Louisiana FFA Veterinary Science CDE Test Bank

******PLEASE SEE CORRECTION ON LAST PAGE AFTER ANSWERS.

1. Hip dysplasia is a condition in which:

(A). The ball and socket joint of the hip becomes diseased

(B). The socket joint is deep not allowing the head of the femur to be held

(C). The cartilage lining of the acetabulum becomes calcified and thick

(D). Is not painful and does not impact the dogs ability to walk correctly

2. Cole has been asked to clean the front waiting area of a clinic. With regard to the types of sanitation, which of these best describes "cleaning"?

(A). Physically removing all visible signs of dirt and organic matter such as feces, hair, etc.

(B). Destroying most microorganisms on nonliving things by physical or chemical means.

(C). Destroying all microorganisms and viruses on an object using chemicals and/or heat.

(D). Solutions that destroy microorganisms or inhibit their growth on living tissue.

3. Which organization governs the use, storage and disposal of controlled substances?

(A). EPA

(B). DEA

(C). OSHA

(D). None of the above

4. An animal is being given a vaccine. Vaccine is defined as

(A). A suspension of killed or modified microorganisms that stimulate an immune response when introduced into the body

(B). Swelling and inflammation

(C). More susceptible to a disease

(D). Having no resistance to disease

5. When in the heart, heartworms congregate in the:

(A). Right ventricle

(B). Right atrium

(C). Left ventricle

(D). Left atrium

6. A sexually mature female of the ovine species.

(A). Ewe

(B). Gilt

(C). Hen

(D). Filly

7. When dealing with radioactive equipment, which of the following PPE would you not need?

(A). Lead gloves

(B). Lead apron

(C). A dosimeter

(D). Safety glasses

8. The cardiovascular system is composed of

(A). Heart and lungs

(B). Lungs and trachea

(C). Heart and blood vessels

(D). Heart, lungs, and kidneys

9. The clinical signs of heartworm are:

(A). Vomiting, deep cough, anemia

(B). Anemia, deep cough, irregular heart beat

(C). Deep cough, irregular heartbeat, exercise intolerance

(D). Irregular heartbeat, anemia, exercise intolerance

10. What is a cryptorchid?

(A). Sterile female calf born twin to a male calf.

(B). Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.

(C). Process by which sperm are produced by the female.

(D). Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.

11. This tool provides artificial ventilation:

(A). Autoclave

(B). Cat bag

(C). Ambubag

(D). Laryngoscope

12. A vet tech is in charge of the construction of a new X-ray development unit. She knows that to prevent radiation the walls must be at least 2 5/8 inches (") thick is gypsum sheet rock is used or 1/16" thick if sheets of lead are embedded in the wall to prevent the passage of radiation. What is the difference of thickness in the two walls?

(A). 2 1/2 inches

(B). 2 9/16 inches

(C). 2 3/4 inches

(D). 3 inches

13. Which zoonotic disease is fatal in humans?

(A). Corona

(B). Rabies

(C). Parvovirus

(D). Scabies

14. A female that has not produced a calf.

(A). Heifer

(B). Steer

(C). Cow

(D). Bull

15. Which is not a tool that removes dead hair?

(A). Flea comb

(B). Curry comb

(C). Shedding blade

(D). Scotch comb

16. When spaying a cat, which instrument would not be used?

(A). Scalpel handle

(B). Standard splint

(C). Needle holder

(D). Scalpel blade

17. In horses, when a fixed object is grabbed with the incisor teeth and air is drawn in repetitively through the mouth, is what:

(A). Boredom

(B). Need of certain trace minerals

(C). Cribbing

(D). All of the above

18. A veterinarian in a critical care unit determines that one calf was given the following intravenous (IV) solutions in a 24-hour period: 745 milliliters (mL) of 0.9% normal saline, 420 mL of lactated ringers, 1,250 mL of 5% dextrose, and 15 mL of an antibiotic solution. How many total milliliters of IV solution did the patient receive?

(A). 1430 mL

(B). 2430 mL

(C). 3430 mL

(D). 4430 mL

19. A mature female of the galline species.

(A). Hen

(B). Sow

(C). Gilt

(D). Ewe

20. When sanitizing, filtration is best described as:

(A). Using a chemical with a mop or sponge.

(B). Soaking items in a chemical disinfectant until they are used.

(C). Incinerating an object or exposing them to a flame.

(D). Removing particles from the air using a physical barrier.

22. A snook hook is typically used during

(A). A castration

(B). A diaphragmatic hernia repair

(C). A ovariohysterectomy

(D). Declawing

23. An animal health technician is stocking a cabinet with flea control products. He stocks three cases of spray containing 24 cans per case, 13 cases of shampoo with 12 bottles per case, 5 boxes of foam with 10 cans per case, and 6 cases of powder with 8 boxes per case. Three days later he calculates that 35 cans of spray, 18 bottles of shampoo, 5 cans of foam and 21 bottles of powder have been sold. How many total items of flea killing preparations are left in the cabinet?

(A). 245 preparations

(B). 247 preparations

(C). 249 preparations

(D). 251 preparations

24. Which of the following diseases is not a disease that affects dogs?

(A). Rabies

(B). Distemper

(C). Black leg

(D). Hepatitis

25. Which is not a sign of heart failure:

(A). Excessive intolerance

(B). Animal develops a cough

(C). Fluid accumulation in lungs and abdomen

(D). All are signs of heart failure

26. Examination by tapping the surface to determine density of a body is called

(A). Palpation

(B). Auscultation

(C). Percussion

(D). Tapping

27. Most surgical instruments are manufactured from ______________.

(A). Aluminum

(B). Copper

(C). Lead

(D). Stainless steel

28. A flotation test to look for internal parasites is conducted on which of the following?

(A). Urine

(B). Feces

(C). Blood

(D). Saliva

29. A cat bag completely encloses the body of the cat.

(A). True

(B). False

30. What tissue type is responsible for fat storage?

(A). Adipose tissue

(B). Neural tissue

(C). Connective tissue

(D). Glandular

31. Which of the following hormones is the most primary hormone produced by the testes?

(A). Estrogen

(B). Testosterone

(C). Progesterone

(D). Oxytocin

32. Ideally, a horse should be bedded on

(A). Newspaper

(B). Straw

(C). Walnut shavings

(D). Wood shavings

33. Most cats prefer to be petted:

(A). On the head

(B). On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears

(C). On the belly

(D). On the back

34. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

(A). Ringworm

(B). Cat Scratch Fever

(C). Both A and B

(D). None of the above

35. A member of OSHA is doing a walkthrough of a veterinary clinic. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is housed in

(A). The Department of Health

(B). The Department of Finance

(C). The Department of Security

(D). The Department of Labor

36. Which of the following animals is NOT a cecal fermenter?

(A). Horse

(B). Guinea Pig

(C). Pig

(D). Rabbit

37. Luke, a Border Collie, has a problem in the left side of the heart. What other problem will likely occur?

(A). Ascites

(B). Lung congestion

(C). Nerve Degeneration

(D). Osteoporosis

38. Poultry rely on a ______________, a strong muscular organ that may contain grit, to grind their food.

(A). Gaggle

(B). Gizzard

(C). Gosling

(D). Gander

39. What machine is used to deliver inhalant anesthetics and oxygen?

(A). Autoclave

(B). Gravity feeder/ J tube

(C). Centrifuge

(D). Anesthetic machine

40. Radiology P.P.E.'s are used when using the Autoclave.

(A). True

(B). False

41. The term that means of, or relating to cats:

(A). Feline

(B). Bovine

(C). Canine

(D). Galline

42. The instrument specifically used for collecting a fecal sample directly from the animal's rectum is a:

(A). Fecal extractor

(B). Fecalyzers

(C). Fecal Spoon

(D). Fecal loop

43. A vet diagnosed Bill's goat with dyspnea. What does this mean?

(A). The goat has normal breathing

(B). The goat has abnormal heart sounds

(C). The lamb has difficulty breathing

(D). The lamb has bluish discoloring of its skin

44. The ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the:

(A). Client

(B). Veterinarian

(C). Veterinary technicians

(D). Patients

45. A person who cares for equine feet including trimming and shoeing is called a/an

(A). Equestrian

(B). Farrier

(C). Hobble

(D). Quittor

46. Reinforcement or punishment of emotionally induced behavior is referred to as ______ conditioning.

(A). Positive

(B). Negative

(C). Operant

(D). Counter

47. Use the following scenario to answer the question. An otherwise healthy veterinary technician, Anna, is bitten by a 2 year old mixed breed dog, Tow Tow, while restraining him for a pedicure. The bite does not cause severe tissue damage, but the canine teeth penetrate her skin and she does bleed. Tow Tow is current on all of his vaccinations including rabies. He lives primarily in the backyard of his owner's suburban home. What is the best, 1st action Anna should take following the bite?

(A). Ignore the bite until she has time to wash it, even though this may not be for a few hours. Once there is time, also inform the veterinarian or office manager.

(B). Wash the wound immediately with soap and water, then with povidone-iodine, and follow with a thorough irrigation with water, then inform veterinarian or office manager.

(C). Wait until she gets home and clean the wound, without notifying the veterinarian because she fears she will be reprimanded.

(D). Tell a coworker about it, but take no more action regarding the incident.

48. A veterinary pharmaceutical company technician uses 480-milliliter (mL) flask of rabies vaccine solution to fill individual vials. If each vial holds 1/30 of the volume of the flask, how many mL of vaccine are in each vial?

(A). 12 mL

(B). 14 mL

(C). 16 mL

(D). 18 mL

49. What does the acronym AVMA stand for?

(A). American Veterinary Medical Associates

(B). Associates of Veterinary Medical Associations

(C). American Veterinary Medical Associations

(D). Association of Veterinary Medical Associations

50. What is IBR?

(A). Sterile female calf born twin to a male calf.

(B). Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.

(C). Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.

(D). Viral disease of the respiratory tract that can cause abortion.

51. A veterinary technician is calculating the bill for hospital care for a kidney transplant cat. The bill for medical services and care was $2,685. The owners paid $1,389 when they picked up the cat. A few weeks later they paid another $497. How much do they still owe?

(A). $799

(B). $899

(C). $999

(D). $1500

52. A veterinary technician notes that a dog's leukocyte (white blood cell) count before surgery was 18,645. Two days after the surgery, the patient had a leukocyte count of 8,968. What is the difference in the leukocyte counts?

(A). 6977

(B). 9677

(C). 1845

(D). 9577

53. A veterinarian is paid $53,291 per year. After a raise, her yearly salary increases to $56,509. What was the amount of her raise?

(A). $2192

(B). $3901

(C). $1450

(D). $3218

54. What is the tool that is not used to trim the hooves of an animal?

(A). Hoof trimmer

(B). Hoof nippers

(C). Hoof rasp

(D). Hoof knife

55. Leptospirosis is caused by:

(A). Leptospira bacteria

(B). DNA virus

(C). Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria

(D). None of the above

56. The abomasum is:

(A). The first compartment of the ruminant stomach

(B). The second compartment of the ruminant stomach

(C). The third compartment of the ruminant stomach

(D). The fourth compartment of the ruminant stomach

57. A set of signs that occur together is called a/an:

(A). Sign

(B). Symptom

(C). Endemic

(D). Syndrome

58. An animal that is comfortable with a halter on its head and that responds to the commands of the person who is leading it is said to be _______________.

(A). Halter responsive

(B). Show ready

(C). Halter broken

(D). Domesticated

60. An orchiectomy:

(A). Removal of the ovaries and uterus

(B). Removal of the testes

(C). An incision into the thorax

(D). Removal of a tumor

61. Which of the following answers best completes this statement?Temperature, pulse and respiration rates tend to _______ as size of the animal ________.

(A). Increases, decreases

(B). Decreases, decreases

(C). Shallow, decreases

(D). Decreases slowly, decreases rapidly

62. The term used to describe a heart rate that is faster than normal is:

(A). Tachycardia

(B). Bradycardia

(C). Arrhythmia

(D). Atrial fibrillation

63. Zoonotic diseases are:

(A). Only contracted from a zoo animal

(B). Only found in veterinary clinics that work with zoo animals

(C). Shared between animals and plants

(D). Shared between animals and humans

64. When oxygen levels in the blood decrease, the mucous membranes of a veterinary patient may appear:

(A). Red

(B). Pink

(C). Purple

(D). Blue

65. Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle?

(A). Right atrium

(B). Left atrium

(C). Right ventricle

(D). Left ventricle

66. An immature female of the porcine species.

(A). Hen

(B). Sow

(C). Gilt

(D). Ewe

67. I live in a rural community where everyone owns some breed of dog. A few houses down from mine lives an Australian Cattle Dog (Blue Heeler) named Rigo. She is quite accustomed to guarding her territory against rodents, skunks, coyotes, and rabbits. Rigo was found with a half-eaten rabbit a few months ago and then gave birth to a litter of eight puppies a few weeks later. When they were old enough for their first set of vaccinations the veterinarian found that all the puppies were infested with hookworms. The veterinarian prescribed medication for all patients, including Rigo, and told my neighbor that they should be rechecked at their next visit.

306. Rigo's hookworm infection could have been caused by which of the following?

(A). Direct - ingested larvae from the environment or contracted larvae through the skin

(B). Indirect - the rabbit could have been infected

(C). Rigo does not have a hookworm infestation

(D). Both a and b

59. The puppies' infection could be best described as which type?

(A). Direct

(B). Indirect

(C). Transmammary

(D). Transplacental

361. If the rabbit was infected with hookworms what would be the term for this type of host?

(A). Paratenic

(B). Pest

(C). Atypical

(D). Infectious

21. Which of these is the scientific name for hookworms?

(A). Ancylostoma caninum

(B). Dipylidium caninum

(C). Toxocara canis

(D). None of the above

68. The Snap Canine Heartworm Test tests the blood for:

(A). Adult heartworms

(B). Antigen produced by female heartworms

(C). Microfilaria

(D). Female heartworms only

69. If an animal has problems in the right side of the heart, what other problem will likely occur?

(A). Ascites

(B). Lung congestion

(C). Nerve Degeneration

(D). Osteoporosis

70. The following tool aids in the illumination and magnification of the ear:

(A). Endoscope

(B). Stethoscope

(C). Ophthalmoscope

(D). Otoscope

71. Kennel cough is found in

(A). Dogs

(B). Cats

(C). Dogs and Cats

(D). All species

72. Annie is helping to examine a patient. She is instructed to take the temperature, pulse and respiration, which is a crucial part of a physical exam. Which of the following factors does not affect TPR?

(A). Age

(B). Size

(C). Environmental temperature

(D). Breed

73. Cat litter pans and gardening are the most common sources for which protozoan?

(A). Toxoplasma

(B). Giardia

(C). Coccidia

(D). Ancyloplasma

74. The operating room should be cleaned ____________.

(A). Daily

(B). Weekly

(C). Bi-weekly

(D). Monthly

75. The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors towards members of its own and other species is called:

(A). Sensitization

(B). Socialization

(C). Integration

(D). Anthropomorphism

76. Your chicken has a heart rate of 275 beats per minute. Is that something to be worried about?

(A). Yes, that is above normal

(B). Yes, that is below normal

(C). No, that is normal

(D). No, that is below normal

77. In the avian species the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the:

(A). Proventriculus

(B). Crop

(C). Gizzard

(D). Duodenum

78. Rabies is transmitted through:

(A). Blood from the affected animal

(B). Urine from the affected animal

(C). Feces from the affected animal

(D). Saliva from the affected animal

79. Castration of a male dog will help to eliminate which type of aggressive behavior?

(A). Territorial aggression

(B). Fear-induced aggression

(C). Predatory aggression

(D). Redirected aggression

80. Sue is taking the temperature and pulse of Max, a medium sized dog. What should she expect the temperature and pulse rate to be? :

(A). 100 F and 100-145 beats/min.

(B). 102 F and 70-120 beats/min.

(C). 100 F and 70-120 beats/min.

(D). 101 F and 60-90 beats/min.

81. Which of these is NOT a disease-causing agent for zoonotic diseases?

(A). Fungi

(B). Biologics

(C). Viruses

(D). Parasites

82. You are instructed to give a medication SQ. This abbreviation means you give the medication via:

(A). Intraperitoneal injection

(B). Intramuscular injection

(C). Subcutaneous injection

(D). Intravenous injection

83. Which of the following tool is used to control a horse for treatment?

(A). Chain twitch

(B). Halter

(C). Humane twitch

(D). Rope

84. Ears raised, mouth opened in a relaxed grim, lowered front half of body in a "bowing" posture, and tail wagging is considered to be which of the canine visual communication?

(A). Aggressive

(B). Play

(C). Submission

(D). Relaxed

85. The term that means of, or relating to poultry:

(A). Equine

(B). Feline

(C). Porcine

(D). Galline

86. Identification tags are usually placed in the ________________ of cattle.

(A). Teeth

(B). Nostrils

(C). Hooves

(D). Ears

87. The amount of fecal matter needed for a canine or feline fecal analysis is approximately:

(A). The size of a baseball

(B). `The size of a golf ball

(C). The size of a grapefruit

(D). The size of a grape

88. What are the primary functions of the hormones that the ovaries produce?

(A). Sexual behavior and maintenance of pregnancy.

(B). To give a deeper voice and more defined muscles.

(C). To maintain weight and pregnancy.

(D). To give secondary male characteristics and maintain weight gain.

89. When trying to remove a frightened cat from a kennel, which body posture are you least likely to see?

(A). Tail carried upright

(B). Paws elevated

(C). Ears flattened against head

(D). Crouched position

90. Which of the following substances is not considered a bio-hazardous substance?

(A). Scalpel blade

(B). Syringe

(C). Microscope slide

(D). Needle

91. The dental floats are used to file down the teeth of a horse.

(A). True

(B). False

92. Which of the following hormones are the primary hormones produced by the ovaries?

(A). Estrogen and testosterone.

(B). Testosterone and oxytocin.

(C). Testosterone and progesterone.

(D). Estrogen and progesterone.

93. The gag mouth speculum would be used to open the mouth to work on the teeth.

(A). True

(B). False

94. Microfilaria are:

(A). The larval stage of the heart worm

(B). The segment of the tape worm containing the male and female reproductive organs

(C). Microscopic single celled organisms

(D). None of the above

95. Dystocia can be defined as:

(A). The carrying of an embryo fetus.

(B). The process of giving birth.

(C). Abnormal or difficult birth.

(D). A birth in which the offspring enters the birth canal hind end first.96. Immunity is defined as:

(A). Having resistance to a disease due to the formation of antibodies.

(B). Slow and painful abscess

(C). Rhabidovirus

(D). Not being able to tolerate disease

97. The study of disease causes is

(A). Etiology

(B). Toxicology

(C). Biology

(D). Pathology

98. A bacteria or virus that causes clinical disease

(A). Founder

(B). Strangles

(C). Pathogen

(D). Antigen

99. What term is used to describe the motion when a body part is moved closer to the median axis of the body?

(A). Flexion

(B). Extension

(C). Abduction

(D). Adduction

100. Whipworm eggs look like a _______________ under a microscope.

(A). Circle

(B). Oval

(C). Rectangle

(D). Cone

101. Which of the following parasites is considered an endoparasite?

(A). Fleas

(B). Ticks

(C). Hookworms

(D). Mites

102. Which dehorner cauterizers as it removes the horn?

(A). Barnes

(B). Tubes

(C). Electric

(D). Allis

103. The veterinarian is explaining to Sally's owner how she will be spayed. Spay is defined as:

(A). Substance that induces an immune response

(B). Swelling and inflammation

(C). The common term for removal of female reproductive organs

(D). Allergic response

104. What are the percentages of cells and plasma in blood?

(A). 40% and 60%, respectively

(B). 50% and 50%, respectively

(C). 60% and 40%, respectively

(D). 30% and 70%, respectively

105. Smooth muscles can be found in the:

(A). Heart

(B). Pelvic limb

(C). Stomach and reproductive tract

(D). Diaphragm

106. If working in a veterinary clinic, you should understand that the guidelines set forth by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration are based on the principle of

(A). The Right to Know

(B). The basis of knowledge

(C). The determination of knowledge

(D). The right of the knowledge of the law

107. What is the most common clinical sign observed with salmonellosis?

(A). Fever

(B). Headache

(C). Muscle spasms

(D). Diarrhea

108. Horses display aggression by:

(A). Biting

(B). Head butting

(C). Nickering

(D). Snorting

109. An immature male of the equine species.

(A). Colt

(B). Foal

(C). Stallion

(D). Mare

110. Which of the hazards to associated with radiography?

(A). Hearing loss

(B). Burns or scalds

(C). Cancer

(D). None of the above

111. During an exam, Julie must take vital signs from an animal. Which of the following steps is the most correct procedure for her to take rectal temperature?

(A). Shake down the thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate read.

(B). Shake down the thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate read.

(C). Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to read.

(D). Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read.

112. Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold edges of the incision open?

(A). Rat tooth

(B). Brown-Adson

(C). Crile

(D). Allis tissue

113. The capillary refill time (CRT) for Buddy is 1 second. In the patient chart, the CVA records that the CRT for Buddy is:

(A). Abnormally low

(B). Normal

(C). Abnormally high

(D). Not enough information to record

114. Carbohydrates contain or include:

(A). Amino acids

(B). Simple sugars

(C). Lipids

(D). None of the above

115. Which of the following is NOT a warning sign that your dog or cat may be inclined to bite?

(A). Assuming submissive posture

(B). Crouching with tail between legs

(C). Ears held back, tail wagging quickly

(D). Snarling, with fur on the back raised

116. Which internal parasite is the most common in puppies and kittens?

(A). Roundworm

(B). Hookworm

(C). Whipworm

(D). Giardia

117. Endotracheal tubes are used to open the air way of an animal.

(A). True

(B). False

118. Dystocia can be defined as:

(A). The carrying of an embryo or fetus

(B). The process of giving birth

(C). Abnormal or difficult breathing

(D). A birth in which the offspring enters the birth canal hind end first

119. Which animals have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines?

(A). Horse & cow

(B). Cow & goat

(C). Dog & sheep

(D). Cat & horse

120. Feline viral rhinotracheitis symptoms include:

(A). Sneezing, discharge from nose and eyes

(B). Anorexia

(C). Aggression

(D). Licking the wound

121. What is a freemartin?

(A). Sterile female calf born twin to a male calf.

(B). Process by which ova are produced by the female.

(C). Respiratory viral disease that causes infertility.

(D). Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.

122. A technician is using a microscope to examine a specimen. If the eyepiece on the microscope has a power of 15x (x means times; a power of 15x magnifies an object 15 times) and the objective has a power of 100x, what is the total number of times she is magnifying the specimen? Hint: to find total magnification on a microscope, multiply the power of the eyepiece times the power of the objective.

(A). 1500x

(B). 2000x

(C). 2500x

(D). 3000x

123. The time period from the beginning of one cycle to the beginning of the next cycle is called the

(A). Estrous cycle

(B). Estrus cycle

(C). Testosterone cycle

(D). Mating cycle

124. The five types of white blood cells are:

(A). Eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil, lymphocyte, monocyte

(B). Thrombocyte, monocyte, neutrophil, lymphocyte, easinophil

(C). Neutrophil, monocyte, leukocyte, basophil, eosinophil

(D). Neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil, granulocytes, acanthocyte125. Diseases that can be transmitted to humans are known as:

(A). Contagious

(B). Benign

(C). Malignant

(D). Zoonotic

126. What blood test evaluates the red blood cell count, the size of the red blood cells, amount of hemoglobin, number of platelets, total white blood cell count and a breakdown of the types of cells present?

(A). Packed cell volume

(B). Complete blood cell count

(C). Chemistry profile

(D). Serology

127. What type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones?

(A). Tendon

(B). Ligament

(C). Cartilage

(D). Blood

128. Sammy found a decreased specific gravity in the urine. This could indicate all of the following EXCEPT:

(A). Increased water intake

(B). Shock

(C). Chronic renal disease

(D). Other diseases

129. The function of the cecum is to:

(A). Produce bile

(B). Aid in the digestion of fibrous materials

(C). Produce insulin

(D). None of the above

130. Obstetrical chain and handle assists in the birthing process

(A). True

(B). False

131. Which of these is not part of the process of filtration of the blood through the urinary system?

(A). Nephrons

(B). Medulla

(C). Vena Cava

(D). Kidney

132. Which of the following is not a bacterial infection in animals:

(A). Pneumonia

(B). Canine Parvovirus

(C). Strangles

(D). Anthrax

133. What is drenching?

(A). Giving a liquid medication orally.

(B). Milking a dairy goat too often.

(C). Hosing down a production facility

(D). Washing a sheep thoroughly.

134. Which of the following is the first of the five steps of the digestive process?

(A). Mechanical

(B). Chemical

(C). Peristalsis

(D). Absorption

135. A vet tech gives a dog 1/2 ounces (oz.) of cough medicine at 6 PM and 1/4 of cough medicine at 10 PM. What is the total amount of cough medicine received?

(A). 1/4 oz.

(B). 1/2 oz.

(C). 3/4 oz.

(D). 1 oz.

136. The stethoscope is used to listen to the digestive organs.

(A). True

(B). False

137. Symptoms of distemper include:

(A). Lameness

(B). Swollen joints

(C). Aggression

(D). Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, nasal secretions, and seizures

138. When an animal is presented with an abnormality cranial to a certain body structure, the word cranial means:

(A). Toward the head

(B). Toward the tail

(C). Toward the nose

(D). Closest to the midline

139. Which nutrient is the most important for survival?

(A). Water

(B). Protein

(C). Carbohydrates

(D). Vitamins

140. The long bone in the forelimb of a horse between the scapula and the radius is the:

(A). Femur

(B). Ulna

(C). Humerus

(D). Tibia

141. A benefit for rehabilitation for veterinary patients is:

(A). Loss of all chronic pain

(B). Increased mobility

(C). Weight gain

(D). Loss of all acute pain

142. If you had a horse that had a 102.4F, would you be concerned?

(A). No, it is completely normal

(B). Yes, it is above normal

(C). No, it is a little below normal

(D). Yes, it is extremely below normal

143. When evaluating the integumentary system of Rowdy, a palomino, the CVA would evaluate all of the following areas EXCEPT:

(A). Skin and hide

(B). Mucous membranes

(C). Hooves

(D). Hair

144. Mary is also studying the physiology of the body systems. Which of these is a function of the circulatory system?

(A). Respiration for the body

(B). Urination of waste products

(C). Transportation of nutrients, blood cells, gases, etc.

(D). Protection of the body

145. A veterinary assistant counts the exam gloves in each room and determines there are 338, 191, 87, 420, 206, and 76 gloves. What is the total number of gloves?

(A). 1118 gloves

(B). 1218 gloves

(C). 1318 gloves

(D). 1418 gloves

146. When a vessel constricts, what does the vessel do?

(A). Expanded in length

(B). Decreased in length

(C). Expanded in diameter

(D). Decreased in diameter

147. The function of the cecum is to:

(A). Produce bile

(B). Aide in the digestion of fibrous materials

(C). Produce insulin

(D). None of the above

148. Which statement is not true regarding nutritional difference between dogs and cats:

(A). Cats are true carnivores and dogs are omnivores

(B). Cats have a higher demand for protein than dogs

(C). Dogs require higher levels of taurine and arginine than cats in their diet

(D). A cats requirement for niacin and vitamin A are much higher than a dog

149. A compound fracture is one in which:

(A). The break is along the axis of a bone

(B). The bone shatters in many pieces

(C). The break is on one side of the bone

(D). The bone breaks through the skin

150. A veterinary assistant must inventory all supplies each month. She counts the following number of thermometers: 4, 12, 7, 23, and 9. What is the total number of thermometers?

(A). 45 thermometers

(B). 50 thermometers

(C). 55 thermometers

(D). 60 thermometers

151. What is the name of the condition when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum?

(A). Pyometra

(B). Hypothyroidism

(C). Urethrostomy

(D). Cryptorchidism

152. The decision to prescribe medications to a patient is the responsibility of the:

(A). Veterinarian

(B). Credentialed veterinary technician

(C). Veterinary assistant

(D). Owner

153. The portion of the cardiac muscle that separates the right and the left ventricles is called the:

(A). Sternum

(B). Septum

(C). Coronary sinus

(D). Myometrium

154. Lauren is bandaging Bruce, a four year old horse. Leg bandages on horses are started on the _______ part of the leg and wrapped toward the back.

(A). Vertical

(B). Horizontal

(C). Lateral

(D). Proximal

155. An animal has a superficial wound. Superficial means:

(A). Near the surface, also called external

(B). Deep laceration

(C). A wound that is on the extremities of an animal

(D). On an organ

156. A zookeeper gives a pot-bellied pig 1200 milligrams (mg) of Streptomycin in a 24-hour period. How many mg does he give the pig per dose if he gives the medication every 6 hours (q6h)?

(A). 100 mg

(B). 200 mg

(C). 300 mg

(D). 400 mg

157. As a restraint tool, a towel is used to:

(A). Wrap up an angry cat

(B). Let the cat curl up and go to sleep

(C). Let the cat hide under

(D). Protect you from bites and scratches

158. Nebulized is defined as:

(A). Turned into a liquid

(B). Turned into a fine mist

(C). Turned into molecules

(D). Turned into oxygen

159. A normal capillary refill time (CRT) is:

(A). 5+ seconds

(B). 4-5 seconds

(C). 3-4 seconds

(D). 1-2 seconds

160. The weight tape is used to figure the carcass weight of an animal.

(A). True

(B). False

161. Which syringe is most efficient for vaccinating large numbers of animals because of its ability to be adjusted and set to the same dosage?

(A). Bulb

(B). Automatic

(C). Drench

(D). Paste gun

162. Which of the following disinfectants is toxic to cats?

(A). Phenols

(B). Bleach

(C). Quats

(D). Ammonia

163. A sexually mature male of the equine species.

(A). Colt

(B). Foal

(C). Stud

(D). Mare

164. In the last few hours I have noticed that my dog has been drooling excessively, especially since she never really drools. What could cause this?

(A). Oral ingestion of insecticides

(B). Dental disease

(C). Anxiety and nausea

(D). All of the above

165. Which statement is true regarding the use of a trocar:

(A). Trocar is driven through the abdomen into the abomasum of a cow's stomach

(B). Trocar is a large, sharp probe with a metal sleeve around it and is never plastic

(C). Once in the Rumen of the animal the probe is removed, leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas

(D). Trocar is used in horses to float teeth

166. An animal is vaccinated for rabies. Rabies is caused by:

(A). A rhabidovirus

(B). Parvo virus

(C). Bacteria

(D). Fungus

167. Which of these is not a division of the small intestine?

(A). Duodenum

(B). Llium

(C). Lleum

(D). Jejunum

168. The average pulse (beats/min) and respiration (breaths/min) for a horse is

(A). 40-60, 12-20

(B). 60-70, 10-30

(C). 30-60, 8-16

(D). 60-90, 12-20

169. How long, on average, will a mature horse's hoof grow in a month?

(A). 25-.38 inches

(B). 15-.25 inches

(C). 38-.5 inches

(D). None of the above

170. The most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the:

(A). Dairy Bull

(B). Adult male Rottweiler

(C). Thoroughbred stallion

(D). Adult female python

171. Adam has just assisted in restraining a Lhasa Apso for am IM injection. The RVT that gave the injection must now dispose of the needle and syringe. Where must all needles and syringes be disposed of?

(A). A bottle

(B). A dumpster

(C). A trashcan

(D). A sharps container

172. People that work with animals on a daily basis are________ faced with potentially dangerous situations.

(A). Never

(B). Sometimes

(C). Always

(D). Rarely

173. Giving birth is known as:

(A). Estrous

(B). Parturition

(C). Lactation

(D). Gestation

174. The best suited tool to pull Foxtails out of a dog’s ear is:

(A). Rat tooth forceps

(B). Allis tissue forceps

(C). Adson tissue forceps

(D). Alligator forceps175. A veterinary technician inventories the number of medication containers. She finds there are 1,137 safety-lock containers, 963 easy-open containers, 413 15 mL bottles, 1,265 30 mL bottle, and 258 ointment containers. What is the total number of medication containers?

(A). 3000 containers

(B). 4000 containers

(C). 4036 containers

(D). 1457 containers

176. A veterinary technician is counting leukocytes (white blood cells). She counts four areas on the hemocytometer counting chamber, adds four numbers together and then multiplies by 50 to obtain the correct leukocyte count. If the counts are 23, 27, 28 and 34 what is the correct leukocyte count?

(A). 5600 leukocytes

(B). 5700 leukocytes

(C). 5800 leukocytes

(D). 5900 leukocytes

177. Bile is produced in the:

(A). Spleen

(B). Liver

(C). Pancreas

(D). Omasum

178. The act of giving birth in horses.

(A). Farrowing

(B). Foaling

(C). Whelping

(D). Laying

179. Which of the following is NOT one of the nutrients that should be included in pet food?

(A). Proteins

(B). Oils

(C). Fats

(D). Water180. A kennel cough vaccination is recommended before a dog is admitted into a:

(A). Veterinary hospital

(B). Nursing home

(C). Boarding kennel

(D). Human hospital

181. To prevent inhaling gas when you are monitoring anesthesia, it is best for you to stand:

(A). Close to the patient's head

(B). Away from the patient's head

(C). Anywhere in the room

(D). Outside of the room

182. What is the main difference between the testes of mammals and the testes of poultry?

(A). Mammals have one testicle

(B). The testes of poultry do not descend out of the abdominal cavity

(C). Poultry have one testicle

(D). The testes of mammals do not descend out of the abdominal cavity

183. The term that means of, or relating to horses:

(A). Equine

(B). Galline

(C). Bovine

(D). Ovine

184. Which implement applies to a permanent form of identification?

(A). Identification tag applicator

(B). Ear tag pliers

(C). Tattooing instruments

(D). None of the above

185. The term that means of, or relating to cattle:

(A). Feline

(B). Bovine

(C). Canine

(D). Galline

186. A thorough nutritional assessment consists of a patient's history and a physical examination including body weight, BCS and hydration status. What does BCS stand for:

(A). Bovine Condition Sessions

(B). Body Condition Scoring

(C). Bowel Condition System

(D). Brand Clinic Survival

187. A veterinarian has diagnosed an animal with typhus, which is a zoonotic disease. Zoonotic means:

(A). Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans.

(B). Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.

(C). Refers to the back.

(D). A device that measures the amount of radiation someone is exposed to when performing radiology.

188. The lab receives a prescription order from a veterinarian. He wants the patient to take 40 milligrams (mg) of amoxicillin four times a day for 25 days. The lab has 20 mg amoxicillin tablets. How many tablets should the vet tech give to the client for the 25-day period?

(A). 150 tablets

(B). 200 tablets

(C). 250 tablets

(D). 300 tablets

189. The feline's first line of defense is:

(A). Its teeth

(B). Its claws

(C). Its tail

(D). Its hind legs190. A compound fracture is one in which:

(A). The break is along the axis of a bone.

(B). The bone shatters in the many places.

(C). The break is on one side of the bone.

(D). The bone breaks through the skin.

191. Which is not used to give shots:

(A). Bulb syringe

(B). Slip tip syringe

(C). Leur lock syringe

(D). Automatic syringe

192. The term that means of, or relating to sheep:

(A). Equine

(B). Galline

(C). Bovine

(D). Ovine

193. When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, non-scrubbed surgical personnel may touch the:

(A). Autoclave tape

(B). Indicator

(C). Towel

(D). Gown

194. While cleaning an exam room, Abby uses a disinfectant. This is:

(A). A chemical agent that kills, or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects.

(B). A washcloth and hot water.

(C). Something that contaminates surfaces.

(D). A chemical agent that allows the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects.

195. The correct medical term for neutering a male animal is:

(A). Orchiotomy

(B). Ovariohysterectomy

(C). Orchiectomy

(D). Cystectomy

196. The soft "v" shaped tissue in the center of the bottom of the horses hoof

(A). Sole

(B). White Line

(C). Wall

(D). Frog

197. What does "Bang's" disease cause?

(A). Abortions typically in the second half of pregnancy.

(B). Sterile female calf born twin to a male calf.

(C). A decrease in the production of sperm in the male.

(D). Respiratory viral disease that causes infertility.

198. Which of the following acronyms is used when administering medication twice a day?

(A). TID

(B). QID

(C). BID

(D). SID

199. Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract?

(A). Lipase

(B). Lleus

(C). Protease

(D). Amylase

200. Where are striated muscles located?

(A). Stomach wall and the uterus

(B). Urinary bladder and intestine

(C). Ciliary body of the eye

(D). Heart and skeletal muscle

201. The study of animal behavior is called:

(A). Homotoxicology

(B). Ethology

(C). Microbiology

(D). Physiology

202. Which organ is most involved in the elimination of drugs?

(A). Liver

(B). Stomach

(C). Kidney

(D). Brain

203. Bone marrow produces:

(A). Blood cells

(B). Periosteum

(C). Calcium and phosphorus

(D). Spongy bone

204. Which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure?

(A). Bird

(B). Dog

(C). Horse

(D). Cat

205. Which of the following is NOT a method of disposing of dead birds in a poultry production facility?

(A). Incineration

(B). Burying

(C). Recycling

(D). Composting

206. To deliver a copper bolus to an animal, which of the following would be used?

(A). Stomach pump

(B). Dosing syringe

(C). Balling gun

(D). Bulb syringe

207. A stethoscope is a common piece of equipment used for clinical exams. The stethoscope is used to listen to the heart, lungs and

(A). Murmurs

(B). Gastrointestinal sounds

(C). Pre-natal sounds

(D). Water on the lungs

208. The term that means of, or relating to swine:

(A). Equine

(B). Canine

(C). Galline

(D). Porcine

209. When an animal is presented with a cranial abnormality, the world cranial means:

(A). Toward the head

(B). Toward the tail

(C). Toward the nose

(D). Closest to the midline

210. Formalin is most commonly used for _______________.

(A). Disinfecting

(B). Flea Prevention

(C). Copy machine toner

(D). Tissue biopsy

211. Which is not an instrument used on a horse:

(A). Dental float

(B). Chain twitch

(C). Fingertip toothbrush

(D). Gag mouth speculum

212. What is the vector for heartworms?

(A). Tick

(B). Lice

(C). Flea

(D). Mosquito

213. The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is

(A). Estrogen

(B). Prolactin

(C). Progesterone

(D). Oxytocin

214. The breastbone is referred to as the:

(A). Septum

(B). Hyoid

(C). Sternum

(D). Tubercle

215. Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae?

(A). 7, 13, 6

(B). 7, 12, 7

(C). 6, 13, 7

(D). 7, 13, 7

216. The identifying information for every veterinary patient presented for evaluation is called:

(A). History

(B). Signalment

(C). Chief complaint

(D). Vital signs

217. Which medical term is used for inflammation of the sac around the heart?

(A). Cephalitis

(B). Arthritis

(C). Pericarditis

(D). Bradycardia

218. Following a seizure which sign is not a common behavior for an animal:

(A). Animal appears blind

(B). Animal cannot control bowels

(C). Animal is disoriented

(D). Elevated body temperature

219. If you are bitten, scratched or cut when working around animals, you should:

(A). Wash thoroughly with water and a disinfecting soap, then notify your supervisor

(B). Quickly rinse out the area

(C). Just wipe the blood off and bandage

(D). None of the above

220. A newborn chicken

(A). Chick

(B). Pullet

(C). Cockerel

(D). Broiler

221. The most common encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is:

(A). Canine dominance-aggression biting

(B). Equine dominance-aggression biting

(C). Female rabbit territorial-aggression biting

(D). Canine fear biting

222. When a patient is having an ovariohysterectomy performed, the patient is placed in __________ recumbence.

(A). Lateral

(B). Dorsal

(C). Ventral

(D). Sternal

223. If an animal was suffering from anaphylactic shock, it would be

(A). An exaggerated allergic response

(B). Proteins produced by lymph system

(C). Minerals in the blood stream

(D). Slippery white film

224. How long is a dog in estrus?

(A). Between 4-21 days with a mean of 9 days.

(B). Exactly 6 days.

(C). Between 7-28 days with a mean of 11 days

(D). Exactly 15 days.225. What are the anatomical differences between the oviducts of most mammals and the oviducts of poultry?

(A). Mammals have oviduct

(B). Mammals do not have oviducts

(C). Poultry do not have oviducts

(D). Poultry have one oviduct

226. In taking history of a veterinary patient, it is important to ask open-ended questions so the client can give you important information. Which question below is an open-ended question?

(A). Your pet eats a lot, doesn't he?

(B). Is your pet eating more than normal?

(C). What are your pet's normal eating habits?

(D). Your pet ate a lot this morning, didn't he?

227. The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber?

(A). Left atrium

(B). Left ventricle

(C). Right atrium

(D). Right ventricle

228. The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is:

(A). 110 degrees C

(B). 121 degrees C

(C). 170 degrees C

(D). 240 degrees C

229. A microbiologist notes that the average length of a bacterium is 1/1000 micrometer (mcm). Viruses range in size from 1/2500 to 1500 mcm. How much longer is a bacterium than the smallest virus in mcm?

(A). 3/5000 mcm

(B). 4/5000 mcm

(C). 3/500 mcm

(D). 7/5000 mcm

230. Anemia is:

(A). The study of parasites.

(B). A single celled animal.

(C). Decrease in the number of red blood cells

(D). A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans

231. What is the purpose of the infundibulum?

(A). To transport the egg from the ovary to the oviduct.

(B). To expel the fetus.

(C). To contract during labor.

(D). To give nourishment to the fetus.

232. Which of the following lists the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior?

(A). Jejunum, ileum, duodenum

(B). Duodenum, colon jejunum

(C). Lleum, duodenum, cecum

(D). Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

233. Which breeds of dogs are less likely to cause human allergies?

(A). Spaniels

(B). Chows

(C). Schnauzers

(D). Heelers

234. What kind of mite can cause a zoonotic disease?

(A). Demodectic

(B). Otodectes

(C). Sarcoptic

(D). All of the above

235. One of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is:

(A). Gently grasp both front legs

(B). Place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly

(C). Grasp the scruff of the neck

(D). Talk softly to the cat

236. Which zoonotic disease is fatal in humans?

(A). Corona

(B). Rabies

(C). Parvovirus

(D). Scabies

237. You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count 10 beats in 5 seconds, What is the rate in beats per minute?

(A). 50

(B). 120

(C). 300

(D). 220

238. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest:

(A). Shock

(B). Anemia

(C). A healthy animal

(D). Dehydration

239. Which of the following separates blood?

(A). Autoclave

(B). Centrifuge

(C). Carmalt

(D). J tube

240. Guinea pigs cannot synthesize which vitamin?

(A). A

(B). B12

(C). C

(D). K

241. Which of the following terms is defined as "difficult birth"?

(A). Dyspnea

(B). Dysphagia

(C). Dystocia

(D). Dysphagia

242. The veterinarian is describing to Spike's owner how he'll be neutered. Neuter is defined as:

(A). Having resistance to a disease

(B). The common term for removal of male reproductive organs

(C). Proteins produced by lymph system

(D). Swelling and inflammation

243. Referring to the lower or bottom view:

(A). Dorsal

(B). Ventral

(C). Cranial

(D). Anterior

244. A female of the equine species that is four years of age or older.

(A). Colt

(B). Foal

(C). Stud

(D). Mare

245. Which of the following is a function of the cervix?

(A). Connects the vagina to the uterus.

(B). Serves as a passageway for semen during copulation.

(C). Serves as a barrier for pathogens and prevents foreign material from entering the uterus.

(D). All of the above

246. In vivo vaccination involves injecting the vaccine into the ____________.

(A). Newborn chick

(B). Hen's uterus

(C). Pullet

(D). Embryo in the egg

247. Which of the following needles would most commonly be used for canine vaccinations?

(A). 16 gauge

(B). 20 gauge

(C). 21 gauge

(D). 25 gauge

248. Jane is taking a dog's pulse. What is the name of the artery where she will do this?

(A). Femoral artery

(B). Brachiocephalic artery

(C). Facial artery

(D). Carotid artery

249. Ben may have been exposed to a bacterial zoonotic disease. Which of the following is NOT a zoonotic disease caused by bacteria?

(A). Toxoplasmosis

(B). Leptospirosis

(C). Anthrax

(D). Tuberculosis

250. Which is used to cover the animal except the area that is surgically worked on:

(A). Surgical gown

(B). Surgical masks

(C). Surgical tray

(D). Surgical drapes

251. Which organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore?

(A). Spleen

(B). Liver

(C). Pancreas

(D). Kidney

252. Which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday?

(A). Pain-induced aggression

(B). Predatory aggression

(C). Territorial aggression

(D). Dominance aggression

253. Which of these is not a warning sign from a cat?

(A). Hissing

(B). Ears lowered

(C). Swiping at you with a paw

(D). Looking the other way

254. A sexually mature male of the ovine species.

(A). Rooster

(B). Bull

(C). Barrow

(D). Ram

255. A sexually mature male of the bovine species.

(A). Heifer

(B). Steer

(C). Cow

(D). Bull

256. You are doing maintenance on the anesthesia machine. You happen to notice that the granules in the canister are starting to turn purple. What does this usually indicate?

(A). The granules are more than 90 days old

(B). The granules have lost the ability to absorb anesthetic gases

(C). The granules should be turned over in the canister - they will regain

(D). The granules have lost the ability to absorb carbon dioxide

257._________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

258. An animal that growls, hisses, bares teeth, air-snaps, and/or lunges exhibiting ________ behavior.

(A). Dominant

(B). Submissive

(C). Threating

(D). Aggressive

259. Strangles is a common and highly contagious bacteria respiratory disease in horses that is caused by:

(A). Aspergillus fungus

(B). Equine herpes virus

(C). Streptococcus equi bacterium

(D). Equine encephalitis virus

260. The cat has how many cervical vertebrae?

(A). 13

(B). 10

(C). 3

(D). 7

261. Which of the following is not a primary action of testosterone?

(A). Anabolic growth

(B). Promotes spermatogenesis

(C). Promotes secretions from accessory glands

(D). None of these

262. Which tool can be used to control arterial blood flow?

(A). Kelly forceps

(B). Suture materials

(C). Gavage needle

(D). Tourniquet

263. James accidentally spilled bleach. In order to know the correct clean up procedure to take, he must check the MSDS. The acronym MSDS stands for:

(A). Material Safety from Disease Sheet

(B). Material Safety Data Sheet

(C). Mechanical Safety Destruction Sheet

(D). Mechanical Safety Data Sheet

264. Carbohydrates contain or include:

(A). Amino acids

(B). Simple sugars

(C). Lipids

(D). None of the above

265. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

266. One of the fastest means of getting drugs into the bloodstream is:

(A). Orally

(B). Intranasally

(C). Topically

(D). Intravenously

267. Pericardium is:

(A). The muscular layer of the heart wall

(B). The fibrous sack that encloses the heart

(C). A thin layer that lines the surface of the heart

(D). A thin layer that lines the inside of the heart

268. Which tool simultaneously severs the spermatic cord in order to prevent hemorrhage

(A). Elastor

(B). Babcock tissue forceps

(C). Adson tissue forceps

(D). Emasculator

269. The huge comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the

(A). Colon

(B). Lleum

(C). Rectum

(D). Cecum

270. Which of the following is NOT a function of the epididymis?

(A). Site of maturation for sperm.

(B). Site of transportation for sperm.

(C). Site of decomposition for sperm.

(D). Site of storage for sperm.

271. A steer weighed 1,145 pounds before harvest. One half of the carcass with four quarters weighed 393 pounds and one half of the carcass with rear quarters weighed 341 pounds. How much of the steer could not be consumed?

(A). 408 pounds

(B). 409 pounds

(C). 410 pounds

(D). 411 pounds

272. A cow weighed 1,713 pounds prior to calving. The calf weighed 97 pounds and the placenta and amniotic fluid weighed 189 pounds. How much did the cow weigh after calving?

(A). 1557 pounds

(B). 1427 pounds

(C). 1357 pounds

(D). 1257 pounds

273. You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you "okay". He is most likely asking you to:

(A). Verbally indicate the he has made contact with the vein

(B). Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein

(C). Release the animal from restraint

(D). Roll the vein in the opposite direction

274. Proper PPE sometimes includes a dosimeter. This is:

(A). A device that measures the amount of radiation someone is exposed to when performing radiology.

(B). Lead gloves

(C). A device that keeps animals from biting you.

(D). Something that covers your face while working with animals.

275. With your veterinarian’s permission, what medication can you give your dog if they have an allergic reaction?

(A). Pepto-Bismol

(B). Advil

(C). Benadryl

(D). Frontline

276. A secretary maintains the accounts and writes the paychecks for a veterinary facility. Eight vet techs earn $13 per hour. If everyone works 40 hours per week, what is the total amount of money needed for the payroll each week?

(A). $3160

(B). $4060

(C). $4160

(D). $5060

277. The types of animal restraint are:

(A). Physical, psychological, and hypnotic

(B). Traumatic, chemical, and physical

(C). Chemical, hypnotic, and psychological

(D). Chemical, psychological, and physical

278. Rascal, a 2 year old dog has a foul odor. What could be the cause?

(A). Any brownish material in his ears. He may have an ear infection.

(B). He has tartar on his teeth or very red gums. His teeth need attention.

(C). His skin is dry and has bumps.

(D). All of the above279. A kitten is suffering from FCV. Feline calicivirus is caused by:

(A). RNA virus

(B). Fungus

(C). Bacteria

(D). Does not exist

280. What compartment of the ruminant stomach is called the true stomach?

(A). Rumen

(B). Reticulum

(C). Omasum

(D). Abomasum

281. Which is not a type of brush?

(A). Dandy

(B). Scotch

(C). Slicker

(D). Pin

282. This tool is used to help place an endotracheal tube:

(A). Gag mouth speculum

(B). Laryngoscope

(C). Ambubag

(D). Cannula

283. What is oogenesis?

(A). Process by which sperm are produced by the male.

(B). Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.

(C). Process by which ova are produced by the female.

(D). Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.

284. The medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is:

(A). Cystitis

(B). Peritonitis

(C). Dystocia

(D). Uremia

285. Rabies is transmitted by:

(A). Bite from a tick

(B). Ingestion of fecal material from infected dog

(C). Contamination of wound by saliva

(D). Inhalation bacteria

286. Predatory aggression deals with:

(A). Intermale conflict

(B). Suckling female

(C). Pain-induced

(D). Chasing and killing prey

287. The first cervical vertebrae, C1, is referred to as the:

(A). Axis

(B). Arch

(C). Atlas

(D). Auricle

288. A vet tech uses 1/2 oz., 3/4 oz., and 5/8 oz. of solution to perform three urinary analysis tests. How much total solution does she use?

(A). 1 oz.

(B). 1 1/2 oz.

(C). 1 3/4 oz.

(D). 1 7/8 oz.

289. The bellyband should _______ slightly as it is wrapped.

(A). Overlap

(B). Space out

(C). Cut off circulation

(D). Never touch

290. To remove a tick you should:

(A). Use a match to burn the tick off

(B). Cut the tick off with a knife

(C). Pour alcohol on the tick, then pull it off

(D). Use tweezers to grasp the head and pull straight out

291. Veterinary technicians can perform which of the following:

(A). Diagnosing

(B). Prognosing

(C). Prescribe medicine

(D). Surgical assisting

292. In a medical record the abbreviation SOAP means:

(A). Supply, open, apply, prepare

(B). Subjective, objective, assessment, plan

(C). Submit, observe, ask, prepare

(D). Scrub, open, assess, plan

293. This term refers to a collection of pus (dead white blood cells) that has accumulated in a cavity formed by the tissue due to an infection or other foreign material.

(A). Antigen

(B). Bruise

(C). Abscess

(D). Slab

294. The roundworm is often described as looking like:

(A). Rice

(B). Spaghetti

(C). Flakes

(D). Leech

295. Linda is going to perform a laboratory test. Where is it possible that she will be doing this?

(A). Veterinary hospitals

(B). Research facilities

(C). Zoos

(D). All of the above

296. Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood?

(A). Aorta

(B). Coronary arteries

(C). Pulmonary arteries

(D). Vena cava

297. What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate?

(A). The surgical instruments in the pack have been adequately sterilized

(B). During the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape

(C). Adequate temperature and pressures have been achieved

(D). The pack has been exposed to adequate pressures

298. Which of the following parasites is considered an endoparasite?

(A). Fleas

(B). Ticks

(C). Hookworms

(D). Mites

299. Where would you expect to find DNA within the cell?

(A). In the cell membrane

(B). In the cytoplasm

(C). In the ribosomes

(D). In the nucleus

300. The veterinarian requests 600 cc of a solution. The instrument used to measure only has marks for ml. You know the correct equivalent of 600 cc in ml because:

(A). CC and mL are equivalent

(B). A CC is twice the amount of a mL

(C). A mL is twice the amount of a CC

(D). A mL is half the amount of a CC

301. Everyone who is in the surgery room should be wearing

(A). Sterile gloves

(B). Sterile gown

(C). Scrubs

(D). Protective eyewear

302. One disease that is transmitted by the tick is:

(A). Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

(B). Toxoplasmosis

(C). Salmonella

(D). Ringworm

303. If Sammy had noticed an increased specific gravity, it could indicate all of the following EXCEPT:

(A). Chronic renal disease

(B). Dehydration

(C). Decreased water intake

(D). Acute renal disease

304. What are the two factors that determine or influence an animal's disposition?

(A). Genetic makeup and environmental situation

(B). Environmental situation and nutrition

(C). Nutrition and housing

(D). Housing and genetic make-up

305. What type of anesthesia requires oxygen?

(A). Local anesthesia

(B). Regional anesthesia

(C). Inhalation anesthesia

(D). Topical anesthesia

307. Ovariohysterectomy is the technical term which procedure?

(A). Removal of testicles

(B). Removal of ovaries and uterus

(C). Removal of uterus

(D). Removal of fetus

308. This tool is used to attach drapes to the patient:

(A). Backhaus towel clamp

(B). Kelly forceps

(C). Halstead mosquito hemostatic

(D). Tourniquet

309. In most species, what are the kidneys shaped like?

(A). Pears

(B). Circles

(C). Clovers

(D). Beans

310. What is prevention for anal sac swelling?

(A). Let your dog scoot

(B). Have veterinarian check anal glands

(C). Use an enema on a weekly basis

(D). Let your dog lick their anal glands

311. The scientific discipline that studies the functions of living things is

(A). Anatomy

(B). Systematic anatomy

(C). Physomy

(D). Physiology

312. Which of the following is a common method of pill administration for a dog or cat?

(A). Pill push method

(B). Pill crushed method

(C). Food method

(D). All are recognized methods of pill administration

313. Which is not a form of restraint or control of an animal?

(A). Elizabeth collar

(B). Muzzle

(C). Cat bag

(D). Cannula

314. Both sheep and goats have __________ hooves.

(A). Cloven

(B). Two toe-nails

(C). Split

(D). All of the above

315. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

316. A comminuted fracture of an animal's bone is where:

(A). The bone is broken into two pieces, a clean break

(B). Several fragments of bone are the result of the break

(C). One bone punctures through the skin as a result of the break

(D). None of the above

317. After autoclaving a surgical pack, you notice the autoclave tape looks the same as it did when you placed it in the autoclave. What should you do now?

(A). Place the pack with the others - there is no reason to be concerned about the sterility of the instruments.

(B). Open the pack to check the instruments for sterility. If they look clean, they can be used.

(C). Just hide the pack so you do not get in trouble for it not being sterilized.

(D). Place the pack to the side and do not allow it to be used because the sterility of the pack is questionable.

318. Which tool would you use to remove plaque from the teeth?

(A). Dental scaler

(B). Dental retractor

(C). Dental float

(D). Dental radiography

319. You are feeding your dog Woof-Woof Dog Food. It costs $14.95 for a 35-pound bag. You are feeding a very large dog 3.5 cups of food per day, and each cup weighs 3.5 ounces.

Using the above scenario, what is the cost per pound?

(A). $2.34 per pound

(B). $0.23 per pound

(C). $0.43 per pound

(D). $4.98 per pound

320. Dogs and humans are susceptible to a variety of water-borne parasites. How can dogs become infected?

(A). Ingesting aquatic species

(B). Swimming

(C). Drinking pond water

(D). All of the above

321. The term that means of, or relating to dogs:

(A). Feline

(B). Bovine

(C). Canine

(D). Galline

322. The canine foreleg is composed of the following bones

(A). Tibia, radius, ulna

(B). Humerus, radius, fibula

(C). Humerus, radius, ulna

(D). Femur, tibia, fibula

323. Which drug schedule has no current accepted medical use?

(A). Schedule 1

(B). Schedule 2

(C). Schedule 3

(D). Schedule 4

324. What system is anatomically composed of the brain and spinal cord?

(A). Central nervous system

(B). Peripheral nervous system

(C). Parasympathetic nervous system

(D). Sympathetic nervous system

325. What is spermatogenesis?

(A). Process by which sperm are produced by the male.

(B). Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.

(C). Process by which ova are produced by the female.

(D). Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.

326. Which of the following cannot be used to prevent the handler from being bit?

(A). Basket Muzzle

(B). Elizabethan collar

(C). Commercial muzzle

(D). Cat bag

327. All telephone calls should be answered by the ________ ring.

(A). First

(B). Third

(C). Fifth

(D). Seventh

328. The best way to approach a horse is:

(A). Quickly and directly from the front

(B). Slowly and directly from the front

(C). Quickly and from the front left side

(D). Slowly and from the front left side

329. What does IBR stand for?

(A). Infectious Born Respiration

(B). Indefinitely Bad Respiration

(C). Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis

(D). Infectious Bovine Respiration

330. When evaluating the integumentary system of Rowdy, a Palomino, the CVA would evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

(A). Skin and hide

(B). Mucous membranes

(C). Hooves

(D). Hair

331. An animal shelter worker is preparing formula for orphaned puppies. There are 9 puppies and each need 2 ounces of formula. How many ounces of formula must be prepared?

(A). 16 oz.

(B). 18 oz.

(C). 20 oz.

(D). 22 oz.

332. Which of these cells would Sammy NOT expect to see in an examination of urine sediment?

(A). Red blood cells

(B). Viral cells

(C). White blood cells

(D). Epithelial cells

333. Giving birth in sheep is known as _____________.

(A). Farrowing

(B). Ramming

(C). Lambing

(D). Kidding

334. What is the function of the red blood cell (RBC)?

(A). Transport oxygen throughout the body

(B). Help to maintain the pH and temperature

(C). Hemostasis or clotting

(D). Body defense

335. A vet tech is developing X rays. He follows the time chart recommended for the film he is using. What is the total time required to complete the developing process? Developing Process Time Required-Developer 2 1/4 minutes -Rinse 3/4 minute-Fix solution 3 1/2 minutes -Final wash 19 minutes

(A). 25 minutes

(B). 23 1/4 minutes

(C). 25 1/2 minutes

(D). 23 3/4 minutes

336. Which of the following bedding materials is most commonly used in the small animal clinic?

(A). Pine shavings

(B). Newspaper

(C). Blankets and towels

(D). Straw

337. An eight month old Chihuahua was stung by a wasp and had a fluctuation in its heart rate. What term describes its fluctuating heart rate?

(A). Arrhythmia

(B). Auscultation

(C). Bradycardia

(D). Tachypnea

338. Which of the following is NOT a function of the uterus?

(A). Provides nourishment for the fetus.

(B). Is the receptacle for the penis during the copulation.

(C). Contracts to expel the fetus during parturition.

(D). Incubates the fetus during pregnancy.

339. The first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is:

(A). Put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck

(B). Place a muzzle

(C). Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot

(D). Throw a towel over the dog's head

340. When breathing stops

(A). Apnea

(B). Tachypnea

(C). Dyspnea

(D). Detomidine

341. Sterilization is defined as the:

(A). Destruction of all organisms on an object

(B). Reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms on an object

(C). Reduction of the number of microorganisms on an object to an acceptable public health standard

(D). Removal of all visible signs of dirt

342. The feline's first line of defense is:

(A). Its teeth

(B). Its claws

(C). Its tail

(D). Its hind legs

343. Which of these is a chemical that Sammy would NOT have evaluated in urine?

(A). Ketones

(B). Glucose

(C). Blood

(D). Saline

344. A veterinarian takes blood samples from cows for brucellosis testing. One morning he fills 16 vacutainers (vacuum tubes) with 10 cubic centimeters (cc) of blood, 31 with 9.5 cc of blood, 28 with 7 cc of blood, and 15 with 8.5 cc of blood. How many cc of blood did he obtain from all the cows?

(A). 778 cc

(B). 780 cc

(C). 782 cc

(D). 784 cc

345. For safety, two people are required to lift anything weighing more than ___________ lb.

(A). 10

(B). 20

(C). 30

(D). 40

346. Which of the following are the "ABC's" of cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

(A). Airway, Breathing, Compression

(B). Always Breath Continuously

(C). Airway, Breathing, Circulation

(D). Airway, Bleeding, Compression

347. When treating or assisting the doctor with an animal's abscess wound, it is important to:

(A). Wear disposable gloves

(B). Disinfect the treatment counter thoroughly

(C). Wash and disinfect all instruments used

(D). All of the above

348. Microfilaria are:

(A). The larval stage of the heartworm

(B). The segment of the tapeworm containing the male and female reproductive organs

(C). Microscopic single celled organisms

(D). None of the above

349. Lyme disease is caused by a:

(A). Bacteria

(B). Virus

(C). Parasite

(D). Fungus

350. The amount of food provided to livestock in a 24-hour period is called its

(A). Graze

(B). Ration

(C). Roughage

(D). Silage

351. The abomasum is:

(A). 1st compartment of the ruminant stomach

(B). 2nd compartment of the ruminant stomach

(C). 3rd compartment of the ruminant stomach

(D). 4th compartment of the ruminant stomach

352. Aseptic technique is:

(A). Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.

(B). Cleaning surfaces with bleach.

(C). Swabbing for a bacteria culture.

(D). A chemical agent that kills or prevents the growth of microorganisms.

353. Emasculators are used

(A). in large animal castrations

(B). During enucleations in large dogs

(C). During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares

(D). To perform ovariohysterectomy

354. Which of these is the correct flow of blood through the heart?

(A). Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Aorta

(B). Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Aorta

(C). Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Aorta

(D). Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Aorta

355. An orchiectomy:

(A). Removal of the ovaries and uterus

(B). Removal of the testes

(C). An incision into the thorax

(D). Removal of a tumor

356. The cardiovascular system has four compartments. Which of the following is not part of the system?

(A). Lungs

(B). Blood circulation

(C). Heart

(D). Blood vessels

357. A female that has produced a calf.

(A). Heifer

(B). Steer

(C). Cow

(D). Bull

358. A machine that spins samples very rapidly to separate elements based on weight is a

(A). Counter

(B). Centrifuge

(C). Refractometer

(D). Cannula

359. A microbiologist is staining bacterial slides. He uses a bottle of Gram stain that contains 144 milliliters (mL) of solution. If each slide requires 18 mL of the solution, how many slides can he stain with one bottle of solution?

(A). 2 slides

(B). 4 slides

(C). 6 slides

(D). 8 slides

360. Which of the following needles has the smallest bore?

(A). 16 gauge

(B). 20 gauge

(C). 21 gauge

(D). 25 gauge

362. You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, "Okay". He is most likely asking you to:

(A). Let go of the dog's foreleg

(B). Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein

(C). Talk softly to the dog

(D). Gently push down on the dog to encourage him to lie down

363. While Linda was running a laboratory test, she evaluated total plasma protein, and notices an elevated total plasma protein, This is a sign of

(A). Inflammation

(B). Infection

(C). Dehydration

(D). All of the above

364. Lyme disease is a disease caused by a spiral-shaped bacterium, Borrelia burgdorferi. Which of the following can become infected?

(A). Dogs and cats

(B). Horses and cattle

(C). Birds and wild animals

(D). All of the above

365. Fran is doing research on pathogens. A pathogen is:

(A). A microorganism that produces disease.

(B). Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans.

(C). Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.

(D). Refers to the back.

366. What parasite transmits Lyme disease?

(A). Dirofilaria immitis

(B). Heartworm

(C). Lice

(D). Tick

367. The study of disease causes

(A). Pathology

(B). Etiology

(C). Anatomy

(D). Caudal

368. Agnostic behavior deals with:

(A). Conflict

(B). Territorial

(C). Fear-induced

(D). Dominance

369. Which is referring to the underside of an animal?

(A). Dorsal

(B). Ventral

(C). Cranial

(D). Anterior

370. A mature female of the porcine species that has produced young.

(A). Hen

(B). Sow

(C). Gilt

(D). Ewe

371. If a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should:

(A). Lift him like you would a medium-sized dog

(B). Get help so two of you can lift him

(C). Try to get him to jump up on the table

(D). Lift his front quarters onto the table then lift hindquarters to meet his front quarters

372. Sammy is trying to determine the gravity of urine. Which of these tools cannot be used to accomplish this?

(A). Refractometer

(B). Urinometer

(C). Reagent Strips

(D). Otoscope

373. A vet tech purchases a new uniform. She spends $31 for the top, $28 for the pants, $56 for the shoes, $7 for the socks and $4 for a name pin. What was her total cost?

(A). $126

(B). $136

(C). $146

(D). $156

374. Lauren is taking a patient history from Ms. Harper about her horse. Which is the most appropriate question for her to ask?

(A). "Is your horse drinking a lot of water and eating okay?"

(B). "How much water is it drinking and how much is it eating?"

(C). "Is your horse able to exercise daily?"

(D). "Is your horse drinking more water now than compared to a few months ago?"

376. Cytocentesis is the sterile collection of:

(A). Blood

(B). Urine

(C). Abdominal fluid

(D). Cerebrospinal fluid

377. Sammy is trying to determine the specific gravity of urine from the dog. Which of these is not a method to obtain urine from an animal?

(A). Free Catch

(B). Cystocentesis

(C). Catheterization

(D). Carmalt

378. Only the top jaw moves on which forcept?

(A). Alligator

(B). Kelly

(C). Crile

(D). Brown-Adison

379. Which disease is caused by a virus?

(A). Salmonellosis

(B). Rabies

(C). Tetanus

(D). Ringworm

380. In preparation for her CVA test, Mary is studying systems of the body. Which of these is NOT included in the circulatory system?

(A). Heart

(B). Lymphatics

(C). Blood vessels

(D). Blood

381. Six blood pressure readings are 115, 120, 123, 121, 121, NS 112 mm Hg. What is the average value?

(A). 104

(B). 113

(C). 119

(D). 124

382. A good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is:

(A). Apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure the safety of all involved

(B). Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe

(C). Always supply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of species being handled

(D). Never use ropes when restraining animals

383. When you view a specimen under a compound microscope using the 40x objective and a 10x ocular, the total magnification of the specimen being viewed is

(A). 4x

(B). 40x

(C). 400x

(D). 4000x

384. What arteries supply blood to the head?

(A). Carotid arteries

(B). Renal arteries

(C). Mesenteric arteries

(D). Lilac arteries 385. Which instrument is best for determining if a canine has a scratched cornea?

(A). Ophthalmoscope

(B). Stethoscope

(C). Otoscope

(D). Trocar

386. A dog that licks his feet, rubs his face, or scratches behind his elbows may be showing signs of:

(A). Allergy

(B). Fatigue

(C). Hunger

(D). Boredom

387. Having feed available to the animal at all times is called:

(A). Restricted diet

(B). Free-choice diet

(C). Supplemental diet

(D). Total mixed diet

388. Which of the following is not a hazard that you would face while working in a veterinary clinic?

(A). Physical hazards

(B). Chemical hazards

(C). Biological hazards

(D). Psychological hazards

389. Chipped bones, bowed tendons and other soft tissue injuries can cause what condition in horses?

(A). Broken bones

(B). Lameness

(C). Even gaits

(D). All of the above

vet science 1Test Answer Key

C:\Documents and Settings\cpage\My Documents\vet science 1.tstTest ID: 8

1. (4140). Correct Answer(s): A2. (1250). Correct Answer(s): A3. (160). Correct Answer(s): B4. (830). Correct Answer(s): A5. (540). Correct Answer(s): A6. (1950). Correct Answer(s): A7. (1180). Correct Answer(s): D8. (3660). Correct Answer(s): C9. (2050). Correct Answer(s): C10. (1690). Correct Answer(s): B11. (3350). Correct Answer(s): C12. (2280). Correct Answer(s): B13. (4270). Correct Answer(s): B14. (1850). Correct Answer(s): A15. (3150). Correct Answer(s): A16. (3030). Correct Answer(s): B17. (2600). Correct Answer(s): C18. (2090). Correct Answer(s): B19. (1920). Correct Answer(s): A20. (1260). Correct Answer(s): D22. (2950). Correct Answer(s): C23. (2240). Correct Answer(s): B24. (190). Correct Answer(s): C25. (4160). Correct Answer(s): D26. (1450). Correct Answer(s): C27. (1380). Correct Answer(s): D28. (4050). Correct Answer(s): B29. (3280). Correct Answer(s): A30. (3570). Correct Answer(s): A31. (1590). Correct Answer(s): B32. (610). Correct Answer(s): D33. (2740). Correct Answer(s): B34. (2000). Correct Answer(s): C35. (1160). Correct Answer(s): D36. (2390). Correct Answer(s): C37. (980). Correct Answer(s): B38. (2360). Correct Answer(s): B39. (3320). Correct Answer(s): D40. (3240). Correct Answer(s): B41. (1770). Correct Answer(s): A42. (3180). Correct Answer(s): D43. (750). Correct Answer(s): C44. (3890). Correct Answer(s): B45. (1430). Correct Answer(s): B46. (2750). Correct Answer(s): C47. (70). Correct Answer(s): B48. (2300). Correct Answer(s): C49. (3880). Correct Answer(s): C50. (1730). Correct Answer(s): D51. (2130). Correct Answer(s): A52. (2110). Correct Answer(s): B

53. (2120). Correct Answer(s): D54. (3200). Correct Answer(s): C55. (900). Correct Answer(s): A56. (4240). Correct Answer(s): D57. (1480). Correct Answer(s): D58. (2310). Correct Answer(s): C60. (4220). Correct Answer(s): B61. (710). Correct Answer(s): A62. (3710). Correct Answer(s): A63. (3940). Correct Answer(s): D64. (3720). Correct Answer(s): D65. (3530). Correct Answer(s): D66. (1900). Correct Answer(s): C67. (1100). Correct Answer(s): 306. (1110). Correct Answer(s): D59. (1120). Correct Answer(s): C361. (1130). Correct Answer(s): A21. (1140). Correct Answer(s): A68. (530). Correct Answer(s): B69. (970). Correct Answer(s): A70. (3060). Correct Answer(s): D71. (4170). Correct Answer(s): A72. (700). Correct Answer(s): D73. (1970). Correct Answer(s): A74. (1390). Correct Answer(s): A75. (2720). Correct Answer(s): B76. (1580). Correct Answer(s): C77. (3430). Correct Answer(s): B78. (490). Correct Answer(s): D79. (2670). Correct Answer(s): A80. (720). Correct Answer(s): B81. (1220). Correct Answer(s): B82. (4000). Correct Answer(s): C83. (2980). Correct Answer(s): A84. (2800). Correct Answer(s): B85. (1820). Correct Answer(s): D86. (2320). Correct Answer(s): D87. (550). Correct Answer(s): D88. (1650). Correct Answer(s): A89. (2660). Correct Answer(s): A90. (200). Correct Answer(s): B91. (3290). Correct Answer(s): A92. (1640). Correct Answer(s): D93. (3310). Correct Answer(s): A94. (120). Correct Answer(s): A95. (4110). Correct Answer(s): C96. (870). Correct Answer(s): A97. (1490). Correct Answer(s): A98. (2620). Correct Answer(s): C99. (3690). Correct Answer(s): D100. (580). Correct Answer(s): B101. (290). Correct Answer(s): C102. (3070). Correct Answer(s): C103. (810). Correct Answer(s): C104. (1000). Correct Answer(s): A

105. (3400). Correct Answer(s): C106. (1190). Correct Answer(s): A107. (3970). Correct Answer(s): D108. (2700). Correct Answer(s): A109. (1910). Correct Answer(s): A110. (270). Correct Answer(s): C111. (770). Correct Answer(s): B112. (2940). Correct Answer(s): C113. (320). Correct Answer(s): B114. (150). Correct Answer(s): B115. (2480). Correct Answer(s): C116. (560). Correct Answer(s): A117. (3220). Correct Answer(s): A118. (300). Correct Answer(s): D119. (3620). Correct Answer(s): B120. (890). Correct Answer(s): A121. (1700). Correct Answer(s): A122. (2160). Correct Answer(s): A123. (3460). Correct Answer(s): A124. (2010). Correct Answer(s): A125. (180). Correct Answer(s): D126. (3960). Correct Answer(s): B127. (3670). Correct Answer(s): A128. (1060). Correct Answer(s): B129. (140). Correct Answer(s): B130. (3260). Correct Answer(s): A131. (1010). Correct Answer(s): C132. (4180). Correct Answer(s): B133. (2340). Correct Answer(s): A134. (2460). Correct Answer(s): A135. (2250). Correct Answer(s): C136. (3210). Correct Answer(s): A137. (910). Correct Answer(s): D138. (40). Correct Answer(s): A139. (4060). Correct Answer(s): A140. (3790). Correct Answer(s): C141. (4010). Correct Answer(s): B142. (1570). Correct Answer(s): B143. (3860). Correct Answer(s): B144. (730). Correct Answer(s): C145. (2070). Correct Answer(s): C146. (3760). Correct Answer(s): D147. (4250). Correct Answer(s): B148. (4130). Correct Answer(s): C149. (100). Correct Answer(s): D150. (2060). Correct Answer(s): C151. (3750). Correct Answer(s): D152. (4040). Correct Answer(s): A153. (3440). Correct Answer(s): B154. (850). Correct Answer(s): D155. (1370). Correct Answer(s): A156. (2210). Correct Answer(s): C157. (2900). Correct Answer(s): D158. (520). Correct Answer(s): B159. (1510). Correct Answer(s): D

160. (3250). Correct Answer(s): B161. (3090). Correct Answer(s): B162. (620). Correct Answer(s): A163. (1860). Correct Answer(s): C164. (2520). Correct Answer(s): D165. (3000). Correct Answer(s): C166. (840). Correct Answer(s): A167. (3450). Correct Answer(s): B168. (780). Correct Answer(s): C169. (2580). Correct Answer(s): A170. (2830). Correct Answer(s): A171. (1170). Correct Answer(s): D172. (1200). Correct Answer(s): C173. (3410). Correct Answer(s): B174. (3160). Correct Answer(s): D175. (2100). Correct Answer(s): C176. (2230). Correct Answer(s): A177. (3540). Correct Answer(s): B178. (1880). Correct Answer(s): B179. (2400). Correct Answer(s): B180. (3930). Correct Answer(s): C181. (4280). Correct Answer(s): B182. (1620). Correct Answer(s): B183. (1790). Correct Answer(s): A184. (3120). Correct Answer(s): C185. (1780). Correct Answer(s): B186. (2920). Correct Answer(s): B187. (1310). Correct Answer(s): A188. (2190). Correct Answer(s): B189. (2810). Correct Answer(s): B190. (4210). Correct Answer(s): D191. (2990). Correct Answer(s): A192. (1810). Correct Answer(s): D193. (2930). Correct Answer(s): A194. (1360). Correct Answer(s): A195. (3840). Correct Answer(s): C196. (2630). Correct Answer(s): D197. (1710). Correct Answer(s): A198. (240). Correct Answer(s): C199. (3550). Correct Answer(s): D200. (3380). Correct Answer(s): D201. (2760). Correct Answer(s): B202. (3780). Correct Answer(s): C203. (3680). Correct Answer(s): A204. (2690). Correct Answer(s): D205. (2380). Correct Answer(s): C206. (3020). Correct Answer(s): C207. (790). Correct Answer(s): B208. (1800). Correct Answer(s): D209. (3870). Correct Answer(s): A210. (1980). Correct Answer(s): D211. (3140). Correct Answer(s): C212. (600). Correct Answer(s): D213. (3370). Correct Answer(s): A214. (3490). Correct Answer(s): C

215. (3510). Correct Answer(s): D216. (3950). Correct Answer(s): B217. (3820). Correct Answer(s): C218. (2790). Correct Answer(s): D219. (4300). Correct Answer(s): A220. (1930). Correct Answer(s): A221. (2680). Correct Answer(s): D222. (1410). Correct Answer(s): B223. (820). Correct Answer(s): A224. (2550). Correct Answer(s): A225. (1610). Correct Answer(s): D226. (3920). Correct Answer(s): C227. (3390). Correct Answer(s): C228. (3170). Correct Answer(s): B229. (2290). Correct Answer(s): A230. (80). Correct Answer(s): C231. (1630). Correct Answer(s): A232. (3610). Correct Answer(s): D233. (2590). Correct Answer(s): C234. (590). Correct Answer(s): C235. (2880). Correct Answer(s): C236. (170). Correct Answer(s): B237. (4190). Correct Answer(s): B238. (3420). Correct Answer(s): C239. (2970). Correct Answer(s): B240. (3800). Correct Answer(s): C241. (4020). Correct Answer(s): C242. (800). Correct Answer(s): B243. (310). Correct Answer(s): B244. (1870). Correct Answer(s): D245. (1660). Correct Answer(s): D246. (2370). Correct Answer(s): D247. (230). Correct Answer(s): C248. (760). Correct Answer(s): A249. (1230). Correct Answer(s): A250. (3130). Correct Answer(s): D251. (3590). Correct Answer(s): B252. (2710). Correct Answer(s): B253. (2890). Correct Answer(s): D254. (1940). Correct Answer(s): D255. (1830). Correct Answer(s): D256. (1500). Correct Answer(s): D257. (3630). Correct Answer(s): no question258. (2730). Correct Answer(s): C259. (3830). Correct Answer(s): C260. (3480). Correct Answer(s): D261. (1600). Correct Answer(s): D262. (3230). Correct Answer(s): D263. (1150). Correct Answer(s): B264. (4260). Correct Answer(s): B265. (2440). Correct Answer(s): no question266. (510). Correct Answer(s): D267. (90). Correct Answer(s): B268. (3050). Correct Answer(s): D269. (3600). Correct Answer(s): D

270. (1680). Correct Answer(s): C271. (2150). Correct Answer(s): D272. (2140). Correct Answer(s): B273. (60). Correct Answer(s): B274. (1320). Correct Answer(s): A275. (2500). Correct Answer(s): C276. (2180). Correct Answer(s): C277. (2910). Correct Answer(s): D278. (2560). Correct Answer(s): D279. (880). Correct Answer(s): A280. (3730). Correct Answer(s): D281. (3100). Correct Answer(s): B282. (3340). Correct Answer(s): B283. (1740). Correct Answer(s): C284. (3990). Correct Answer(s): A285. (920). Correct Answer(s): C286. (2780). Correct Answer(s): D287. (3470). Correct Answer(s): C288. (2270). Correct Answer(s): D289. (860). Correct Answer(s): A290. (2030). Correct Answer(s): D291. (3900). Correct Answer(s): D292. (3910). Correct Answer(s): B293. (2610). Correct Answer(s): C294. (570). Correct Answer(s): B295. (950). Correct Answer(s): D296. (3520). Correct Answer(s): C297. (3190). Correct Answer(s): B298. (4100). Correct Answer(s): C299. (3560). Correct Answer(s): D300. (1530). Correct Answer(s): A301. (4080). Correct Answer(s): C302. (2040). Correct Answer(s): A303. (1070). Correct Answer(s): A304. (1560). Correct Answer(s): A305. (3980). Correct Answer(s): C307. (3740). Correct Answer(s): B308. (3330). Correct Answer(s): A309. (1030). Correct Answer(s): D310. (2490). Correct Answer(s): B311. (3640). Correct Answer(s): D312. (3010). Correct Answer(s): D313. (3110). Correct Answer(s): D314. (2350). Correct Answer(s): A315. (2450). Correct Answer(s): no question316. (4150). Correct Answer(s): B317. (1420). Correct Answer(s): D318. (3300). Correct Answer(s): A319. (2420). Correct Answer(s): C320. (2530). Correct Answer(s): A321. (1760). Correct Answer(s): C322. (3650). Correct Answer(s): C323. (1240). Correct Answer(s): A324. (3360). Correct Answer(s): A325. (1750). Correct Answer(s): A

326. (3270). Correct Answer(s): D327. (1960). Correct Answer(s): B328. (2840). Correct Answer(s): D329. (1720). Correct Answer(s): C330. (30). Correct Answer(s): B331. (2170). Correct Answer(s): B332. (1090). Correct Answer(s): B333. (2330). Correct Answer(s): C334. (3850). Correct Answer(s): A335. (2260). Correct Answer(s): C336. (210). Correct Answer(s): B337. (690). Correct Answer(s): A338. (1670). Correct Answer(s): B339. (2850). Correct Answer(s): C340. (2640). Correct Answer(s): A341. (4030). Correct Answer(s): A342. (50). Correct Answer(s): B343. (1080). Correct Answer(s): D344. (2220). Correct Answer(s): A345. (1990). Correct Answer(s): D346. (2470). Correct Answer(s): A347. (4290). Correct Answer(s): D348. (4230). Correct Answer(s): A349. (500). Correct Answer(s): A350. (1440). Correct Answer(s): B351. (130). Correct Answer(s): D352. (1350). Correct Answer(s): A353. (2960). Correct Answer(s): A354. (990). Correct Answer(s): A355. (110). Correct Answer(s): B356. (3500). Correct Answer(s): A357. (1840). Correct Answer(s): C358. (1470). Correct Answer(s): B359. (2200). Correct Answer(s): D360. (220). Correct Answer(s): D362. (2870). Correct Answer(s): B363. (1020). Correct Answer(s): D364. (2510). Correct Answer(s): D365. (1300). Correct Answer(s): A366. (2020). Correct Answer(s): D367. (2650). Correct Answer(s): B368. (2770). Correct Answer(s): A369. (4120). Correct Answer(s): B370. (1890). Correct Answer(s): B371. (2860). Correct Answer(s): B372. (1050). Correct Answer(s): D373. (2080). Correct Answer(s): A374. (740). Correct Answer(s): B376. (3810). Correct Answer(s): B377. (1040). Correct Answer(s): D378. (3080). Correct Answer(s): A379. (4070). Correct Answer(s): B380. (960). Correct Answer(s): B381. (1540). Correct Answer(s): C382. (2820). Correct Answer(s): B

383. (4200). Correct Answer(s): C384. (3700). Correct Answer(s): A385. (3040). Correct Answer(s): A386. (2540). Correct Answer(s): A387. (3770). Correct Answer(s): B388. (1210). Correct Answer(s): D389. (2570). Correct Answer(s): B

****Corrections for Questions

We originally typed these questions into RTG, when we switched it to word these questions were separated from the scenario. We wanted to get this to you so didn’t take the time to try to fix it. The scenario is #67 and the questions that belong to it are #21, #59, #306, and #361. Numbers are listed out of order because they were originally with scenario #67.