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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)
T M
FORM NUMBER
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)
PAPER CODE
ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 02 - 04 - 2015
0 1 C M 3 1 4 2 4 0
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2436001 info@allen.ac.in
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
INSTRUCTIONS ()
www.allen.ac.in
LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT
Hindi
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 1 & 2
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.
Correction Form No. Test Details dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail
1 4
(Phase - MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE, MLF, MLG, MAW, MAX & MAY)
PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units, Dimensions and
Measurement, Kinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a
plane), Laws of Motion and Friction, Work, Energy & Power and Circular
Motion, Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass, Rotational
Motion, Properties of matter and Fluid Mechanics, Thermal Physics-I (Thermal
Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer), Thermal Physics-II (Behavior of
Perfect Gases and KTG, Thermodynamics), Oscillations (SHM, damped and
forced oscillations & Resonance), Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect
CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, States of Matter :
Gases and Liquids, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium
& Ionic Equilibrium), Solid State, Solutions, Classification of Elements and
Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular, Structure,
Hydrogen, s-Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals), p–Block
Elements (Group - 13 & 14), p–Block Elements (Group - 15, 16, 17 & 18),
The d and f-block Elements
BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :
(i) The living world, (ii) Biological Classification (iii) Plant Kingdom,
(iv) Animal Kingdom
Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :
(i) Morphology of Flowering plants (ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants
(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach
Structure and Functions :
(i) Cell : The Unit of Life, (ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm)
(iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division
Plant Physiology :
(i) Transport in Plants, (ii) Mineral Nutrition
(iii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, (iv) Respiration in Plants
(v) Plant Growth and Development, Enzyme
Human Physiology :
(i) Digestion and Absorption (ii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases
(iii) Body Fluids and circulation
(iv) Excretory Products and their Elimination
(v) Locomotion and Movement (vi) Neural Control and Coordination, Eye & Ear
(vii) Chemical Coordination and Integration
ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 02 - 04 - 2015
SYLLABUS – 1 & 2
LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (PHASE : MLP, MLQ, MLR, MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD,MLE, MLF, MLG, MAW, MAX & MAY)
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
H-1/37Kota/01CM314240
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. The resistance vR
i where V = 100 ± 5 volts
and i = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total errorin R :-(1) 5% (2) 7%
(3) 5.2% (4) 5
2%
2. Four persons K, L, M and N are initially at the
corners of a square of side of length d. If every
person starts moving, such that K is always
headed towards L, L towards M, M is headed
directly towards N and N towards K, then the four
persons will meet after :-
(1) d
vsec (2)
2d
vsec
(3) d
2vsec (4)
d
2vsec
3. Two cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in
circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively their speeds
are such that they make complete circles in the
same time t. The ratio of their centripetal
acceleration is :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2
(3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2
4. If two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 rotating
about collinear axis passing through their centres
of mass and perpendicular to their plane with
angular speeds, 1 and 2 respectively in opposite
direction are made to rotate combinedly along
same axis, then the magnitude of angular velocity
of the system is :-
(1) 1 1 2 2
1 2
I + I
I + I
(2)
1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
I I
(3)1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
(4)
1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
5. A simple pendulum with length and bob of mass
m is executing SHM of small amplitude A. The
maximum tension in the string will be :-
(1) 2 mg (2) mg[1 + (A/)2]
(3) mg[1 + (A/)]2 (4) mg[1 + A/]
1. vR
i V = 100 ± 5
i = 10 ± 0.2 R (1) 5% (2) 7%
(3) 5.2% (4) 5
2%
2. K, L, MNd
K LL, M
M, NN, K
:-
(1) d
vsec (2)
2d
vsec
(3) d
2vsec (4)
d
2vsec
3. m1 m2 r1
r2
t
:-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) m1r1 : m2r2
(3) m1 : m2 (4) r1 : r2
4. I1 I2
1 2
:-
(1) 1 1 2 2
1 2
I + I
I + I
(2)
1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
I I
(3)1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
(4)
1 1 2 2
1 2
I I
5. m ASHM :-(1) 2 mg (2) mg[1 + (A/)2]
(3) mg[1 + (A/)]2 (4) mg[1 + A/]
Kota/01CM314240H-2/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
6. L, C R
(1)1
RC(2)
R
L(3)
1
LC(4)
C
L
7. 5 m/s
10 sec 5 m/s
:-
(1)
(2) 1
2m/s2
(3) 1
2m/s2
(4) 1
2m/s2
8. 0.1 kg/m 10 N (m/x ) :-
(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 15
9. 527°C
200 cm2 127°C
0.4
(= 5.67×10–8 J/m2 – s – k4) :-
(1) 108 (2) 168
(3) 174 (4) 192 10. T
mR m 2R :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
11. 0.4 0.6
U-
(= 60 )
(1) 0.51 (2) 1.02
(3) 1.53 (4) 2.04
6. If L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance
and resistance respectively, then which of the
following does not represent dimensions of
frequency :-
(1)1
RC(2)
R
L(3)
1
LC(4)
C
L
7. A particle is moving eastwards with velocity of
5 m/s. In 10 sec the velocity changes to 5 m/s
northwards. The average acceleration in this time
is :-
(1) Zero
(2) 1
2m/s2 toward north-west
(3) 1
2m/s2 toward north-east
(4) 1
2m/s2 toward north-west
8. The maximum tension which an inextensible ring
of mass 0.1 kg/m can bear is 10 N. The maximum
velocity in m/s with which it can be rotated is:-
(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 15
9. A metal ball of surface area 200 cm2 and
temperature 527°C is surrounded by a vessel at
127°C. If the emissivity of the metal is 0.4, then
the rate of loss of heat from the ball is
(= 5.67×10–8 J/m2 – s – k4) :-
(1) 108 watt approx. (2) 168 watt approx.
(3) 174 watt approx. (4) 192 watt approx.
10. The time period of simple pendulum is T. Its bob
of radius R is hollow and of mass m. If the bob
is replace by another hollow bob of mass m and
radius 2R then the time period of the pendulum
will now be :-
(1) Less (2) More
(3) Remains unchange (4) None of these
11. Two capillaries of diameters 0.4 mm and 0.6 mm
form the two arms of a U-tube. If surface tension
of water is 60 dynes/cm, the difference between
the levels of the liquid in two arms of the U-tube
will be :-
(1) 0.51 cm (2) 1.02 cm
(3) 1.53 cm (4) 2.04 cm
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
H-3/37Kota/01CM314240
12. On a stationary sail-boat air is blown at the sails
from a fan attached to the boat, the boat will-
(1) remain stationary
(2) spin around
(3) move in a direction opposite to that in which
air is blown
(4) move in the direction in which the air is blown
13.///////////////////////////////////
200kg 300kg
Initially the spring shown in the fig. is in
compressed state and the horizontal surface is
rough. For which coefficient friction between the
two blocks and the surface is same. On releasing
the spring if the 200 kg block travels a distance
of 36 m before coming to rest then distance
travelled by 300 kg block is :–
(1) 43 m (2) 24 m (3) 16 m (4) 12 m
14. Which of the curves in figure represents the
relating between Celsius and Fahrenheit
temperatures :-
2 3
4 1
°C
°F
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
15. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic
oscillations in the same direction having equal
amplitude and same frequency. If the resultant
amplitude is equal to that of the individual
motions, what is the phase difference between
them ?
(1)6
(2)
3
(3)
4
(4)
2
3
16. Two wires, one of copper and the other of steel,
are of same length and cross section. They are
welded together to form a long wire. On
suspending a weight at its one end, increment in
length is found to be 3 cms. If Young's modulus
of steel is double that of copper, the increment
in steel wire will be :-
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
12.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
13.///////////////////////////////////
200kg 300kg
200 36 m 300 :–(1) 43 m (2) 24 m (3) 16 m (4) 12 m
14.
:-
2 3
4 1
°C
°F
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
15.
(1)6
(2)
3
(3)
4
(4)
2
3
16.
3
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
Kota/01CM314240H-4/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
17. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of
inclination , kept on the floor of a lift. When
the lift is descending with a retardation a, the
acceleration of the block relative to the inciline
is-
(1) (g + a) sin (2) (g – a)
(3) g sin (4) (g – a) sin
18. The position of center of mass of a non-uniform
rod of length L w.r.t one end whose mass per unit
length P varies as P = 2Kx
L where K is a constant
and x is the distance of any point from that end
is :–
(1) 3L
4(2)
1
4L (3)
K
L(4)
3K
L
19. The temperature of a body on Kelvin scale is
found to be x K. When it is measured by
Fahrenheit thermometer, it is found to be x°F, then
the value of x is :-
(1) 40 (2) 313
(3) 574.25 (4) 301.25
20. The differential equation of SHM for a particle
is given by a2
2
d x
dt
+ bx = 0. The ratio of the
maximum acceleration to the maximum velocity
of the particle is :-
(1)b
a(2)
a
b(3)
a
b(4)
b
a
21. Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform
cross-section ratio of the radius at entry and exit
end of the pipe is 3 : 2. Then the ratio of velocities
at entry and exit of liquid is :-
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
22. A mass is suspended from the roof of a car by
a string. While the car has a constant acceleration
a, the string makes an angle of 60° with the
vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the value of a is-
(1) 10(3)1/2
m/s² (2)
1/ 2
10
3
m/s²
(3) 5 m/s² (4) 5(3)1/2
m/s²
17. a
(1) (g + a) sin (2) (g – a)
(3) g sin (4) (g – a) sin
18. L
P P = 2Kx
L K x
:–
(1) 3L
4(2)
1
4L (3)
K
L(4)
3K
L
19. x K
x°Fx :-
(1) 40 (2) 313
(3) 574.25 (4) 301.25
20.
a2
2
d x
dt
+ bx = 0
:-
(1)b
a(2)
a
b(3)
a
b(4)
b
a
21. 3 : 2 (1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(3) 8 : 27 (4) 1 : 1
22. a 60°
g = 10 2, a
(1) 10(3)1/2
² (2)
1/ 2
10
3
²
(3) 5 ² (4) 5(3)1/2
²
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
H-5/37Kota/01CM314240
23. A massive ball moving with speed v collides with
a tiny ball at rest having a mass very much smaller
than the mass of the first ball. The collision is
elastic, then immidiately after the impact, the
second ball will move with a speed approximately
equal to :–
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) v/2 (4)
24. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest
specific heat ? The temperature v/s time graph is
shown :-A
B
C
Time (t)
Tem
per
ature
(T
)
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All have equal specific heat
25. A uniform string of length L and mass M is fixed
at both ends under tension T. Then it can vibrate
with frequency given by the formula.
(1) 1 T
f = 2 ML
(2) 1 T
f = 2L M
(3) 1 T
f = 2 M
(4) 1 M
f = 2 LT
26. A force vector applied on a mass is represented
as ˆ ˆ ˆF 6i 8 j 10k
and accelerates with 1 m/s2.
What will be the mass of the body in kg.
(1) 10 2 (2) 20
(3) 2 10 (4) 10
27. A block takes twice as much time to slide down
a 45º rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down
a similar smooth plane. The coefficient of friction
is :
(1)3
4(2)
3
2
(3) 1
4(4)
1
3
23. v
:–
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) v/2 (4)
24. A, B C
:-
AB
C
(t)
(T)
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) 25. L M T
(1) 1 T
f = 2 ML
(2) 1 T
f = 2L M
(3) 1 T
f = 2 M
(4) 1 M
f = 2 LT
26. ˆ ˆ ˆF 6i 8 j 10k
1 m/s2
(1) 10 2 (2) 20
(3) 2 10 (4) 10
27. 45º
:-
(1)3
4(2)
3
2
(3) 1
4(4)
1
3
Kota/01CM314240H-6/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
28. A body of mass 2m at rest is split into two equal
parts by an internal explosion which generates
a kinetic energy E. If after the explosion, the parts
move in the same line, then what is their relative
speed ?
(1) E
M(2)
2E
M
(3) 4E
M(4) 0
29. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure
P and volume V are related as VPn = constant.
The bulk modulus of the gas in this process is :-
(1) nP (2) P1/n (3) P/n (4) Pn
30. An open pipe is suddenly closed with the result
that the second overtone of the closed pipe is
found to be higher in frequency by 100 Hz, than
the first overtone of the original pipe. The
fundamental frequency of open pipe will be :
(1) 100 Hz (2) 300 Hz
(3)150 Hz (4) 200 Hz
31. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed
of 720 km/h drops a food pocket, while flying at
a height of 396.9 m. the time taken by a food
pocket to reach the ground and its horizontal range
is (Take g = 9.8 m/sec2) :-
(1) 3 sec and 2000 m (2) 5 sec and 500 m
(3) 8 sec and 1500 m (4) 9 sec and 1800 m
32. A motorcyclist of mass m is to negotiate a curve
of radius r with a speed v. The minimum value
of the coefficient of friction so that negotiation
may take place safely, is-
(1) v2rg (2)
2v
gr
(3) 2
gr
v(4) 2
g
v r
33. A particle is moving along a straight line with
increasing speed. Its angular momentum about a
fixed point on this line :
(1) Goes on increasing
(2) Goes on decreasing
(3) May be increasing or decreasing depending
on direction of motion
(4) Remains zero
28. 2m E ?
(1) E
M(2)
2E
M
(3) 4E
M(4) 0
29. VPn = :-(1) nP (2) P1/n (3) P/n (4) Pn
30.
100 (1) 100 (2) 300 (3)150 (4) 200
31. 720 396.9g = 9.8 2 ) :-(1) 3 sec 2000 m (2) 5 sec 500 m
(3) 8 sec 1500 m (4) 9 sec 1800 m
32. m r
v
(1) v2rg (2)
2v
gr
(3) 2
gr
v(4) 2
g
v r
33.
:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
H-7/37Kota/01CM314240
34. On a new scale of temperature (which in linear)
and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling
points of water are 39°W and 239°W respectively.
What will be the temperature on the new scale,
corresponding to a temperature of 39°C on the
Celsius scale?
(1) 200°W (2) 139°W
(3) 78°W (4) 117°W
35. The intensity of sound after passing through a slab
decreases by 20%. On passing through two such
slabs, the intensity will decrease by :
(1) 50% (2) 40%
(3) 36% (4) 30%
36. The height y and the distance x along the
horizontal plane of a projectile on a certain planet
(with no surrounding atmosphere) are given by
y = (8t – 5t2) meter and x = 6t meter, where t is
in second. The velocity with which the projectile
is projected is :-
(1) 8 m/sec
(2) 6 m/sec
(3) 10 m/sec
(4) Not obtainable from the data
37. A ring of radius r and mass per unit length m
rotates with an angular velocity in free space.
The tension in the ring is :–
(1) zero (2) 1
2m
2r
2
(3) m2r
2(4) mr
2
38. If radius of earth suddenly contracts by half of its
initial value keeping mass constant, then what will
be the time period of rotation of earth about it axis.
(1) 6hrs (2) 12hrs
(3) 3hrs (4) hrs
39. Critical temperature can be difined as the:
(1) Temperature at which there is no motion
between the molecules
(2) temperature at which a gas is converted into
its liquid state
(3) temperature at which volume of gas becomes
zero
(4) temperature above which a gas cannot be
liquified no matter however high pressure
may be
34. W
(Freezing point)
(Boiling point) 39°W 239°W
39°C
?(1) 200°W (2) 139°W
(3) 78°W (4) 117°W
35. 20%
(1) 50% (2) 40%
(3) 36% (4) 30%
36. y x,y = 8t – 5t2 x = 6tt :-
(1) 8 m/sec
(2) 6 m/sec
(3) 10 m/sec
(4)
37. r m
eqä kd k' k esa :–
(1) zero (2) 1
2m
2r
2
(3) m2r
2(4) mr
2
38. (1) 6hrs (2) 12hrs
(3) 3hrs (4) hrs
39.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (Liquified)
Key Filling
Kota/01CM314240H-8/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
40. A siren blown in workshop emits waves of
frequency 1000 Hz. A car driver approaches the
workshop with velocity 90 km/hour then
frequency of sound heard by driver will be in Hz.:-
(speed of sound 332 m/s)
(1) 926 (2) 1076
(3) 1176 (4) 1000
41. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed 0 at
an angle of projection . From the same point and
at the same instant a person starts running with
a constant speed 0/2 to catch the ball. Will the
person be able to catch the ball ? If yes, what
should be the angle of projection :-
(1) Yes, 60° (2) Yes, 30°
(3) No (4) Yes, 45°
42. A uniform rod of mass m and length rotates
in a horizontal plane with an angular velocity
about a vertical axis passing through one end. The
tension in the rod at a distance x from the axis
is :–
(1) 1
2m
2x (2)
1
2m
22x
(3) 1
2m
2
x1
(4)
1
2
2m
(
2 – x
2)
43. A disc of mass 1 kg and radius 0.1 m is rotating
with angular velocity 20 rad/s. What is angular
velocity (in rad/s) if a mass of 0.5 kg is put on
the circumference of the disc ?
(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 40 (4) 30
44. Certain substance emits only the wavelengths 1,
2, 3 and 4 when it is at a high temperature.
When this substance is at a colder temperature it
will absorb only the following wavelengths.
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 1
and 2
(4) 1,
2,
3 and
4
45. A person observes a change of 2.5% in frequency
of sound of horn of a car. If the car is approaching
forward the person & sound velocity is 320 m/s,
then velocity of car in m/s will be approximately
(1) 8 (2) 800 (3) 16 (4) 6
40. 1000
90
(= 332 m/s)
(1) 926 (2) 1076
(3) 1176 (4) 1000
41. 0
0/2
:-
(1) , 60° (2) , 30°
(3) (4) , 45°
42. m
x
:–
(1) 1
2m
2x (2)
1
2m
22x
(3) 1
2m
2
x1
(4)
1
2
2m
(
2 – x
2)
43. 1 kg 0.1 m 20 rad/s
0.5 kg (rad/s
?(1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 40 (4) 30
44. 1, 2, 3
4
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 1 2(4)
1,
2,
3 4
45.
2.5%
320 (1) 8 (2) 800 (3) 16 (4) 6
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
H-9/37Kota/01CM314240
46. On reaction of 38.1 g iodine and 28.4 g chlorine,
mixture of ICl and ICl3 is obtained then total
number of moles after reaction will be :-
(1) 0.45 (2) 0.40
(3) 0.30 (4) 0.25
47. At 300 K temperature the standard heat of
formation of benzoic acid(s), CO2 (g) and H2O() are
–408, –393 and –286 KJ mol–1 respectively. At
constant pressure the heat of combustion for
benzoic acid will be :-
(1) –2629 KJ (2) –2751 KJ
(3) –2808 KJ (4) –3201 KJ
48. The boiling point of azeotropic mixture of two
liquids is lower than both component liquids
when :-
(1) Mixture shows positive deviation from
Raoult's law
(2) Mixture shows negative deviation from
Raoult's law
(3) Mixture shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(4) Mixture has very high mole fraction of solvent
49. Which of the following is not isoelectronic ?
(1) NO– (2) CN–
(3) N2 (4) O22+
50. Sodium peroxide which is a yellow solid, when
exposed to air become white due to the formation
of :-
(1) Na2O and O3 (2) NaO
(3) NaOH and Na2CO3 (4) NaOH and H2O2
51. Total number of atoms present in 1.5 gram
molecule of potassium dichromate is :-
(1) 4.5 NA (2) 1.5 NA
(3) 16.5 NA (4) 15 NA
52. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of CO2 is
equal to :-
(1) zero
(2) standard molar enthalpy of combustion
(3) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of
formation of CO and O2
(4) standard molar enthalpy of combustion of
carbon (graphite)
53. Which of the following 0.05 M aqueous solution
will have the lowest freezing point ?
(1) Potassium iodide (2) Sodium sulphate
(3) Sucrose (4) Aluminium oxalate
46. 38.1 28.4 ICl ICl3 :-(1) 0.45 (2) 0.40
(3) 0.30 (4) 0.25
47. 300 K (s), CO2 (g) H2O()
–408, –393 –286 KJ
–1
:-
(1) –2629 KJ (2) –2751 KJ
(3) –2808 KJ (4) –3201 KJ
48. :-(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
49. (1) NO– (2) CN–
(3) N2 (4) O22+
50. (1) Na2O O3 (2) NaO
(3) NaOH Na2CO3 (4) NaOH H2O2
51. 1.5 :-(1) 4.5 NA (2) 1.5 NA
(3) 16.5 NA (4) 15 NA
52. CO2 :-
(1)
(2)
(3) CO O2
(4) 53. 0.05 M
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
Kota/01CM314240H-10/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
54. For each of the following pairs of complexes,
Identify the one that has a large CFSE :-
(i) [Cr(H2O)
6]+2 or (ii) [Mo(H
2O)
6]2+
(iii) [Mn(H2O)
6]2+ or (iv) [Fe(H
2O)
6]3+
(v) [Fe(H2O)
6]3+ or (vi) [Fe(CN)
6]3–
(vii) [Fe(CN)6]3– or (viii) [Ru(CN)
6]3–
(ix) tetrahedral [FeCl4]2– or (x)tetrahedral [CoCl
4]2–
(1) II, IV, VI, VIII, X
(2) II, IV, VI, VIII, IX
(3) II, IV, VI, VII, IX
(4) II, IV, V, VIII, IX
55. Which does not exist free ion ?
(1) B3+ (2) Al3+ (3) Ga3+ (4) In3+
56. Which one of the following has minimum number
of molecules :-
(1) 16 g SO3 gas
(2) 12.3 g phosphorous acid
(3) 12 g propyne gas
(4) 4.48 L CO gas at STP
57. If the heat of formation of NH3 (g) is –46 KJ mol–1
then H for the reaction 2NH3 N2 + 3H2 will
be :-
(1) +46 KJ (2) +92 KJ
(3) –92 KJ (4) None of these
58. What will be the amount of ice separated on
cooling solution of 50 g ethylene glycol in 300 g
of water upto –12°C ?
(kf for water = 1.86 K Kg mol–1)
(1) 175 g (2) 125 g
(3) 145 g (4) 195 g
59. The correct bond order for CO and NO+ are
respectively.
(1) 3, 5/2 (2) 3, 3/2
(3) 3, 3 (4) 5/2, 3
60.0 0,250 C ,120 C
4 2Y CaSO 2H O X
X and Y are respectively :-
(1) Plaster of paris, dead burnt plaster
(2) CaO and plaster of paris
(3) Dead burnt plaster, plaster of paris
(4) Plaster of paris, mixture of gases
61. First separation energy for Li+2 ion is :-
(1) 122.4 eV (2) 3.4 eV
(3) 10.2 eV (4) 30.6 eV
54. CFSE :-(i) [Cr(H
2O)
6]+2 or (ii) [Mo(H
2O)
6]2+
(iii) [Mn(H2O)
6]2+ or (iv) [Fe(H
2O)
6]3+
(v) [Fe(H2O)
6]3+ or (vi) [Fe(CN)
6]3–
(vii) [Fe(CN)6]3– or (viii) [Ru(CN)
6]3–
(ix) [FeCl4]2– or (x) [CoCl
4]2–
(1) II, IV, VI, VIII, X
(2) II, IV, VI, VIII, IX
(3) II, IV, VI, VII, IX
(4) II, IV, V, VIII, IX
55. (1) B3+ (2) Al3+ (3) Ga3+ (4) In3+
56. :-
(1) 16 SO3
(2) 12.3
(3) 12
(4) STP 4.48 CO 57. NH3 (g) –46 KJ –1
2NH3 N2 + 3H2 H :-
(1) +46 KJ (2) +92 KJ
(3) –92 KJ (4) 58. 300 50
–12°C ?
(kf = 1.86 K Kg –1)
(1) 175 g (2) 125 g
(3) 145 g (4) 195 g
59. CO NO+ (1) 3, 5/2 (2) 3, 3/2
(3) 3, 3 (4) 5/2, 3
60.0 0,250 C ,120 C
4 2Y CaSO 2H O X
X Y :-(1) (2) CaO and (3) Dead burnt plaster, (4) ,
61. Li+2 :-(1) 122.4 eV (2) 3.4 eV
(3) 10.2 eV (4) 30.6 eV
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
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62. Addition of 1 mole of N2 gas is carried out at
constant pressure in equilibrium mixture of PCl5
dissociation present in a cylinder containing
piston then which of the following is correct :-
(1) No effect on equilibrium constant KC or KP
(2) The volume of container does not change
(3) No effect on equilibrium concentration
(4) The degree of dissociation of PCl5 decreases
63. The number of unit cells present in cubic NaCl
crystal with mass 1 g is :-
(1) 1.505 × 1023 (2) 2.57 × 1021
(3) 1.03 × 1022 (4) 4.12 × 1022
64. Which of the following has smallest bond angle ?
(1) H2S (2) NH3 (3) SO2 (4) H2O
65. Which of the following hydride is most acidic
(1) H2Te (2) H2Se (3) H2S (4) H2O
66. In He ion, the energy of electron in its third shell
is :-
(1) 2Rhc
9(2)
4Rhc
9
(3) Rhc
36(4)
4Rhc
967. At constant temperature 10% mixture of 0.2 moles
of N2 and 0.6 moles of H2 converts in NH3
following 2 2 3N 3H 2NH equilibrium. The
ratio between the initial and final moles will be :-
(1) 0.8 (2) 1.05
(3) 1.11 (4) 2.1
68. The presence of electron in interstitial sites
developed by removal of an anion from its lattice
point of a crystal lattice is called :-
(1) Schottky defect
(2) Frenkel defect
(3) Metal excess defect
(4) Metal deficiency defect
69. The correct order of hybridisation of the central
atom in the following species NH3, [PtCl4]2–, PCl5
and BCl3 :-
(1) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
(3) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (4) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3
70. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe – C bond possesses :-
(1) -character only
(2) both and -character
(3) ionic character
(4) -character only
62. PCl5 1 N2
:-
(1) KC KP
(2)
(3)
(4) PCl5 63. 1 NaCl
:-(1) 1.505 × 1023 (2) 2.57 × 1021
(3) 1.03 × 1022 (4) 4.12 × 1022
64. (1) H2S (2) NH3 (3) SO2 (4) H2O
65. (1) H2Te (2) H2Se (3) H2S (4) H2O
66. He :-
(1) 2Rhc
9(2)
4Rhc
9
(3) Rhc
36(4)
4Rhc
9
67. 2 2 3N 3H 2NH 0.2
N2 0.6 H2 10% NH3
:-
(1) 0.8 (2) 1.05
(3) 1.11 (4) 2.1
68. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
69.
NH3, [PtCl4]2–, PCl5 BCl3
(1) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3 (2) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
(3) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (4) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3
70. Fe(CO)5 Fe – C :-(1) -(2) -(3) (4) -
Kota/01CM314240H-12/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
71. The wave length associated with electron, present
in third shell of hydrogen atom is :-
(1) 299 pm (2) 332 pm (3) 498 pm (4) 996 pm
72. 0.2 moles of solid NH4Cl is heated at 327°C in
a container with volume 10L to attain the
equilibrium NH4Cl(s) NH3 (g) + HCl(g). If the
equilibrium constant Kp = 0.36 atm2 then
remaining amount of NH4Cl(s) is :-
(1) 0.02 mol (2) 0.078 mol
(3) 0.139 mol (4) 0.122 mol
73. Which of the following has highest ionic radii :-
(1) F– (2) B3+ (3) O2– (4) Li+
74. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+
is 3. Which statement is true :-
(1) Bond length is unpredictable
(2) Bond length in NO is greater than NO+
(3) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO
(4) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
75. Which one of the following has largest number
of isomers ?
(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(3) [Ir (PR3)2 H (CO)]2+ (4) [Rh(NH3)4Cl2]+
76. The maximum number of electrons in an atom
having n = 4, m = +1 and s = –1/2 is :-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6
77. The required amount of KBr (molar mass = 119)
in gram to start the precipitation of AgBr in
500 mL solution of 0.05 M AgNO3 will be :-
(KSP of AgBr = 5 × 10–13)
(1) 1.19 × 10–9 g (2) 4 × 10–11 g
(3) 5.95 × 10–10 g (4) 2.97 × 10–10 g
78. The set representing the correct order of firstionisation potential is :-
(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C
79. Copper pyrite-ore is concentrated by :-
(1) Electromagnetic method
(2) Gravity method
(3) Froth floatation process
(4) All of these
80. The oxidation state of Fe in
Na3[Fe(NH3)(CN)5].2H2O
(1) –1 (2) +1 (3) +2 (4) +3
81. An unknown gas 'A' has the density 2.835 g L–1
at 0.8 atm pressure and –53°C temperature thengas A is :-
(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO2
71. :-(1) 299 pm (2) 332 pm (3) 498 pm (4) 996 pm
72. 0.2 NH4Cl 10L 327°C
NH4Cl(s) NH3 (g) + HCl(g)
Kp = 0.36 atm2 NH4Cl(s) :-
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.078
(3) 0.139 (4) 0.122 73.
(1) F– (2) B3+ (3) O2– (4) Li+
74. NO 2.5 NO+ 3 (1) (2) NO NO+(3) NO NO+ (4) NO+ NO
75.
(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+
(3) [Ir (PR3)2 H (CO)]2+ (4) [Rh(NH3)4Cl2]+
76. n = 4, m = +1 s = –1/2 :-(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6
77. 0.05 M AgNO3 500 AgBr
KBr (= 119)
:- (AgBr KSP = 5 × 10–13)
(1) 1.19 × 10–9 g (2) 4 × 10–11 g
(3) 5.95 × 10–10 g (4) 2.97 × 10–10 g
78. (1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca
(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C
79. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
80. Na3 [Fe(NH3) (CN)5].2H2O Fe
(1) –1 (2) +1 (3) +2 (4) +3
81. 'A' 0.8 atm –53°C 2.835 A :-
(1) N2 (2) O2 (3) SO2 (4) CO2
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
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82. An acidic buffer solution can be obtained by
mixing of solutions of :-
(1) Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium
chloride
(2) Barium cyanide and Hydrogen cyanide
(3) Sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate
(4) Sodium hydroxide and sodium chloride
83. The shape of ClO3– according to VSEPR model
is :-
(1) Planer triangle (2) Pyramidal
(3) Tetrahedral (4) Square planer
84. The pair that yields the same gaseous product on
reaction with water :-
(1) K and NO2 (2) Ca and CaH2
(3) Na and Na2O2 (4) Ba and BaO2
85. The IUPAC name of the compound
[Cu(NH3)4(NO3)2] is :-
(1) cupra ammonium nitrate
(2) tetraammine dinitrato copper (II)
(3) tetraammine copper (II) dinitrate
(4) tetraammine copper (III) dinitrate
86. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
process when :-
(1) system and surroundings changes into each other
(2) there is no boundary in between system and
surroundings
(3) surroundings are always in equilibrium with
system
(4) system converts into surroundings
spontaneously
87.
2HI HCN I H C N ; The conjugate base
of strong acid in this reaction will be :-
(1) 2H CN (2) I (3) HCN (4) HI
88. The pair in which the two species are isostructural ?
(1) SiF4 and SF4 (2) IO3– and XeOF4
(3) BH4– and
4NH
(4) PF6– and SF6
89. Which of the alkali metal chlorides is expected
to have highest melting point ?
(1) LiCl (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) RbCl
90. Which one of the following has a square planar
geometry ?
[Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78]
(1) [CoCl4]2– (2) [FeCl4]
2–
(3) [NiCl4]2– (4) [PtCl4]
2–
82.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 83. VSEPR ClO3
– (1) (2) (3) (4)
84. (1) K NO2 (2) Ca CaH2
(3) Na Na2O2 (4) Ba BaO2
85. [Cu(NH3)4(NO3)2] IUPAC :-
(1)
(2) (II)
(3) (II)
(4) (III) 86. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
87.
2HI HCN I H C N
:-
(1) 2H CN (2) I (3) HCN (4) HI
88. (1) SiF4 SF4 (2) IO3
– XeOF4
(3) BH4–
4NH
(4) PF6– SF6
89. (1) LiCl (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) RbCl
90.
[Co = 27, Ni = 28, Fe = 26, Pt = 78]
(1) [CoCl4]2– (2) [FeCl4]
2–
(3) [NiCl4]2– (4) [PtCl4]
2–
Kota/01CM314240H-14/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
91. A plant species ‘x’ which is commonly called sago
palm. Some statements are given below in which
how many true about plant species ‘x’ :-
(a) Vegetative propagation by bulbils.
(b) Pollination at 3-celled stage.
(c) Orthrotropous type of ovule with three
vascular strands.
(d) Presence of transfusion tissue and
sclerenchymatous hypodermis in leaf lets.
(e) Winged pollen grain.
(f) Both male cone and female cones are present
on same tree.
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two
92. Select incorrect statement/s :-
(A) Antheridia and archegonia are present on the
ventral surface of fern prothallus.
(B) Antheridia and archegonia are present on the
dorsal surface of Riccia thallus.
(C) In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is
completely secondary in origin.
(D) Multi carpellary and syncarpous gynoecium
is found in Michelia.
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
93. List some of the plants are given below with
codes–
(A) Marchantia (B) Polytrichum
(C) Pinus (D) Cycas
(E) Papaya (F) Date palm
Select the correct option which give correct
information about following questions.
(I) Dioecious plant
(II) Monoecious plant
(III) Male and female gametophyte have an
independent free living existence
(IV) Male and female gometophyte do not have
an independent free living existence.
I II III IV
(1)A,B,D, Eand F
C A and BC,D, Eand F
(2)A,B andC
D,E andF
C and DA,B,Eand F
(3)D,E andF
A,C andD
A and CB,D, Eand F
(4)A,B,Eand F
D and CA, Band D
C, E andF
91. ‘x’
‘x’ :-
(a)
(b) 3-
(c)
(d)
(e)
(f)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 92. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2) (3) (4) 93. –
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F) (I) (II) (III)
(IV)
I II III IV
(1)A,B,D, Eand F
C A and BC,D, Eand F
(2)A,B andC
D,E andF
C and DA,B,Eand F
(3)D,E andF
A,C andD
A and CB,D, Eand F
(4)A,B,Eand F
D and CA, Band D
C, E andF
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
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94. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) are given below
of four different animals. Which one of these is
correctly identified in the option given along with
their habitat and excretory organ :-
A B C D
Sketch Animal HabitatExcretory
organ
1 D Chelon Marine waterProtonephric
kidney
2 A Fasciola Endoparasite Renette cell
3 B RanaOnly inmarine water
Mesonephrickidney
4 C HirudinariaMostly infresh water
Nephridia
95. In the following myocardium would be the
thickest one :-
(1) Left atrium (2) Left ventricle
(3) Right atrium (4) Right ventricle
96. Choose the correct option from following column
I, II and III :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
1. Pivot Joint a. Skull bone i. Synovial joint
2. Ball andsocket joint
b. Betweentwo adjacentvertebrae
ii. Diarthrosis
3. Cartilaginousjoint
c. Betweenatlas andaxis
iii. Synarthrosis
4. Fibrous Joint d. Betweenhumerusand pectoralgirdle
iv. Amphiarthrosis
(1) 1-a-iii, 2-d-iv, 3-c-ii, 4-b-i
(2) 1-c-ii, 4-a-iii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iv
(3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-b-iv
(4) 3-b-i, 4-c-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-d-iv
94. (A, B, C D) :-
A B C D
1 D
2 A
3 B
4 C
95. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
96. I, II III :-
-I -II -III
1. a. i.
2.
b.
ii.
3.
c.
iii.
4. d.
iv.
(1) 1-a-iii, 2-d-iv, 3-c-ii, 4-b-i
(2) 1-c-ii, 4-a-iii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iv
(3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-i, 3-b-iii, 4-b-iv
(4) 3-b-i, 4-c-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-d-iv
Kota/01CM314240H-16/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
97. Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct
network of nucleoprotein fibres called ____A __.
But during different stages of cell division, cells
show ___B ___ in place of the nucleus :-
A B
1 DNA thick chromosomes
2 Chromatin Spindle fibres
3 Chromatin Structured chromosomes
4 DNA Structured Chromosoms
98. Which Enzyme is responsible for SnRNA
formation ?
(1) RNA polymerase I
(2) RNA Polymerase II
(3) RNA Polymerase III
(4) DNA Lygase
99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched ?
(1) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(2) Abscisic acid – stomatal closure
(3) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
(4) Cytokinin – Cell division
100.
Sound wave fromfenestra ovalis
F
E
Helicotrema
Organ of corti
GD
Auditory nerve
+
A Maculae
B C
Find out the correct match for B, C, D, E, F :-
(B) (C) (D) (E) (F)
(1) Staticequilibrium
Kineticequilibrium
Cochlearnerve
Scalatympani
Reissner'smembrane
(2) Kineticequilibrium
Staticequilibrium
Cochlearnerve
Scalavestibuli
Basilarmembrane
(3) Kineticequilibrium
Staticequilibrium
Vestibularnerve
Scalavestibular
Scalamedia
(4) Staticequilibrium
Kineticequilibrium
Vestibularnerve
Scalatympani
Scalavestibuli
97. _________ _________
1
2
3
4
98. SnRNA ?
(1) I(2) II
(3) III(4)
99. ?
(1) IAA – (2) Abscisic acid – (3) Gibberellic acid – (4) Cytokinin –
100.
F
E
GD
+
A
B C
B, C, D, E, F :-
(B) (C) (D) (E) (F)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Phase/MLP,Q,R,A,B,C,D,E,F,G, MAW, MAX & MAY/02-04-2015
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101. Select correct combinations with respect to the
special condition of stamens, the types of
placentation & fruit in each of the following and
choose correct options :-
(A) Brassica – Tetradynamous, parietal and siliqua.
(B) Gossypium – Monoadelphous, axile and capsule.
(C) Glycine – Diadelphous, marginal and legume.
(D) Citrus – Polyadelphous, axile and hespiridium.
(E) Tagetes – Syngenesious, basal and cypsella
(1) Only A & C (2) Only B, C & D
(3) All A to E (4) Only C, D & E
102. Select correctly matched pair/pairs :-
(A) Cyathium – Euphoria
(B) Swollen placenta – makoi
(C) Rhizophore – Selaginella
(D) Cleavage polyembryony – Pinus
(E) Ligulate leaf – Selaginella
(1) All except E
(2) All except D & E
(3) All except A, D & E
(4) All A to E
103. Dry mosses are useful for translocation of new
seedling plants, because :–
(1) These have water absorption capacity
(2) These having capacity to incerase the acidity
of soil
(3) They are used as manure
(4) Both 2 and 3
104. Which of the following animal are vertebrate
chordate ?
(a) Petromyzon (b) Amphioxus
(c) Ascidia (d) Balanoglossus
(e) Myxine
(1) a only (2) a and e
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and e
105. Match the following correctly :-
(i) Stroke volume (a) 5000 ml. blood
(ii) Cardiac output (b) 120 ml. blood
(iii) End systolic volume (c) 70 ml. blood
(iv) End diastolic volume (d) 50 ml. blood
(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)
(2) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c)
(3) i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)
(4) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b)
101. :-(A) – (B) – (C) – (D) – (E) – (1) A C (2) B, C D
(3) A E (4) C, D E
102. :-(A)– (B) – (C) – (D) – (E) – (1) E (2) D E (3) A, D E (4) A E
103. :–(1) (2)
(3) (4) 2 3
104. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) a (2) a e
(3) b, c d (4) a, b e105. :-
(i) (a) 5000 ml.
(ii) (b) 120 ml.
(iii) (c) 70 ml.
(iv) (d) 50 ml.
(1) i(d), ii(a), iii(b), iv(c)
(2) i(b), ii(d), iii(a), iv(c)
(3) i(c), ii(a), iii(d), iv(b)
(4) i(a), ii(c), iii(d), iv(b)
Kota/01CM314240H-18/37
Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/02-04-2015
106. Cardiac muscles are :-
(1) Striated (2) Branched
(3) Involuntary (4) All of these
107. The following statement may relate to which
stage(s) of cell division ?
"Splitting of centromere of each chromosome
occurs at this stage and separated chromatids
move towards opposite poles of the cell"
(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase -I
(3) Anaphase and Anaphase -I
(4) Anaphase and Anaphase - II
108. The phytohormone, which increases the
concentration of potassium in guard cells is also
responsible for the induction of :
(1) Cell division
(2) Triple response growth
(3) Apical dominance
(4) Abscission
109. Match the following and choose the correct
combination from the options given
List-I List-I
(a) Photolysis of water (1) Zinc
(b) Diazotrophy (2) Copper
(c) Cytochrome 'c' oxidase(3) Manganese
(d) Biosynthesis of IAA (4) Molybdeum
(5) Boron
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-5 (2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(3) a-5, b-2, c-3, c-4 (4) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
110. Which hormone mostly regulate gene expression
when it interact with intracellular receptors :-
(1) Epinephrine and thyroxine
(2) Estradiole and growth hormone
(3) Testosterone and epinephrine
(4) Iodothyronine and estradiole
111. Select incorrect statement ?
(1) Photosynthetic nature is generally a common
character both in gametophyte and sporophyte
of mosses and ferns.
(2) In pteridophytes, gametophyte may be
dioecious or monoecious.
(3) In gymnosperms endosperm represents
female gametophyte whereas in angiosperms
embryosac represents female gametophyte.
(4) The number of cells are more in female
gametophyte of angiosperms as compared to
female gametophyte of gymnosperm.
106. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
107. ?""(1) (2) -I -II(3) -I(4) -II
108. K+ :
(1) (2) Triple response growth
(3) (4)
109. List-I List-I
(a) Photolysis of water (1) Zinc
(b) Diazotrophy (2) Copper
(c) Cytochrome 'c' oxidase(3) Manganese
(d) Biosynthesis of IAA (4) Molybdeum
(5) Boron
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-5 (2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(3) a-5, b-2, c-3, c-4 (4) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
110. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
111. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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112. Match the following Aestivation with related
plants?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) Cassia (ii) Pea
(iii) Calotropis (iv) Gossypium
(1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)
113. Identify the animal given below and select the
correct option in which both identification and
their larval form are given correctly :-
(1) Balanoglossus - Tornaria larva
(2) Ascidia - Trochophore larva
(3) Balanoglosus - Cydippid larva
(4) Pleurobranchia - Tornaria larva
112.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)
113.
(1) -
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
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114. Consider the following figure and choose the
correct option :-
Tissue Site Function
(1) Squamousepithelium
Found inbloodvessels
Formsdiffusionsurface
(2) Cuboidalepithelium
found inducts ofglands
Main functionis secretionandabsorption
(3) Ciliatedcolumnarepithelium
Trachea Direct mucusin variousdirection
(4) Columnarepithelium
Lining ofstomach
Absorption
115. The factors which favours formation of HbO2 is/
are :-
(1) Less H+ conc.
(2) Low pH
(3) Low CO2
(4) All of these
116. Each sarcomere has a central ____A____ made of
____B____ and two half ____C____ made of thin
actin filaments, either side of sarcomere, it is
marked by ____D____ :-
A B C D
(1) M-band Thinmyosin
H-band H-lines
(2) A-band Thickmyosinfilaments
I-bands Z-lines
(3) Z-line Thin actinfilament
H-zone M-line
(4) M-line Thin actinfilament
Z-lines H-zone
114. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
115. HbO2 :-
(1) H+
(2) pH
(3) CO2
(4) 116. ____A____
____B____ ____C____ ____D____
:-
A B C D
(1) M-
H- H-
(2) A-
I- Z-
(3) Z-
H- M-
(4) M-
Z- H-
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117. How many of the following statements are
correct ?
(a) As the polar molecules can not pass through
the nonpolar lipid bilayer, they require a pump
protein of the membrane to facilitate their
transport across the membrane
(b) The endomembrane system include ER, golgi
complex, lysosomes, peroxisomes & vacuoles
(c) The space limited by the inner membrane of
the chloroplast is called lumen
(d) Cytoskeleton has important role in cell
motility.
(1) One (b) Four (3) Two (4) Three
118. Study the following lists and choose the correct
List-I List-II
(A) Water potential (I) Positive
of 10% salt solution
(B) Pressure potential (II) Negative
in a normal cell
(C) Pressure potential (III) Positive
in a flaccid
(D) Pressure potential (IV) Negative
in the stem during
trans piration
(V) Zero
The correct match is :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) B-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I
119. Select the correct matched ones :
(a) Nitrosomonas – nitrite to nitrate
(b) Thiobacillus – Denitrification
(c) Nostoc – Free living nitrogen-fixer
(d) Azotobactor – filamentry nitrogen–fixer
(1) a & b only (2) c & d only
(3) b & c only (4) b & d only
117. ?
()
()
()
()
(1) (b) (3) (4)
118.
List-I List-II
(A) 10% (I) Positive
(B) (II) Negative
(C) (III) Positive
(D) (IV) Negative
(V) Zero
(1) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) B-V, B-IV, C-II, D-I
119. :
(a) Nitrosomonas – nitrite to nitrate
(b) Thiobacillus – Denitrification
(c) Nostoc – Free living nitrogen-fixer
(d) Azotobactor – filamentry nitrogen–fixer
(1) a & b only (2) c & d only
(3) b & c only (4) b & d only
Kota/01CM314240H-22/37
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120. Read the following statements :-
(A) Synaptic knob is a branched, distal end part
of axon.
(B) Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal
& cranial nerve.
(C) Schwann cell does not form myelin sheath
around the nerves of autonomous nervous
system & somatic neural system
(D) Gap between two distal myelin sheath is
called node of Ranvier.
Which option is correct regarding number of
True (T) and False(F) statement.
(1) T > F (2) F > T
(3) T = F (4) Any of above
121. List some of the fungi are given below :-
Agaricus, Penicillium, Rhizopus, Ustilago, Mucor,
Aspergillus, Alternaria, Puccinia, Colletotrichum
(A) In how many above fungi plasmogamy is
followed by karyogamy, immediately.
(B) How many above fungi are reproduce
asexually by conidia formation.
A B
(1) Two Five
(2) Three Six
(3) Two Four
(4) Four Five
122. Find incorrect match :-
(1) Presence of eye-spot - Euglena and
Chlamydomonas
(2) Whorl phllotaxy - Alstonia and Nerium
(3) Dioecious plant - Vallisneria and papaya
(4) Heterosporous fern - Selaginella and Salvinia
120. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(T) (F)
(1) T > F (2) F > T
(3) T = F (4)
121. :-
(A)
(B)
A B
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
122. :-
(1) -
(2) -
(3) -
(4) -
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123. Match the following column-I,II & III and select
the correct option :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
A Nereis aPersistentnotochord
i Mollusca
B Dentalium bProboscisgland
ii Cephalochordata
C Branchiostoma c Parapodia iii Annelida
D Saccoglosus dRedullapresent
iv Hemichordata
Option :-
(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-d-ii, D-a-iv
(2) B-b-ii, C-c-i, A-d-iv, D-a-iii
(3) A-c-iii, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iv
(4) D-a-ii, C-d-i, B-c-iii, A-b-iv
124. In all connective tissue the cells secretes fibres of
structural proteins collagen or elastin except :-
(1) Skin
(2) Cartilage
(3) Bone
(4) Blood
125. Identify A, B, C and D in given diagram and
choose the option :-
A
CBD
(1) A. DRG(Dorsalrespiratory group)
Control basicrespiratory rhythm
(2) B. VRG(Ventralrespiratory group)
Slow downrespiratory rhythm
(3) C. Pneumotaxiccentre
Moderate thefunction of rhythmcentre
(4) D. Chemosensitivearea
Highly sensitive toCO
2 & K+ ions
123. -I,II III :-
-I -II -III
A a i
B b ii
C c iii
D d iv
:-(1) A-b-iii, B-c-i, C-d-ii, D-a-iv
(2) B-b-ii, C-c-i, A-d-iv, D-a-iii
(3) A-c-iii, B-d-i, C-a-ii, D-b-iv
(4) D-a-ii, C-d-i, B-c-iii, A-b-iv
124. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
125. A, B, C D :-
A
CBD
(1) A.
(2) B.
(3) C.
(4) D. CO2 K+
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126. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
A. The kidneys are retroperitoneal organs
attached to the anterior abdominal wall.
B. Glomerular filtrate amounts to upto 180 litres /day.
C. CHP and BCOP oppose filtration.
D. In the presence of ADH, the kidney produces
diluted urine.
How many of the above statements are wrong ?
(1) Four (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
127. The given picture represents which stage of cell
division ?
(1) Prophase (2) Prophase-I
(3) Metaphase (4) Metaphase-I
128. The direction and the rate of water movement
from cell to cell is based on
(1) Water potential
(2) Incipient plasmolysis
(3) Turgor pressure
(4) Wall pressure
129. Assume a thylakoid is some how punctured so that
the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated
from the stroma. This damage will have the most
direct effect on which of the following processes.
(1) The splitting of water
(2) The absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(3) The flow of electrons from photosystem II to
photosystem
(4) Synthesis of ATP
126. (A-D) :-
A.
B. 180
C. CHP BCOP
D. ADH
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
127. ?
(1) (2) -I
(3) (4) -I
128.
(1)
(2) Incipient plasmolysis
(3)
(4)
129. thylakoid thylakoid stroma
(1)
(2) chlorophyll
(3) photosystem II photosystem e–
(4) ATP
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130.
0
A
–80
–70
–60
–40
–20
0
+30
B
C D
E
F
G
J
1 2 3 4 5
Which of the following statement is correct :-
(1) At point F, Na+ VGC openes and also Na+
diffuses in through passive transport
(2) At point E, K+ VGC opened and also K+
comes in through active transport.
(3) At point B, Na+ comes in through active
transport and inner –ve charge is called resting
membrane potential.
(4) At point D, K+ VGC close and also K+ diffuses
in through passive transport
131. List some of the organism are given below :-
Saprolegnia, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra,
Polysiphonia, Laminaria, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix,
Gelidium
How many above organism reproduce asexually
by zoospores formation in favourable condition.
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Two
132. Arrange the following plants in a sequence from
monarch to polyarch condition in their roots :-
(I) Pea (II) Gram
(III) Trapa (IV) Maize
(1) III, I, II and IV (2) I, II, III and IV
(3) IV, III, II and I (4) III, II, I and IV
133. Select the correct group of animals in which
external fertilization take place :-
(1) Rana, Echinus, Balanoglosus and Ascaris
(2) Ratus, Collumba, Chelon and Hyla
(3) Antedon, Saccoglosus, Ctenoplana and bufo
(4) Ctenoplana, Ratus, Echinus and hyla
130.
0
A
–80
–70
–60
–40
–20
0
+30
B
C D
E
F
G
J
1 2 3 4 5
(1) F Na+ VGC Na+
(2) E K+ VGC K+
(3) B Na+ –ve
(4) D K+ VGC K+
131. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
132.
(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
(1) III, I, II IV (2) I, II, III IV
(3) IV, III, II I (4) III, II, I IV
133. :-
(1) , ,
(2) , ,
(3) ,
(4) , ,
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134. Following is the diagram of certain connective tissue.
Choose the correct option from following options:-
Type of tissue Example
(a) Dense irregularconnective tissue
Skin
(b) Dense regularconnective tissue
Tendons
(c) Dense regularconnective tissue
Ligaments
(d) Dense irregularconnective tissue
Bones
(1) a and b (2) b only
(3) c and d (4) b and c
135. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased is :-
(1) Bronchitis (2) Asthma
(3) Emphysema (4) Fibrosis
136. Following statements is/are true for Angiotensin-II:-
(1) It is strong vasoconstrictor.
(2) Increase BP in glomerulus.
(3) Increase glomerular filteration rate (GFR)
(4) All of these
137. Some statements are being given which are
matched with biological phenomenons select the
odd one from followings :-
(a) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates serve dual
process, they provide energy for
polymerization reaction and acting as
substrate – DNA Replication
(b) DNA Dependent RNA polymerase catalyze
the polymerization in only 5' – 3' direction
Transcription
(c) RNA plays structural & catalytic role -
Translation
(d) Some amino acids are coded by more than
one codons - Nonambiguity
(1) A,B&D options are odd
(2) only D is odd
(3) only C is odd
(4) only A & B are odd
134. :-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) a b (2) b(3) c d (4) b c
135. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
136. -II :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
137. :-(a)
(b) 5' – 3'
(c)
(d)
(1) A,B D (2) D (3) C (4) A & B
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138. Which one of the following is produced during
water stress and causes closure of stomata ?
(1) Auxin (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin
139. Which of the following element is not absorbed
from soil ?
(1) N (2) Fe (3) B (4) C
140. Read the following statement (A-E) and which of
the following statements are correct for the
gland–"A" shown in the below figure and its
hormones :-
B
A
(A) Secretes many hormones commonly called
corticoids.
(B) Hormones increases alertness, pupillary
dilation, piloerection etc.
(C) Stimulates breakdown of glycogen.
(D) Produces anti-inflamatory reaction and
suppresses the immune response.
(E) Works direct under neural control and secretes
hormones rapidly in response to stress of any
kind.
(1) Statement (A) and (B)
(2) Statement (B), (C) and (E)
(3) Statement (C), (D) and (E)
(4) Statement (A), (B), (C) and (E)
141. Read the following statements carefully :-
(A) Heart wood comprises dead elements with
highly legnified walls.
(B) In oogamous type of sexual reproduction male
gametes are always motile.
(C) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction is
found in Fucus, Volvox, Chara, Vaucheria and
Polysiphonia.
(D) In gymnosperms ovule pollen chamber is a
cavity where pollinated pollens are stored.
(E) Enucleated condition is found in mature sieve
tube element.
(F) Axile placentation is found in Lycopersicum,
Hibiscus, Gossypium, and Allium
How many above statements is/are incorrect ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
138. ?
(1) Auxin (2) Abscisic acid
(3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellin
139. (1) N (2) Fe (3) B (4) C
140. (A-E)–A :-
B
A
(A)
(B)
(C) (D)
(E)
(1) (A) (B)
(2) (B), (C) (E)
(3) (C), (D) (E)
(4) (A), (B), (C) (E)
141. :-(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
(F)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Kota/01CM314240H-28/37
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142. List some of the plants are given below :
Petunia, Tulip, Gloriosa, Lupin, Tomato,
Soyabean.
How many are ornamental plants :-
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
143. According to the evolutionary history which of the
following animals are "first eucoelomate and are
protostomiate" :-
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelids
(3) Arthropods (4) Echinoderms
144. Read the following four statements (A-D) with
respect to cockroach :-
(A) Head is rectangular in shape and at right angle
to the longitudinal body axis.
(B) A pair of thread like antennae arise from
membranous sockets lying behind the eyes.
(C) Forewing is called tegmina, which are
transparent and membranous.
(D) In females the 7th sternum is boat shaped and
together with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a
genital pouch.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) One (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four
145. The diffusion membrane is made up of :-
(a) Columnar epithelium of alveoli
(b) Simple squamous epithelium of alveoli
(c) Simple squamous epithelium of alveolar
capillaries.
(d) Basement membrane of simple epithelium of
alveoli only.
(e) Basement substance in between epithelium of
alveoli and endothelium.
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and d
146. Match the column :-
i. Protonephridia (a) Cockroach
ii. Malpighi tubules (b) Rabbit
iii. Green glands (c) Rotifers
iv. Kidney (d) Prawns
(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
142. :
:-
(1) (2) (3) (4) 143.
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 144.
:-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
145. :-(a) (b) (c) (d)
(e)
(1) a, b c (2) b, c d
(3) b, c e (4) a, c d
146. :-
i. (a)
ii. (b)
iii. (c)
iv. (d)
(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
Time Management is Life Management
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147. Which statement proves that RNA evolved earlier
than DNA ?
(1) RNA can function as calalyst
(2) SnRNA is used in splicing process
(3) In place of uracil thymine is present in RNA
(4) Both 1 & 2
148. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
(1) 1/2 Vmax(2) 2 V
max
(3) 1/4 Vmax (4) 4 Vmax
149. Substrate level phosphorylation does not occur in
which of the following reaction of aerobic
respiration ?
(1) 1, 3 DiPGA 3-PGA
(2) 3-PGA 2-PGA
(3) PEP Pyruvate
(4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid
150. Which of the following statement are False/True?
A. PTH regulates the metabolism of Ca2+ and
PO4–
B. Prolactin inhibits the action of GnRH
C. Dopamine inhibits lactation
D. Insulin promotes lipolysis
(1) A and B are true, C and D are false
(2) A and C are true, B and D are false
(3) A, B and C are true, D only false
(4) B, C and D are false, A only true.
151. A plant ‘x’ having following characters :-
(a) Didynamous stamen
(b) Gynobasic style
(c) Bilabiate corolla
(d) Verticillaster type of inflorescence
(e) Opposite phyllotaxy
Plant ‘x’ should be :-
(1) Salvia (2) Euphorbia
(3) Fig (4) Cucumber
152. Given diagram represents wall thickenings at
corners. Which of the following material is not
found in given wall thickenings?
wallthickenings
(1) Pectin (2) Cellulose
(3) Hemicellulose (4) Lignin
147. RNA DNA :-(1) RNA (2) SnRNA(3) (4) 1 2
148. enzyme Km (1) 1/2 V
max(2) 2 V
max
(3) 1/4 Vmax (4) 4 Vmax
149. ?
(1) 1, 3 DiPGA 3-PGA
(2) 3-PGA 2-PGA
(3) PEP Pyruvate
(4) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid
150. A. Ca2+ PO4
–
B. GnRH C. D. (1) A B C D (2) A C B D (3) A, B C D (4) B, C D A
151. ‘x’ :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ‘x’ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
152.
wallthickenings
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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153. Read the following statements :-
(A) All vertebrates are chordate animals.
(B) All chordates are vertebrate animals.
(C) All eucoelomate animals having organ system
level of body organisation.
(D) All protostomiate animals show radial symmetry.
Out of these which are correct statements ?
(1) Statement A and C only
(2) Statement A, B and C
(3) Statement B, C and D
(4) Statement B, and D
154. In cockroach, exoskeleton has hardened plate
called sclerites that are joined to each other by thin
and flexible :-
(1) Basilar membrane
(2) Articular membrane
(3) Arthrodial membrane
(4) Both (2) and (3)
155. The type of dentition present in human is :-
(1) Heterodont (2) Diphyodont
(3) Thecodont (4) All of these
156. In female cockroach, sperms are transferred
through ............... by male cockroach.
Fill in the blank :-
(1) Spermatozoa
(2) Spermatophores
(3) Pseudopenis
(4) Anal cerci
157. Translation is :-
(1) Process of Polymerization of amino acids to
form polypeptide according to sequence of
nitrogen bases in m-RNA
(2) Process of copying genetic information from
DNA to RNA
(3) Polymerization of Nucleotides to form Nucleic
Acid
(4) both 1 & 2
158. Photosynthesis cannot continue for long if during
light reaction only cyclic photophosphorylation
takes place. This is because :
(1) There is no evolution of O2
(2) Only ATP is formed NADPH is not formed
(3) There is unidirectional cyclic movement of the
electrons
(4) Photosystem I stops getting excited at a
wavelength of light beyond 680 nm
153. :-(A) (B) (C)
(D) ?
(1) A C(2) A, B C(3) B, C D
(4) B, D
154. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)
155. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
156. ............... :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
157. :-(1) m-RNA N -
(2) DNA RNA
(3)
(4) 1 2 158.
:
(1) (2) ATP NADPH
(3) e– (4) 680 Photosystem I
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159. Some photosynthetic organisms contains
chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, Yet are able
to survive. The Best way to detect the lack of
photosystem II in these organism would be
(1) To determine if they have thylakoids in the
chloroplasts
(2) To test for liberation of O2 in the light
(3) To test for CO2 fixation in the dark
(4) To test for production of either sucrose or starch
160. Given below is a flow chart of hormonal action,
identify the hormones / glands labelled as A,B, C
and D :-
Hypothalamus
A(Gland)
C(Gland)
D(function)
Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH)
B
Thyroxin
(1) A–Neurohypophysis B–TSH C–Thyroid gland
(2) A–Pituitary gland B-GnRH D-Metabolism of body
(3) B-TSH C-Adenohypophysis D-Sleep-wake cycle
(4) A-Adenohypophysis B-TSH C-Thyroid gland
161. The cross section of plant material showing the
following anatomical feature under microscope :-
(a) Collenchymatous hypodermis as a homogenous
layer.
(b) Sclerenchymatous pericycle in patches
located just above phloem bundles.
(c) Vascular bundles are arranged in a ring.
(d) Radially placed parenchymatous cells
between vascular bundles.
(e) Presence of well developed pith.
(f) Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundle
Plant material should be.
(1) Cucurbita stem (2) Helianthus stem
(3) Zea mays stem (4) Saccharum stem
159. chloroplasts photosystem II (1) chloroplast thylakoids
(2) O2 (3) CO2 (4) sucrose starch
160. A,B, C, D :-
A( )
C( )
D( )
Thyrotrophin releasing hormone (TRH)
B
(1) A– B–TSH C–
(2) A– B-GnRH D-
(3) B-TSH C- D-(sleep-wakecycle)
(4) A- B-TSH C-
161. :-(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(e) (f) (1) (2) (3) (4)
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162. Given figure is a transverse section of dicot stem
showing secondary growth in stelar and extra
stelar region. In which labelled structure a, b, c
& d are respectively :-
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(1) Phellem, Phellogen, secondary xylem and
Secondary phloem
(2) Secondary xylem, Secondary phloem,
Phellem and Phellogen
(3) Primary xylem, Secondary phloem,
Phelloederm, phellem
(4) Vascular cambium, Secondary xylem,
Phellem, Phellogen
163. Read the following features of animals :-
i. Skin - dry and covered by scales
ii. Dermal scales are present
iii. External ear opening is present which is
covered by tympanum
iv. Two pairs limbs are found as locomotory
organs.
v. They are oviparus
vi. Normally trichembered heart is present.
vii. All animals are exclusively terrestrial
Out of these how many features are not exhibited
by 'Reptiles'
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
164. Choose the correct match from column I, II
and III :-
Animal Heart Circulation
(1) Rohu 3 chambered Doublecirculation
(2) Frog 3 chambered Incompletedoublecirculation
(3) Snake 2 chambered Incompletedoublecirculation
(4) Rabbit 3 chambered Doublecirculation
162. a, b, c d
:-
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 163. :-
i. - ii. iii.
iv. 2 v. vi. vii. (1) (2) (3) (4)
164. I, II III :-
(1) 3
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 3
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165. A muscular sphincter which regulates the opening
of oesophagus into the stomach is :-
(1) Pyloric sphincter
(2) Cardiac sphincter
(3) Gastro oesophageal
(4) Both (2) and (3)
166. Mark the incorrect statement regarding
Periplaneta americana ?
(1) If the head is cut off, it will still survive for
as long as one week.
(2) It has mosaic vision with more sensitivity but
less resolution.
(3) On an average, females produce 9-10
oothecae, each containing 14-16 eggs.
(4) 100-150 blind tubules called gastric caecae is
present at the junction of foregut and midgut
167. An Oligosaccaridle made up of 5 monosaccharide
units A,B,C,D & E. If molecular weight of these
monosaccharide is respectively 100, 180, 300, 400
& 500 then what will be the molecular weight
of the oligosaccharide ?
(1) 1480 (2) 1444 (3) 1426 (4) 1408
168. During photosynthesis for ATP synthesis which of the
following acts as a reservoir for hydrogen ions ?
(1) Cristal (2) Stroma
(3) Thylakoid lumen (4) Matrix
169. A biochemist wanted to study how various
substances were used and changed in cellular
respiration. In one experiment, he allowed a
mouse to breath air. Procedure harmless to the
mouse. In the mouse the labelled oxygen atoms,
identified by first showed up in
(1) ATP (2) NADH
(3) CO2(4) H
2O
170. Which of the following option gives the correct
categorisation of nerve according to their origin
and nature:-
ANerve
BOrigin
CNature
(1) Trigeminal Midbrain Motor
(2) Abducens Pons Mixed
(3) Auditory Pons Sensory
(4) Vagus Medulla Motor
165. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)
166. (1)
(2)
(3) 9-1014-16
(4) 100150
167. 5 A,B,C,D
& E 100, 180, 300, 400 500 ?
(1) 1480 (2) 1444
(3) 1426 (4) 1408
168. ATP H+ ?
(1) Cristal (2) Stroma
(3) Thylakoid lumen (4) Matrix
169. biochemist radioactive isotope radiolabelled isotope (1) ATP (2) NADH
(3) CO2(4) H
2O
170.
A
B
C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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171. Arrange the following animals in ascending order
with respect to their approximate life span and
choose correct option :-
(a) Crocodile (b) Domestic dog
(c) Parrot (d) Humming bird
(e) Butter fly
(1) e, a, c, d, b (2) d, b, e, a, c
(3) e, d, b, a, c (4) d, e, c, a, b
172. A cladogram showing evolution of plants given
below. Study it carefully and give the answer of
following question.
Leafy gametophyte
5
Liverworts3
BGA4
Embryo
Chlorophyll 'b'
Chlorophyll – 'a'
Chlorophyll 'C'
Naked DNAPhycobillins
Silicated cell wall
2
1
Number '3' representing the which group of plants:-
(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Moss
(3) Diatom
(4) Red algae
173. A group of animals that exhibits following
properties :-
(a) Represent to "Agnatha"
(b) Most ancient vertebrate animals.
(c) Animals are ectoparasite on fishes
On the basis of above features, name out the
correct group of animals and select the correct option?
(1) Urochordata
(2) Cyclostomata
(3) Cephalochordata
(4) Vertebrate
174. The heart valves, which always remain in contact
with oxygenated blood are :-
(1) Tricuspid value
(2) Bicuspid value
(3) Mitral value
(4) Both (2) and (3)
171. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) e, a, c, d, b (2) d, b, e, a, c
(3) e, d, b, a, c (4) d, e, c, a, b
172.
Leafy gametophyte
5
Liverworts3
BGA4
Embryo
Chlorophyll 'b'
Chlorophyll – 'a'
Chlorophyll 'C'
Naked DNAPhycobillins
Silicated cell wall
2
1
'3' (1) (2) (3) (4)
173. :-(a) (b) (c) ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
174. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) (3)
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175. Consider the following diagram and choose the
correct option regarding hormones :-
C Stomach
BD
A
A. CCK Contraction of gallbladder
B. Secretin Stimulate secretionof HCO
3– and H
2O
from pancreas
C. Gastrin Stimulate secretionof gastric juice
D. Enterokinase Stimulate secretionof pancreatic juicefrom pancreas
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and D
176. Which component of the cell divides the
intracellular space into two distinct compartments
i.e. luminal and extra luminal compartments ?
(1) Nuclear membrane
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Lysosomes
(4) ER
177. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Bacteriophage lambda has total 5386
N-bases
(2) In one coil of DNA molecule total
40 phosphate molecules will be present
(3) Helix length of Z-DNA is 45.6 A°
(4) Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
175. :-
C Stomach
BD
A
A. CCK
B. HCO3–
H2O
C.
D.
(1) A B (2) B C
(3) C D (4) A D
176. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
177. ?
(1) 5386 N-
(2) 40
(3) Z-DNA 45.6 A°
(4) 1 2
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178. The chemiosmotic coupling theory of oxidative
phosphorylation proposes that adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) is formed because
(1) There is a change in the peameability of the
inner mitochondrial membrane toward
adenosine diphosphate ADP
(2) High energy bonds are formed in
mitochondrial proteins
(3) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the inter
membrane space
(4) A proton gradient forms across the inner
membrane
179.
WaterSolute
Particals
Chamber A Chamber B
In the given diagram in chamber A some solute
is added and in chamber 'B' some water is added
then which statement is incorrect :
(1) In chamger A solute potential will decrease
(2) In chamber B water potential will increase
(3) In both chamber turgour pressure will decrease
(4) At atmospheric pressure in chamber A water
potential will decrease.
180. In our eyes, optic nerve leave the eye and the
retinal blood vessels enters at a point called blind
spot, which is characterised by all except one.
(1) Located medial to and slightly above the
posterior pole
(2) Photoreceptor cells are absent
(3) Thinned out portion of retina where visual
acuity is poor
(4) Located on lateral side of macula lutea
178.
(ATP)
(1) adenosine diphosphate mitochondrial
(2) mitochondrial
(3) inter membrane space ADP matrix
pump
(4) inner membrane proton
179.
WaterSolute
Particals
Chamber A Chamber B
chamber A chamber 'B' :
(1) chamger A (2) chamber B (3) chamber (4) chamber A
180. (1)
(2) (3) (4)
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