001 Examen b1 Ingles

Universidad Internacional de la Rioja

B1 EXAMINATION

THE STRUCTURE OF THE B1 UNIR EXAMINATION

SECTION PURPOSE TYPE OF TEST SCORE TIME

1.USE OF ENGLISH

-Check knowledge of the main grammar points –Check knowledge of sentence structure

-Multiple choice

-Matching items

10 30 MINUTES

2. READING COMPREHENSION

- General understanding - Specific information -Vocabulary

-Matching items -Multiple choice

20 30 MINUTES

15 MINUTE BREAK

3. WRITING SKILLS

- Ability to write a general text - Ability to write an email or letter -Ability to translate from Spanish to English

- Correcting mistakes - Writing an email or letter - Translating 10 sentences from Spanish to English

20 40 MINUTES

4. LISTENING COMPREHENSION

-Ability to understand essential information -Ability to understand detailed information

-Multiple choice -True or false -Word gap

25 30 MINUTES

5. ORAL EXAMINATION

-Introductions -Topic based conversation -Pronunciation and intonation

-Examination with two candidates

25 20 MINUTES

TOTAL SCORE 100

TOTAL EXAM TIME: 2.30 Hrs + 15 minutes break


POINTS RESULTS

Less than 58 Not pass Insuficiente

58-68.5 Pass Suficiente

69-78.5 Satisfactory Bien

79-89.5 Good Notable

90-99.5 Very Good Sobresaliente

100 Excellent Mat. de honor

ABOUT THIS EXAMINATION

This examination has been especially designed for Spanish speaking students who want

to be accredited with a B1 level.

Keeping that in mind it should be noted that this examination differs in criteria from

other examinations.

One such difference lies in the writing section that includes short translations from

Spanish to English. The purpose behind this is to assist any candidates who access the

labour market in Spain, or abroad, as they will need to demonstrate a spoken and

written understanding of both languages.

In addition, with regards to the marking system, more importance is given to the

listening and speaking sections than to the grammar one. The listening and speaking

sections give 5 points more each than the writing and reading sections. The idea behind

this scoring is to prevent the problem of only having students with a good grammar

base and who can read and write sufficiently well, but are unable to communicate in

spoken English. Our point of view is that grammar should be a tool to help the student

to understand the structure of the English language, but not the main element as it has

traditionally been for many years in the Spanish educational system. This lack of good

spoken English has meant most Spanish teachers of English are unable to access the

private labour market, which currently demands almost exclusively native English

speakers.

Another difference worth mentioning is that although the material and the examination

are written mainly in British English, some concessions are made for American English

and other accents. The listening and reading activities in the examination will not


necessarily always be in British English. The idea behind this choice is to prepare the

students for a global labour market which uses all types of English and also includes

speakers of English as a second language. In addition, the choice of topics target adult

students and are intended to be practical and contemporary to enable them to

understand real English and use their recently gained English skills whilst developing

their career skills.

The examination is divided into five different parts: use of English, reading and writing,

and, listening and speaking as most examinations of the kind. The purpose is to cover

all the skills that the students will need to use in their future careers.

General Instructions to candidates

1. Carefully read all the questions before beginning the examination.

2. The total time of the examination will be two and a half hours.

Note: there will be a fifteen minute break after the second sub-examination.

3. You can only use a black or blue pen for the examination.

4. You may only use the paper provided by UNIR for writing your answers on, no

additional sheets will be accepted.

(You can make notes or organize you work on additional sheets of paper but

they are not to be handed in with your exam paper).

5. Make sure you fill in your personal details in the square at the top of all of

the answer sheets.

6. Place your DNI/NIE/Passport on the table in front of you so they are

available for possible verification.

7. Mobile telephones must be switched off during the exam.

8. You may not use a dictionary or any other grammar or lexical tool during the

examination.


Candidate Surname _______________________________ Name _________________________________________

Candidate Number ________________________________

EXAMINATION B1

PAPER 1 - USE OF ENGLISH Time limit: 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

Do not turn the page until you are told to do so

No de vuelta la página hasta que se le diga

Write your surname, and name and candidate number above

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully

Answer all the questions

USE OF ENGLISH

Time limit: 30 minutes

TOTAL POSSIBLE SCORE: 10

- Grammar quiz on the past simple and the past continuous: 4 questions worth 0.5

points each, total 2 points

- Grammar quiz on the past tense – 4 questions worth 0.5 points each, total 2 points

- Grammar quiz on “for”, “since” and “ago” - 4 questions worth 0.5 points each, total

2 points

- Grammar quiz on prepositions - 4 questions, worth 0.5 points each, total 2 points

- Grammar quiz on conditional sentences: 4 questions, worth 0.5 points each, total 2


Questions 1 - 4

Join these ideas using “when” and the past simple or past continuous of the verbs in

brackets.

1 She (hurt) ___________ her back / she (lift) the heavy bags

2 They (drive) ___________ to London / they (have) ___________ an

accident

3 We (play) ___________ tennis / it (begin) ___________ to rain

4 He (clean) ___________ the windows / he (fall) ___________ off the

ladder

Questions 5 - 8

Find the incorrect past simple tense in each group

5 found seen were built

6 wrote maked watched stayed

7 taken spoke started got

8 bit beat stoped left

Questions 9 - 12

Complete the time expressions below using “for”, “since” or “ago”.

9 Ten days ___________

10 ___________ 9.30 a.m.

11 ___________ a few minutes

12 ___________ three weeks


Questions 13 - 16

Complete the sentences using “at”, “in”, “on” or no preposition

13 Were you ___________ home ___________ nine o’clock ___________

last night?

14 I was born ___________ South Carolina ___________ March 17th

a) I’d phone the doctor

, 1976

15 He is a student ___________ a medical college ___________Amsterdam

16 We went to France___________ holiday ___________ July

Questions 17 - 20

Find the second part of each sentence

17 If I had his address…

18 If I went to bed earlier…

19 If I didn’t eat so much ….

20 If I were ill…

b) I’d be slimmer

c) I’d write to him

d) I wouldn’t be so tired


PAPER 2 - READING



Do not turn the page until you are told so.

No de vuelta la página hasta que se le diga.

Write your surname, and name and candidate number above.

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully.

Answer all the questions.

READING


Total possible score: 20 points

Type of exercises:

1. Matching items: match the text with the correct title

Five questions, 1 point each, 5 points total

2. Read the text and decide on the correct meaning (multiple choice)


3. Read the text and fill in the missing words from the list


4. Read the text and answer True or False



Questions 1 - 5

Read the texts and match them to a suitable title from the list below.

3.

1.

Beautiful four bedroom colonial home with renovated basement. Gorgeous brick fire

place in family room. Comes equipped with stainless steel appliances, stainless steel gas

barbecue grill, full wicker patio set, full-sized washer and dryer.

Call now to schedule a private viewing of your next home.

555 321 46312

2.

YEAR 5/6 TEACHER NEEDED FOR MATERNITY COVER

The successful candidate will;

Be a fully qualified primary school teacher with at least 1year’s experience in a similar

post.

To be considered for this role, please attach a copy of your current and up-to-date CV.

Should your application be successful, one of our consultants will be in touch shortly.

Computer problems reducing your work efficiency? Do you need help resolving IT

related issues?

We are an experienced and reliable team that offer support for PC hardware and

software troubleshooting.

We also offer 24/7 support and maximum 24-hour response times

Contact us now.


4.

Antique tinted colour post card. Unused, unopened, undamaged item.

Size: 4 x 6 inches (A6, 10x15cm) approx.

Winning bidder pays for shipping and handling charges. We ship all orders within 5

business days after payment clearance.

D Affordable Colonial Home – Only 340,000 $

5.

I have lots of fun and treats for your dog on my walks and of course always bring little

bags with me! (Just in case!) I pick up your dog on foot from your home and my walks

generally last from 1 and a half to 2 hours.

Services include: bathe, brush, feed and water for 20 pounds.

Please feel free to email me for an appointment.

TITLES

A Having Computer Problems? Need IT Assistance?

B Reliable Dog Walker

C Antique Card for Auction

E Recruitment Offer


Questions 6 - 10

Look at the text in each question and choose the correct meaning.

6.

A. The pool area is unattended

B. The pool area can hold up to 15 people

C. If you are 15 or less, you can enter the pool area only under the supervision of an

adult.

7.

A. The owner has put on a special sale to celebrate his birthday

B. Birthday party supplies are 20% cheaper

C. Birthday party supplies account for 20 percent of total sales

8.

A. Tom wants to meet Sam

B. Sam has written to Tom before

C. Sam and Tom do not know each other

Children under 16 are not allowed in the pool area unattended.

Birthday Sale 20% off!

Dear Sam. I’m writing to you to find out if you would like to be my pen pal. I’m 18 and I like music, dancing and playing tennis. I hope you will write soon. Best wishes, Tom


9.

What happened first?

A. Mr. Smith telephoned me

B. The kidnappers telephoned Mr. Smith

C. Mr. Smith explained what had happened

10.

A. You have to pay when checking in

B. You are allowed to pay when checking out

C. Reservations can be paid in installments

Soon after the kidnappers had telephoned Mr. Smith, he telephoned me at the office. I listened carefully as he explained what had happened

Four Seasons Hotel All bookings must be fully paid on arrival


Questions 11 - 15

Read the text and fill in the gaps with a word from below. Only one word is correct.

Text adapted from Wikipedia, The Free Encyclopedia

Image source: Wikipedia

Charles Spencer "Charlie" Chaplin, was an English comic actor, film director and

composer best-known for his work during the silent film era. He became one of the

most famous film stars in the world before the end ofWorld War I. Chaplin

used mime and other visual comedy routines, and his fame continued into the era of

speakies – films with sound.

His most famous role was that of The Tramp, ______________ 11 he first played in

the Keystone comedy Kid Auto Races at Venice in 1914. Five years later, in 1919, he co-

founded United Artists together with Mary Pickford,Douglas Fairbanks and D. W.

Griffith.

After the arrival of films with talking, Chaplin continued to focus ______________ 12

silent films which included sound effects and music with melodies based on popular

songs or composed by him. 1936’s Modern Times has his iconic Little

Tramp ______________ 13 struggling to survive in the modern, industrialized world.

The film is a comment on the desperate employment and fiscal conditions many people

faced ______________ 14 the Great Depression.

Chaplin was one of the most creative and influential personalities of the silent-film era.

He ______________ 15 by his predecessor, the French silent film comedian

11. when where which who

Max

Linder, to whom he dedicated one of his films. His working life in entertainment

spanned over 75 years, until his death at the age of 88.

12. to at in on

13. actor role character actress

14. during for while at

15. were influenced influences was influenced influenced


Questions 16 - 20

Read the text and answer True or False to the statements below

From the VOA special English Technology Report

The earliest process of making paper was done almost five thousand years ago in Egypt

and the Nile Valley. In those days, paper was made from strips of the papyrus plant.

Modern paper-making began in China about two thousand years ago. This process

produced paper from cloth, straw, wood or the bark of trees. The raw materials are

struck over and over until they become loose. Then they are mixed with water.

After the water has been removed, the flat, thin form remaining is permitted to dry.

This becomes a sheet of paper.

Large machines started to be used for making paper near the end of the sixteenth

century. Today, paper-making is a big business. But it is still possible to make paper by

hand, since the steps are the same as using big machines.

You should choose paper with small amounts of print. Old envelopes are good for this

reason. Coloured paper also can be used, as well as small amounts of newspaper. Small

pieces of rags or cloth can be added. These should be cut into pieces about five

centimetres by five centimetres.

Everything is placed in a container, covered with water and brought to a boil. It is

mixed for about two hours with some common chemicals and then allowed to cool.

Then it is left until most of the water dries up. The substance left, called pulp, can be

stored until you are ready to make paper.

When you are ready, the pulp is mixed with water again. Then the pulp is poured into a

mould. The mould is made of small squares of wire that hold the shape and thickness of

the paper. To help dry the paper, the mould lets the water flow through the small wire

squares.


After several more drying steps, the paper is carefully lifted back from the mould. It is

now strong enough to be touched.

The paper is smoothed and pressed to remove trapped air. You can use a common

electric iron used for pressing clothes.

There are many other technologies for people making paper using small machines.

Internet users can do a search and find directions for making homemade paper. You

can also order information about making paper from the website enterpriseworks.org.

And that’s the VOA Special English Technology Report. Transcripts, MP3s and

podcasts of our reports are at voaspecialenglish.com. Follow us on Facebook, Twitter,

YouTube and iTunes at VOA Learning English. I’m Christopher Cruise.

16. The Chinese used strips of the papyrus plant to make paper.

True False

17. Nowadays, making paper by hand is no longer possible.

True False

18. To make paper by hand, it is better not to use paper with large amounts of print.

True False

19. It is not necessary to dry the pulp before lifting the paper back from the mould.

True False

20. It is difficult to find information about paper-making on the internet.

True False


PAPER 3 WRITING

Date:



Do not turn the page until you are told to do so

No de vuelta la página hasta que se le diga.

Write your surname, and name and candidate number

Read the instructions for each part of the paper carefully

Answer all the questions

Type of exercises:

1) Correct the mistakes

10 mistakes, 0.5 points each: total 5 points

2) Translate the following sentences from Spanish to English.

10 sentences, 0.5 points each: total 5 points

3) Write a story Total number of points: 5

4) Write an email

Total number of points: 5


Question 1

Correct the mistakes

Each mistake found is worth 0.5 points

Anyone is free to speak at Speaker’sCorner in Hyde Park.

The speakers, which normally stands on boxes to be above the crowds of people

listening to they, are coming every Saturday and Sunday.

They talk about subjects as religion, politics or social problems.

Part of the fun of be at Speaker’s Corner is to listen to the hecklers, who are

trying to interrupt the speakers with their own comments or questions.

Indeed, the hecklers are sometimes more interested to listen to than the

speakers themself.

Question 2

Translate the sentences into English

Each correct translation is worth 0.5 points

1. ¿Has encontrado el monedero que perdiste?

2. ¿Quién te vio ayer en el cine?

3. ¿A quién viste ayer en el cine?

4. Puede que mi padre empiece a trabajar de nuevo.

5. No veo a Pedro desde hace 2 años.

6. Han vendido el coche que yo quería comprar.

7. ¿Con qué frecuencia va tu hija al dentista?

8. Ana me contó que su marido había dejado su trabajo.

9. ¡No toques eso!

10. ¿Cuánto tiempo llevas esperándome?


Question 3 (5 points)

Write a story of 100 words on your answer sheet

The story should begin with this sentence:

“It was just after five o’clock on a wet Monday afternoon when I received a telephone

call from Inspector Smith”.

Question 4 (5 points)

You have decided to study English abroad during the summer and you see an

advert in a magazine for a language school in Dublin. Write an email of about 75

words requesting information about:

- Types of courses available

- Duration

- Cost and types of accommodation offered (apartments, students’

residence…)

- Leisure activities included


PAPER 4 LISTENING


You will listen to all the recordings twice.

Types of questions and scores

1) Listen to each sentence and decide which is the right answer

5 questions, one point each

2) Listen to the recording and answer true or false.


3) Listen to the recording and choose the right answer


4) Listen to the recording and fill in the missing information


Total score for section: 25


LISTENING 1

Listen to the following excerptsand then choose the correct answer to the questions

below

Dream House

Fuente original: www.elllo.org. Clic aquí para escuchar el audio

Questions 1-5: total 5 points

1. Who wants the simplest house?

A) Samir

B) Jonathan

C) Emily

2. Does Emily like big cities?

A) No, she doesn’t.

B) Only New York and Tokyo

C) Yes, she does.

3. Who are the most similar in their views?

A) Cheryl and Samir

B) Hoa and Jonathan

C) Jonathan and Demelza

4. Does Demelza want to live near the beach?

A) Yes, she does.

B) We don’t know.

C) It depends on the season

5. Who doesn’t like cities?

A) Cheryl and Emily

B) Hoa and Emily

C) Samir and Hoa

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LISTENING 2

Listen to the recording and answer the questions (True or False)

Fuente original: www.listen-to-english.com. Clic aquí para escuchar el audio.

That was Miss Binnie Hale, singing a song called ‘A Nice Cup of Tea’, which she

recorded 70 years ago, in 1941.

We British love tea. We drink more tea per head of population than any other country

in the world, except for Ireland. If you go to the Tea Council website, you will see a

counter at the top of the page which shows how many cups of tea we have drunk so far

today. By the end of the day, the counter will reach 165 million – that is three cups of

tea per person per day. Coffee has become more popular in Britain in recent years, but

even today we drink more than twice as much tea as coffee.

However, tea drinking is not an old tradition in Britain. We made our first cup of tea

sometime in the middle of the 17th century. We found that we liked it, that it refreshed

us and made us strong and happy, and we have continued drinking tea ever since. In

the 19th century, tea became popular among working-class people, and it has remained

the favourite drink of ordinary British people ever since. And it is well-known that the

Queen likes a nice cup of tea, as well.

Tea drinking has a much longer history in China, where people have drunk tea for

thousands of years. But British tea is not pale and delicate like tea in China. It has a rich

brown colour and a strong taste. Nearly everyone in Britain puts milk in their tea, and

about a third of people add sugar to make the tea sweet. (Yuk! I cannot stand tea with

sugar!) It is well known that no-one outside Britain knows how to make tea properly.

When we British go on holiday in, for example, France or Spain, and we ask for a cup of

tea in a hotel or cafe, the waiter brings us a cup of lukewarm

First, you put some water in a kettle and put it on the stove to boil. When it is nearly

boiling, you pour a small amount of the hot water into a tea-pot, and swill it round, and

pour it out again. This warms the tea pot. Then you put tea or tea bags into the tea-pot.

How much tea? Well, my mother used to say that you should put in one teabag for each

water and a tea bag on the

end of a piece of string. This is wrong, completely wrong, and in the interests of

international harmony and understanding I shall now explain how to make a nice cup

of tea, British style.

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person, plus one for the pot. So, if you are making tea for two people, you should put

three teabags into the pot. Then you pour boiling water onto the tea, and let the tea

stand for about three minutes. If you have milk in your tea, put the milk in the cup first

and pour the tea onto the milk, not the other way round. After you have poured the tea,

and offered sugar to those strange people who like sweet tea, you should pour some

more boiling water into the tea-pot. Why? Because the one thing which is nicer than a

nice cup of tea is another nice cup of tea.

We use the word “nice” all the time in spoken English. “It’s nice weather today. Did you

have a nice time on holiday? It was so nice of you to come and visit us. Did you meet

Jane’s mother? She is such a nice person. Please sit down. I’ll make us a nice cup of

tea.”

In fact, “nice” is probably the most overused word in the English language. We use it so

much that it has become almost meaningless. It is a good idea to find other words to

use instead of “nice”, if you can.

Did you notice something else about the song at the beginning of the podcast? I am

talking about the names of different meals. “At half past eleven, my idea of heaven is a

nice cup of tea,” sings Binnie. We have a special word in English for a snack in the

middle of the morning, which you will hear sometimes, though it is now a bit old-

fashioned – ‘elevenses’, because of course we have our snack at about eleven o’clock.

After elevenses, Binnie has her next cup of tea with her dinner. Until perhaps 30 years

ago, most working people in Britain had their main meal in the middle of the day. They

called it “dinner”, and many older people still do. Later in the day, people had a light

meal at five or six o’clock and they called it “tea”. And, like Binnie, they had a cup of tea

with their tea!

Today, most people have a light meal in the middle of the day – perhaps a sandwich

and an apple, which they eat at their desk in the office. We call this meal “lunch”.

People eat their main meal of the day in the evening, when they get home from work,

and they call this meal “supper”. “Dinner” nowadays means a formal evening meal for a

special occasion, where we dress up in smart clothes, and have nice food and wine and

candles!

So, a lot has changed since Binnie Hale recorded her song seventy years ago. But a nice

cup of tea is still a nice cup of tea! I am going to make one now.


Questions 6 to 13: total 8 points

6. The British drink more coffee than tea

True or False

7. The narrator loves sweet tea. The more sugar, the better.

True or False

8. According to the narrator, Spanish people know how to make tea properly.

True or False

9. Tea tastes much better if the tea-pot is warmed first with nearly boiling

water.

True or False

10. The word “nice” is not widely used in English.

True or False

11. The word “tea” may also refer to a light meal eaten mid-afternoon.

True or False

12. For British people, meal habits have changed over the past 30 years.

True or False

13. Nowadays, people eat their main meal in the middle of the day

True or False


Listening 3

Listen to the recording and then choose the correct answer to the questions below

Fuente original: www.listen-to-english.com. Clic aquí para escuchar el audio

Like lots of people, I have Google as the home page on my web browser. On the Google

page, there is a search box where I can type what I am looking for. For example, I can

type “English lessons” if I want to find web sites which teach people English.

Underneath the search box, there are two buttons. One says “Search”. If I click this

button, I get a page of Google search results about “English lessons”. The other one says

“I’m feeling lucky!” I have often looked at this button and wondered what it did, and

whether I really had to feel lucky before I could click on it.

So, today I decided to make a podcast about the word “lucky”, and to click on the “I’m

feeling lucky!” button, just to see what happens.

“Lucky” means “fortunate”. If I say, “I am lucky” it means that good things have

happened to me. Maybe I have won the lottery. Maybe I have just met the most

beautiful girl in the world. Maybe bad things have happened to other people, but not to

me. I have escaped. I am lucky.

So now I will click on the “I’m feeling lucky” button. What will happen? Will I win a lot

of money? Will I enjoy good health and happiness and live to be 100? No, actually. The

click takes me to a Google page about the Google logo. I am disappointed. I expected

something much more exciting. I do not feel very lucky at all.

Kevin does not feel lucky either. Last Saturday was the worst day of his life. Or, at least

the worst day this football season. Last Saturday, Kevin’s team, United, lost 4-0 to their

old rivals, Albion. “How can this happen?” says Kevin. Now, most people who were at

the football match know why it happened. It happened because United played really

badly. But Kevin cannot agree. “It was luck,” he says. “Albion were lucky. The referee

did not see a foul against United’s striker. And United were unlucky that the

referee disallowed their only goal.” If you are a football fan, you will know how Kevin

feels. Your team never loses because they are bad. They lose because they are unlucky.

But now let us meet someone who is really lucky. His name is Adam Potter, and he lives

in Glasgow in Scotland. He is a keen mountaineer. A mountaineer is someone who

climbs mountains as a hobby. Mountaineering can be great fun, but it can also be very

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dangerous, particularly in Scotland in winter. A week or so ago, Adam and some friends

and his dog set off to climb a mountain near Ben Nevis, which is the highest mountain

in Britain. As they climbed higher, snow and ice covered the ground. They stopped, and

Adam suggested that they should take out their ice axes and put crampons on their

boots, to stop them from slipping. And at that very moment, he slipped on the ice. He

fell down the side of the mountain, over rocks and cliffs. He finally stopped falling and

slipping and sliding 1000 feet (about 300 metres) down the mountain. Now, if you or I

had fallen 300 metres down an icy Scottish mountain, we would probably be dead. In

fact, more than 20 people are killed every year in falls on Scottish mountains. But

Adam was lucky. He was unconscious for a minute or two when he stopped falling.

Then he stood up and took a map out of his rucksack to work out where he was. He

looked up to see the mountain rescue helicopter looking for him. The mountain rescue

team expected to find a dead body. The leader of the rescue team said, “He is a very,

very lucky man.”

Adam is in hospital, recovering from his injuries, but he does not intend to stay there

for long. In 8 weeks time, he plans to travel to the area around Mount Everest, the

world’s highest mountain, for a ten week expedition. Let’s wish him lots of luck.


Questions 14 to 20: total 7 points

14. If you click the “I’m feeling lucky button”…

A) you will get a page of Google search results about “English lessons”

B) you will enjoy good health and happiness.

C) the click will take you to a Google page about the Google logo.

15. Who is Kevin?

A) A professional football player.

B) A football fan.

C) A referee.

16. According to the text, how many goals did United score?

A) Four.

B) Only one, though the referee decided that it wasn’t legal.

C) Two.

17. Kevin thinks that United lost because…

A) the referee did not see a foul against United’s striker.

B) they played really badly.

C) they were unlucky.

18. Who fell down the side of a mountain?

A)Adam Potter.

B) Adam Potter and Ben Nevis.

C) Adam and some of his friends.

19. When Adam stood up …

A) he called the rescue team.

B) he found a map.

C) he didn’t know where he was.

20. Adam is in hospital now and …

A) intends to stay there for 8 weeks.

B) he’s is already planning to travel to the area around Mount Everest

C) wants to recover from his injuries in less than 8 weeks.


Listening 4

Listen to the recording and fill in the gaps with the correct answers.

Fuente Original: www.voanews.com.Clic aquí para escuchar el audio.

Questions 21 - 25: total 5 points

The Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis, and Malaria began in 2002. Recently,

international donors gave almost $12 21)___________ to the Global Fund to Fight

AIDS, Tuberculosis (TB), and Malaria.

A) billion B) million C) dollars D) trillion

This is the largest donation the Global Fund has ever received.

Stefan Emblad of the Global Fund is pleased. These are difficult economic times.

The donation is 22)______________ higher than before, but the Fund needs a

billion dollars more to fight these diseases.

A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50%

The Global Fund is a partnership of public and private organizations. The Fund is the

main source of money for programs to 23)_____________ and prevent AIDS,

tuberculosis, and malaria. Donations support programs in more than 140 countries.

A) beat B) treat C) deed D) bring

Global Fund programs treat nearly three million people for AIDS. 24)

____________ million receive malaria drugs. Seven million people receive

tuberculosis treatment. The Global Fund has saved over five million lives.

A) 143 B) 134 C) 133 D) 183

Stefan Emblad says they won’t be cutting funding to their programs.

The United States promised to give $4 billion over the next three years, the largest 25)

____________ ever. The United States was the first donor to the fund and is the

largest. France is second. Japan, Britain and Canada are in the top five.

A) dream B) reef C) give D) gift

http://www.voanews.com/�

http://www.voanews.com/learningenglish/theclassroom/articles/economics/Nations-and-Groups-Promise-12-Billion-to-Fight-AIDS-TB-Malaria-105184209.html�


PAPER 5 ORAL SKILLS


One candidate/Two candidates

Scores: 25 points total

Questions

1. Pair introduction worth 5 points (each student), 1.5 minutes each: total 3

minutes

2. Individual pictures commentary worth 10 points, 3.5 minutes each: total 7

minutes

3. Pair picture commentary worth 10 points (each student), 10 minutes

Question 1

Introduce yourself to the other student and the examiner:

Points will be given for varied vocabulary, fluency and lack of repetition

Consider:

Name

Origin

Course

Interests

Future ambitions

Any additional relevant information


Question 2

You will receive a set of written and/or visual stimuli use them to give your opinion,

you will not have time to view the stimuli in advance

Do not just explain the stimuli (Fuente de las imágenes: Wikipedia)

Candidate 1

Internet: a blessing or a curse?


Candidate 2

Unemployment – Whose Fault Is It?


Question 3

Both candidates will see the same picture at the same time. You have one minute to

prepare your thoughts. Then together discuss any issues the picture stimulates.

Points will be given for good interaction and feedback to one another.

(Examiner: there are two pictures to alternate so pairs do not relay information to next

pair – only select one of the pictures for each pair of candidates)



KEY TO EXERCISES

Questions 1 - 4

1 - She hurt her back when she was lifting the heavy bags

2 - When they were driving to London they had an accident

3 - We were playing tennis when it began to rain

4 - He was cleaning the windows when he fell off the ladder

Questions 5 - 8

Find the incorrect past simple tense in each group

5 found seen were built

6 wrote maked watched stayed

7 taken spoke started got

8 bit beat stoped left

Questions 9 - 12

9 Ago

10 Since

11 For

12 For

Questions 13 - 16

13 at / at / no preposition

14 in / on

15 at / in

16 on / in

Questions 17 - 20

17 c

18 d

19 b

20 a


READING - Exercise 1: 1d – 2e – 3a – 4c – 5b

READING - Exercise 2: 6c – 7a – 8c – 9b – 10a

READING - Exercise 3:

11. when where which who

12. to at in on

13. actor role character actress

14. during for while at

15. were influenced influences was influenced influenced

READING - Exercise 4:

16 – false

17 – false

18 – true

19 – false

20 – false


WRITING - Exercise 1

Anyone is free to speak at Speaker’s Corner onin Hyde Park.

The speakers, which whonormally stands stand on boxes to be above the crowds of

people listening to they them, are coming come every Saturday and Sunday.

They talk about subjects as like religion, politics or social problems.

Part of the fun of bebeing at Speaker’s Corner is to listen to the hecklers, who are

trying try to interrupt the speakers with their own comments or questions.

Indeed, the hecklers are sometimes more interestedinteresting to listen to than the

speakers themselfthemselves .

WRITING - Exercise 2

1. Have you found the purse (that) you lost?

2. Who saw you yesterday at the cinema?

3. Who did you see yesterday at the cinema?

4. My father may (might / could) start working again.

5. I haven’t seen Pedro for 2 years.

6. They have sold the car (that / which) I wanted to buy.

7. How often does your daughter go to the dentist?

8. Ana told me that her husband had given up his job.

9. Don’t touch that!

10. How long have you been waiting for me?


LISTENING - Exercise 1: 1a – 2a – 3a – 4b – 5b

LISTENING - Exercise 2:

6 - False

7 - False

8 - False

9 - True

10 - False

11 - True

12 - True

13 – False

LISTENING - Exercise 3: 14c – 15b – 16b – 17c – 18a – 19c – 20b

LISTENING - Exercise 4: 21a – 22a – 23b – 24a – 25d

Documents

001 Examen b1 Ingles