PGM-CET 2014QUESTION BOOKLET

Day and Date : Sunday, 5th January 2014 Duration: 3 Hours 30 MinutesTime: 10.00 a.m. to 1.30 p.m. Total Marks : 300

This is to certify that, the entries of PGM-CET Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly writtenand verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Instructions to Candidates1. The Question Booklet has one seal sticker. Examinee should open the seal at 10.00 a.m.2. This question booklet contains 300 Objective Type Questions (Single Best Response Type MCQ) in the

subjects of MBBS.3. The Question Paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheets are issued to examinees separately

at the beginning of the examination session.4. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.5. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and

make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICALMARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark appropriate entries/answerscorrectly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, QUESTION BOOKLETSERIAL No. and PGM-CET Roll No. accurately. The correctness of entries has to be cross-checked bythe invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.

6. Read each question carefully.Determine ONE correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question.All the candidates are instructed to carefully see in Question Booklet the Serial No. of MCQ and thesequence of options A), B), C) and D) in the MCQ while entering the answer in the Answer Sheet.

7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question, with Black ink Ballpoint pen only, in the OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate should completely darken one and the only one bestresponse (oval). Candidate should not use any other method for answering i.e half circle, dot, tick mark,cross etc. as these may not be read by the scanner. Answer sheet of each candidate will be evaluated bycomputerized scanning method only (Optical Mark Reader) and there will not be any manual checkingduring evaluation and verification.

8. Each answer with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There is No Negative Marking. If theexaminee has marked two or more answers or has done scratching and overwriting in the Answer Sheet inresponse to any question, or has marked the circles inappropriately, mark(s) shall NOT be awarded forsuch answer/s.

9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.

10. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough workshould not be done on the Answer Sheet.

11. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and answersheet.Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet areto be returned to the invigilator.

12. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the examination session is over.

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P.T.O.

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1 1Eleven

Question Booklet VersionPGM - CET - 2014 Roll No.

Question Booklet Sr. No.

Answer Sheet No.

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1. Which of the following contributes to the development of the thoraco-abdominaldiaphragm ?A) Pleuropericardial membrane B) Dorsal mesentery of oesophagusC) Splanchnopleuric mesoderm D) Intermediate mesoderm

2. Which of the following muscle is pierced while tapping of pleural fluid inmid-axillary line in 6th intercostal space ?A) Pectoralis Major B) Transverse thoracisC) Serratus Anterior D) External oblique

3. A stab wound to the arm severs the musculocutaneous nerve in a young girlresulting inA) Loss of sensations on medical aspect of forearmB) Weakness in supination of the forearmC) Difficulty in extending the elbowD) Paralysis of Teres major muscle

4. Incudo-stapedial joint is which type of synovial joint ?A) Plain B) SaddleC) Ball and Socket D) Condylar

5. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies following muscles EXCEPTA) Posterior cricoarytenoid B) Lateral cricoarytenoidC) Cricothyroid D) Oblique artenoid

6. First right posterior intercostal vein drains intoA) azygous vein B) accessory azygous veinC) superior intercostal vein D) right brachio-cephalic vein

7. Zona fasciculata of suprarenal gland producesA) Minerelo-corticoids B) Gluco-corticoidsC) Sex hormones D) Adrenaline

8. Gluteus maximus muscle is innervated byA) superior gluteal nerve B) inferior gluteal nerveC) pudendal nerve D) subcostal nerve

9. Septal papillary muscle is present inA) left atrium B) right atrium C) left ventricle D) right ventricle

10. Portocaval anastomosis is present in the following areas of liverA) Porta hepatis B) Bare area of liverC) Gall bladder fossa D) Groove for Inferior vena cava

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11. Inversion and Eversion occur at which joint ?A) Ankle B) SubtalarC) Inferior tibio-fibular D) Calcaneocuboid

12. Which of the following nucleus is associated with archicerebellum ?A) Fastigial B) GlobosusC) Emboli formis D) Dentate

13. The proximal part of tubotympanic recess gives rise to theA) Pharyngo-tympanic tube B) Tympanic antrumC) Middle ear cavity D) External ear

14. Injury to common peroneal nerve at the neck of fibula will causeA) Foot dropB) Inability to evert the footC) Sensory loss over antero-lateral part of legD) All of the above

15. In “Housemaids knee” which of the following bursa is affected ?A) Suprapatellar B) Superficial infrapatellarC) Deep infrapatellar D) Prepatellar

16. What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in the plasma is10 mg/dL, its concentration in the urine is 100 mg/dL, and urine flow is 2 mL/min ?A) 10 mL/min B) 12 mL/min C) 20 mL/min D) 25 mL/min

17. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by the closure ofA) mitral valve B) tricuspid valveC) aortic valve D) pulmonary valve

18. Which of the following pituitary hormones is an opioid peptide ?A) β MSH B) ACTH C) α MSH D) β endorphin

19. The neurotransmitter producing vagally mediated increase in Gastrin secretion isA) GRP B) Substance P C) GIP D) Guanylin

20. 1b type of nerve fibers carry afferent impulses fromA) Muscle spindles B) Pacinian corpusclesC) Golgi tendon organs D) Nociceptors

21. Growth hormone secretion is decreased inA) REM sleep B) Stress C) Exercise D) Fasting

22. Resting membrane potential in mammalian spinal motor neurone is close toequilibrium potential ofA) Na+ B) Cl– C) K+ D) Mg++

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23. Sperms develop the capability of motility in theA) Seminiferous tubules B) EpididymisC) Vas deferens D) Female genital tract

24. After a carbohydrate rich meal insulin secretion is stimulated byA) Cholecystokinin B) VIPC) GRP D) GLP–1

25. All of the following neurons in the cerebellar cortex are inhibitory EXCEPTA) Purkinje cells B) Basket cellsC) Granule cells D) Golgi cells

26. Which part of a neuron has the highest concentration of Na+ channels per squaremicrometer of cell membrane ?A) dendrites B) cell bodyC) initial segment of axon D) Node of Ranvier

27. Normal value of P50 (The partial pressure of O2, at which Hb, is 50% saturatedwith O2) in healthy adults at sea level is atA) 20 mm Hg B) 27 mm Hg C) 35 mm Hg D) 40 mm Hg

28. Ejection Fraction is a ratio ofA) Stroke volume to End-diastolic volumeB) Stroke volume to End-systolic volumeC) Stroke volume to Minute volumeD) End-diastolic volume to End-systolic volume

29. Which of the following is involved in colour vision ?A) Geniculate layers 1-2 B) ‘M’ (magnocellular) pathwayC) Area V8 of visual cortex D) Area V3A of visual cortex

30. The major action of 1, 25-di-hydroxy chole-calciferol isA) Lowering of blood calciumB) Ca++-deposition in bonesC) Increasing Ca++ -absorption from intestinal lumenD) Stimulating the gene responsible for PTH-synthesis

31. Formation of Okasaki fragments occurs inA) Transcription B) ReplicationC) Translation D) Reverse transcription

32. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by primaryA) deficit of carbonic acid B) excess of carbonic acidC) deficit of bicarbonate D) excess of bicarbonate

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33. Which of the following enzymes produce a product used for synthesis of ATP bysubstrate level phosphorylation ?A) Phosphofructokinase B) AldolaseC) Phosphoglycerate mutase D) Enolase

34. The lipoprotein with the fastest electrophoretic mobility and the lowest TG content isA) VLDL B) HDL C) LDL D) Chylomicrons

35. UDP glucuronyl transferase deficiency results inA) Gilbert’s disease B) Dubin-Johnson syndromeC) Crigler-Na

.jjar syndrome D) Rotor syndrome

36. Hydrolytic enzymes are found inA) Ribosomes B) LysosomesC) Golgi Apparatus D) Peroxisome

37. The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (which results in pellagra) will beless severe if the diet has a high content ofA) Trypophan B) Tyrosine C) Thymine D) Thiamine

38. All of the following are electron carriers in the electron transport chain EXCEPTA) Coenzyme Q B) Fe-S centres C) Cytochromes D) Hemoglobin

39. Which one of the following conditions causes hemoglobin to release oxygen morereadily ?A) Metabolic AlkalosisB) Hyperventilation, leading to decreased levels of CO2 in the bloodC) Increased production of 2, 3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG)D) Replacement of β subunits with γ subunits

40. All of the following are the sources for Gluconeogenesis EXCEPTA) Lactate B) Glycerol C) Palmitate D) Alanine

41. Which of the following disease can NOT be treated by Gene Therapy ?A) Adenosine deaminase deficiencyB) LeukemiaC) Cystic FibrosisD) Thalassemia

42. The most important buffer system in the plasma isA) Protein buffer B) Bicarbonate bufferC) Phosphate buffer D) Hemoglobin buffer

43. The vitamin required for carboxylation of pyruvate to form oxaloacetate isA) Thiamine B) Biotin C) Pyridoxine D) Niacin

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44. The metabolic pathway that occurs partly in mitochondria and partly in cytosol isA) TCA cycle B) Glycolysis

C) Urea cycle D) Oxidative phosphorylation

45. All of the following enzymes act as Antioxidant EXCEPT

A) Superoxide dismutase B) Lactate DehydrogenaseC) Catalase D) Glutathione peroxidase

46. Which of the following drug is prone to cause Gouty arthritis ?

A) Isoniazid B) EthionamideC) Pyrazinamide D) Streptomycin

47. Selective alpha one receptor blocker isA) Atenolol B) LabetalolC) Prazosin D) Carvedilol

48. Tranexamic acid is aA) Antithrombotic B) Antifibrinolytic

C) Fibrinolytic D) Styptic

49. Digoxin acts by inhibitingA) Na+ K+ ATPase B) H+ K+ ATPase

C) NA+–K+–2Cl channel D) Na+ – H+ ATPase

50. Therapeutic concentration of lithium in bipolar disorder is

A) 0.1 to 0.3 mEq/L B) 0.3 to 0.6 mEq/LC) 0.5 to 0.8 mEq/L D) 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L

51. Which of the following is longest acting corticosteroid ?

A) Dexamethasone B) PrednisoloneC) Triamcinolone D) Hydrocortisone

52. The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning isA) Neostigmine B) PhysostigmineC) Pilocarpine D) Methacholine

53. Following ACE inhibitors are the prodrugs; EXCEPTA) Ramipril B) Lisinopril

C) Enalapril D) Perindopril

54. Which of the following is resistant to both true and pseudo cholinesterase enzymes ?A) Bethanechol B) Acetylcholine

C) Methacholine D) Pilocarpine

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55. Predominant neurotransmitter in post-ganglionic sympathetic nerves isA) Adrenaline B) DopamineC) 5 Hydroxytryptamine D) Noradrenaline

56. Mecasermin is indicated inA) Active or suspected neoplasiaB) Intracranial hypertensionC) Impaired growth due to GH-deficiencyD) Enlarged tonsils due to lymphoid hypertrophy

57. Antiepileptic action of phenobarbitone may be counteracted byA) Vit. B12 B) Vit. CC) Folic acid D) Iron preparations

58. NSAIDS are commonly used as first line therapy in the pain ofA) Malignancy B) MigraineC) Neuropathy D) Visceral pain except dysmenorrhea

59. Chemokine co-receptor 5 (CCR 5) inhibitor isA) Enfuvirtide B) Maraviroc C) Raltegavir D) Atazanavir

60. Tiprolisant isA) H3 Receptor agonist B) H3 Receptor antagonistC) Partial H3 Receptor agonist D) Inverse H3 Receptor agonist

61. Cyproheptadine has all of the following actions; EXCEPTA) Antimuscarinic actions B) Antihistaminic actionsC) Antiserotonergic actions D) Antiadrenergic actions

62. Therapeutic use of Acetyl choline is NOT possible because it isA) Highly protein bound B) Rapidly degradedC) Rapidly excreted D) None of the above

63. Which one of the following antimalignancy drug is most nephrotoxic ?A) Vincristine B) CyclophosphamideC) Cisplatin D) Methotrexate

64. Drug of choice in ulcerative colitis isA) Sulfathiazole B) SulfasalazineC) Sulfadoxin D) Sulfacetamide

65. Proton Pump inhibitors are most effective when givenA) half hour before breakfast B) with mealsC) after prolonged fasting D) along with H2 blockers

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66. Which of the following is a precancerous condition of the skin ?A) Bowen disease B) Seborrhoeic keratosisC) Leprosy D) Psoriasis

67. Which of the following malignancy is commonly found in AIDS patients ?A) Kaposi’s sarcoma B) FibrosarcomaC) Cavernous hemangioma D) Melanoma

68. Pheochromocytoma is a tumour ofA) Parathyroid B) Adrenal medullaC) Adrenal cortex D) Pituitary

69. Which type of viral hepatitis is associated with high mortality in pregnant women ?A) Hepatitis B virus B) Hepatitis E virusC) Hepatitis D virus D) Hepatitis C virus

70. Skip lesions are characteristic ofA) Intestinal tuberculosis B) Enteric feverC) Ulcerative colitis D) Crohn’s disease

71. The major compatibility test before blood transfusion consists of cross matchingofA) Donor’s red cells and Recepients serumB) Donor’s serum and Recepients red cellsC) Donor’s serum and Recepients serumD) Donor’s red cells and Recepients red cells

72. A grape like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in a 4 yr old girl ischaracteristic ofA) Fibrosarcoma B) Sarcoma botryoidesC) Leiomyosarcoma D) Inflammatory polyp

73. The type of vegetative endocarditis associated with mucinous adenocarcinoma isA) Infective endocarditis B) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditisC) Libman-sacks endocarditis D) Rheumatic endocarditis

74. The absence of ganglion cells within the affected segment of bowel is a feature ofA) Tropical sprue B) Hirschsprung’s diseaseC) Celiac disease D) Crohn’s disease

75. Virchow’s triad for thrombosis include all EXCEPTA) Endothelial injury B) StasisC) Platelet aggregation D) Hypercoagulability

76. Cystic Hygroma is found inA) Klinefelter’s syndrome B) Down’s syndromeC) Edward’s syndrome D) Turner’s syndrome

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77. Munro microabscesses occur inA) Psoriasis B) Lichen planusC) Lupus vulgaris D) Impetigo

78. In Vitamin-A deficiency, cancerous lesions occur due toA) Metaplasia B) DysplasiaC) Aplasia D) Hyperplasia

79. Spontaneous bleeding occurs when platelet count falls below

A) 50,000/ � � B) 40,000/ � �

C) 30,000/ � � D) 20,000/ � �

80. Skin cancer is caused by due to exposure toA) Asbestos B) ArsenicC) Nitrosamine D) Vinyl chloride

81. Delayed hypersensitivity is initiated byA) CD3+T cells B) CD4 + T cellsC) CD8 + T cells D) CD10 + T cells

82. Bernad-Soulier syndrome is a defect in plateletA) Aggregation B) AdhesionC) Release reaction D) Morphology

83. In Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia favourable prognostic factors includes allEXCEPT ________.A) age of 2 to 10 yrs B) low white cell countC) presence of t (12; 21) D) presence of t (9; 22)

84. Chloroma is due toA) AML B) CLLC) ALL D) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

85. Which of the following is associated with hypersensitive pneumonitis ?A) Silicosis B) AsbestosisC) Byssinosis D) Berylliosis

86. The blood index which reflects iron deficiency more accurately isA) MCV B) MCHC) MCHC D) PCV

87. Councilman bodies are seen inA) Wilson disease B) Acute viral hepatitisC) Alcoholic hepatitis D) Autoimmune hepatitis

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88. Krukenberg tumour of ovary is due to carcinoma of ________A) Stomach B) LungC) Central nervous system D) Thyroid

89. Formation of granulation tissue is due toA) Thrombosed vessels B) Infiltration of cellsC) Budding of new capillaries D) Mucosal proliferation

90. The appearance of cobweb formation in CSF indicates _________A) Pyogenic meningitis B) Viral meningitisC) Tuberculous meningitis D) Fungal meningitis

91. Quantitative cultures are necessary for laboratory diagnosis in infection ofA) Urinary tract B) Blood streamC) Lungs D) Small intestine

92. In first week of illness, laboratory diagnosis of dengue is commonly done byA) Suckling mouse inoculation B) Chick embryo cultureC) NS 1 antigen detection D) IgG antibody detection

93. Population doubling time in coliform bacilli isA) 20 seconds B) 20 minutesC) 20 hours D) 20 days

94. A person is positive for HBsAg, HBeAg and Anti-HBc - IgM, in relation to hepatitisB, this is a case ofA) Acute infection B) Chronic infectionC) Remote infection D) Highly infections acute infection

95. Cause of epilepsy in upto 50% Indian patients isA) Neurocysticercosis B) Cerebral malariaC) Toxoplasmosis D) Cerebral hydatid cyst

96. Four hours after eating Chinese fried rice, a group of persons suffers from acutevomiting. What is the most likely causative agent ?A) Bacillus cereus B) Salmonella enteritidisC) Clostridium welchii D) Vibrio parahemolyticus

97. The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV contaminated endoscope isA) 1% sodium hypochlorite B) 2% glutaraldehydeC) 5% phenol D) 70% ethanol

98. The Hepatitis D virus is a defective virus that requires its helper to provideA) an envelope protein B) transcriptase to transcribe mRNAC) replicase for its RNA D) reverse transcriptase

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99. For determining the efficacy of sterilization in an autoclave, the spores of thefollowing organism are used as test organismsA) Bacillus cereus B) Clostridium perfringensC) Bacillus stearothermophilus D) Clostridium histolyticum

100. A 25 year old female presented to the hospital on the third day of menstruationwith complaints of high fever, vomiting and a rash on her trunk and extremities.On investigation she had leucocytosis and a negative blood culture. She isdiagnosed asA) Staphylococcal food poisoning B) Scalded skin syndromeC) Toxic shock syndrome D) Varicella zoster infection

101. Eggs of all the following helminthic worms float in a saturated salt solution EXCEPTA) Eggs of Necator americans B) Eggs of Enterobius vermicularisC) Eggs of Hymenolepis nana D) Eggs of Taenia solium

102. Unsheathed microfilaria are seen inA) Wuchereria bancrofti B) Brugia malayiC) Loa loa D) Onchocerca volvulus

103. Enterovirus associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis isA) Serotype 68 B) Serotype 69C) Serotype 70 D) Serotype 71

104. All of the following viruses are transmitted through genital tract EXCEPTA) Herpes simplex virus B) Hepatitis virusC) Papilloma virus D) Coronavirus

105. Lyme disease is caused byA) Borrelia recurrentis B) B. DuttoniiC) B. vincentii D) B. burgdorferi

106. Most important cause of travellers diarrhoea isA) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli B) Enteroinvasive Esch. coliC) Enterohemorrhagic Esch. coli D) Enteropathogenic Esch. coli

107. High level disinfectant includesA) glutaraldehyde B) alcoholsC) phenols D) iodophois

108. India ink preparation of CSF is done to identifyA) Streptococcus agalactiae B) Naegleria fowleriC) Cryptococcus neoformans D) Coxackie B

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109. Active immunity is not acquired byA) Infection B) VaccinationC) Immunoglobulin transfer D) Subclinical infection

110. Non-cultivable fungus isA) Rhinosporidium B) CandidaC) Sporothrix D) Penicillium

111. The doctor can reveal the professional secrets without the consent of patient infollowing circumstances, EXCEPTA) Privileged communication B) Courts of LawC) Newspaper D) Suspected crime to police

112. Blisters/vesicles are seen in all the following cases, EXCEPTA) Flame Burns B) Electric BurnsC) Brush Burns D) The margins of hanging mark

113. Priming Mixture in percussion cap of a shotgun cartridge containsA) Potassium Chlorate B) Potassium NitrateC) Potassium Carbonate D) Potassium Oxalate

114. Mc Naughten Rule has also been accepted in India as the Law of CriminalResponsibility and is included in Sec._________A) 84 IPC B) 85 IPC C) 89 IPC D) 91 IPC

115. Following are the postmortem diagnostic signs of strangulation EXCEPTA) Ligature mark completely encircling neckB) Ecchymosis about the edges of ligature markC) Dribbling saliva from angle of mouthD) Fracture of thyroid cartilage

116. The toxic principle in cerebra thevetia isA) Neriodorin B) Karabin C) Thevetin D) Folinerin

117. Railway spine is also known asA) Concussion of spine B) Fracture of spineC) Dislocation of spine D) Contusion of spine

118. Saturated solution of common salt should not be used in case of suspected poisoningbyA) Alcohol B) KeroseneC) Carbolic acid D) Vegetable poisons

119. Onanism isA) Natural sexual offence B) Unnatural sexual offenceC) Perversion D) Indecent assault

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120. In proximal ballistics ‘primer’ meansA) Detonator B) ProjectileC) Pellets D) Gunpowder

121. In absence of clinical evidence of thyroid disease, thyroid function tests showinglow TSH, raised T4 and normal or low T3 indicatesA) subclinical thyrotoxicosis B) subclinical hypothyroidismC) sick euthyroidism D) transient thyroiditis

122. Co-infection with which virus leads to change in antiretroviral therapy in peopleliving with HIV ?A) Cytomegalo virus B) Varicella virusC) Hepatitis B virus D) JC virus

123. Drug of choice to treat H1N1 influenza isA) Acyclovir B) CidofovirC) Oseltamivir D) Tenofovir

124. Isolated microscopic hematuria of glomerular origin is seen inA) Acute glomerulo nephritis B) Hereditary nephritisC) Acute interstitial nephritis D) Acute tubular necrosis

125. Gait disorder described as ‘slipping clutch syndrome’ occurs inA) Cerebellar gait disorder B) Sensory gait disorderC) Parkinson gait disorder D) Frontal gait disorder

126. Periodic, deep, retroorbital, excruciating, nonfluctuant and explosive headachewith ipsilateral lacrimation or rhinorrhoea is characteristic ofA) cluster headache B) migraine headacheC) hypnic headache D) tension headache

127. The study of alteration in chromatin and histone proteins and methylation of DNAsequence that influence gene expression is called asA) proteomics B) metagenomicsC) epigenomics D) metabolomics

128. The circulating neutrophils are usually mature and not clonally derived inA) leucocytosis B) neutropeniaC) leukemoid reactions D) neutrophilia

129. The more intensive approach calls for tuberculoid leprosy to be treated withrifampicin 600 mg/d for 3 years and dapsone 100 mg/day forA) 3 years B) 5 yearsC) 7 years D) throughout life

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130. Hormone that remain stable with aging isA) insulin B) insulin growth factorC) glucagon like peptide I D) vaso active intestinal peptide

131. The drug considered as a risk factor for calciphylaxis isA) calcium B) diureticC) warfarin D) heparin

132. Omalizumab is a blocking antibody that neutralises circulatingA) IgE B) LeukotrinesC) Cromones D) TNF and antibodies

133. Which of the following factor is associated with better prognosis in adult onsettetanus ?A) Incubation period < 7 days B) Period of onset > 48 hoursC) Systolic BP > 140 mm of Hg D) Heart rate > 140 bpm at admission

134. Following are potential complications of gene therapy EXCEPTA) Genotoxicity B) Genome integrationC) Gene silencing D) Immunotoxicity

135. All of the following can be complications of hemodialysis EXCEPTA) Hemorrhage B) HypotensionC) Muscle cramps D) Anaphylactid reaction to dialyzer

136. First line antiepileptic drug for treatment of myoclonic seizures isA) Valproic acid B) PhenytoinC) Topiramate D) Carbamazepine

137. The most common site for Amebiasis isA) Sigmoid colon B) Transverse colonC) Cecum D) Hepatic flexure

138. Recombinant human insulin is made byA) CDNA from any Eukaryote cell B) Genome of any EukaryoteC) CDNA of Pancreatic cell D) Genome of Pancreatic cell

139. Aplastic anemia in sickle cell anemia is due to infection ofA) Herpes B) Parvovirus B 19C) CMV D) Papova

140. Widened anion gap is not seen inA) Acute renal failure B) DiarrhoeaC) Lactic acidosis D) Diabetic ketoacidosis

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141. Which one of the following is NOT a feature of type two respiratory failure ?A) PCO2 38 mm Hg B) PCO2 68 mm Hg

PO2 50 mm Hg PO2 50 mm HgC) Papilledema D) Asterixis

142. Which of the following is most specific and sensitive screening test in renovascularhypertension ?A) HRCT abdomenB) CT guided angiographyC) Captopril induced radionuclide scanD) MRI abdomen

143. All of the following criteria are required for diagnosis of obesity hypoventilationsyndrome EXCEPTA) Hypertension B) BMI ≥ 30 kg/m2

C) Sleep disordered breathing D) PaCO2 ≥ 45 mm of Hg

144. All of the following are complications of acute pancreatitis EXCEPTA) Hyperglycemia B) HyperkalemiaC) Hypertriglyceridemia D) Hypocalcemia

145. The precore mutants in Hepatitis B are characterised by notable absence ofA) HBV DNA B) HBeAgC) HBcAg D) Anti HBeAg

146. Accepted screening test for Hyperaldosteronism isA) Measurement of sodium levelsB) Measurement of aldosterone levelsC) Calculation of aldosterone renin ratioD) Measurement of potassium levels

147. The most powerful predictor of survival in case of multiple Myeloma isA) 2� Microglobulin B) Serum IgG levelsC) Serum calcium D) Urinary Bence-Jones proteins

148. The Neoplastic lesions which are most common AIDS-defining conditions in HIVinfection are following EXCEPTA) Kaposi’s sarcoma B) NHLC) Invasive cervical carcinoma D) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung

149. Felty’s syndrome is characterised by all of the following features EXCEPTA) Rheumatoid Arthritis B) NeutropeniaC) Nephropathy D) Splenomegaly

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150. Monogenic transmission of diabetes mellitus occurs inA) Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)B) Non-insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM)C) Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA)D) Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)

151. Which of the below is an example of affective learning ?A) Measuring pulse rateB) Enumerating causes of obesityC) Motivating a person for blood donationD) Arriving at differential diagnosis

152. Which of the oils given below is the best source of linoleic acid ?A) Ground nut B) MustardC) Palm D) Coconut

153. In which phase of demographic cycle is India now ?A) High stationary B) Early expandingC) Late expanding D) Low stationary

154. In patient with Malaria, if fever has periodicity of 72 hours, which one of thefollowing is likely to be causative agent ?A) P. falciparum B) P. vivaxC) P. ovale D) P. malariae

155. In clinical trials one can take care of the effects of unknown confounders byA) Matching cases and controlsB) Randomization of study subjectsC) Proper selection of cases and controlsD) Properly measuring exposure and outcome

156. Color coding of container for disposal of human anatomical waste isA) Yellow B) RedC) Blue D) Black

157. If a disease has three times more incidence in females as compared to males andsame prevalence in both males and females, true statement will beA) It is highly fatal in females B) More survival in femalesC) Better prognosis in males D) Less fatal in males

158. Prophylaxis with vitamin ‘C’ is helpful in preventingA) Flurosis B) Neuro LathyrismC) Iodine deficiency D) Botulism

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159. Which of the following is NOT a source of infection in plague ?A) Case of bubonic plague B) Case of pneumonic plagueC) Infected rodents D) Infected fleas

160. The base of the Food Guide Pyramid is formed byA) Cereals and pulses B) Fruits and vegetablesC) Milk and milk products D) Meat, poultry and fish

161. Which of the following is the correct use of barrier creams ?A) For contraception B) Protection from occupational dermatitisC) As mosquito repellants D) Protection from contagious diseases

162. A 18 year old HIV positive girl has been diagnosed to be suffering from sputumsmear negative pulmonary Tuberculosis (New case). The treatment regimenrecommended under DOTS for her isA) 2(HRZE)3 + 4(HR)3 B) 2(HRZES)3 + 1(HRZE)3 + 5(HRE)3C) 2(HRZE)3 + 4(HRE)3 D) 2(HRZE)3 + 6(HR)3

163. The ‘overall burden of diseases’ is best detected byA) Sullivan’s Index B) Quality adjusted life years (QALY)C) Human Developmental Index D) Disability adjusted life years (DALY)

164. All the following features contribute to High Risk Babies EXCEPTA) Babies of working motherB) Birth order of 4 or moreC) Artificial feedingD) Weight less than 70% of the expected weight

165. ‘Acculturation’ is defined asA) Loss of cultural values B) Opposition of two cultures on contactC) Fading away of a culture D) Diffusion of two cultures on both ways

166. The floating tip of the iceberg represents __________ cases.A) Clinical B) LatentC) Presymptomatic D) Inapparent

167. Which of the following is NOT included as fundamental aspects of disastermanagement ?A) Disaster prevention B) Disaster ResponseC) Disaster preparedness D) Disaster mitigation

168. Which of the following is NOT an approach of health education ?A) Regulatory B) Primary health careC) Service D) Management

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169. All of the following categories of biomedical waste can be disposed of by themethod of Incineration EXCEPTA) Category 1 B) Category 2C) Category 3 D) Category 4

170. Consumption of which of the following cereal as staple diet is associated withPellagra ?A) Rice B) Wheat C) Maize D) Bajara

171. Under IMNCI programme in outpatient health facility all of the following aredanger signs EXCEPTA) Convulsions B) Difficult breathingC) Vomiting D) Lethargy

172. Which one of the following is NOT a component of validity of a screening test ?A) Sensitivity B) SpecificityC) Precision D) Predictive value

173. The difference in incidence rates of disease (or deaths) between an exposed groupand non exposed group is known asA) Relative Risk B) Attributable RiskC) Population Attributable Risk D) Odds Ratio

174. Outbreaks of leptospirosis are usually expected afterA) Earthquakes B) FloodsC) Mud slides D) Avalanche

175. Which of the following vaccines is most sensitive to heat ?A) Oral Polio vaccine B) BCG vaccineC) DPT vaccine D) Measles vaccine

176. Modified Radical neck dissection does NOT preserveA) Spinal accessory nerve B) External Jugular veinC) Sternocleidomastoid muscle D) Internal Jugular vein

177. The loss of tension in vocal cord with diminished power and range of voice occurs inA) Unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve palsyB) Bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerves paralysisC) Ext. branch of superior laryngeal nerve palsyD) Tracheomalacia

178. Melanocytes migrates from the neural crest to basal epidermis duringA) Neonatal life B) ChildhoodC) Embryogenesis D) After birth

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179. Mycetoma which occurs in foot is of two types of which the one is Actinomycetomaand second one isA) Sudan mycetoma B) EumycetomaC) Yemenmycetoma D) Pseudomycetoma

180. In operation of pancreaticoduodenectomy for ca pancrease; one of the anastomonsis known to leak more frequentlyA) Choledochojejunostomy B) GastrojejunostomyC) Pancreaticojejunostomy D) None of the above

181. In operated case of cholecystotomy, histopathological report suggest carcinomaof gall bladder restricted to mucosa. Further treatment will beA) Observation and follow upB) Reoperation with excision of wedge of liverC) Rt. hepatectomyD) Radiotherapy + chemotherapy

182. The initial treatment of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices isA) TIPSS B) Surgical shuntC) Surgical devascularisation D) Endoscopic Banding/Sclerotherapy

183. Commonest malignancy in thyroid gland seen isA) Anaplastic carcinoma B) Follicular carcinomaC) Papillary carcinoma D) Medullary carcinoma

184. The part of colon worst affected by ischaemic colitis isA) Right colon B) Left colonC) Hepatic flexure D) Splenic flexure

185. Young’s Prostatectomy is aA) Retropubic Prostatectomy B) Perineal ProstatectomyC) Transvesical Prostatectomy D) Radical Prostatectomy

186. Signs of thyroid deficiency are all EXCEPTA) Bradykinesis B) TachycardiaC) Hoarse voice D) Periorbital Puffiness

187. Parklands formula used for Burn’s resuscitation isA) 4 ml/kg/% TBSA B) 5 ml/kg/%TBSAC) 6 ml/kg/%TBSA D) 8 ml/kg/% TBSA

188. Adeno-carcinoma of oesophagus develops inA) Long standing achalasia B) Alcohol abuseC) Corrosive stricture D) Barret’s oesophagus

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189. Painless gross hematuria occurs inA) Renal cell carcinoma B) Polycystic kidney

C) Stricture urethra D) Wilm’s tumour

190. The most common cause of small intestinal obstruction is

A) Intussusception B) Iatrogenic adhesions

C) Trauma D) Carcinoma

191. Treatment of pouch of Douglas abscess is

A) Laparotomy B) Posterior colpotomyC) Antibiotics D) Extraperitoneal drainage

192. Which of the following does NOT contribute to enterobiliary fistula ?

A) Duodenal ulcers B) Gall stonesC) Gastric ulcer D) Carcinoma of gall bladder

193. Most common type of Breast Carcinoma isA) Lobular carcinoma B) Colloid carcinoma

C) Medullary carcinoma D) Ductal carcinoma

194. Menetrier’s disease is characterized by all EXCEPTA) Hypertrophic gastric folds B) Foveolar Hyperplasia

C) Hypoproteinemia D) Benign condition

195. Alpha Feto Protein is raised inA) Seminoma B) Teratoma

C) Embryonal carcinoma D) Yolk-Sac Tumor

196. Carcinoma colon is NOT associated with

A) Cowden’s syndrome B) Puetzlegher’s syndrome

C) Polland’s syndrome D) Ruvalcaba-Myhre-Smith syndrome

197. Ranson’s criteria on admission does NOT include

A) WBC count B) Serum LDHC) Serum AST D) Serum ALT

198. Drug of choice in dermatitis herpetiformis

A) Steroid B) PhototherapyC) Dapsone D) Methotrexate

199. Pseudo-Darier sign is seen inA) Urticaria pigmentosa B) Congenital smooth muscle haematoma

C) Xanthogranuloma D) Dermatofibroma

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200. Scraping the surface of the lesions in pityriasis versicolor will accentuate thescaling. This sign is known asA) Nikolsky sign B) Auspitz signC) Coup D’ongle sign D) Carpet tack sign

201. Satellite papules are characteristic of following type of leprosy.A) Borderline Tuberculoid (BT) B) Polar Tuberculoid (TT)C) Borderline Lepromatous (BL) D) Polar Lepromatous (LL)

202. Type of scale observed in Pityriasis rosea isA) mica like B) powderyC) silvery D) collarette like

203. The clinical features of seborrhoeic dermatitis include all of the following EXCEPTA) Folliculitis B) Vesiculobullous lesionsC) Erythroderma D) Blepharitis

204. Reticular lacy white pattern lesion on the buccal mucosa with skin lesions is acommon clinical presentation ofA) Reiter’s disease B) Pityriasis RoseaC) Lichen planus D) Lupus Vulgaris

205. Cardio Vocal Syndrome is also calledA) Ortner’s Syndrome B) Lermoyez SyndromeC) Pendred’s Syndrome D) Jaccoud’s Syndrome

206. Hitzelberger’s sign is seen inA) Acoustic Neuroma B) Glomus JugulareC) Glomus Tympanicum D) Meniere’s disease

207. Anterior pillar of tonsil is formed byA) Palatopharyngeus muscle B) Palatoglossus muscleC) Genioglossus muscle D) Hyoglossus muscle

208. CSF rhinorrhoea is diagnosed byA) Beta 2 microglobulin B) ThyroglobulinC) Albumin D) Beta 2 transferrin

209. Tripod fracture involvesA) Ethmoid complex B) Zygomatic complexC) Orbital floor D) Mandible

210. The most common organism causing acute otitis media isA) H. influenza B) S. pneumoniaeC) M. catarhalis D) S. aureus

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211. Mikulicz cell and Russel bodies are characteristic of ________A) Rhinoscleroma B) RhinosporidiosisC) Plasma cell disorder D) Lethal midline granuloma

212. Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation deformity at hip is seen inA) Fracture neck of femur B) Posterior dislocation of hipC) Inter trochanteric fracture D) Anterior dislocation of hip

213. Test to diagnose Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) injury isA) Valgus test B) Varus testC) Lachman test D) Posterior Drawer test

214. Acute Haematogenous osteomyelitis involves commonly following part of boneA) Metaphysis B) EpiphysisC) Diaphysis D) Growth plate

215. Sacroiliac joint involvement is seen inA) Rheumatoid Arthritis B) Ankylosing spondylitisC) Reiter’s syndrome D) Psoriatic arthritis

216. Treatment of choice in Intra-capsular fracture neck femur in 35 yr. old male,presenting after 3 days isA) Plaster and CastB) HemiarthroplastyC) Closed Reduction and Internal fixation by cancellous screwsD) Closed Reduction and internal fixation by Austin Moore’s pins

217. A 25 yr. old pt. underwent excision of right radial head. After surgery patientdeveloped inability to extend the fingers and thumb. He did not have any sensorydeficit. Which one of the following is most likely cause ?A) High radial nerve palsyB) Injury to posterior interosseus nerveC) Injury to Anterior Interosseus nerveD) Injury to common extensor origin

218. The best visibility of structures on radiograph depends on atomic weight of itsconstituent elements. Thus which of the following has highest atomic weight andthus maximum visibility on radiograph ?A) Carbon B) Barium C) Calcium D) Iron

219. All are true in Perthe’s disease EXCEPTA) Average age of patient is 6-8 yrsB) Common in maleC) Duration of symptom more than 6 wks.D) Bilateral

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220. Osteochondromas are seen in all of the following EXCEPTA) Hereditary multiple exostosis B) Ollier’s DiseaseC) Metaphyseal Aclasis D) Diaphyseal Aclasis

221. One of the following drug is NOT used for the treatment of osteoporosisA) Alendronate B) CalcitoninC) Dexamethasone D) Vitamin K

222. The test of choice for Giardiasis isA) Stool Enzyme Immuno Assay (EIA)B) MicroscopyC) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)D) Duodenal Aspiration

223. Hallmark of Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis(ADEM) isA) Encephalopathy B) AtaxiaC) Cranial Neuropathies D) Visual loss

224. In large-for-date babies all viscera weigh more than normal EXCEPTA) Kidney B) Heart C) Brain D) Liver

225. The Ig A anti TG 2 (TransGlutaminase) is a sensitive marker for diagnosis ofA) Celiac Disease B) Eosinophilic GastroenteritisC) Primary Immunodeficiency D) Crohn’s Disease

226. The maternal uniparental disomy for chromosome 15 results inA) Angelman Syndrome B) Prader – Willi SyndromeC) Pallister – Killian Syndrome D) Hypomelanosis of ITO

227. 13 year old female child presented with recurrent sinusitis fever, arthralgia,respiratory distress, Haematuria and hypertension. Renal Biopsy showednecrotizing granuloma. The anti proteinase-3 ANCA was positive. The most likelydiagnosis isA) Polyarteritis Nodosa B) Wegener’s GranulomatosisC) Microscopic Polyangitis D) Churg-Strauss Syndrome

228. The average whey/casein ratio in Breast milk isA) 60 : 40 B) 80 : 20 C) 20 : 80 D) 40 : 60

229. Most common cause of Bronchiolitis in children isA) Adenovirus B) Measles C) RSV D) Poliovirus

230. “Sweaty feet” odour to urine occurs inA) Homocystinurea B) Isovaleric acidemiaC) Phenylketonuria D) Alkaptonuria

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231. Admission to Nutrition Rehabilitation center for severe Acute Malnourished childbetween 6 months to 5 years is all EXCEPTA) wt/ht < – 3 SD B) MUAC < 11.5 cmC) wt < 2 SD for age D) Bilateral pedal edema

232. Which of the following is a class II anti-arrythmic drug ?A) Propranolol B) DigoxinC) Amidarone D) Lidocaine

233. Acute febrile illness with vasculitis having predilection for the coronary arteriesis seen inA) Kawasaki disease B) Adenovirus infectionC) Diphtheria D) Measles

234. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia with thrombocytopenia and renalinsufficiency is commonly seen in young children withA) Sickle cell anemia B) Hemolytic uremic syndromeC) Malaria D) S.L.E (systemic lupus erythematosus)

235. Cherry red skin is seen in which poisoning ?A) Cyanide B) MethhaemoglobineuriaC) Methanol D) Carbon monoxide

236. The initiation of the first breath in a newborn is due to

A) ↑ pH; ↑ PaO2; ↓ PaCO2 B) ↓ pH; ↓ PaO2; ↑ PaCO2

C) ↓ pH, ↓ PaO2, ↓PaCO2 D) ↓ pH; ↑ PaO2, ↓ PaCO2

237. Prodromal symptoms of eclampsia are all EXCEPTA) Severe Headache B) VomitingC) Epigastric pain D) Convulsions

238. Following is true about oxytocinA) It is decapeptideB) Synthesized in posterior lobe of pituitary glandC) Alcohol stimulates its releaseD) It has half life of 3-4 minutes

239. Regarding prenatal genetic diagnosis (PGD) all are correct EXCEPTA) Blastomere biopsy increases fetal anomalyB) Linkage analysis is necessary when gene has not been sequencedC) Polar body biopsy cannot assess paternal genotypeD) Fetal cells recovered from maternal blood can detect fetal chromosomal anomaly

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240. All are features of infant born to diabetic mothers EXCEPTA) Obesity B) Learning DisabilityC) Ketotic hypoglycaemia D) Future Diabetes Mellitus

241. Commonest cause of First trimester abortion isA) Monosomy B) TrisomyC) Triploidy D) Aneuploidy

242. Bishop’s score includes following EXCEPTA) Effacement of cervix B) Contractions of uterusC) Dilatation of cervix D) Station of head

243. Which of the following is the most dangerous cardiac lesion in pregnancy ?A) Mitral stenosis B) Mitral regurgitationC) Ventricular septal defect D) Eisenmenger’s syndrome

244. Chromosomal complement of primary oocyte isA) 23 Y B) 23 X C) 46 XX D) 46 XY

245. Asymmetrical fetal growth restriction is associated withA) Chromosomal aberration B) Viral infectionC) Idiopathic D) Placental insufficiency

246. Shoulder dystocia is common withA) Preterm birth B) Placenta previaC) Postdated pregnancy D) Polyhydramnios

247. Commonest cause of Maternal Mortality in India isA) Eclampsia B) SepsisC) Obstructed labour D) Haemorrhage

248. The most common form of compound presentation during labour isA) Head & foot B) Head & handC) Head & cord D) Breech & hand

249. The dose of Anti-D to be given after full term delivery in a non-immunisedD-negative woman isA) 100 μ gm B) 200 μ gm C) 300 μ gm D) 400 μ gm

250. In active management of 3rd stage of labour, Inj methylergometrin is givenA) After delivery of placentaB) After delivery of babyC) At the delivery of Anterior shoulderD) After postpartum haemorrhage

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251. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) by MTP Act is permitted uptoA) 12 wks. B) 16 wks. C) 20 wks. D) 24 wks.

252. Red degeneration of fibroid commonly occurs inA) Postpartum B) Antepartum C) Intrapartum D) Abortion

253. Streak ovaries are seen in which one of the following syndrome ?A) Triple X B) Klinefelter’sC) Turner D) Swyer’s

254. In normally menstruating women amenorrhea may be due to the following EXCEPTA) Pregnancy B) AnovulationC) Mullerian Agenesis D) Premature ovarian failure

255. In Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia Type I, undifferentiated cells are confined toA) lower third of the epithelium B) lower 50-75% of the epitheliumC) entire thickness of epithelium D) none of the above

256. If woman desires future fertility in case of early carcinoma of cervix (stage I) herbest option isA) RadiotherapyB) Cone BiopsyC) CauterizationD) Radicle tracheolectomy with pelvic node dissection

257. Most common cause of supracellar enlargement with calcification in brain inchildren on C.T. scan isA) Craniopharyngioma B) AstrocytomaC) Meningioma D) Supracellar tuberculoma

258. Hyperdense basal ganglia and hypodensity of the white matter on CT scan isdiagnostic ofA) Alexander’s Disease B) Krabbe’s DiseaseC) Canavan’s Disease D) Metachromatic leukodystrophy

259. Which of the following is a feature of malignant GIST of gastrointestinal tract ?A) Lobulated contourB) Striking absence of regional lymphadenopathyC) Endophytic growthD) Tumor homogenecity

260. Modality of choice for diagnosis of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis isA) Scintigraphy B) MRIC) CT Scan D) Ultrasonography

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261. T1 and T2 images are features of one of diagnostic modality enumerated belowA) USG B) CT Scan C) PET CT D) MRI

262. Hysterosalpingography Procedure (HSG) should be performedA) During ovulation periodB) Just after ovulation periodC) During the period of menstrual bleedingD) In first half of menstrual cycle, following cessation of bleeding

263. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia through foramen of Bochdalek is situatedA) Anteriorly B) Postero laterallyC) Diaphragmatic hiatus D) Antero laterally

264. Absence of clavicle is a feature ofA) Cleido cranial dysplasia B) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasiaC) Fibrous dysplasia D) Cranio-metaphyseal dysplasia

265. In Radiotherapy, electrons are mostly used to treatA) Prostate cancer B) Brain tumoursC) Retinal Malignancies D) Skin cancers

266. Which of the following radioisotopes is most commonly used for HDRbrachytherapy treatment ?A) I – 125 B) CO – 60C) Ir – 192 D) CS – 137

267. Craniospinal axis irradiation is indicated in the management ofA) Glioblastoma B) MeningiomaC) Astrocytoma D) Medulloblastoma

268. Simulators are primarily used toA) Localize the tumorB) Duplicate the geometry of therapy machinesC) Duplicates the mechanical movements of therapy machinesD) All of the above

269. If plasma volume is 3 liters and hematocrit is 0.40, then total blood volume wouldbeA) 6 liters B) 4.5 liters C) 5 liters D) 4 liters

270. The extra osmotic pressure in normal human plasma over and above that causedby dissolved proteins is due toA) Donnan effect B) Starling’s ForcesC) Nernst potential D) Reynold’s number

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271. When a solvent is moving in one direction, it tends to drag along some moleculesof solute. This is calledA) Filtration B) OsmosisC) Donnan effect D) Solvent drag

272. Maximum contribution to total plasma osmolarity is byA) Na+ and Cl– B) Plasma ProteinsC) Glucose D) Urea

273. When the surrounding temperature is greater than the skin temperature heat islost from the body byA) Radiation B) ConductionC) Convection D) Evaporation

274. Cobblestone appearance of the conjunctiva is seen inA) Spring catarrh B) Angular conjunctivitisC) Eczematous conjunctivitis D) Trachoma

275. Distant vision is measured at a distance ofA) 1 metre B) 2 metresC) 3 metres D) 6 metres

276. Relative afferent pupillary defect is pathognomonic ofA) Optic neuritis B) Retinal HolesC) Papilloedema D) Macular Edema

277. Physiological blind spot occurs because ofA) Fovea B) MaculaC) Optic disc D) Oraserrata

278. Foster Fuch’s spots are seen inA) Hypermetropia B) IridocyclitisC) Corneal ulcer D) Myopia

279. Satellite lesions are seen inA) Mycotic corneal ulcer B) Bacterial corneal ulcerC) Viral corneal ulcer D) Protozoal keratitis

280. One of the following is NOT a feature of Retinitis PigmentosaA) Arteriolar attenuation B) Optic atropyC) Bony corpuscular pigments D) Disc haemorrhage

281. The phacoemulsification probe has a hallow needle made up ofA) Titanium B) GoldC) Copper D) Zinc

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282. Epiphora occurs inA) Iritis B) TrachomaC) Chronic dacryocystitis D) Acute congestive glaucoma

283. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of LASIK ?A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) KeratoconusC) Amblyopia D) Prior penetrating keratoplasty

284. Most confirmatory sign of endotracheal intubation isA) Chest rise B) AuscultationC) Spirometry D) Capnography

285. The pin index safety system of oxygen isA) 1, 5 B) 2, 5 C) 3, 5 D) 4, 5

286. Respiratory toxicity of oxygen therapy can result in all EXCEPTA) increased pulmonary complianceB) ARDS like syndromeC) pulmonary atelectasisD) bronchopulmonary dysplasia in newborn

287. During airway management in an unconscious trauma patient with possiblecervical injury, one of the following should be avoidedA) jaw thrust maneuver B) neck hyperextensionC) manual neck stabilisation D) application of cervical collar

288. The local anaesthetic with highest cardiotoxicity isA) Lignocaine B) BupivacaineC) Levo-bupivacaine D) Procaine

289. Least pungent inhalational induction agent for children isA) Halothane B) SevofluraneC) Isoflurane D) Desflurane

290. An Aplastic crisis and sequestration crisis during Anaesthesia can occur in whichone of the following disease ?A) ThalassemiaB) Sickle cell diseaseC) Aplastic anaemiaD) Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

291. Hallucinations experienced outside the limits of one’s sensory fields areA) Functional hallucinations B) Extracampine hallucinationsC) Pseudo hallucination D) Reflex hallucinations

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292. Following diagnostic test can be used in identifying person with alcohol relateddisorders EXCEPT

A) SGOT, SGPT B) Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

C) Hemoglobin D) Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT)

293. A drug addict presented to psychiatry OPD with complaints of lacrimation,abdominal cramps, rhinorrhoea, diarrhoea and insomnia. He is suffering from

A) Opioid withdrawal B) Opioid intoxication

C) Cannabis intoxication D) Amphetamine withdrawal

294. All of the following are true about Lithium (Li), EXCEPT

A) Propranolol is effective in Li induced tremors

B) Li is drug of choice for treatment of mania in 1st trimester of pregnancy

C) Li has been effective in treatment of depression associated with Bipolardisorder

D) Most common adverse renal effect of Li is polyuria

295. Personality changes are commonly seen with lesion of which of the following ?

A) Limbic system B) Temporal lobe

C) Frontal lobe D) Occipital lobe

296. Delusion is an abnormal variant of which of the following ?

A) Perception B) Thinking

C) Memory D) Intelligence

297. In a child with ADHD, while treating with drugs, the first choice of medicine isusually

A) Donepezil B) Atmoxetine

C) Clozapine D) Methylphenidate

298. The commonest psychiatric sequelae following traumatic brain injury is

A) Psychotic disorder B) Mood disorder

C) Anxiety disorder D) Substance use disorder

299. All are categories of learning disorders as per DSM IV-TR classification EXCEPT

A) Language Disorder B) Mathematics Disorder

C) Reading Disorder D) Disorder of Written Expression

300. Which of the following condition is called as ‘Pseudo-dementia’ ?

A) Confabulations B) Normal aging

C) Delirium D) Depression

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK