
(2) ,
(3) ,
(4) ,
119. 119. , :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
An organelle which is surrounded by double
membrane and contain single DNA molecule, a
few RNA molecules, 70s ribosomes and also
having the site for oxidative phosphorylation is:-
(1) Chloroplast (2) Nucleus
(3) Mesosome (4) Mitochondria
(1) DNA + Protein
(2) RNA + Protein
(3) DNA + RNA
(4) Only protein
(1) Nucleolus (2) Ribosome
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) Microbodies
Every chromosome essentially has the .......... on the sides of which disc shaped structures called ......... are present. Choose the correct words for the blanks respectively
(1) Centrosome, centrioles
(2) Kinetochore, centrosome
(3) Centromere, Kinetochores
(4) DNA, RNA
An organelle contain high concentration of catalase enzyme. The organelle is :-
(1) Lysosome (2) Glyoxysome
(3) Peroxisome (4) Lomasome
ALLEN 120. 120.
RNA 'ys , :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
121. 121. :
(1) RER – 'ys
(2) –
(3) – 'o
(4) – r-RNA 'ys
122. 122. A :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
123. 123. ?
(1)
(2)
(4) 2 3
Spherical structure present in the nucleoplasm which is site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis, is :-
(1) Nucleosome
(2) Nucleus
(3) Nucleolus
(4) Ribosome
(3) Mesosome – Aerobic respiration
Diagram shows a chromosome. Identify A :-
(1) Chromosome (2) Kinetochore
(3) Centromere (4) Satellite
(1) Polysome
(4) Both 2 and 3
ALLEN 124. 124.
:
(3)
(4)
125. 125.
:
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
126. 126. D ?
(1) (2)
(3) 'ys (4) G
127. 127. G DNA ?
(1) (2)
In animal cell double membrane bound cell organelle is:
(1) Chloroplast
(2) Mitochondria
Formation of synaptonemal complex and dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs respectively in which of the following phases of meiosis?
(1) Leptotene and Diakinesis
(2) Pachytene and Zygotene
(3) Zygotene and diplotene
(4) Zygotene and diakinesis
Represented below is the diagram of cell–cycle. Which one of the following is correct for D ?
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase
(3) Synthesis phase (4) G phase2 2
The number of DNA molecules in each chromosome at G stage of cell cycle :-
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Eight
2
2
ALLEN 128. 128. G
_____:-
(1) M (2) G
(3) S (4) G
129. 129. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
130. 130. ?
(1)
(2) RNA 'ys
(3) DNA 'ys
(4) 'ys
131. 131. ?
(1) C--
(2) B-'pk-
(3) A--
(4) C--

The cells that do not divide further, exit G phase to enter an inactive stage called_____of the cell cycle :-
(1) M Stage (2) G Stage
(3) S Stage (4) G stage
1
2
0
1
2
0
(1) Centromere (2) Chromatid
(3) Telomere (4) Genes
(1) Growth in cell
(2) RNA synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis
The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis, select the option giving correct identification together with the correct event ?
(1) C-Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
(2) B-Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
(3) A-Prophase-Chromosomes get fully condensed
(4) C-Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome
ALLEN 132. 132. 'p k
: -
( A )

( B )

( C )
( D )

(1) A, B, C D (2) C D
(3) A, C D (4) D
133. 133. () :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
134. 134. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
135. 135. 'X' :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
136. 136. , :-
(1)
(2) : :
(3) :
(4)
Which of the following are true regarding anaphase:- (A) Each chromosome move towards equatorial plate. (B) Centromere of each chromosome is towards equator. (C) Segregation of homologous chromosome occur. (D) Daughter chromosome moves towards opposite pole.
(1) A, B, C and D (2) C and D
(3) A, C and D (4) Only D
Synapsis of two homologous chromosomes occurs in :-
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
A bivalent consist of :-
During meiosis 'X' shaped structures called chiasmata appear in :-
(1) Leptotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene
Division of chromosomes without division of nucleus leads to polyploidy is known as :-
(1) Free nuclear division
(2) Endoreduplication
(3) Endomitosis
(4) Mitosis
ALLEN 137. 137. ?
(1)
(2)
(3) -I
(4) -II
138. 138. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
139. 139. 20 , DNA ?
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40
(1) Zygotene –
(3) Diakinesis –
(4) Meiosis-I –
141. 141. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
142. 142. :-
(1) G
(2) S
(3) ()
(4) : 'ys
Which of the following is direct cell division ?
(1) Mitosis
(2) Amitosis
(3) Meiosis-I
(4) Meiosis-II
Which of the following step / stage is affected by colchicine ?
(1) Metaphase (2) Prophase
(3) Interphase (4) Anaphase
A diploid cell having 20 bivalent then how many number of DNA molecule in a gamete :
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 30 (4) 40
Which pair is wrong :-
Crossing over occurs in :-
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
(3) De novo
2 2
ALLEN 143. 143. G DNA 10 pg
2n = 20 DNA
:-
DNA
(1) 20 pg 20
(2) 20 pg 40
(3) 10 pg 20
(4) 10 pg 40
144. 144. 25 :
(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 100
145. 145. :-
(1) , , , N
(2) , , ,
(3) , N , ,
(4) , N -, ,
146. 146. :-
(1)
(3)
(4)
If in G , amount of DNA = 10 pg and chromosome number 2n = 20 then in metaphase amount of DNA and chromosome number will be :-
Amount of
1 1
How many chromosome shall be present in a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg cell has 25 chromosome :
(1) 25
(2) 50
(3) 75
(4) 100
The acid insoluble fraction, has only four type of organic compounds i.e. :-
(1) Protein, lipid, Amino acid, N base
(2) Protein, Nucleic acids, Polysaccharides, lipid
(3) Amino acid, N base, Monosaccharide, lipid
(4) Amino acid, N -base, Polysaccharides, protein
2
2
2
2
2
2
(1) Morphine
(2) Ricin
(4) Codeine
ALLEN 147. 147. , , ---A---
---B--- ---C---
A B C
(2)
(3)
(4)
148. 148. / :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) (3)
149. 149. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 1 2
150. 150. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
151. 151. : 1. 2. 3. 4. ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4)
A typical fat molecule is made up of three molecule of ---A--- with one molecule of ---B---. The linkage is called ---C---.
A B C
Example of unsaturated fatty acid is/are :-
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Stearic acid
(3) Palmitic acid (4) (1) & (3) both
Which of the following fatty acid is not formed in human body :-
(1) Glycerol (2) Cholesterol
Which of the following is not a macromolecule ?
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Polysaccharide
(3) Lipids (4) Proteins
Read the given statements carefully : 1. Lipids are water insoluble 2. Lipid do not form polymer 3. Simple lipids are ester of fatty acid & glycerol 4. Unsaturated fatty acids called non essential fatty acid How many statements is/are correct ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) All the above
ALLEN 152. 152.
?
(1) 3 7 (2) 1 5
(3) 5 10 (4) 5 15
153. 153. ?
(1) 1 → 4
(2) 1 → 6
(3) 1 → 2
(4) 1 → 1
(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)
155. 155. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
156. 156. (epimer) ?
(1) α–D– β–D–
(2) D– D–
(3) D– D–
(4) (2) (3)
How many carbon atoms are generally used in composition of monosaccharides ?
(1) 3 to 7 (2) 1 to 5
(3) 5 to 10 (4) 5 to 15
Glycosidic linkage at place of branching in glycogen is :-
(1) 1 → 4
(2) 1 → 6
(3) 1 → 2
(4) 1 → 1
Polysaccharides are :-
(1) Reducing
(2) Micromolecule
(3) In polysaccharide chain right end is called reducing end while left end called non reducing end
(4) Soluble in water
Which of the following is the branched polymer of glucose ?
(1) Amylose
(2) Cellulose
(3) Glycogen
Which of the following are example of epimer ?
(1) α–D–Glucose and β–D–Glucose
(2) D–Glucose and D–Galactose
(3) D–Glucose and D–Mannose
(4) Both (2) and (3)
ALLEN 157. 157. βD :-
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2
158. 158. ?
(1)
(3)
(4)
159. 159. - ?
(1) 1 , 3 , 8 , 9 (2) 1 , 3 , 7 , 9
(3) 1 , 2 , 5 , 7 (4) 3 , 5 , 7 , 9
160. 160. DNA ?
(1) 20 Å
(2) DNA
(3) 34Å
(4) 1 3
161. 161. 5- :-
(1) N-
(2) N-
(3) RNA
(4) (2) (3)
What is the no. of chiral atom in βD glucose :-
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2
(1) Glyceraldehyde
(2) Dihydroxyacetone
(3) Glucose
(4) Galactose
Which positions in a purine ring are occupied by nitrogen ?
(1) 1 , 3 , 8 , 9 (2) 1 , 3 , 7 , 9
(3) 1 , 2 , 5 , 7 (4) 3 , 5 , 7 , 9
st rd th th st rd th th
st nd th th rd th th th
st rd th th st rd th th
st nd th th rd th th th
What is correct about DNA ?
(1) Diametre is 20 Å
(2) In DNA Adenine pairs with cytosine
(3) Helix length of DNA is 34Å
(4) Both 1 & 3
(1) Double ring N-base
(2) Single ring N-base
(3) Present in RNA
(4) Both (2) & (3)
ALLEN 162. 162. DNA
?
163. 163.
(1) Nucleotide of DNA
(2) Nucleoside of RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA
(4) Nucleotide of RNA
164. 164. ?
(1) DNA
(2) DNA ,RNA
(3) 3'- 5'
(4)
How many types of pyrimidines are present in a DNA ?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) One (4) Four
Above Given structure represent :-
(1) Nucleotide of DNA
(2) Nucleoside of RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA
(4) Nucleotide of RNA
Which of the following statement is not incorrect ?
(1) According to Watson-Crick model, DNA exists as a double helix, in which two strands of polynucleotides are parallel i.e. run in same direction
(2) All types of pyrimidines are present in DNA, while only one type of pyrimidine is present in RNA
(3) In a nucleic acid a phosphate moiety links the 3'-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5' carbon of the sugar of succeeding nucleotide
(4) In a nucleic acid, the bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is a glycosidic bond
ALLEN 165. 165. :-
(1)
(4)
166. 166. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) (3)
167. 167. R
:-
(1)
(2)
(4)
168. 168. ?
(1)
(3) Essential amino acid
In which amino acid molecular weight of side
group (R) is minimum :-
(1) Arginine
(2) Tryptophan
(3) Alanine
(4) Cysteine
ALLEN
169. 169. DNA
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
170. 170. :-
(1) α D + β D
(2) α D + β D
(3) α D + α D
(4) β D + β D
171. 171. ?
(1)
(4)
172. 172. 20 :-
(1) R-
(3)
(4)
together with the help of :-
(1) Hydrogen bond
(2) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Disulphide bond
(1) α D Glucose + β D Glucose
(2) α D Glucose + β D Fructose
(3) α D Glucose + α D Galactose
(4) β D Glucose + β D Galactose
Which of the following is homopolymer ?
(1) Glycogen
(2) Pectin
(3) Hemicellulose
The 20 different amino acid have different :-
(1) R-group
(2) Carboxylic group
(3) Peptide bond
(4) Amino group
ALLEN 173. 173. :-
-I -II -III
i α : (Intra molecular)
ii β (Inter molecular)
iii
2
(1) i
(4) iii
174. 174. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
175. 175. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Find out the correct match from the following table :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
hydrogen bond
(4) iii only
(1) Peptide bond
(2) Ester bond
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) Glycosidic bond
Peptide bond is formed when the :-
(1) Carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the carboxyl group of the next amino acid
(2) Amino group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the next amino acid
(3) Carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with amino group of the next amino acid
(4) Amino group of one amino acid reacts with carboxyl group of the next amino acid
ALLEN
176. 176. :-
(1) (2) PABA
(3) (4)
177. 177. ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
178. 178. :-
(1)
(4)
179. 179.
(1) → ( C )
(2) → ( N )
(3) → ( N )
(4) → ( G )
180. 180. DNA
'C'
-I DNA
?
(3) 2 C (4) 4 C
A competitive inhibitor of folic acid synthase enzyme is
(1) Malonate (2) PABA
Which of the following is heteropolymer ?
(1) Protein (2) Cellulose
(3) Glycogen (4) Starch
Identify the odd one :-
(1) Left end represent → I amino acid (C-Terminal amino acid)
(2) Right end represent → Last amino acid (N-Terminal amino acid)
(3) Left end represent → I amino acid (N-Terminal amino acid)
(4) Right end represent → I amino acid (G-Terminal amino acid)
st
st
st
In a diploid organism the total DNA content of
a sperm was found to be 'C'. What will be the
DNA content of its cell that is at Metaphase-I
of meiosis?
(3) 2 C (4) 4 C
Space for Rough Work /
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