03. Vision CSP 2016 Test 3 Solution

8/18/2019 03. Vision CSP 2016 Test 3 Solution

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2 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

Q 6.A

RPA 1950 includes:

1. Preparation of electoral rolls2. Allocations of seats in parliament and state legislatures3. Delimitations of constituencies4. Qualification of Voters

Conducting elections, Registration of political parties are part of RPA 1951

RPA Act 1951 includes:

1. Actual conduct of elections.2. Administrative machinery for conducting elections.3. Poll4. Election offences.5. Election disputes.6. By-elections.7. Registration of political parties.

Hence only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q 7.D

Option (a) is correct. Along with with Consolidated Fund of India, CAG also audits the ConsolidatedFunds of all the states and Union Territories with legislatures.

Option (b) is correct. CAG audits the Contingency Fund of India and Public Account of India as well asthose of states.

Option (c) is correct. CAG audits the private companies and PPP projects in cases where revenue sharingwith the government is involved.

Option (d) is incorrect. Under Article 148-151 the CAG in no way control the receipt and issue of money.He is only an auditor.

Q 8.B

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Constitution, any election commissioner or regional commissionercannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.

Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not binding on the President. One such case has already come up in 2009when the President has rejected the proposal of the CEC to remove the election commissioner from office.

Statement 3 is correct: No such removal has taken place till date.

Q 9.B

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries andallowances, service conditions and procedure for removal of the Special officer for linguistic minorities.

Statement 2 is correct : The reports of Special officer for linguistic minorities are placed before Parliament by the President.

Q 10.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairman and members are appointed by the President by warrant under his

hand and seal. Statement 2 is correct: The conditions of service of its members is determined by the President. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Commission has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional and

other legal safeguards for SCs, OBCs and the Anglo-Indian Community and report to the President upontheir working.

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Q 11.B

Under the nationwide campaign of Jal Kranti, a village with acute water scarcity on a pilot project will beselected as Jal Gram. In this identified village a comprehensive integrated development plan will beframed and several water conservation activities will be launched. Activities proposed under the campaigninclude rain water harvesting, recycling of waste water, micro irrigation for using water efficiently andmass awareness program. Along with it, a cadre of local water professional Jal Mitra will be created andthey will be given training to create mass awareness. As pilot project, activities under this nationcampaign will be run in one water stressed village in each 672 districts in the country.

Q 12.A

The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, originally known as the Gulf CooperationCouncil (GCC), is a regional inter governmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab statesof the Persian Gulf, except for Iraq. Its member states are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia,and the United Arab Emirates. Hence Option A is correct.

Q 13.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: The State may by law can adopt Hindi as official language even if it is not usedin the state.

President if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a State desire the use of anylanguage , he may then direct the state to recognised that language throughout that State or any partthereof for such purpose as he may specify.(statement 2 is correct).

State may by law can adopt Hindi as official language even if it is not used in the state. (statement-3 isincorrect)

Hence 'b' is the correct answer.

Statement 2 is correct: The President if he is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the population of a Statedesire the use of any language , he may then direct the state to recognised that language throughout that Stateor any part thereof for such purpose as he may specify.

Q 14.D

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) does not cover: the members of the defence forces, officersand servants of the Supreme Court and secretarial staff of the Parliament. It covers the Civilian employeesof defence services.

Q 15.A

Among other functions, the Constitution has given the function to the Finance Commission to recommendthe measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State on the basis of recommendations made

by the Finance Commission of the State.

It has all powers of the civil court as per the Court of Civil Procedure, 1908: This is according to TheFinance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951. This is not a Constitutional power.

The 3rd one is a function of the State Finance Commission.

Q 16.D

Statement 1 is incorrect: The members of CVC are appointed by a committee consisting of Primeminister, Union home minister, Leader of opposition in Lok Sabha. Speaker of Lok Sabha does not a partof selection committee .

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can beremoved from his office by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity afterthe Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the CentralVigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed. ThePresident may suspend from office, and if deem necessary prohibit also from attending the office duringinquiry, the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner in respect of whom areference has been made to the Supreme Court until the President has passed orders on receipt of thereport of the Supreme Court on such reference.

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The President may, by order, remove from office the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any VigilanceCommissioner if the Central Vigilance Commissioner or such Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may

be: is adjudged an insolvent; or has been convicted of an offence which, in the opinion of the CentralGovernment, involves moral turpitude; or engages during his term of office in any paid employmentoutside the duties of his office; or is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in office by reasonof infirmity of mind or body; or has acquired such financial or other interest as is likely to affect

prejudicially his functions as a Central Vigilance Commissioner or a Vigilance Commissioner.

Q 17.D

All the statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is not mandatory that all the elections to rural and urban bodies are held on party lines. Though it is being debated that it should be made compulsory but not done till now.

Statement 2 is incorrect :State Election Commissioner is appointed by Governor but removed in a manneras provided for removal of a judge of High Court i.e. by President only.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Seats are not compulsorily reserved for Other Backward Castes.

Q 18.D

NCRWC Recommendations:

The following should be added as new Fundamental Rights:

(a) Right against torture, cruelty and inhuman treatment or punishment.(b) Right to compensation ifa person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.(c) Right to leave and to return to India.(d) Right to privacy and family life.(e) Right to rural wage employment for a minimum of 80 days in a year.(f) Right to access to courts and tribunals and speedy justice.(g) Right to equal justice and free legal aid 8.(h) Right to care and assistance and protection (in case of children).(i) Right to safe drinking water, prevention of pollution, conservation of ecology and sustainabledevelopment.

On Directive Principles

1. The heading of Part-IV of the Constitution should be amended to read as ‘Directive Principles of StatePolicy and Action’.2. A new Directive Principle on control of population should be added.3. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.4. An Inter-Faith Commission should be established to promote inter-religious harmony and social solidarity.5. There must be a body of high status to review the level of implementation of the Directive Principles.6. A strategic Plan of Action should be initiated to create a large number of employment opportunities in fiveyears.7. Implementation of the recommendations contained in the Report of the National Statistical Commission(2001)

The following new fundamental duties should be included in Article 51-A:

(a) Duty to vote at elections, actively participate in the democratic process of governance and to pay taxes.(b) To foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood in the matter of education, physical andmoral well-being of children.(c) Duty of industrial organizations to provide education to children of their employees.

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Q 19.B

The Supreme Court, in Prakash Singh case, directed the States and the Union Territories to comply withseven binding directives for police reforms in India. Statement 1 is correct. It directed state governmentsto constitute a State Security Commission to ensure that there is no undue influence or pressure on the

police.Statement 2 is incorrect the states to create a Police Complaints Authority, at the state level, to lookinto complaints against police officers of and above the rank of Superintendent of Police.

Statement 3 is correct. It directed the separation of the investigation and law and order functions of the

police

Extra Information:

Policing in India is governed by the archaic Indian Police Act, 1861 which was enacted in response to therevolt of 1857 in order to check any dissent against colonial rule. In this context supreme court laid downseven directives to states and centre in Prakash Singh case related to police reforms:1. Constitute a State Security Commission (SSC) in all states headed by state home minister, leader of

opposition in assembly, MLAs from all major political parties and eminent member of civil society.The SSC will: Ensure that the state government does not exercise unwarranted influence on the police Lay down broad policy guideline and evaluate the performance of the state police

2. Ensure that the DGP is appointed through merit based transparent process and secure a minimumtenure of two years.

3. Ensure that other police officers on operational duties including Superintendents of Police and

Station House Officers of a police station are provided a minimum tenure of two years.4. Separate the investigation and law and order functions of the police as investigations are poorly

mounted, slow, done by inadequately trained staff.5. Set up a Police Establishment Board (PEB) to decide transfers, postings, promotions and other

service related matters of police officers.6. Set up a Police Complaints Authority (PCA) at state level to inquire into public complaints against

police officers of and above the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police in cases of seriousmisconduct.

7. Set up a National Security Commission (NSC) at the union level to prepare a panel for selection and placement of Chiefs of the Central Police Organisations (CPO) with a minimum tenure of two years.

Q 20.D

Through e-governance, government services will be made available to citizens in a convenient, efficientand transparent manner. All the given four options, in addition to many others, represent challenges to e-governance initiatives in India.

Q 21.C

Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. A party is recognised as a national party if it secures six percent ofthe valid votes polled in any four or more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha or to the legislativeassembly; and in addition, it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states. or

If it wins two percent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are electedfrom three states. or

If it is recognised as a state party in four states.

Q 22.D

The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention ofCorruption (1962 -1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. There is no dedicated law for CBI in India.

It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. Under the act, the CBI caninvestigate only with notification by the central government. It also provides assistance to the CentralVigilance Commission. Hence, does not enjoy any powers of Tribunal or civil court.

Hence, none of the given statements are true.

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Q 23.D

A "public authority" is any authority or body or institution of self government established or constituted by or under the Constitution or by any other law made by the Parliament or a State Legislature or bynotification issued or order made by the Central Government or a State Government. The bodies owned,controlled or substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government and non-Government organisations substantially financed by the Central Government or a State Government alsofall within the definition of public authority. The financing of the body or the NGO by the Government

may be direct or indirect.

Hence, all insitutions will come under Public Authority. Option 'd' is the correct answer.

Q 24.B

Goods are those which are manufactured or produced and sold to consumers through retailers andwholesalers as well. Hence Statement 1 is wrong.

The Act applies to private, public and cooperative sectors in India. Statement 2 is correct.

Hence option B is correct.

Q 25.D

The Intellectual Property Appellate Board (IPAB) has been constituted in 2003 to hear appeals against thedecisions of the Registrar of trade marks, geographical indications and the controller of patents. Hence

option D is correct.

Q 26.A

Notifications in respect of bye-elections to the House of the People is issued by the Election Commissionunder the provisions of Section 149 of that Act.

Q 27.C

NITI Aayog is an executive body and work like a think-tank. The powers to allocate fund vested in thefinance ministry.

Planning Commission – Enjoyed the powers to allocate funds to ministries and state governments whichwas abolished by the union government.

The CEO of NITI Aayog is appointed by the PM. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Q 28.A

No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and the governors in respect of their personalacts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. However, ivil proceedings can be started against Presidentand Governors during their term of office in respect of their personal Act by giving 2 months advancenotice. so statement 1 is incorrect.

The constitution does not grants any immunity to the ministers for their official Acts. so statement 2 isincorrect.

The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts and hence, cannot be sued. The Judicial Officers Protection Act (1850) lays down that, ‘no judge, magistrate, justice of peace, collector or other person acting judicially shall be liable to be sued in any civil court for any act

done by him in the discharge ofhis official duty’. Statement 3 in correct.Hence, 'a' is the right answer.

Q 29.D

A19(1)(c). All citizens shall have the right to form associations or unions or co-operative socities andArticle43 (DPSP) states that he State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries on an individual orco-operative basis in rural areas.Part IXB of the constitution deal with Co-operative Societies.

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Q 30.A

While an ordinary elector is registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his place ofordinary residence is located, person having service qualification can get enrolled as ‘service voter’ at hisnative place even though he actually may be residing at a different place (of posting). Thus statement 1 iscorrect.

Service voter belonging to Armed Forces or forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 are applicable,has 0ption of either voting through postal ballot or through a proxy

voter duly appointed by him. Thus statement 2 is also correct.

Service Voter means any person who is required to give his vote by postal ballot under clause (a) ofsection 60, i.e. (a) members of the armed forces of the Union, (b) members of a force to which the

provisions of the Army Act, 1950 (46 of 1950) have been made applicable whether with or withoutmodifications, (c) members of the armed police force of a State who are serving outside that State, (d)

persons who are employed under the Government of India in a post outside India (e.g. Ambassadors andHigh Commissioner, of India abroad, their staff etc. Thus statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence 'a' is the right answer.

Q 31.B

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The act defines public authority for the act as any authority or body orinstitutions of self government established or constituted by constitution or legislation or notification. It

also includes any(i) body owned, controlled and substantially financed, (ii) NGOs substantially financeddirectly or indirectly by funds provided by the appropriate government.

Q 32.A

Statement 1 is correct. The Act has several provisions for improving the functional autonomy of the police - creation of a State Police Board to frame broad policy guidelines for promoting efficient,responsive and accountable policing etc; merit-based selection and appointment of the Director Generalof Police, ensuring security of tenures, setting up of Establishment Committees to accept and examinecomplaints from police officers about being subjected to illegal orders, to recommend names of suitableofficers to State Government for posting to all positions in the ranks of Assistant/ Deputy Superintendentsand above in the police organisation in the State excluding the DGP.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act provides for better service conditions to the police personnel including

rationalising their working hours, one day off in each week, or compensatory benefits in lieu; creation ofa Police Welfare Bureau to take care of health care, housing, and legal facilities for police personnel aswell as financial security for the next of kin of those dying in service. It further mandates the governmentto provide insurance cover to all officers, and special allowances to officers posted in special wingscommensurate with the risk involved.

Q 33.A

Florence Nightingale Award The Florence Nightingale Award was established by the Union HealthMinistry to honour the selfless services rendered by Nurses with devotion, sincerity, dedication andcompassion. The Award is given to the outstanding nursing personnel employed in Central, State/UTs.

Nurses working in Government, Voluntary Organizations, Mission institutions and private institutionscan apply with due recommendation of concerned State Government. The Award carries 50,000 rupees

cash award, a certificate, a citation certificate and a medal. May 12: International Nurses Day The awardis named after Florence Nightingale, founder of modern nursing. She was born on May 12, 1820 and theday is celebrated as International Nurses Day all over the world.

Q 34.A

Union government had constituted a 10-member committee to review and revitalise public private partnership(PPP) mode of infrastructure development. The committee is chaired by former finance secretary VijayKelkar.

Committee will look into variations in contents of contracts and difficulties experienced with particularconditions.

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Suggest optimal risk sharing mechanism by analyzing risks involved in PPP projects in different sectors.

It will also look into existing framework of sharing of such risks between the Government and projectdeveloper.

Propose design modifications to the contractual arrangements of the PPP based on best international practices

Suggest measure to Government in order to improve capacity building for effective implementation of thePPP projects.

Other Information:

BASEL-3 norms - Raghuramrajan committee

Finacial inclusion & payment bank system & - Nachiket Mor committee

Report on monetary policy frame work - Urjit Patel committee

Q 35.A

Statement 1 is correct. The visit of May 2015 to Mongolia is the first visit by an Indian PM. Statement 2 is incorrect. The civil nuclear agreement was signed with Mongolia in 2009. Statement 3 is incorrect. The Holy Tripitaka is not of Hinduism. Tripitaka consists of three sections of the

Buddha's Teachings. They are the Discipline (Vinaya Pitaka), the Discourse (Sutta Pitaka), and Ultimate

Doctrine (Abhidhamma Pitaka). During PM’s visit, it was agreed to initiate a joint translation project of"Holy Tripitaka" into Mongolian language.

Q 36.A

Statement 1 is correct. In 2013 the Supreme Court in a landmark judgement ruled that the citizens ofIndia have the Right to Negative Vote by exercising the 'None of the above' (NOTA) option in EVMs and

ballot papers. The judgement was passed based on a PIL filed by the People's Union for Civil Liberties an NGO in 2009.

However, it does not mean that if 'NOTA' gets the highest votes then the election will be conducted again,rather, even in that case the candidate with the highest votes will be treated as the elected candidate.

Q 37.B

The UPSC presents, annually, to the president a report on its performance. The President places thisreport before both the Houses of Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining the cases where theadvice of the Commission was not accepted and the reasons for such non-acceptance.

All such cases of non-acceptance must be approved by the Appointments Committee of the Unioncabinet. An individual ministry or department has no power to reject the advice of the UPSC.

Thus only statement 2 is correct.

Q 38.B

The Term of AG is not Fixed under constitution and he holds the office during the pleasure of thePresident.

He should not defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without the permission of the Government

of India. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, 'b' is the correct answer.

Q 39.C The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory advisory body, hence statement 1 is wrong. It is established by an order of the Central Government from time to time for a fixed tenure. Hence

statement 2 is wrong. Its function is to recommend the legislative measures for the purpose of consolidation and codification of

laws. Hence statement 3 is correct. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence statement 4 is correct. Therefore option C is correct.

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Q 40.C

E- Governance involve the use of ICTs by government agencies for any or all of the following reasons: (a)Exchange of information with citizens, businesses or other government departments (b) Speedier andmore efficient delivery of public services (c) Improving internal efficiency (d) Reducing costs / increasingrevenue (e) Re-structuring of administrative processes and (f) Improving quality of services. Hence, allstatements are correct.

Hence Statement 1 is wrong. The exchange of information is not limited to citizens and government

depatments, business groups are also involved in the use of ICT for E-governamnce.

Q 41.A

Statement 1 is correct. A public policy must have a clear purpose/objective and must be deliberatelyformulated. Statement 2 is incorrect as it does not ONLY include a statements of goals. Statement 3 isincorrect as it is not always necessary to delineate a time frame for the achievement of goals.

Q 42.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: While the CAG submits three audit reports to the President i.e. Audit report onAppropriation accounts, audit report on Finance accounts and audit report on Public Undertakings, theaudit reports relating to the accounts of state are submitted to the Governor.

Statement 2 is correct : CAG compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments, however in1976, CAG was relieved of his responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance ofaccounts of Central Government.

Statement 3 is correct: He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President orGovernor e.g. audit of local bodies on the request of Governor.

Q 43.D

Statement 1 is incorrect : While the members of SPSC are appointed by the Governor, they can beremoved only by the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect : The Constitution authorises Governor to determine the conditions of service ofthe Chairman and the members of the commission.

Q 44.B While the appointment committees of CVC, NHRC and CIC have the leader of opposition in Lok Sabha

in their appointment committees, the chairperson and members of National commission for SCs areappointed the President.

Q 45.C

NITI Ayog replaces Planning Commission as another executive body. It is not even a statutory body.PMO is also an executive body set up under an order of cabinet. Cabinet word however finds mentionunder Article 352 the Constitution in the context of National Emergency. Also, the constitutionmentioned about the important parliamentary committee like PAC.

Q 46.B

The chairman and members of NHRC are appointed by the President on the recommendations of 6 membercommittee consisting of:

Prime Minister

Speaker of Lok Sabha

Union Home Minister

Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Leaders of oppositions of Lok Sabha

Leaders of oppositions of Rajya Sabha

Hence 'b' is the correct answer.

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Q 47.D

All statements are correct. It has achieved major milestone of destroying 90 per cent of the globalchemical weapons stockpile.

Q 48.B

Statement 1 is correct: The Central Public Service Commission came into being in 1926 as per the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1919.

Statement 2 is correct: As far as the strength of the Commission is concerned, it is left to the President todecide upon this.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The chairman and members of the Commission hold office for a term of sixyears or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. However, they can relinquish theiroffices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before theexpiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution.

The President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under thefollowing circumstances: (a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt); (b) If he engages,during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or (c) If he is, in theopinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.

In addition to these, the President can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC formisbehaviour. However, in this case, the President has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for an

enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advisetendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President. During the course of enquiry bythe Supreme Court, the President can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC.

Q 49.D

Option (a) is incorrect. The CAG is an independent body which is not answerable to Parliament. Option (b) is incorrect. CAG, even though appointed by the President, does not hold office on his

pleasure. Option (c) is incorrect. The Legislature of a State may, by law, make provisions with respect to the

maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts. Option (d) is correct. CAG enjoys the same status as the judge of a SC.

Q 50.A

Statement 1 is correct. Only parliament can establish the tribunals for public service matters. StateAdministrative tribunals are established by the Parliament on the request of concerned state.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The chairman and members of the State Administrative Tribunals are appointed by the President after consultation with the governor of the state.

Q 51.C

Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no need to give reasons for seeking information.

Statement 2 is correct. The first appeal has to be filed with the senior officer of concerned PublicInformation Officer within 90 days.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Failing the first appeal, the second appeal can be filed with both CentralInformation commission as well as the State Information commission.

Q 52.B

In general election to the House of the People, the President call upon the parliamentary constituencies toelect members for the purpose of constituting a new House through notifications published in the Gazetteof India on such date or dates as may be recommended by the Election Commission, The model code ofconduct comes into force from this instant.

Same is applicable in Vidhan sabha elctions

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Q 53.C

Option 1 is correct. The members and chairman of Finance commission are appointed by the President.

Option 2 is incorrect. The Deputy Chairman of Niti Ayog is appointed by the Cabinet.

Option 3 is correct. The CM of the states are appointed by the respective Governors. But in a UT, they areappointed by the President.

Q 54.A

Statement 1 is correct, as any elector or candidate can file an election petition if he or she thinks there has been malpractice during the election.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Election petitions are tried by the High Court of the state involved, and if upheldcan even lead to the restaging of the election in that constituency.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Such jurisdiction (election petition) shall be exercised ordinarily by a singleJudge of the High Court and the Chief Justice shall, from time to time, assign one or more Judges for that

purpose.

Q 55.B

Tribunals under Article 323A can only be established by parliament while Tribunals under Article 323Bcan be established by both parliament and state legislature. So statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.

There is no question of hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 323 B hierarchy of tribunals

may be created. So statement 3 is correct.

Q 56.B

Chairman, UPSC and Chairman, CVC can be removed by the President after a due inquiry by the SC.The Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of the President.

CAG, CEC and High court judges can be removed in same manner as that of a Supreme Court Judge.

They can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President can issue the removalorder only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for suchremoval.5 The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, amajority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the membersof that House present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Hence 'b' is correct.

Q 57.B

Statement 1 is incorrect: A key madate of 3P India is to take up the task of restructuring PPP contracts.So, it is not a purely advisory body.

Statement 2 is correct: 3P India " may also evolve PPP models to enable attracting private investments insectors like Railways, Airports and also social sectors.This entity could also assist project promoters(public agencies) in identification, structuring and hand holding for a designated fee."

Q 58.D

A social audit is a process by which the people, final beneficiaries of schemes & program are empoweredto audit scheme such as MGNREGA to encourage local democracy and social transparency of an

organization. Social audits is conducted jointly by the government and people, especially by those people who are

affected by, or are The intended beneficiaries of the activity, being audited. Any resident of a panchayat can do social audit who is part of gram sabha.

Q 59.D

It is a report prepared by the United States Trade Representative (USTR) to review the global status ofIPR protection and enforcement. In this report, India has been categorised as "Priority watch list". Itmeans India does not provide significant IPR protection to the.

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Q 60.A

Statement 1 is correct: The species is considered as "critically endangered" by the IUCN Red data list.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The species is found in areas of India as well as Pakistan. However, Thar Desertin India, is the only landscape in the world that provides viable breeding population to GIBs.

Q 61.C

Statement 1 is incorrect. The flagship "Namami Gange" Program which integrates the efforts to clean and

protect the Ganga river in a comprehensive manner, and it will cover 12 rivers in 8 states.

Statement 2 is correct. The program would be implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga(NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e., State Program Management Groups (SPMGs).

Statement 3 is correct. It is a fully central sponsored program. The program focuses on involving theStates and grassroot level institutions such as Urban Local Bodies and Panchayati Raj Institutions inimplementation.

Q 62.B

The reports of the CAG are examined by the Public Accounts Committees (PACs) and Committees onPublic Undertakings (COPUs).

Q 63.D

Statement 1 is incorrect : The SHRC can enquire into violations of human rights in respect of subjectsmentioned in State as well as Concurrent list.

Statement 2 is incorrect : SHRC has no power to punish the violators of human rights, nor to award anyrelief including monetary relief to the victim.

Q 64.D

Some of the fundamental objectives of social audit may be summarized as below (the list is not exhaustive)

Assessing the physical and financial gaps between needs and resources available for local development.

Creating awareness among beneficiaries and providers of local social and productive services.

Increasing efficacy and effectiveness of local development programmes. Scrutiny of various policy decisions, keeping in view stakeholder interests and priorities, particularly of

rural poor. Estimation of the opportunity cost for stakeholders of not getting timely access to public services.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect as capacity building of the poor and marginalized is not a fundamentalobjective of social audit. All other statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Q 65.A

Exemption from disclosure of information:

(a) information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India,the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to

incitement of an offence;

(b) information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal orthe disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court;

(c) information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the StateLegislature;

(d) information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosureof which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfiedthat larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;

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(e) information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority issatisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information;

(f) information received in confidence from foreign Government;

(g) information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person oridentify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security

purposes;

(h) information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution ofoffenders;

(i) cabinet papers including records of deliberations of the Council of Ministers, Secretaries and otherofficers:

Hence, for statement 2 and 5 if the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants thedisclosure of such information, he/she can. The correct answer is 'a'.

Q 66.C

AFSPA has been removed in Tripura recently. However, it is still being continued in other states ofAssam, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh.

Q 67.B

Chabahar is located in Iran. It was in news because India is helping Iran in the development of this port.Palmyra is a Syrian city. The city is a UNESCO designated World Heritage site and home to some of theworld's most magnificent ancient ruins. It was recently occupied by ISIS and many of the heritage siteswere destroyed by ISIS.

Mosul is located in Iraq. It has been occupied by the ISIS.

Hence, 'b' is the correct answer.

Q 68.B

The picturesque Nelong Valley near the India-China border, which was closed for civilians after the 1962

war, has been opened for tourists. The valley, 45 km ahead of the border, falls under the Gangotri National Park in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand.

At 11,600 feet, the valley is a cold desert, home to the snow leopard and the Himalayan blue sheep.

Q 69.A

Statement 1 is incorrect : Attorney general of India has the right to speak and to take part in proceedingsof both the houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which hemay be named a member, but without right to vote.

Statement 2 is incorrect : Attorney general of India is not debarred from private legal practiice and is nota full time counsel for government of India.

Q 70.B

Smart cities would be chosen through a 'City Challenge Competition', that would evaluate preparednessand capacity of cities that are sponsored by their state governments. Initially about 20 cities would betaken up for a Union grant of Rs 100 crores per year for five years. AMRUT cities, with over one lakh

population would be finalised by the union government in consultation with state governments.

Q 71.B

Statement 1 is correct : Akash is a medium range mobile surface-to-air missile system.

Statement 2 is incorrect : It can simultaneously engage multiple targets in all weather conditions .

Statement 3 is correct: It uses high-energy solid propellant for the booster and ram-rocket propulsion forthe sustainer phase.

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Q 72.D

The conduct of election for the post of speaker and the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are done by itsmember. The conduct of election to the Corporations and Municipalities are done by State ElectionCommission.

All doubts and disputes arising out of the elections of President and Vice President are decided by theSupreme Court, not the Election Commission.

Thus none of the given statements are function of Election Commission of India. Hence 'd' is the correct

answer.

Q 73.C

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in March 2007 under theCommission for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, an Act of Parliament (December 2005). TheCommission's Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanismsare in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also theUN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years agegroup.

Thus only statement 3 is correct. Hence 'c' is the correct answer.

Q 74.C

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Advocate General of State is appointed by the Governor and holds officeduring the pleasure of the Governor.

Statement 2 is correct : The Term of Advocate General of State is not Fixed under Constitution. Statement 3 is incorrect : He receives such remuneration as determined by the Governor of a State.

Q 75.B

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Election Commissioner and the two Election Commissioners drawsalaries and allowances as per the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners(Conditions of Service) Rules, 1992. 2nd schedule deals with salary of President, Governors, ChiefJudges, speaker, deputy speaker, chairman, deputy chairman, Judges of High Court and Supreme court,Comptroller and Auditor General.

Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from anyfurther appointment by the government.

Q 76.A

Statement 1 is correct. Under Article 71 of the constitution, the exclusive forum for adjudicating disputesrelating to the election of the President and the Vice-President is the Supreme Court.

There is no special provision for the Prime Minister or the Speaker of the House, so that any disputerelating to election to these offices is to be determined only by an election petition before the High Court,according to Art.329 (b). So statement 2 is incorrect.

Q 77.D

The primary objective of establishing Mega Food Parks is to provide modern infrastructure facilities for

the food processing along the value chain from farm to market with a cluster based approach based on ahub and spokes model. It includes creation of infrastructure for primary processing and storage near thefarm in the form of Primary Processing Centres (PPCs) and Collection Centres (CCs) and commonfacilities and enabling infrastructure like roads, electricity, water, ETP facilities etc. at Central ProcessingCentre (CPC). It t will facilitate forward and backward linkages of the food processing industry. and willimprove the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.

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Q 78.D

Statement 1 is incorrect as it has been envisaged by DeiTy.

Statement 2 is correct. The objectives of 'e-Kranti' are as follows:

i. To redefine NeGP with transformational and outcome oriented e-Governance initiatives.

ii. To enhance the portfolio of citizen centric services.

iii. To ensure optimum usage of core Information & Communication Technology (ICT).

iv. To promote rapid replication and integration of eGov applications.

v. To leverage emerging technologies.

vi. To make use of more agile implementation models.

Statement 3 is correct.

Q 79.C

Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of

Prime minister, Leader of opposition and one union cabinet minister nominated by Prime Minister asmembers for a term of five years until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. There is noany specific qualification for members to be appointed as information commissioners but they should be

public eminence with wide experience and knowledge in law, public service etc. in the eye of thePresident.

Q 80.C

In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in theterritory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Housesof Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named amember, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to amember of Parliament.

The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall in the category ofgovernment servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.

Both statements are correct. Hence 'c' is the right answer.

Q 81.B

The Supreme Court in S. Subramaniam Balaji Vs Govt. of Tamil Nadu and Others has directedthemection Commission to frame guidelines with regard to the contents of election manifestos inconsultation with all the recognized political parties. Accordingly, certain guidelines are issued:

1. The election manifesto shall not contain anything repugnant to the ideals and principles enshrinedin the Constitution and further that it shall be consistent with the letter and spirit of other

provisions of Model Code of Conduct (statement 1 is correct).

2.

In the interest of transparency, level playing field and credibility of promises, it is expected thatmanifestos also reflect the rationale for the promises and broadly indicate the ways and means tomeet the financial requirements for it (statement 2 is correct).

Statement 3 is incorrect: After the election gets over, the power to declare an election null and void is inthe hands of High Courts and not ECI.

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Q 82.B

The term 'Citizen' in the Citizen's Charter implies the clients or customers whose interests and values areaddressed by the Citizen's Charter and, therefore, includes not only the citizens but also all thestakeholders, i.e., citizens, customers, clients, users, beneficiaries, other Ministries/ Departments/Organisations, State Governments, UT Administrations etc. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Citizen's Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool forfacilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frame etc. with

commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, PublicGrievances and Pensions, Government of India, in its efforts to provide more responsive and citizen-friendly governance, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalise Citizen's Charters in CentralGovernment, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides guidelines for formulation andimplementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.

Q 83.A

All the statements given are correct. Regarding the creation of professional chairs for scholars ofeminence in classical language

The University Grants Commission (UGC) can be requested to create, to start with at least in the CentralUniversities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for Classical Language for scholars of eminence inClassical Indian Languages.

Q 84.D

In 1971 the slogan GAribi Hatao was coined by Indira Gandhi resonated with the nation and secured alandslide victory for the Congress Party. Jai Jawan, Jai KIsan, Jai Vigyan was coined by Atal vihariVajpayee in1998 after Pokhran tests to underline the importance of knowledge in India's progress. LalBahadur Shastri coined Jai Jawan Jai kisaan in 1965 to enthuse the soldiers to defend the country andsimultaneously cheer farmers to do their best to increase the production of food grains and reduce

dependence on import.

Indira hatao Desh Bachao was coined by Jayaprakash Narayan for the general polls in 1977. TheEmergency had tainted Congress, and ushered in the Janata Party rule.

Thus 'd' is the correct answer.

Q 85.C

Both statements are correct.

The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 does provide for the appointment of CBI director. Accordingly, theselection committee of the CBI director consists of:

o Prime Minister - chairpersono Leader of Opposition - membero Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge recommended by the Chief Justice - member

According to the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act 2013, the PM comes within the jurisdiction of Lokpal butLokpal will not inquire the PM if the allegation of corruption is related to international relations, externaland internal security, public order, atomic energy and space.

Q 86.B

Statement 1 is correct. Consumers can file a case without the assistance of a lawyer. Statement 2 is incorrect. A consumer is not required to pay any court fee but depending on the type of

court and the claim amount there is a provision of a nominal fee. Statement 3 is correct. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file complaint in the

consumer forum on his/her behalf.

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Q 92.A

In physics, gravitational waves are ripples in the curvature of spacetime which propagate as waves,travelling outward from the source. Predicted in 1916 by Albert Einstein on the basis of his theory ofgeneral relativity, gravitational waves theoretically transport energy as gravitational radiation. Thesewaves have not been directly detected so far. LIGO is a large-scale physics experiment aiming to directlydetect gravitational waves. This detector recently underwent upgradation which would make it ten timesmore sensitive, which, in turn, would provide a 1000-fold increase in the number of astrophysical

candidates for gravitational wave signals. Hence, statement 3 is wrong. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.Hence 'a' is the correct answer.

Q 93.C

Statement 1 is incorrect : The Global Hunger report is released annually by the FAO of UN. Statement 2is correct: As per the report, India is home to 194.6 million undernourished people, the highest in theworld.

Statement 3 is correct : India has failed to achieve both MDG and World Food Summit targets.

Q 94.C

Statement 1 is correct. Transparency International (TI) is a non-governmental organization that monitors

and publicizes corporate and political corruption in international development. It has published theCorruption Perceptions Index (CPI) since 1995, annually ranking countries "by their perceived levels ofcorruption, as determined by expert assessments and opinion surveys.

Statement 2 is correct. According to Transparency International's annual survey 2014, India ranks lesscorrupt than China for the first time in 18 years.

Q 95.D

The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the NationalCommission for Women Act, 1990 ( Act No. 20 of 1990 of Govt. of India) to:

review the Constitutional and Legal safeguards for women

recommend remedial legislative measures

facilitate redressal of grievances and

advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

Q 96.D

The Charters are expected to incorporate the following elements :-(i) Vision and Mission Statement; (ii)Details of business transacted by the organisation; (iii) Details of clients; (iv) Details of services providedto each client group; (v) Details of grievance redress mechanism and how to access it; and (vi)Expectations from the clients.

Q 97.D

Dag Hammarskjold Medal:

It was Established in December 2000. It is awarded posthumously to members of peacekeeping operationswho lost their lives during service with a peacekeeping operation under the operational control andauthority of the United Nations. It is named after second UN Secretary General and Swedish diplomatDag Hammarskjold (In office: from 1953 to 1961).

Two Indian peacekeepers have been chosen posthumously for United Nation’s Dag Hammarskjold Medal.They are Lance Naik Nand Ram and Raju Joseph.

Thus all statements are correct. Hence, 'd' is the correct answer.

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Q 98.B

In Hoshangabad a New Bank Note Paper Line unit of 6000 metric ton capacity at Security Paper Mill wasinaugurated by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley.

This plant belongs to Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL), a MiniratnaCategory-I CPSE, which is a wholly owned by Union Government. By commissioning this plant, Indiawill become self-reliant in producing Bank Note Paper for higher denominations. Prior to this, India wasconsiderably dependent on import of bank note paper for currency of big denominations.

Q 99.D

ISA is an autonomous organisation established under the 1982 United Nation Convention on the Law ofthe Sea. It is headquartered at Kingston, Jamaica. Both India and China are members of thisintergovernmental organisation.

It was established to organize, regulate and control all mineral-related activities in the international seabed

area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area underlying most of the world's oceans. Thus all statements are correct. Hence 'd' is the correct answer.

Q 100.D

The Supreme Court of India in– Indira Sawhney & Ors. Vs. Union of India and Ors directed the Govt. of

India, State Governments and Union Territory Administrations to constitute a permanent body in the

nature of a Commission or Tribunal for entertaining, examining and recommending upon requests forinclusion and complaints of over-inclusion and under-inclusion in the list of OBCs.

Pursuant to the direction of the Supreme Court, the Government of India enacted the National

Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 (for setting up a Commission at National Level viz.“National Commission for Backward Classes” as a permanent body. The commission is under Minister ofSocial Justice and Empowerment. Thus both statements are correct. Hence 'd' is the correct answer.

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