Kamal FMGE MCQ Book

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ContenfsANATOMY

Questions.Answets ruith ExPlanations " "

PHYSIOLOGY

Questions.Answers with ExPlanations " ' "

BIOCHEMISTRY

Questions. . '

Questions..Answers with ExPlanations ..

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY

Questions...Ansuters with ExPlanations''

PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE

Questions....Answers with Erplanations ........

EA& NOSE AND THROAT (ENT)

Questions...Answers utith Exqlanations "

OPHTHALMOLOGYQuestians ".

1-910-49

50-606L-95

96

1,01"

1.00 '

I lt)Answers with ErPlanattons ..

PATHOLOGY

Questtotrs.. "" 1'17 - 126

AnswerswithExplanations" """'727 -1'75

MICROBIOLOGY

PARASITOLOGY

Questions... 214 - 21'5

AnswerstoithExplanations "' "'"'';'- """"2L6 - 22L

PHARMACOLOGY

Questions. ""' 222 - 233

AnswerswithExplanations """"' """"""':" "'234 - 286

I/b - r6t:.

183 - 21.3

287 - 289

290 - 301.

302 - 314

31.5 - 367

368

370

369

377

378 - 387

3SS'- 432Answerc...

Contents

GENERAL MEDICINE.-.:Questions. ....,.. 433 _ 446 ,

AnstpersrcithExplanatiotts .. 447 _ S0g

GENERAL SURGERY

Questions. 570 _ 524Atrsuters with Explanations .. ..........-S2S _ 605

ORTHOPAEDICS

Questions.. .......606 _ 670Anszpers with Explanations .. ...... 677 - 634

PAEDIATRICS

Questions. ....... 635 - 637Answers with Explanations .. ....... 63g _ 650

OBSTETRICS

euestions. .....:. 651 _ 656AnswerswithExplanatiotts .. .....657 _ 679

GYNAECOLOGY

Questions. ..... 680 _ 6g2Ansuters utith Explanations .. ...... 6g3 _ 696

DERMATOLOGY

Questions.... 697 - 699

700 - 772

/rJ - /t+/tJ - /ll

Ansuters with Exptlanations ...

- 723

- 732

733 - 734

735 - 747

Questions.. "....742 _

ANAESTHESIA

Questions....Answers with Explanations ..

PSYCHIATRY

Questions..Answers rnith Erplanations ... "

RADIODIAGNOSIS

Questions..Anszuers with E*lanations ..

RADIOTHERAPY

Answers zuith Explanations ..SEPTEMBER 2O1O

Questiorts...

722

724

743

749

764

742

748

- 763

- 796Answ ers utith Explanations

EMBRYOLOCY

1. Umbilical cord contains:a. 2 arteries and 2 veinsb. 1 artery and 2 .reins

c. 1 artery and 1 veind. 2 arteries and I vein

Septenfuer 2AA5

2. Ligamentum arteriosum is derived from: March 2005a. Ducfus arteriosusb. Ducfus venosllsc. Ducfus utriculosaccularisd. Ductr.rs reunions

3. Arch of aorta develops from:a. Itight fr>r,rrth aortic arch artervb. Left thirci aortic arch arteryc. Left fourth aortic arch arteryd. Right third aortic arch arterv

SeTttemher 2006

4. Lens is derived from:a. Endoderm

b. Surface ectodermc. Mesoderm

d. None of the above

5. Fate of notochord is:a. Annulus fibrosisb. Nucieus pulposusc. Vertebral foramend. Spinous process

March 2007. Septenber2}11

Septentber 2008

5. Trigone of urinary bladder develops from: March 2009a. Mesodermb. Ectodermc. Endoderm of urachusd" None of the above

7. In the adult heart, floor of fossa ovalis represents:

March 2009a. Septum intermediumb. Septum primumc. Septum spuriumd. Septum secundum

8. Which part of the ear has origin from all the three

9. True diverticulum is: March 2010a. Zenker's diverticr.rlumb. Meckel's diverticr-rlumc. Duodenal diverticulumd. Bladder diverticulum

HISTOLOGY

10. Mucous membrane of vagina is lined by:

Septenfuer 2005a, Nonkeratinizecl Stratilied Squamous epiti-relirrmb. Kr..r.rtin i zcd Strirti fied bquamous epithetiumc. Columnar ceilsd. Cuboidal cpitheliutt

11. Gland of Brunrrer's is found in:a. Jejunumb. Duodenum

Bc. Iieumd. All

12. Not a layer of retina:

Seytttmber 2005

September 2007a. Outer limiting membraneb. Retinal pigment epitheliumc. Bowman's membraned. Ganglion cell layer

13. True about cardiac muscles are all except:Septenfuer 2007, Septtemlter 20L0

a. Propertl'of spontaneons and rhythmic contractionb. Cardiac mnscle exhibits cross striationsc. Cardiac r.uscle celis are linear and longitudinal.d. Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nen.e

fibers

14. Simple cuboidal epithelium is seen in: Septenrber 2006a. Skinb. Trachea

c. Oesophagus

d. Thyroifl g|6p4

15. Hassal's corpuscles are seen in: Septenber 2009a. Thymusb. Spleen

c. Bone marrowd. Lymph node

16. Blood testes barrier is formed by the: ScTttember 2009a. Levdig cellsb. Sertoli cellsc. Cerm ceilsd. A11 of the iibtnre'

AN,ATOMY (Questions)

layers of germ layer:a. Auricleb. Tvmpanic membranec" C)ssicles

d. Middle ear car.ity

Mnrch 2070

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Anatomy

17" Fenestrated capillaries are found in all except :

September 2009

a. Renal glomerulib. Intestinal villic. Pancreas

d. Muscle

18. Goblet cells are not seen in: September 2009

a. Colon

b. Trachea

c. Conjunctivad. Esophagus

SUPERIOR EXTREMITY

19. Root value of the Radial nerve is: Septentbu 2005

a. C5,C6

b. c5,c6,c7c. C5,C6,C7,C8

d. c5,c6,c7,c9,T1,

20. Which of the following is an artery of the forearm:

September 2006

a. Brachial artery

b. Axillary artery

c. Uhar artery

d. Femoral artery

21. Insertion of pectoralis major is at: September 2006

a. Lateral lip of bicipital groove of humerusb. Medial lip of bicipital groove of humerusc. In the bicipital groove of humerusd. Clavicle

22. Labourers nerve is another name for which nerve:

March 2007

a. Median nerve

b. Iladial nerve

c. Ulnar nerved. Axillarv nerve

23. Nerve roots involved in Erb's palsy: September 2009

a. C5, C6

b. c6,c7c. C7,C8,T1

d. C5,C6,C7,C8,T1

24. Partial Claw hand is due to:

a. Radial nerve injuryb. Ulnar nerve injuryc. Median nerve injuryd. Axillarv rrerve injurl'

25. Structures piercing clavipectoral fascia are all except:

Septenfuer 2007

a. Cephalic veinb. Thoracoacromial arteryc. Lateral pectoral nerved. Basilic vein

26. All of the following muscles of the pectoral girdle are

innervated by branches from the brachial plexus:except: March 2008

a. Subclaviusb. Serratus anteriorc. Rhomboid majord. Trapezius

27. Nerwe supply to hypothenar muscles is from :

a. Ulnar nerveb. Median nervec. Radial nerved. Musculocutaneous n*lrve

March 20A9

28. Structure passing deep to .lexor retinaculum at wrist:a. Ulnar nerve Septentber 2009

b. Median nervec. Radial nerved. Ulnar artery

29. The ligament which transfers weight of arm to thetrunk: Mnrch 2009

a. Costoclavicularligamentb. Coracoclavicular ligamentc. Coracoacromial ligamentd. Coracohumeral ligament

30. Nerve lying in the spiral groove of humerus is:a. Musculocutaneous nerveb. Ulnar nervec. Radial nerved. Median nerve

September 2009

THORAX

31. The order of neurovascular bundle in the intercostalspace from above downwards is:- March 2005

a. VANb. ANVc. AVNd. VNA

32. Inhaled forgein body usually lodges in the:

September 2007

a. Apex of right lungb. Lorver lobe of right lungc. Apex of left lungd. Lower lobe of left lung

September 2007

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

40. Constrictions in esophagus are seen at all the33. Normal Fluid level in the pericardial cavity:

September 2005

a. 50 mlb. 100 mlc. l5u nud. 200 ml

34. Right common carotid artery arises from:

SePtertuer 2005

a. Right axillary arteryb. Arch of aorta

c. Brachioceplralic arterl'd. Left subclavian arterv

35. Bifurcation of trachea is at which level:

Septenfuet 2006

a. Opposite tirer disc betr,r,een the T3-T4 'rettebraeb. Opposite the disc betr.r'een the T5-T6 r,ertebrae

c. Opposite the disc betu'een the T6-T7 vertebrae

d. Opposite the disc betrveen the T7-T8 r'ertebrae

36. Branches of left coronary artery are all of the

following except:

a. Anterior interventricularbranchb. Left diagonal arteryc. Left atrial arteryd. Posterior interventricularbranch

Septenrber 2006

37. True about arch of aorta are all of the followingexcept: March 2007

a. Situated behind the lower half of the manubriumstemi

b. Right common carotid artery arises from the arch of

aorta

c. It ends at the sternal end of the left second costal

cartilaged. Begining and end of the arch lies at same levei

38. Structures passing through diaphragm through aortic

leveis except: March 2007

a. At ihe begining of esophagus

b. At the site of crossing of esopiragus by aortic arch

c. Where esophagus pierces the diaphragrnd. At the point of crossing of thoracic duct

41. Commonest location of diaphragmatic (bochdalek)

hernia in childrens is:a. Retrosternalb. Posterior and leftc. Posterior and rightd. Ct:ntral

March 2007

42. lVhich of the following does not drain into coronary

slnus:a. .Antclit'r cartiiac vr'irr

b. Small cardiac veinc. Middle cardiac veind. Great cardiac vein

,\hrclt 2009

43. True about Thoracic part ol syrnpathetic trunk:September 2007

a. The first five ganglia give preganglionic fibersb. The sympathetic trunk l.ras 13 segmentally arranged

gangliac. It is the most medially placed structure in the

mediastinumd. The first ganglion is often fused witir the inferior

cervical ganglion to form the stellate ganglion.

44. Length of esophagus in adults is: Septentuer 2005

a. 25 cmh. l0 cm

c. 15 cnr

d. 20 cm

45. Base of the heart is formed mainly by: Septanber 2008

a. Right.rtriumb. Left atriumc. l{ight vcntriclt'd. Left ventricle r,

lt::''46" In mid clavicular plane, lower border of lung lies at ,;i:it.,,i,;,.,

level of: SeTttenfucr 2008

a. {th rib .

b. oth ribc. 8th ribd. l0th rib '

..47. Shape of tracheal cartilage: Se1ttentber 2008 ' '

a. W shaped ,,: "..b. O shaped '. .; ;

c. C shaped ' ,, :',i.,,

d" Dshaped , ,l';"

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hiatus are all except:

a. Aortab. Azygous veinc. Thoracic ductd. Hemiazygous vein

39. If the circumflex artery gives off the posterior

interventricular artery,then the arterial supply is

called:a. llight dominanceb. Left dominancec. Balanced dominanaced. None of the above

March 2007

March 2007

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Anatomy

48. Arterial supply to SA node is by: March 2009 55. All of the following statements regarding the deepa. Left anterior descending coronarv ar.teryb. Posterior inten entricular (descending) arteryc. Left coronary arteryc1. Right coronary artery

49. Muscles involved in quiet expiation: Septentber 200ga. Diaphragmb. Intercostai muscresc. Boih of the aboved. None of the above

50. Azygous vein drains into: Septentber 2009a. Right srrbcostal veinb. Superior vena ca\.ac. Braciocephalicc1. Riglit ascending lumbar r.ein

51. Cardiac dorninance is determined by coronaryartery: Sc1ttunber 2009a. Suppl_ving circulation to the SA nocieb. Supplying circulation to the inferior portion of the

interrrentricuiar septumc. Supplying circulation to the interairial septumd. Supplying circulation to the anterior portion of the

interventricular septum52. SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with:

Septentber 2009

fascia of the thigh are true except: Mnrch 2008a. It splits in the gluteal region to enclose gluteus

marimus muscleb. Iliotibial tract forms a sl-reath for tensor fasciae laiae

musciec. medially the fascia is thickened to fonn itiotibial

tractd. It is also known as fascia lata

57. True regarding relationship of sac in femoral herniaSeptenfuer 2009

Iliac artery except:

Marclt 2005a. Ovarian arteryb. Superior vesical arteryc. Middle rectal arteryd. Inferior vesical artery

59. Which of the following doesn't prevent prolapseof uterus: Mnrch 2005a. Perineal bodyb. Pubocervical ligamentc. Broad ligamentd. Transverse cervical ligament

60. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain from all ofthe following except: September 2005a. Urethrab Anal canal belor,r. the pectinate linec. Clans penisd. Perineum

61. Cerota's fascia is:a. Renal fascia

b. Fibrous capsule

c. l,aycr of perirenal fatd. Layer of pararenal {at

62" Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in

a. Inlernal oblique aponeurosis

b. External oblique aponeurosis

c. Transverse abdominis aponeurosisd. !-iterna] oblique muscle

Septembcr 2005

with the pubic tubercle :

a. Above and lateralb. Belorv and lateralc. Abor,e and mediald. Belo.rv and medial

ABDOMEN

58. All are branches of Intemal3

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a. Mediastinal fibrosisb. Lrnnphomac. Lung cancerd. TB mediastinitis

INFERIOR EXTREMITY

53. Inversion and eversion occurs at:a. Subtalor jointsb. Ankle loir-rtc. lnferior Tibiofibular jointd. A11 of the above

54. Vein used in bypass Surgery:a. Cre.rt saphcnous veinb. Short saphcnous veinc. Femoral veind. Brachial vein

55. Muscles taking origin from ischialexcept :

a. AddLrctor longusb. Semimembranosusc. Semitendinosusd" Adductor magnus

March 2005

September 2005

tuberosity are allMarclt 2005

the:

Septentber 2005

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i lvlOl Screening Examination

Scptentutr 2006 71. Regarding kidney, all of the following statements are53. Pouch of Douglas is between:

a. Rectum and Sacrum

b. Uterus and Urinary bladder

c. Bladder and pubis syrnphysis

d. Rectum and Uterus

64.Left testicular vein drains into:

a. Inferior vena cava

b. Left renal vein

c. Portal vein

September 2006

d. Sr.rperior vena cava

65. Which of the foliowing is not supplied by Superior

true except: September 2007

a. Tl'rey lie at the vgltgl-rral level T12 to L3

b. Retroperitoneal organc. Left kidney is situated lorver than the rightd. Left kidney is located siightliz more medial than the

72.True about fallopian tubes are all except :

September 2007

Lined by cuboidal epitheliumisthmus is the narror,r'e'r p<-rrt of the fube that links tothe uterusTubal ostium is the point rr'here the tubal canal

meets the peritr'rneal cavityMiillerian ducts develops in females into the

Fallopian tubes

73. Short gastric arteries are branches of: Septeniltcr 2007

'ii:ia.

b

mesenteric artery:

a. Jejunumb. Appendixc. Ascending colon

d. Descending colon

66. Blood supply of the uterus is by:a. Ovarian artery

b. Uetrine artery

c. Both


67. Pudendal nerve is related to:

a. Ischial spine

b. Sacral prornontoryc. Iliac crest

d. Ischial tuberosity

Marclt 2007

68. Kidney is supported by all of the following except:

March 2007

a. Perirenal fatb. Renal fascia

c. Pararenal fat

d. Fibrous capsule

69. Uterine artery is a branch of:

a. Abdominal aorta

b. External iliac artery

c. Femoral artery

d. Intemal iliac artery

70. Superficial inguinal ring in the fernale transmits:

March 2007

a. Broad ligament of uterus

b. Round ligament of the uterus

c. Cardinal ligamentd. None of the above

a. Celiac artery *March 2007 t . Splenic artery

c. Left gastroepiploic arteryd Left gastroepiploic artery

74. Ovarian artery is a branch of:

Marclt 2007

March 2007

September 2007

a. Renai arteryb. Internal iliac arteryc. Abdominal part of the aorta

d. External iliac arterl,

75. Commonest position of appendix:

September 2007, September 2010

a. Pelvicb. Retrocaecalc. Subcaecald. Promontoric

76. Veins draining into portal vein are all except:

September 2007

a. Renalveinb. Splenic veinc. Left gastric veind. Superior mesenteric vein

77. All of the following structures forms the stomach bed

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except:a. Hepatic flexure of colonb. The left kidneyc. The pancreasd. Transverse mesocolcin

78. Lymphatic drainage of ovary is through: March 2008

a. Irreaortic and para-aortic lymph nodes

b. Superficial inguinal l,vrnph nodes

c. Deep inguinal lymph nodesd. Internal iliac lymph nodes

March 2008

Anatomy

79. Source of arterial supply to testis: March 200ga. Internal pudendal arteryb. Deep external pudendal arteryc. Superficial external pudendal arteryd. Testicular artery

80. True about uterus are all except. September 2009a. Normaliy the uterus is retrovertedb. Angle of anteflexion is 125 degreec. Long axis of uterus corresponds to the axis of pelvic

inletd. Posterior surface is related to the sigmoid colon

81. Spleen is supported by all of the following except:

Septenrhcr 2008a. Phrenicocolic iigamentLr. Gastrospie'nic ligamentc. Lineorenal lieamentd. Ligamentum teres

82. True about ureters are all except:a. Constricted at three placesb. It is 25cm longc. Testicular vessels lie anteriorly to the uretersd. It is lined by cuboidal epithelium

83. Not present at the transpyloric level ; March 200ga. Neck of pancreasb. Fundus of stomachc. Left and right colic flexured. L1 vertebra

84. Structures lying posterior to spleen are all of thefollowing except-: September 2009a. 11th ribb. Left lungc. The diaphragmd" The stomach

85. All of the following veins lack valves except

September 2009Femoral veinPortal veinIVCDural venous sinuses

HEAD AND NECK

86. Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube whilesneezing:a. Tensor veli palatinib. Levator veli palatinic. None of the aboved. Both A and B

87. Superior thyroid artery originates from:

September 2005a. Internal carotid arteryb. External carotid artervc. Facial arteryd. Maxillary artery

88. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all of thefollowing muscles except:

a. Cricothyroidb. Lateral cricoarytenoidc. Posterior cricoarytenoidd. Thvroepiglotticus

Septenfuer 2005

89. True about pharyngeal diverticula are all except:

September 2005a. Results due to neuromuscular incoordinationb. Lies in the anterior rvali of pharynxc. They are normal in pigd. Food may get accumulated

90. Number of parathyroid glands in human:

September 2005

b.3c.2

9L. Nasolacrimal duct opens in: September 2005a. The mouth opposite upper 2nd molarb. Middle meatus of nosec. Superior meatus of nose

d. Inferior meatus of nose

92. Not a branch of external carotid artery: September 2006a. InJerior thyroid arteryb. Facial arteryc. Superior thyroid arteryd. Maxillary artery

93. False about facial muscles:

a. Dilates and constrict facial orificesb. Supplied by facial nervec. Develops from 3rd pharyngeal archd. They develop from mesoderm

March 2007

94. Motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is by:

March 2007Hypoglossal nerveFacial nerveLingual nerve

Glossopharyngeal nerve

March 2009

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Mnrch 2005, September 20L0


96. Parotid duct passes through all the following

L03. Branches of external carotid artery are all except:September 2007

a. \{axillary artet:y

b. Ascending pharyngeal arteryc. Superior thyroid arteryd. Ophthalmic artery

104. The facial nerve controls all of the followingfunctions except: March 2008

a. Intensity of the sound reachirg the ear

b. Lacrimationc. Salivationd. Srvallorvir-'g

105. All of tire following structures are within theparotid gland except:

a. Facial artervb. facial nervec. Extemal carotid arrterrr

d. Rctronrandibul;rvein

lt4trclt 2008

106. Which cranial nerve supplies parasympathetic

secretomotor fibres to the submandibular salivary

95. Name of the parotid duct:

a. Stensons ductb. Nasolacrimal du.ct

c. Whartons ductd. None of the above

structures except:

a. Buccopharyngealfasciab. Buccinatorc. Buccal fat padcl. Masesster

97. Thinnest part of scelra is:

a. At the entrance of optic nerve'

b. Site of entrance of ciliary nerves

c. Corneoscleraljunctiond. At the insertion of lecti muscles

except:

a. Middle ethmoidal air sinuses

b. Maxillary sinus

c. losterior ethmoid sinuses

d. Frontal air sinus

March 20a7

March 2007

Mcrch 20()7

98. Cadaver like position of vocal cords is seen in:March 2407

a. Both superior larymgeal nerve palsy

b. Both recurrent laqmgeal nerve palsyc. Both external laryngeai nerve palsv

d. Both internai laryngeal nerve palsy

99. Which of the following extraocular muscles does

not arise from annulus: September 2007

a. Inferior rectus

b" Medial rectusc. Lateral rectus

d. Superior oblique

100. Elevation of iaw is done by all except:

SePtember 2007

a. Temporalisb. Masseter

c. Lateral pterygoidsd. Medial pterygoids

101. Structure not passing through the superior orbital

fissure:a. Superior ophthalmic veinb. Trochlear nervec. Abducent nerved. Zygomatic nerve

Septenfuer 2007

102. All of the folowing opens into middle meatus

gland:a. Vagusb. Trigeminalc. faciald. Glossopharvngeai

107. All of the following are contents of the posteriortriangle of the neck except:

a. Spinal part of accesory nerveb. Trunks of brachial plexusc. Internal jugular veind. Transverse cervical arterv

108. Muscle responsible for intorsion of the eye:

SEttunher 2008

a. Superior obliqueb. Superior rechrs

c. Both of the above


109. Length of the cartilaginous part of external auditory

March 2008

canal:a. 15 mmb. 20 mmc. 25 mmd. 30 mm

110. The nerve that may get injured during removal oftlrird molar is : March 2009

a. lllrprgiossal nerveb. Facial nt'rvec. Lingual nerved. Glossopirart'ngeal nerve

March 2008

Seyttcmber 2048

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Septenrber 2007

Anatomy

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a. Upper 1st molarh I Innpr ?nrl mnl41

c. Upper 2nd premolard. Upper 1st premolar

112. Function of superior oblique muscle is: March 2009a. IntortiorL adduction and depressionb" Intortion, abduction and elevationc. Intortion, abduction and depressiond. Extortiory abduction and depression

113. Safety muscle of tongue is: ltIctch2009, Septmtba.2010a. Styloglossusb. Genioglossusc. Palatoglossuscl. Ht.oglossus

114. Ser.rsory nerve supply to angle of jaw is through:Mnrch 2009

a. Creat auricular ner\reb. Buccai branches of facial nervec. Lesser petrosal nerved. Auriculotemporalnerve

115. Vocal cord abductors is: March 2009,2010;

September 2009a. Lateralcricoarytenoidb. Irosteriorcricoarytenoidc. Cricothyroidd. Thyroarytenoid

116. The muscle which is not supplied by recurrenlIaryngeal nerve is: September 2009a. Thyroarytenoidb. Posteriorcricoarytenoidc. Cricothl'1616[d. Lateralcricoarytenoid

117. Facial nerve does not supply which structure of the

BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD

120. Arterial supplv to dura mater is from all of thefollowing except: September 2005a. Middie meningeal arteryb. Internal carotid artervc. Ascending pharyngeal arteryd. Basilar artery

121. Artery supplying major part of superolateral surfaceof brain is: September 2005a. Middle cerebral arteryb. Anterior cerebral arter.y

c. Posterior cerebral arteryd. Vertebral artery

L22. ln adults, spinal cord ends at the lower end of:

Seylember 2005a. L2

b. r-4

c. Lid. L3

123. Hypoglossal nerve is:a. 6th nerveb. 7th nervec. 12th nerved. 9th nerve

124. Eye ball movements are controlled by all of thefollowing cranial nerves except:a. Optic nerveb. Abducens nervec. Trochlear nerved. Oculornotor nerve

125. Largest cranial nerve is:a. Trochlearb. Trigeminalc. Oculomotord. Vagus

126. Not a tributary of cavernous sinus:

September 2005

September 2006

a. Superior petrosal sinusb, Sphenoparietalsinusc. Inferior ophthalmic veind. Superficial middle cerebral veins

127. Nuclei deep within the medial temporal lobes of thebrain:a. Amygdalab. Raphae nucleusc. Dentate nucleusd. Red nucleus.

'., 111. Parotid duct opens opposite to:

pyramid in middle ear:

a. Incusb. Stapediusc. Malleusd. Tensor veli palatine

March 2009

Marclt 2010

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face:a. Auricular muscleb" Posterior belly of diagastric musclec. Parotid glandd. Submandibular gland

118. Muscle involved in congenital torticollis: It4arclt2010a. Deltoidb. Sternocleidomastoidc. Digastricd. Mylohyoid

1.19. Tendon of which muscle passes through theMsrclt 2010

Septenfuer 2007


L28. Cross section of midbrain at the level of superior

colliculus shows : September 2009

a. Red nucleus and trochlear nerve nucleus

b. Rednucleus and abducent nenre nucleus

c. Red rrucleus and optic nerve nucleus

d. Red nucleus and occulomotor nerve nucleus

1?9. Spinal part of accesory nerve supplies: March 2009

a. Pectoralis major

b. pectoralis minorc. sternocleidomastoidd. deltoid

134. Not involved in damage to cerebellum: March 2010

a. Posfurel-, un,,iil-.i,.-

c. Asthenia

d. Tone

JOINTS

135. Abduction of the thigh is limited by:Septcmber 2009

a. Ischiofemoralligarnentsb. Pubofemoralligamentsc. Iliofemoralligarlentsd Sacroiii.lc lig.rnrt'nt'r "'--'.'-".. - --b".-

136. Ligament resisting hyperextension of hip are allexcept:

a. Ischiofemoralligamentb. Pubofemoralligamentc. Iliofemoral ligament *d. Sacroiliac ligament

Septenrbcr 2009

137. Unlocking of knee is done by which muscle:

a. Adductor magnus sePtembet 2oo9

b. Biceps femoris

c. Popliteus

d. Sartorius

130. Primary auditory area is:r Inierior fpmnnr.rl ulrrrch (lrrirrt>l rnrler

c. Superior temporal gyrusC. Frontai cortex

131. A lesion invoiving upper motor neuron of facialnerve manifests as:

a. Upper half of the face isnormal

b. Left half of the face

c. Right half of the face

d. Upper half of the face normal, lorver haif affected

132. Nucleus ambiguus is not associated with whichcranial nerve:a.Xb" xic. IXd. XII

133. ln neonates, spinal cord ends at:

a. L1

b. L2^ T-L. LJ

d. L4

March 2010

March 2010

MISCELLANEOUS

138. Auricle of the ear is made of:

a. H1'aline cartilage

b. Fibrocartilage

c. Eiastic cartilage

d. None of the abor.e

Mu'clt 2009

March 2009

affected, lorver half

March 2007

z{o=

'* -.:i.:t. l:a:'..'.1..::j::.t.:. ,l: : r.t;:,.4

1..;.,,. t., :;;.;...iii

. . :,: .:

s i.r. I t:t:.:tt:::

':.:,:: ttr:,i:,;,;..ir ,- r.rr;:t::r:i,

,.r.i-.., r :;;tilill

HAEMATOLOCY

1. Normal pH of blood is: Septentber 20A7a.7.30b.7.20c.7.70d. 7.40

2. Monocytes remains in the circulation for: March 2005a. 1-3 days

b. 24 hoursc. 12 hoursd. 6 hours

3. Most common Hemoglobin in normal adult is:

March 2005a. FIbAb. FIbF

c. FIbS

d. HbA24. Carbon di oxide is transported in plasma as:

September 2005a. Dissolved formb. Carbamino compoundsc. Bicarbonate

d. All of the above

5. Most useful method of estimating totalof blood:a. Ferritinb. Transferrinc. Erythropoietind. Lactoferrin

6. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors of hepaticorigin are all of the following except: March 2007a. IIb. VIIc. VIIId.x

7. In sickle cell disease: September 2007a. Glutamtic acid, at position No.5 of beta-globin chain

of haemoglobin is replaced by valine.b. Glutamtic acid, at position No.6 of beta-globin chain

of haemoglobin is replaced by valine.c. Vaiine at position No.6 of beta-globin chain of

haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acidd. Valine at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of

haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid

8. 1 gm hemoglobin binds with: September 2007a. 7.22m1C.2

b. 1.33 ml 02c. 1.44 ml O,d. 1.55 ml 02

9. Substance present in both serum and plasma:

September 2007a. Fibrinogen

b. Factor IIc. Factor VIIcl. Factor V

10. Hemophilia B is deficiency of which factor:

September 2007a. IXb. XIIc. VIIId.x

11. Universal recipients have blood group: March 200g

b.Bc.Od. AB

1.2. Extrinsic system (blood coagulation) is triggered bythe release of:a. Prothrombinb. Thromboplastinc. Fibrinogend. Thrombin

13. Hagemann factor is involved in:a. Extrinsic pathwayb. Intrinsic pathwayc. Fibrinolysisd. None

14. Erythropoietin is secreted by:a. Interstitial cells of kidneyb. Extraglomerular mesangial cellsc. Macula densa

d. Renal tubular epithelial cells1.5, Plasma makes :

a. 20% of Body Weightb. 15%ofBodyWeightc. 1.0"/" of Body Weightd. 5% of Body Weight

September 2008

March 2009

March 2009

ASSESSIfENTGElMCr SCREENTN

PHYSIOLOGY (euestions)

iron contentMarch 2007

ti74,:t:,)

March 2009


16. Heparin inhibits the active form of the following 25. Cardiac output depends on all of the followingfactors excePt:

a.Vb.xc. XId. XII

17. Autoregulation is seen in:a. kidneyb. Brainc. Musclesd. All of the above

September 2a09

18. Factor required for ervthrocyte stability: llarch 20lAa. Ank,vrinb. Spet--trin

c. NADPIId. Al1 of ti-re above

L9. Extrinsic system of coagulation is checked by:

except:

a. Cardiac rate

b. Bocly surface area

c. Stroke volumed. Cardiac contractili['

26. QRS cornplex is due to:a. Ventricular repolarizationb. Atrial depolarizationc. Conduction through AV noded. Ventricular depolarization

September 2005

Selttember 2008

27. Vitanrin K causes carborylation of all of thefollowing clotting faclors except: S':ptentber 2006a. Ilb. VIIc. VIIId. IX

28. Mean pulmonary artery pressure is: Septenfuer 2007a. 10 mm Hg *.

b. 15 mm Hgc. 20 mm Hgd. 25 mm Hg

29. Mean arterial pressure is calculated as: March 2009a. Diastolic pressure +1i3 (Systolic pressure- diastolic

pressure)b. Systolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure- diastolic

pressure)c. Diastolic + 1l3rd of systolic pressured. Arithmetic mean of systolic and diastolic pressures

30. Blood flow in the vessels supplying thesubendocardial portion of left ventricle occursduring: September 20A9

a. Systoleb. Diastolec. Throughout the cycled. Diastole and mid half of systole

31-. Coronary vasodilation is caused by: September 2009

a. Adenosineb. Noradrenergic stimulationc. Hypocarbiad. All of the above

32. True statement regarding purkinje fibres:September 2009

a. Are myelinated fibresb. Have action potential about a tenth as long as those

in the heart musclec. Have conduction velocify of four times than that of

the heart muscled. All of the above

SeptenLber 2005

c. Hereditary spherorytosisd. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

21. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of:September 2007

a. Spectrinb. Pyruvate kinasec. Cytokeratind. Integrin

22. Raised aPTT is seen in which of the following

a. aPTTb. PTc. BTd. PTT

20. Reticulocytosis is not seen in:a. Chronic renal failure anemiab. Hemorrhage

bleeding disorder:a. Hemophilia Ab. Hemophilia B

c. Von-Willebrand diseased. Henoch - Schonlein purpura

CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

23. CVP denotes pressure of:a. Left ventricleb. Left atriumc. Right ventricled. Right atrium

24. The first heart sound is due to:

Mnrch 2010

Mnrch 2010

March 2009

September 2005

September 2005

TIa-oroo

a. AV valves closure

b. Closing of aortic and pulmonary valvesc. Opening of AV valvesd. Opening of aortic and pulmonary valves

33. Negative waves in jugular venous pulse: March 2010a. A waveb. V wavec. C waved. X wave

34. ECG changes seen in hypocalcemia: March 2010a. ST segment depressionb. Prolongation of ST segmentc. Inversion of T waved. Prolongation of PR segment

35. Left ventricular failure is said to be present ifpulmonary capillary wedge pressure exceeds:

Septenfuer 2009a. 5mmHgb. 10 mm Hgc. 15 mm I{gd. 20 mm Hg

ENDOCRINOLOCY

36. Anterior pituitary gland secretes all of the following

I

41. True regarding glucose tolerance test are all except:

September 2007a. Can be done in fasting as well as post prandial stateb. 1 gram of glucose/kg body weight is administeredc. Glucose levels are checked after 2 hoursd. Diagnosis of diabets mellitus can be established

42. Which one of the following statements describesdiabetes mellitus: September 2007a. Rise of blood sugar of 50 mg/100 ml in oral glucose

tolerance testb. Fasting blood sugar value more than 200 mg/100m1c. Post prandial rise of blood sugar more than

50 mg/100 mld. AII of the above

43. Which of the following causes hypocalcemia:

September 2008a. Parathormoneb. Thyroid hormones o

c. Calcitonind. 1, 2S-dihydroxycholecalciferol

44. The hormone which helps in milk secretion:September 2008, September 2010

a. Oxytocinb. Grorvth hormonec. FSH

d. Prolactin45. Features like hypogonadism, dwarfism, loss of hair,

pigmentation and ulcets of skin and decreasedimmunity are associated with deficiencv of:

September 2008a. Ironb. Zincc. Iodined. Copper

46. Long term status of blood sugar is explained by:Septenfuer 2008

a. FIbAb. Serial measurement of FBS

c. Oral glucose tolerance testd. HbAlc

47. Suprarenal medulla secretes which hormones:

a. Glucocorticosteroidsb. Catecholaminesc. Androgensd. Mineralocorticoids

Physiology

;-

except:

a. GHb. TSH

c. FSH

d. GnRH

37. TSH is normal in:a. Hyperthyroidb. Euthyroidc. Hypothyroidd. Graves

March 2005

March 2007

September 2006

38. Which of the following is not related to the calciummetabolism:a. Calcitoninb. 1, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferolc. Vitamin Dd. Thyroxine

39. At what time of the day GH levels are highest:

September 2007a. 2 hrs after sleep

b. 2 hours before sleepc" Eveningd. Early moming

40. Fasting blood sugar in normal individuals is:

September 2007a. 80-100 mg/100 mlb. 100 -120 mg/100 rnlc. I20 -140 mg/100 mld. 140-160 mg/100 ml

Septentber 2009


48. Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in whichhormone deficiencY: September 2009

a. CRI{b. ACTHc. Cortisold. MSH

49. Procedure of glucose tolerance test is: September 2009

a. Giucose load in fed state, measurement of bloodglucose after 2 hours

b. Glucose load in fasting state, measurement of bloodglucose after 2 hours

c. Glucose load in fasting state, measurement oIurinary glucose after 2 hours

d. Glucose load in fed state, measuren-rent of urinarvglucose after 2 hours

50. Corticosteroids suppress:a. CHb. ACTHc. FSH

d. LH51. Thyroxine levels are raised in:

a. Myxedemab. Endemic goitrec. Idiopathic nontoxic colloid goitred. Grave's disease

Septtnber 2009

52. True about Chvostek's sign are all of the followingexcept: March 2010

a. Denotes neuromuscular hyperexcitabilityb. Elicited over face

c. Raised calcium leveld. Facial nerve is stimulated by tapping

EXCRETORY SYSTEM

53. Normal glomerular capillary pressure: March 2005

a. 15

o. z3

c. 35

d. 45

54. Substance which is not absorbed in the loop ofHenle:a. K*b. Ureac. Cld. Na*

55. Reabsorption of Water is maximum in:

March 2005

a. PCTb. DCTc. Collecting ductd. I.oop of henle

56. Glomular filtration rate increases if: Septentber 2005

a. Increased plasma oncotic pressure

b. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure

c. Increased renal blood flo'l,v

d. Increased hrbular hydrostatic pressure

57. Substance used to measure renal perfusion:March 2007

a. InulinL DAUU. I AII.

c. Creatinined. Mannitoi

58. True regarding water absorption in tubules:Septentber 2007

a. N{ajoritv of facultative reabsorption occurs inprox.imai tubule

b. Bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary tosodium absorption

c. 25"/" of 'lvater is reabsorbed irrespective of r,r'ater

balance * -

d. Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent59. Site of action of ADH is: March 2008

a. PCT

b. Vasa recta

c. Loop ofhenled. Collecting ducts

60. What is glomerular filtration rate? Morch 2008

a. 100 ml/minb. 125 ml/minc. 150 ml/mind. 775 ml/min

61. Active resorption of sodium ion occurs in:March 2008

a. Ascending loop of henle

b" Early distal tubulec. Proximal tubuled. All of the above

62. PCT absorbs all except:

a. Sodiumb. Amino acids

c. Glucose

d. Hydrogen ions

63. Glucose is reabsotbed at:

a. PCT

b. DCTc. Collecting ductd. All of the above

September 2408

March 2010 .T'-i<';,(n

,;o;r-Q1o,<

September 2009

SEttember 2a08

Physiology

:.{

64. Maximum absorption of NaCl in proximalconvoluted tubule ociurs due to the effect of:

March 2009a. ADHb. Aldosteronec. Atrial natriuretic peptided. Angiotensin II

65. ANP acts at the:a. Proximal tubuleb. Distal tubulec. Collecting tubuled. Henle loop

September 2009

66. GFR decreases with the following: Sc1ttembcr 2009a. Hypoproteinemiab. Hypotensionc. Hvpertensiond. A1l of the above

67. Urinary concentrating ability of kidney increases ifthere is: September 2008a. Increase in renal blood flowb. Increase in GFRc. Decrease in medullary hyperosmolarityd. Contraction in extracellular fluid volume

GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT68. Faecal mass is mainly derived from: March 2005

a. Undigested foodb. Digested foodc. Intestinal secretionsd. intestinal flora

69. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion is:

September 2005a. Gastrinb. Bile acid

c. Bile saltd. Secretin

70. Rapidly absorbed in the stomach is: September 2006a. Proteinb. Carbohydratec. Fat

d. None71. Which of the following is not produced by

hepatocytes:a. Gamma globulinb. Albuminc. Fibrinogend. Prothrombin

72. Urobilinogen is formed in the: September 2006a. I-iverb. Kidneyc. Intestine

d. Spieen

73. Chymotrypsinogen is activated into chymotrypsin by:

March 2007a. Trypsinb. Pepsin

c. Renin

cl. HCI

74. Ion which promotes glucose absorption in the gutrep;ion:

a. Cl

b. K.c. Na*

d. Ca2*

75. ADEK deficiency is seen in:a. Malabsorptionsyndromeb. Obstructive jaundice

c. Deficiency of pancreatic lipased. All of the above

76. Kupffer cells in the liver are:

Se1:tenfuo 2007

September 2007

a. Endothelial celis

b. Secretory cells

c. Phagocytic cells

d. Excretory cells

77.True about active absorption of iron is: March 2009

a. Absorbed in distal ileumb. Absorbed in stomach

c. Not absorbed in duodenum and proximal lejunumd. Decreases follou'ing gastrectomv

78. Mechanism involved in the absorption of glucosefrorn small intestine is which of the following:

March 2005a. Active co-transport with sodiumb. Passive diffusionc. Facilitated diffusiond. Active co-transport with potassium

79. Causes of vitamin 812 deficiency is: September 2006

a. Lack of intrinsic factorb. Diseases affecting terminal ileumc. Fish tapeworm infestationd. All of the above

!',(9.iO'iJt.o;(r) :,

>,I,'O- '

March 2008

September 2006

Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCr screening Examination

March 20A780. Salivary amylase is activated by:a. Sodium Ionb. Chiorine Ionc. Potassium Iond. Bicarbonate Ion

NERVOUS SYSTEM

81. Bipolar cells is seen in:a. Sympathetic ganglionb. Retina

c. Cochlear gangliond. Parasympathetic ganglion

82.All are carried through anterolateral system except:trIarclr 2005

a. Propric'rceptittnb. Ternperafurec. I'aind. Crude touch

83. All or none law is obeyed by:a. Post synaptic potentialb. Non propagated potentialc. Action potentiald. Spike potential

84. Sensory fiber with least conduction velocify:Septentber 2005

a. C- fiberb. Alpha fiberc. beta fiberd. Gamma fiber

85. AII are primary colours except:a. greenb. Bluec. Redd. White

86. True about colour blindness:

September 2005

September 2005a. Autosomal dominant inheritanceb. Tritanopia is the commonest disorderc. Trichromats are unable to appreciate blue colourd. Defect in 1 or more prime colours

87. True about semicircular canals is: September 2005a. Submerged in a fluid called endolymphb. Base of cupula is in close contact with afferent fibres

of cochlear division of the eight cranial nervec. Arranged at right angles to each otherd. Associated with hearing

88. Blind spot of mariotte:a. Fovea centralisb. Optic discc. Macula lutead. Ors serrata

89. Stretch reflex of urinary bladder is integrated at:

March 2007a. Sacral portion of spinal cordb. Lumbar portion of spinal cordc. Substantia gelatinosad. Sympathetic plexus

90. Function of neocerebellum is: SEtentber 2007a. Maintaining posture and equilibriurnb. Planning and programming of voiuntary

movementsc. Maintenance of muscle toned. Propior:eption

91. All of the following are concerned vvith spatialorientation: Septesltr, 2;t1,,a. \rc'stibuiar receptorsb. Eyes

c. Proprioceptors in joint capsuled. All of the above

92. A cut /lesion above the pyramidal tract decussationresults in: Septenfuer 20a7a. Paralysis of the opposite half of the bodyb. Contralateral loss of propioceptionc. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperatured. Contralateral loss of vibration and joint position

93. Which lies in the dorsal column of spinal cord:

Selttenber 2007a. Fasciculus gracilisb. Anterior spinothalmic tractc. Dorsal spinocerebellar tractd. \rentral spinocerebellar tract

94. Phantom limb is explained by:a. Webers lawb. Law of projectionc. Fechners law of degenerationd. Pascals law

September 2007

95. Clasp knife rigitidy is also known as: September 2A07 ,

a. Inverse stretch reflexb. Withdrawl reflexc. Lengthening reactiond. Crossed extensor reflex

96.NeurotransmitterdepletedinParkinson,sdisease:

Septentber 2007 ,

a. Dopamineb. Acetylcholinec. Clutarnated. GABA

March 2005

Marclr 2005

TTaot-oo

March 20A7

Physiology

_lt*irrii:.i,;;:ii;.ri:

.'.Jiil::a';:;i:riitll

97. Function of floccunodular lobe of cerebellum is:

h4arch 2008

a. Co-ordination of movementsb. Equilibriumc. Chemoreception

d. Planning of movements98. Limbic system is concerned with all except:

March 2008

a. Higher functionb. Emotion

c. Memoryd. Planned motor activity

99. Alpha wave in EEG are seen in:a. Mental w.ork

b. Au'ake state

c. Sleep

d. REM sleep

100. Features of occipital lobe of brain are all except:

March 2008

a. Visuai cortex lies in relation to calcarine fissureb. Brodmann's area\7 corresponds to visual cortex

c. Geniculocalcarine fibres from the medial half ofthe lateral geniculate terminate on the superiorlip of the calcarine fissure

d. Its the only area in the brain activated by r,'isual

stimuli10L. Dreaming is common in which stage of sleep:

Septenfuer 2008

a. REM

b. NREMlc. NREM 2

d. NREM3102. White colour vision/Perception of white light is due

to: September 2008

a. Stimulation of red cones more than blue or green

b. Stimulation of blue cones more than red or green

c. Stimulation of green cones more than blue or red

d. Stimulation of red, blue and green cones equally103. All are Neuroglial cells in the CNS except:

Septentuer 2008

a" Oligodendrocytes

b. Microgliac. Astrocytes

d. Kunffer cells

104. True regarding movements of the cilia in the innerear are all except: March 2A09

a. It moves lr.'hen head is rotatedb. It moves rt'hen moving person suddenlv stopsc. It moves r.vhen perilymph moves

d. Its movement is guided by the inertia ofendolymph

105. Electrical response, due to the effect of light onphotosensitive compounds of rods and cones:

March 2009

a. Hyperpolarisationcrccur.s

b. Depolarisationoccurs

c. Spike potential is generated


106. N{aximum number of sodium channels per square

micrometer, is prespnt in: March 2009

a. Cell bodyb. Axon terminal

c. Surface of myelind . Nodes of Ranv ier

1.07. Sweating is mediated by:. March 2009, September 20L0

a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activityb. Noradrenergic mediated sympatheticactivityc. Noradrenergicmediatedparasympatheticactivity

d. Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activity108. Function of a muscle spindle is: Septenfuer 2009

a. Regulates withdrawl reflex

b. Maintains muscle tone

c. Feedback device to maintain muscle lengthd. Ileceptor for inverse stretch reflex

109. Sensory organ for responding to texture is:

September 2009

a. Meissner corpuscles

b. Merkel cells

c. Ruffini corpuscles

d. Pacician corpuscles

110. Acetylcholine receptors are decreased in:

SePtember 2009

a. Lambert-Eaton st ndrome

b. Parkinson disease

c. Alzheimer disease

d. Myasthcnia gravis

March 2008

>:O,'o:J:,'o.rcI)'..>:I..L,,

;a.


111. Alt of the following are cholinergic effects except:

September 2009

a. Taclrycardia

b. Salivation

c. Miosis

d. Bronchoconstriction

112. Properties of alpha waves are all of the followingexcept: September 2009

a. It is most marked in the parieto-occipital area

b. It has a frequenq' of 8-12}12c. Frequency is decreased by low glucose level

d. Seen in REM sleep

i.l3. Melatonin is associated with all of the followingexcept:

a. Vomitingb. Pituitary giand secretion

c. Sleep mechanism

d. ]etlag114. All of the following effects c,rn occur if vagus is

stimulated, except: March 2009

a. Reduction in blood pressureb. lncrease in secretions of the intestinec. Intestinalmusculatureconstrictiond. Bronchialmusculature relaxation

115. Influx of which of the following ion is responsible

for IPSP: March 2005

a. Potassium ionb. Chloride ionc. Calcium iond. Sodium ion

1,1.6. Delta waves on EEG are recorded in: September 2007

a. REMb. 01 NREMc. 02 NREMd. Deep sleep

117. Temperature regulation is chiefly under the control

September 2007

a. Midbrainb. Pons

c" Medullad. Hypothalamus

1.18. Vomiting centre is situated in the: Septenfuer 2008

a. Hypothalamusb. Midbarinc. Pons

d. Medulla

119. Optic nerve is:

a. 1st order neuronb. 2nd order neuronc. 3rd order neuroond. 4th order neuron

September 2009

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

L20. Correct statement regarding high altitude:Septernber 2006

a. Po2 is less

b. Pco2 is morec. In the ait percentage of oxygen is iess

d. Decrease in number of RBC's

121. Less 02 saturation in blood is seen in:SeTttenfucr 2006

a. R-L shuntb. LV obstructionc. RV obstructiond. L-V shunt 1i

122. Shift to right in Orygen dissociation curve is seen in

lii

Mnrch 2010

all except:

a. lncreased PaCO2

b. Decreased PaCO2

c. Increase in 2,3 DPG

d. Decreased pH123. Which is responsible for respiratory drive:

SePtembcr 2()07

a. 02

b. coc. CO2

d. Bicarbonate ions

124. Regarding lung volumes, which of the following istrue: Marclt 2009

a. Functional residual capacity accounts for 75o/o oftotal lung capacity

b. Residual volume keeps alveoli inflated betweenbreaths

c. Vital capacity increases in elderlyd. Residual volume is about 500 ml

125. Bohr effect is described as: Septen*er 2009

a. Decrease in CO2 affinity of hemoglobin when the

pH of blood rises

b. Decrease in COt affinity of hemogiobin when the

pH of blood fallsc. Decrease in O, affinity of hemoglobin n'hen the

pH of blood rises

d. Decrease in 02 affinity of hemoglobin n'hen the

pH of blood falls

March 2007

ntir.rtfr.-:<':aa

l6':r,;o':oi<

of:

Physiology

c. Removing mafure ova,fertilizing it u,ith sperrrrand implanting back in uterus

d. Artificalinsemination129. Ovulation is due to surge of: September 2006,2A10

126" Vagal stimulation causes:a. Increase in rate of respirationh. Incrcase in depth of respirationc. Bronchodilationd. Decreased depth of respiration

1.27. Surfactant is produced by:a. Alveolarmacrophagesb. Lymphocytes in the alveolic. Type I alveolar cellsd, Type II alveolar cells

REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM128. Which of the following describes In vitro

Septentber 2005a. Method to judge the time of ovulation so that

cortus can result in fertilizationUse of hormones to prom()te fertilizafion in thetubcs

a. FSHb. LHc. Prolactind. TSH

130. Milk ejection is facilitated by:a. Oxytocinb. Growth hormonec. FSHd. LH

L31. Separation of first polar body occurs at the time of:September 2007

a. Fertilizationb. Ovulafionc. Implantationd. Menstruation

132. All of the following are indicators of ovulationexcept: March 2008a. Increase in cervical mucusb. Abdominal crampsc. LH surged. Fall in body temperature

133. Fertilization occurs in which part of the fallopiantube:

a. Fimbrialb. Isthmus

c. Ampuilad. Interstitial

134. Sperm becomes mobile in: March 200ga. Vas deferens

b. Prostatic urethrac. I'estis

d. Epididymis135. Asthenospermia means: September 2005

a. Reduction in number of spermsb" Reduction in motility of spermsc. Absence of spermsd. Absence of semen

136. Ovulation occurs: Sqttember 2005a. 14 days after menstruationb. 1,4 days prior to next menstruationc. On 14th day of the cycleii. None of the above

137. Term period for embryonic period: Septenrber 20a6a. 0-14 days of gqstationb. 74 days to 9 weeks of gestationc. 9 weeks to birthd. 22 weeks intrauterine to 7 days after birth

L38. Impotency may be seen in: September 2007a. Mumps orchitisb. Testosetronedeficiency

c. Prolactinoma

d. All of the above

MISCELLANEOUS

139. Charecteristic of smooth muscle cells in intestineMarch 2005

a. Does not have actin and myosinb. Cannot do sustained contractionc" It contracts when stretched in the absence of any

extrinsic innervationd. Does not require calcium for contraction

140. Osmolality of plasma in a normal adult:

September 2005a. 320-330 mOsmllb. 300-310 mOsmAc. 280-290 mOsm/Ld. 260-270 mOsm/L

141. Hydrogen ion is eliminated by:a. Kidneyb. Lungs

c. Livercl. Stomach

September 2009

March 2UA

March 2007

>lOlOiJ..r9;A'.),rItio.,

September 2007 September 2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screerring Exarnination

142. Which ion helps is resting membrane potential in

neurons:a. Potassium

b. Calcium

c. Chlorided. Sodium

143. Metabolic acidosis is seen in all except:

SePtember 2005

a. Diabeticketaacidosis

b. Emphysema

c. Aspirin overdose

d. Uremia

144. Magnitude of action potential is mainly affected by:ScYtenfuer 2005

:r. Calcium ionb. Hvdrogen ionc. Sodium iond. Potassium ion

145. Type of exercise done to increase the muscle

Scptenbu 2005

strength:a. Aerobic isotonic

b. Isometricc. Isotonicd. All of the above

146. Nicotinic receptors are seen in all except:

SePtentber 2007

a. Neuromuscularjunctionb. Autonomic ganglia of autonomic nervous svstem

c. Bronchial smooth muscled. Brain

L47. Normal limit for postprandial (after 2 hours) bloodglucose level (in mg/dl-):a. 80-110

b. 110-140

c. 1.40-770

d. 170-200148. BMI of underweight individual:

a. Less than 18.5

b. 18.5-24.9

c. 25-29.9

d. More than 30

March 2008

March 2008

149. Most abundant ion in intracellular fluid is:

SePtember 2008

a. Proteinb. Bicarbonatec. Potassiumd. Sodium

150. Nearly 20"/o of normal tensile strength of tissue at

the site of wound is gained after: September 2008

a. 1 rn'eek o{ rvound healing

b. 2 u,eeks of r,vound healing

c. 3 weeks of n'ound healing

d. 4 weeks of rvound healing

151. Major contribution to plasma osmolality is by

which ion:a. Sodium

b. Potassium

c. Clucose

d. Calcium

Mrch 2009

152, A11 of the following changes are seen in chronic

starvation except: Septtittber 2009

a. A11 fat stores have been useo up

b. Se'u'ere fat and muscle rvasting

c. Brain uses ketoacids as fuel

d. Le','el of serum proteins less than 2.8 g/di- :

153. Repolarization of a nerve ts due to: Septutrber 2t)09 :

a. Hydrogen ions

b. Potassium ions ,

c. Sodium ions

d. Calcium ions

154. Which interleukin is needed for differentiation of

eosinophils:a. IL1

b. IL,2

c. IL4d. IL5

155. Bicarbonate exchange occurs in:

Scptr:nrber 2009 '

Septembt:r 2009

a. Kidneyb. Lungc. None of the above

d. Both of the above

156, Size of action potential is decreased as a result of;

Nlarch 2010

a. Lower extracellular sodium

b. Raised extracellular calcium

c. Lorver extracellular calcium

d. Raised extraceliular sodium

157" With glucose which of the following is transported:March 2010

a. Hydrogen ions

b. Potassium ions

c. Calcium ions

d. Sodium ions

Scptunber 2005 ,T.Ir<:a.orl-o,o<

l::i il irl-:i:iirrl 1:r,.':

,.', . . i

...'.., ',t

'

*i

Physiology

158. During pregnancy/ deficiency of which vitamin inwomen causes neural tube defect in the newborn:

Mnrch 2010a. Thiamineb. Pyridoxinec. Folic acidd. C1'anocobalamin

159. What is the BMI for obese person:a. Less than 19.5b. 18.5_24.9

c. 25-29.9d. More than 30

160. A disease occurring before 65 yr of age is termed as:

a. Senileb. Pre senile

September 2007

c. Post adolescentd. Post senile

161. Main content of bilayer cell membrane is:

March 2009a. Glycerolb. Cholesterolc. Cholesterol esterd. Triacyl glycerol

162. Oily substance secreting gland is: September 2009a. Sweat glandb. Meibomian glandc. Salivary glandd. Lacrimal gland

March 2010

(,oJoU)

ro.

i..

lt,

,:.1, .' ,

l , :,.

,.

,

SIELF ASSESSlvfgN"gGn/McI SCRFEwING

BIOCHEMISTRY (euestions)ENZYMES

1. Which of the following is an important marker formyocardial infarction:a. LDHb. CK-MBc. Troponinsd. All of the above

2. Enzymes are usually:a. Lipidb. Nucleic acirlsc. Carbohvdratesd. Protein

3. Other name of AST:

September 2005

Septentbt 2()05

St:ptf c117lg7'tggga. SGOTb. SGPTc. Alkalinephosphatased. Acid phosphatase

AMINO ACIDS AND PROTEINS METABOLISM4. Ammonia is detoxified in brain by: March 2005

a. Creatinineb. Uric acidc. Glutamined. Urea

5. Thyroxine is synthesized from: March 2005a. Phenylalanineb. Tryptophanc. Tyrosined. None of the above

6. In intermittent porphyria, what is present in theurine:

September 2005a. Biliverdinb" Uroporphl'rinc. Porphobiiinogensd. Bilirubin

7. Essential amino acids are named so: Septenther 2005a. Because they are produced in the bodyb. Because they are not produced in the bodyc. They are not important for lifed. Every food stuff essentially c<lntains them

8. Niacin is synthesized from:a. Phenylalanine

b. Tryptophanc. Tyrosine

"d. Methionine

9. Tme regarding glutamine is:a. NH3 transporter

b. Cannot cross the blood brain barrierc. 'Ioxic substance in tlre bodyd. Stored in smooth muscle

March 20a7

10. Sotrrce of nitrogen in urea cycle is: Septenfuer 200ga. Glutamate and aspartate

b. Glutamate and NH3c. Arginine and aspartaite

d. I\l{3 and aspartate

11. C peptide is part of: Septenfuer 2007a, Pro-insulin

b. Insulin

c. ACTH a

cl. Gror.vth hormone

12. Glutathione is: March 2009a. Dipeptide

b. Oligopeptide

c. Tripeptide

d. Poll'peptide

13. True regarding ubiquitin is: September 2009a. Product of purine metabolisrnb. Protein destructions

c. Present in prokarvotesd. Protein synthesis

14. Best indicator of protein quality is: March 2005a. Net protein utilizationb. Digestibility coefficienrc. Biological valued. Amino acid score

15. Limiting amino acid in wheat are: Marclt 2005a. Lysine, arginine

b. Threonine, methioninec. Lysine, threonine

d. Lysine, methionine

L6. Secretory proteins are synthesized in: Mnrch 2005a. Cytoplasm

b. Endoplasmic reticulumc" Both of the above


,I

h;s'Fr,8,.ft:F.

$iH$;Egp;ErF":5;:F,.EiiC1i

trE

&a;i):j..:l

:..:

i.,,,

Septenfuer 20a5


1.7. Pulses are deficient in: Septentber 2005,2010

3. Lysineb. Methioninec. Bothd. None of the above

18. Tyrosine becomes essential in which of the followingcondition: September 2005

a. Wilsons disease

b. Alkaptonuriac. Thyrosinosisd. Phenylketonuria

L9. Mousy odour urine is present in:a. Phenvlketonnriab. Maple svrup urine disease

c. Tyrosinemiad. Homocystinuria

CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM

20. Hexose sugar is not present in:

Septemher 2409

Septemher 2005

a. Riboseb. Glucosec. Fructosed. Galactose

21. Key glycolytic enzymes in glycolysis are all except:

March 2007

a. Phosphofructokinaseb. Hexokinasec. Pyruvate kinased. Glucose-l,6,diphosphatase

22. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycleinvolves:a. Isocitrate dehydrogenaseb. Fumarasec. Malatedehydrogenased. Succinate thiokinase

23" Andersen disease is due to lack of:a. Branching enzymeb. Debranching enzymec. Acid maltased. Myophosphorylase

24. Insulin is required for glucose transport in all of thefollowing except: March 2009

a. RBCb. Skeletal musclesc. Adipose tissued. Heart muscles

25. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is: March 2009

a. Lysosolic enzymeb. Cytosolic enzymec. Mitochondrialenzymed. A1l of the above

26. What is the end product of anearobic glycolysis:

September 2009

a. Pyruvate

b. Lactate

c. Fats

d" Cholesterol

27. Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzingconversion of aldose sugars to ketose sugars:

March 2010

a. Oxidoreductaselr. Phosnhol riose isonrerase

c. Decarboxvlase

d. Aldolase

28. How many molecules of pyruvate are formed fromcomplete metabolism of 1 molecule of glucose:

March 2005

a. 1

b.2c.3d.4

29. First substrate of Kreb's cycle is:

a. Glycineb. Lipoproteinc. Pyruvate

d. HCI

30. Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism occurs rn

which cycle:

a. Glycolysis

b. Malate shuttle

c. Urea cycle

d. Citric acid cycls

LIPIDS METABOLISM

September 2008

31. Accumulation of sphingomyelin in spleen and liver

September 2005

Mnrch 2005

TD

.o

.c),x,m,='a:{v

March 2007

March 2007

is found in:a. Gauchers disease

b. Obstructive jaundice

c. Von gierkes disease

d. Nieman pick disease

32. Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the

following:a. Sunflower oilb. Coconut oilc. Soyabean

d. Safflorver oil

March 2005

Biochemistry

33. Ail of the following are essential

a. Linolenic acidb. Linoleic acidc. Lysergic acidd. Arachidonic acid

34. AII are bad cholesterol except:a. HDLb. LDLc. \/LDL(-1. IDL

, 35. Cholesterol is:a. t ocopherol

; O Lipoprotein

- c. Steroid

. d. Lipopolysacchriclej 36. Apoprotein of cholesterol is:, a. Apo .A1

ii b. ApoA2i c. Apo C1

r ct. ApoE

37. Carrier of cholesterol:, a. VLDL

b. LDLc. HDLd. Chylomicrons

, 38. L-CAT activator lipoprotein is:

fatty acids except:

September 2A0S

September 2005

September 2005

September 2005

March 2007

March 2007

41' Reduci'g agent used in lipogenesis is derived fronr

a. Pentose phosphate pathrvayb. Glycoll,sisc. TCA cycled. Cluconeogenesis

42. Prostaglandins are derived from :a. Corticosteroidsb. Oleic acidc. I_inoleic acidc-i. Arachidonic acid

43. Ketone bodies are synthesised in:a. Muscleb. lil'syc. Kidneyd. Brain

1n

44. Free fatty acids are transported by :a. Ceruloplasminb. Pre-albumin

c. Aibumind. Transthyretin

March 2009

NUCLEOTIDE METABOLISM47. Final product of purine metabolism is:

Mqrch 2010, Septermber 2010a. Uric acidb. Creatinine

c. Xanthine

d. Phoshphates

48. Production of uric acid is by:a. Protein metabolisrnb. Lipid metabolismc. Pyrimidinemetabolismd. Purine metabolism

45. Building block for fatty acid biosynthesis is:a. NADHb. Acetyi-CoA March 2o1o

c. Acyl-CoAd. Acetate

46. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is:a. HMG -CoA reductase March 2010b. HMG -CoA slmthetasec. HMG CoA lyased. Mevalonate synthetase

March 2009

Marclt 2009

h4arch 2009&Fo=IJJ?'-oodl

. a. ApoAl, U. ApoC2., .. ApoC3

d. ApoE' 39' Deficiency of sphingomyerinease causes: March 2007': a. Niemann-pick clisease

b. Marfan,s syndromet c. Gaucher,s disease

1; d. Von-Gierke,s drsease

4lu. lrue regarding familial hypercholesterolemia is:

a. Deficient VLDL receptorsb. Deficient HDL receptorsc. HMG CoA reductase deficiencyd. Deficient LDL receptors

March 2007 September 2005


MISCELLANEOUS

49. Chitin is a:

a. Polypeptide

b. Fatty ester

c. Polysacchride

d. None

50. Watson's DNA model is :

a. Right handed,parallel

b. l,eft handed,anti parallel

c. Lefthanded,parallel

d. Right handed,anti parallel

51. Northern blotting technique is used for the

separation of: Mnrch 2005, Septtcnrber 2010

a. DNA

b. Protein

c. RNA

d. Protein DNA interaction

52. Which is seen in RNA but not seen in DNA:

September 2405

a. Adenosine

b. Guanine

c. Uracil

d" Thvmine

53. DNA has:

a. r(Dose sugar

b. Deoxyribose sugar

c. Both

d. None

54. Type of collagen found in cartilage:

September 2005

a. Type I

b. Type II

c. Type IIId. Type IV

55. Chaperones are:

a. Mediators of the post-translational

protein complexes

b. Antigen presenting cells

c. Purine metabolism mediators


March 2007

a. Hypoglycemia

b. Hypercholcsterolemia

c. Lipolyiss

d. Ketoacidosis

58. The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its

relation to: Mnrch 2009

a. Fructose

b. Glycogen

c. Glyceraldehyde

d. Glucose

59. Western blotting is done for identifying Marclt 2009

a. Protein

b. Lipids

c. RNA

d. DNA

60" Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibit:

NIarch 2010, September 2010

a. Hexokinase

b. Glucokinase

c. Glucose-6-phosphatase

d. Enolase

61. Which of the following statement if false regarding

Mnrch 2005

March 2005

March 2047

March 2007

assembly of

1w;o..olr-.irfli=':'.U,.:,{.vi<

pairs

c. Single stranded straight DNA ,i r

d. Transmitted by maternai nonmendelian inheritan* , -

62. Palindrome is associated with: Septcnfucr 2009 ,

i . ':ii .i'

mitochondria:

a. Guanine rich strand is referred

strand

b. Each DNA molecule consists of

a. Synthesis of DNAb. Extrachromosomal molecule of DNAc. Sequence of DNAd. Small nuclear RNA

September 2009 ,:

to as the heavy.,,''ll '::. ,r.: i

15,000-17,000 base ', ,,r,'

Biochemistry

a. Prophaseb. Metaphasec. Telophased. Interphase

65. DNA double helix is rnaintained by:a. Hydrogen bondb. Vanderrt'aal forces

Mnrch 20(t9

c. Disulfide iinkaged. Covalentbond

66. Anticoagulant added to blood for estimation ofprothrombin time is: March 2009a. Heparinb. Oxalatec. Sodium citrated. EDTA

67. Which of the following is the radiosensitive stage ofcell cycle: Septenfuer 2()09a. G0

b. G1

c. G2

d.s

EFa=lUIC)o.dI"

PATHOLOGY (Questions)CENERAL PATHOLOCY

1, Invasive carcinoma differs from carcinoma in situ by:

a. Abnormal nuclear morphology March 2005

b. Pleomorphismc. Breached basement rnembrane

d. Mitoses

2. All of the following responses are seen in acute

inflammation except:

a. Vasodilatationb. Neutrophil migrationc. Granuloma formationd. Increased vascular permeabilit-v

March 2005

3. Epitheloid granuloma consists mainly of which typeof cells: March 2005

a. B cells

b. T cells

c. Monocytesd. Macrophages

4. Apoptosis means: September 2005

a. Regeneration of cells after injuryb. Reperfusion injury of the cellsc. Programmed internal cell deathd. Uncontrolled multiplication of cells

5. Red infarct is seen in: March 2007

a. Kidneyb. Heartc. Braind. Smali intestine

5. Metastatic calcification does not occurs in; March 2007

a. Fundal glands of intestineb. Renal tubulesc. Lungs alveolid. Blood vessels

7. Congo red staining for amyloid under polarized lightshows: September 2007a. Silverbirefringenceb. Goidenbirefringencec. Blue birefringenced. Green birefringence

8. All of the following are tumor suppressor genes

9. Following are the examples of apoptosis except:

Scptemher 2008

a. Graft versus host disease

b. Menstrual cyclec. Pathological atrophy following duct obstructiond. Tumour necrosis

10. Hyaline arteriosclerosis is seen in which of thefollowing conditions:a. Tuberculosisb. Hypertensionc. Syphilisd. Leprosv

September 2008

11. Stain used to diagnose amyloidosis: Scptember 2008

a. Methylene blueb. Acid fast stainc. Rose bengald. Congo red *

12. Call-exner bodies are seen in: March 2009

a. Theca cell tumourb. Yolk sac tumourc. Granulosa cell tumourd. Fibroma of ovary

13. If calcium levels are normal, which type ofcalcification is seen:a. Metastaticb. Dystrophicc. Dyspiasticd. Metaplastic

14. Metastatic calcification is seen in:a. Cysts

b. Atheromac. Normal tissuesd. Infarcts

Septembcr 2009

Septentuer 2009

1"5. Myositis ossificans is differentiated from otherreactive fibroblastic proliferations by the presence of:

September 2009

a. Dysplastic boneb. Dystrophic bone

c. Metapiastic bone

d. Hypertrophic bone

15" Extracellular hyaline change is seen in:September 2A09

a. Arteriosclerosisb. Chronic glomerulonephritisc. Leiomyomad. Alcoholic hyaline

except:a. NF1b. pRbc. SMAD1d. p53

September 2007

;, a. Increased permeability

t::ifi a. Warihin-Finkeldey cells'rL, b. N4arked follicular hyperplasial. . '\4oih-eaten appearance,: d. Ali of the above

19. Arnyloid is stained with:a. Lugol's iodineb. h{ethyl violetc. Cor.rgo redd. Sucian black

d. Protective against plasmodium falciparum malaria27.CD-II helps in assessment of which of the followino

ScTtttttbt r 2009

20. Reactionary hemorrhage occur within: March 2010.. a. 24 hours

,, o 7-2 d'ays

i: c. 2-4 days

, d. 4-6 davs

:ii CLINICAL PATHOLOCY:: 21. Bence Jone's protein is:., u Monoclonal heavy chains

D. Monoclonal light chains, .. Both of above

,' d. None o{ the above22. Marker for carcinoma colon is:

a. AFII,, b. cA-125I c" CEA, d. HCG. 23. AFP (alpha feta protein) is raised in:, a. Renal carcinoma

b. Pancreaticcarcinoma, c" Prosiatic carcinoma. d. Hepatic carcinoma

24. CA-125 is marker for:a. Breast cancerb. Ovarian cancerc. Pancreatic cancerd" Colon cancer

September 2005

SeTttenrber 2005

Septentuer 2007

25. Tumor marker related to both colon carcinoma andpancreatic carcinoma:a. CA-125b. cA-19-9c. CD-i5-3d. All of the above

Itiarch 2a. Adult T-cell leukemiab. Hodgkin,s diseasec. M-yc-osis fungoidesd. Larger granular lvmphocl,tic leukemia

23. CEA is eievated in all of the follorving except:

Mnrclra. Alcoholic cirrhosrsb. Ulcerative colitisc. Carcinoma colond. Prostatic carcinoma

ABDOMINAL PATHbIOCY29. Hydatid cyst is commonly found in: Septerfter 2005

a. Lungsb. Liverc. Kidneyd. Brain

30. Most common site of abscess formation due toamoeba is: Septenrber 2005a. Lungsb. Liverc. Kidneyd. Brain

31. All of the following are features of non-alcoholicsteatohepatitis except:a. Hepatocyte ballooningb. Steatosisc. Histological features are different from alcoholic

steatohepatitisd. Mallory bodies

32. Serum marker indicating active viral replication inhepatitis-B is: Septenfuer 20A6a. HBsAgb. HBeAgc. HBcAgd. HBVDNA

33. Which of the following is also known as australia

L7. First change seen in acute inflammation is:

Pathology

September 2009

March 2009

March 2005

September 2008 antigen:a. HBsAgb. HBeAgc. HBcAgd. HBVDNA

26. All of the following are true regarding G6FDdeficiency except: Marcha. A recessive Xlinked traitb. Females are commonly affectedc. Oxidatir,.e stress causes ltemolvsis

September 2005

ooJoIFo-

Septenfucr 2006

t'


34. Hepatitis which spreads by feco-oral route is:

September 2007

3. Hepatitis Ab. Hepatifis B

c. HePatitis Cd. HePatitis D

35. Mallory bodies are seen in all of the following except:September 2008

a. Hepatocelluiarcarcinomab. Non-alcoholichepatitisc. Secondary biliary cirrhosisd. Alcohoiic hepatitis

36. Massive splenomegaly is not seen in: September 2008a. Malariab. Chronic rnyelogenous leukemiac. Syphilisd. Sickle celi anemia

37. True regarding infectivity period of hepatitis A:Septnfuer 2009

and 2 weeks after the onset of

and 1 week after the onset of

and 2 weeks after the onset o{

and 1 week after the onset of

38. Presence of HBeAg in serum of a patient of hepatitis-B indicates:a. Acute, non-infectious stageb. Acute, infectious stagec. Chronic, non-infectious staged. Chronic, infectious stage

39. Lardaceous spleen is a feature of:

September 2009

a. Thalassemiab. Amyloidosisc. Sickle cell anemiad. Malaria

40. Which of the following is associated with primaryhepatic malignancy:a. Cadmiumb. Vinyl chloridec. Chromium compoundsd. Asbestos

41. False about hydatid cyst is which of the following:September 2009

Ideally should be managed by pre-operativealbendazole followed by surgery20% saline is scolicidalMost commonly involves lungPAIR is employed for hepatic hydatid cysts

42. Amoebic liver abscess ruptures most commonly intowhich cavity:a. Peritonealb. Pleuralc. Pericardiald. None of the above

September 2009

43. Alkaline phosphatase is raised in all of the following :filiexcept:a. Obstructive jaundiceb. Placental hrmorc. Prostatic tumord. Skeletal tumor

44. Follwing are the predisposing factors for hepaticencephalopathy except: Septtnrher 20A7a. Gi bleedingb. Hypol;1lgP1;6c. Metaboiic acidosisd. Alcohol

45. Kupffer cells in liver are responsible for:Scptcttfutr 2007

a. Lytic functions ,!b. Excretory functions P

-c. Absorptive functions , t

d. Phagocytic fr-rnctions !i f46. Portal hypertension is said to be present if portal I

venous pressure is more than: !

a. 3-5 mm Hg .,re rnan: lvnrcn lulu

Ib. 5-8 mm Hg :Glc. 10-72mm Hg ' <d. 15-20 nrm Hg

NERVOUS SYSTEM PATHOLOCY :I

47. All of the following are true regarding Guillain-Barre r

March 2010syndrome except: Mnrch 2008a. Peripheral nervous system is affectedb. Histologically there is inflammation of peripheral

March 2010

nervec. Descendingparalysisd. Eievated CSF proteins

48. Negri bodies are characteristic of: Septentber 2008a. Tetanusb. Rabies

c. Poliod. AIDS

CARDIOVASCU LAR SYSTEM PATHOLOCY49. Rheumatic fever is commonly associated with

a. 1-2 weeks beforejaundice

b. 1-2 rveeks beforejaundice

c. 2-3 rveeks beforejaundice

d. 2-3 weeks beforejaundice

Septnfuer 2009 "",

c.

d.

affection of:a. Tricuspid valveb. Mitral valvec. Aortic valved. Pulmonary valve

September 2005

Pathology

b. Vegetations along the line of closure of leaf.letsc. Affects damageci valves' d. May be associated rvith hypercoaguiable states, 53. Which of the following is not u .o*porrert of Jones', criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever:

) : March 2008O a. Pancarditisq b. Migrarory polyarrhritis

{ c. Erythema nodosum

V d SYdenham chorea

t , Un.All of the following are true regarding tetralogy ofZ fallot except: "

,arch 200gi,, a. Boot shaped heartt : b. Most common cyanotic heart disease. c. Clinicai consequences depends on severity of

subpulmonic sterrosis

58. Concentric hypertrophy of heart is caused by:

Septembera. Hypertrophic cardiornyopathyb. Congestive heart lailurec. Systemichypcrtensiond. Mitral regurgitation

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM PATHOLOCY59. All of the following are features of

except:

a. Pancreatic hunorb. Pituitary tumorc. Hvperparathyroidisrnd. lvledullary carcinoma of tf,t,xrid

50. Pheochromocytoma is usually associated with:Se1ttember 2007a. Pancreatic exocrine carcinoma

b. Astrocvtomac. Neurofibromatosisd. Neuroblastoma

61. Ectopic ACTH is commonly secreted by:

a. smalr cet carcinoma of the luncs september 2()07

b. Pancreatic carcinomac. Gall bladder malignancyd. Meduliary carcinoma of thyroid l

52. Best for diagnosing pheochromocytoma is:

a. Urinary catecholamines and .n",, -"rifl"ti:"!*'oot '

b. Serum catecholamines and their metabolitesc. CT scan

d. Surgery

63. All of the following are associated withpheochromocytoma except:a. Ventricular arrhythmiasb. Interstitialfibrosisc. Hypotensiond. Ectopic ACTH production

64. Hypocalcemia is seen with which o{ the following:September 2008

a. Thyrotoxicosisb. Hyperparathyroidismc" Acute pancreatitisd. Addison disease

50 Lipofuscin, the golden yellow pigment is seen inMarclr 2007

heart muscles in:a. Atrophyb. Hypertrophl,c. Infarctiond. Hyperplasia

'' t 51.

.:,'li::

Heart failure cells are: Marclr 2007a. Lipofuscin granules in cardiac cellsb. Pigmented hepatocytesc. Pigmented alveolar macrophagesd. Pigmented cells in paitcreasAil.of the. following are true regarding maranticendocarditis except: Ninrtlt 200ga. Vegetation may emi,.oiize

52.

MEN l syndrorng

September 2007

Nlarch 2010

, d- Left ventricular hypertrophy'i 55. All of the following are true regarding Wegener,s

, gt"lYl"matosis except: September 2008.' a. Affects large size biood vessels' b. May affect lungs and kidneys

c. N_ecrotizing granulomu ,r,ui.b* seen on mrcroscop)., d. PR3-ANCAs are present in upto 95% of cases56. All of the following are features of atrial myxomaexcePt:

September 2008a- Ciubbingb. Hypertensionc. Embolid. Fever

57. Biomarker to rise earliest in myocardial

a. Troponin-Ib. Creatine kinase_MBc. Myoglobind. Troponin-T

infarction is:

March 2010


GASTROI NTESTI NAL TRACT PATHOLOCY

65. Longitudinal ulcers in the intestine are seen in:September 2008

6. Tuberculosis

b. Typhoidc. Amoebiasisd. Yersinia

65. Characteristic of amebiasis is:

73. Which of the following is true about celiac sprue:

September 2009

a. Associated with HLA-DII4b. Antiendornvsial antibodies are highly specific and

sensitive than other antibodiesc. Anti-gliadin antibodies are IgA/IgGd. No pre'disposition to malignancv

74. Gardner syndrome is associated with all of theMarch 2005

a. Skip lesionb. Longitudinal ulcerc. Flask shaped ulcerd. Ulcers r'vith raised marp5ins

67. Most common type of malignancy of stomach is:

Septenrbcr 2007a. Aclenocarcinomab. Squamous carcinornac. Anaplasticcarcinomad. Lymphoma

68. True regarding morphological feature of peptic ulcer1S: March 2008a. Usuaily multipleb. More common in the stomachc. Round to oval, sharply punched out defectd. Size and location helps to differentiate between

benign and malignant ulcer69. All of the following are true regarding Crohn disease

except: Mnrch 2008a. Skip lesionsb. Inflammation limited to mucosac. Recurrence common after surgeryd. Fisfulae formation is seen

70. Anti-gliadin antibodies are seen in: September 2008a. Tropical sprueb. Ulcerative colitisc. Crohn diseased. Ceeliac disease

71. Which of the following antibody is highly specificfor celiac disease: Seyttemher 2008a. Anti-gliadin antibodiesb. IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminasec. Anti-endomysial antibodyd. All of the above

72. Which of the following is associated with H.pylori:March 2009

a. Ulcerative colitisb. Crohn disease

c. Celiac sprued. MALToma

following except:

a. Intestinal polyps

b. Osteornas

c. Dcntal atrnormalities

d. Tnmors of the CNS

75. Which of the following is not tme regardinghyperplastic tuberculosis: Mnrch 2005

a. Mass in right iliac fossa mav be the presentingfe,rttrre :

b. Barium studies are helpful in diagrrosis

c. Ileo-caecal junction is common site of invoivementd. Should be managed by surgical resection of the

involved segment

76. Tuberculosis commonly affects which part of theintestine: SeTttenfuer 2005

a. Ileumb. Jejunumc. Terrninal colon

d. Transverse colon

77"Most common location of gastrinoma is:

Se1stenfuer 2007

a. Pancreas

b. Duodenumc. Jejunurnd. Gall bladder

78. Intestinal angina symptom complex includes:

March 2009

a. Post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acutemesenteric vessel occlusion

b. Post-prandial abdominal pain, r.l'eight loss, chronicmesenteric vessei occlusion

c. Pre-prandial abdominai pair; r,veight gain, acutemesenteric vesscl occlusion

d" Pre-prandial abdominal pain, rveight gain, chronicmesenteric vessel occlusion

March 2010

,TlD

i{.I.ol-ro

,O,'<

: c. Both of the above: d. None of the above

81. Heinz bodies are seen in:a. G-6-PD dc-ficienc;,b. Sickle cell diseasec. Herediiary spherocytosisd. PNH

Sr'1ttcnilrt,r

82. Persistent marrow aplasia is caused by whichhepatitis virus:a. HAVb. HBVc. HCVd. None of the above

Seplentl,cr 2006

83. t(9;22Xq34;q11) translocation is commonly associatedwith:a. AMLb. ALLc. CMLd" CLL

84. In hemophilia, which of the following is raised:

a. BTb. CTc. PT

Septentber 2007

d rPT"F

i:.l. 85. All of the following are true regarding hemolyticanemla except: March 20A8ii.tif: arrcuu4 €reePt:

|i,i,f a" Raised haptoglobin levels

I b. Raised unconjugated bilirubinil, c. Reticulocytosis

i d. Hemosiderinuria indicates intravascular hemolvsis,.., tU.AIl of the following are true regarding CLL excepi:

a. Most common type of leukemia in aclultsb. Males are commonly affectedc. ZAP,70 has prognostic importanced" Affects T-cells

(9iO..J:OlJ.Fti<,j(L, September 2007

,ri

i$..--' I

...,t:r;ii:i.i.}?r.,.ii!:,$:i4,::;:::i:

"I

Pathotogy

March 2oog in:a. M2b. M3c. M4

d. M5

87. All of the following are causes of aplastic anemiaexcept:a. Heparitisb. Gold saltsc. Hepatocellular carcinomad. Fanconi anemia

March 2A0B

c. Specific for CI\{Ld. Desigriated as t(9;22)(q34;q1i)

89. Thalassemia is inherited as:a. Alttosomal domLnantb'. Autosomal r.r,cessivt,

c. Xlinked dominantd. Xlinked recessive

90. Auer rods are seenrjn:a. ALLb. AMLc. CLLd. CML

91. Trisomy 21 is associated with:a. ALLb. AMLc. Both of the abor.ed. None of the above

Septcntbcr 2(t0g

Septenrlter 200g

Septemher 2008

92. Iron deficiency anaemia is seen with all of thefollowing except:a. Chronic blood lossb. Achlorlrydriac. Extensit.e surgical removal of the

boweld. Excess of meat in the diet

93. Gum hyperplasia is seen with:a. AMLb. CMLc. ALLd. CLL

Septenfuer 2008

94. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are numerous

88. True regarding philadelphia chromosome are all ofthe following except; March2\\ga. Present in 95% of CML patientsb. lt is the result of a reciprocai trar_rslttcation

March 2u09

Septentber 2009

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination

95. Increased osmotic fragility is characteristic of:

Septenfuer 2009

a. Hereditary spherocytosis.

b. Sickle cell anemia

c. Thalassemia

d. Iron deficiency anemia

96. All of the following are true regarding the findings

of peripheral smear in vitamin 812 deficiency except:

March 2010

a. Hypercellular marrow

b. Poikilocl'tosis

c. Hypersegmented neutrophils

d. Microcvtic red cells

97,DIC may be caused by:

a. Proionged pregnancy

b. Fat embolism

Septenfuer 2007

c. Amniotic fluid embolism

d. All of the above

EXCRETORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY

98. Adult polycystic kidney disease is inherited:

March 2005

a. X-linked dominantb" X{inked recessive

c. Autosomal recessive

d. Autosomal dominant

99. All of the following are true regarding minimalchange glomerulonephritis except: March 2005

a" Poor response to steroids

b. Normal glomerulusc. More common in childrens than adultsd. Absence of podocytes

100. Normal to increased kidney size is seen in all of the

following except: September 2008

a. Diabeticnephropathyb. Polycystic kidneyc. AIDS related nephropathyd. Chronicglomerulonephritis

101. Following circulatory shock, which of the followingoccurs:

a. Acute tubular necrosis

b. Acute papillary necrosis



102. A patient with nephritic syndrome will not have

September 2009

a. Hematuriab. Mild to moderate proteinuriac. Hypertensiond. Normal RBC

103. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of thefollowing except: March 20L0

a. Hematuriab. Edema

c. Hypertensiond. Massive proteinuria

L04. Beta-naphthyl amine dyes predisposes to:

Septentber 20()5

a. Urinary bladder Carcinomab. Renal carcinornac. Hepatic carcinomad. Lung carcinorna

105. Flea bitten kidney is seenin all of the followingexcept:

a. Malignanthypertensionb. Henoch-Schonleinpurpura

Septentuer 2007

c. DMd. Polyarteritisnodosa

105. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated with:September 2009

a. Henoch-Schonleinpurpurab. Hemolytic uremic s)'ndromec. Hypertensiond. Diabetes Mellitus

107. Spider-leg sign on IVP is suggestive of: March 2010

a. Pyelonephritisb. Renal artery stenosis

c. Polycystic kidney disease

d. Bilateralhydronephrosis

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM PATHOLOCY

108. Exudative pleural effusion is seen in:a. Pneumoniab" Nephrotic syndromec. Congestive cardiac failured. Cirrhosis

109. Few RBCs, raisede neutrophils with some

hemorrhage in alveoli is seen in: Marc:h 2005

a. Cray hepatizationb. Red hepatizationc. Viral pneumoniad. Resolving phase of lobar pneumonia

:.7;l>1i{jlI,ioi:|-ioio;.{

March 2005

l.

March 2009

Pathology

110. Community acquired pneumonia is most commonlycaused by: Scptenber 2005 and hlarch 2005a. Staphylococcusaureusb. Streptococcuspneumonraec. H.influenzad. Klebsiella

111. Which is of the following is an obstructive lungdisease:a. Bronchiar asthma

septttnber 2005

b. Chronic bronchitisc. Bronchoectasisd. All of the abovt

112. Disease causecl by cotton is:' a. Bl,sinosisb. Bag.rssosisa. Fanner:,s lungd. Asthma

r 113. F{eids index is increased in:.' a. Bronchial asthma

b. Bronchiectasrs

,, c Chronic bronchitis. d. Pneumonia' 114. Curschmann,s spiral are seen in:

a. Bronchial asthmab. Bronchiectasisc. Chronic bronchitsd. Emphysema

115. Which is not a part of Kartageners syndrome:

a. Sifus inversusb. Chronic sinusitisc. Bronchiectasisd. Cardiomegalv

116. Exudative pleural effusion is seen in:a. Left ventricular failureb. Nephrotic syndromec. Bacterial pneumoniad. Hepatic failure

March 2007

117. Apical lung carcinoma commonly manifests as:

a. preural effusion Septentber 2009

b" Pericardialinvolvementc. l{omer,s syndromed" Tumour obstruction of the airway

118. Bysinnosis is caused by: hlarclt 2010a. Bagasseb. Mold hayc. Cottond. Bird droppings

119. Which pair of organs is involvedsyndrome:a. Kidney and intestrneb. Kidney and heartc. Kidney and ]ungsd. Kidney ancl liver

120. Horner,s syndrome is associated with:

in Goodpasture'g

Mnrclt 2070

March 207A

Si:Ttterriltt'r 2()05

March 2007

March 2008

a^ Bronchiectasisb. Apical lung carcinomac. Chronic bronchitis,1. Bronchial asthrna

121. Clubbing is cornmonly seenexcept:

i Nttesoihelioma

r. Tropical eositropirili.rc. Bronchiectasis

March 2007 ..1. Fibrosing ajveolitjs722. Left pleural effusion is detected

position:a. Supineb. Axial

in all of ihe followingMarch 2()fi

best in whichMarch 2005

March 2t)05

the all of theSeptember 2009

(9oJorFo-

c. Left lateral decubituscl. Right lateral decubitus

123. Most common type of lung carcinoma in nonsmokers is:a. Srnall cell carcinomab Adenocarcinomac. Squamous cell carcinonrad. Large cell carcinorna

124. Plethoric lung fields are seen infollowing except:a. Ebstein anomaly

t.i

ffi

#

$ifi

tr

F

i

b. \/SDc. Tota] anon-raious pulmonary venous connectiond. ASD

125. All of the following are seen in legionnaire,s diseaseexcept:a. Fever SePtember 2009

b. l\Iental confusronc. Diarrhoead. Unilateralpneumonitis

126. Miliary shadow on chest X_ray is not seen in:

a. Pneumoconiosisb. Sarcoidosisc. Tuberculosisd. COPD

March 2010

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screeninq Examination

fi7. All of the following produces cavitating lesion in

the chest radiograph except: March 20L0

a. Caplan's syndrome

b. Hematoma

c. Squamous cell carcinoma lungd. Hamartoma

MISCELLANEOUS

128. Ovarian fumours commonly arises from: Mnrch 2005

a. Surface epitheliumb. germ cell

c. Stroma of the ovaryd. None of the above

129. lVhich is the following is not inherited as X-linked

recesslve:

a. G-6-PD deficiencv

b. Duchenne muscular dvstropl'ryc. C,vstic fibrosisd. Hemophilia

130. True about NK cells are all of the following except:

Nlarch 2005

a. Mediates type IV hypersensitivityb. Kill virusesc. They are iarge granular lymphocvtesd. Reieases small rytoplasmic granules

called perforin and granzyme

131. MHC is important in pathogenesis of:a. Idiopathic disease

b. Iatrogenic diseases

c. Auto-immunediseasesd. Tumours

132. SLE is which type of hypersensitivity reaction:

March 2005

a. Type I hypersensitivityb. Type II hypersensitivityc. Type III hypersensitivityd. Type IV hypersensitivity

133. Organ which undergoes involution: Mttrch 2005

a. Parathyroid glandrrrlruru brilru

c. Pineal glandd. Thymus

134. HIV affects: Mnrch 2005,2008

a. CD4 cellsb. CD8 cellsc. Natural killer cellsd. Helper cells

135. Wilson disease is due to accumulation of:

September 2005

a. Copper

b. lronc. Zincd. Nickel

1"36, Common warts are caused by which virus:

September 2006

a. Cytomegalovirus

b. Hunran papilloma virusc. Flepaiitis B virusd. Epstein-Barr virus

137. All of tire follorving are true for lupus anticoagulant

syndrome except: St1ttg111b., 2t;1r,

a. Recurrent abortions

b. Arteriai thrombosis

c. flrrombtrcvtosis

d. Cardiac valve vegetatio?rs

138. Kaposi sarcoma is characterized by all of the

following except: Marclr 2008

a. Usually of the four types

b. Skin lesion are sparse in African type

c. Lymphadenopathy is an essential feature in the

ciassical tvpe

d. AlDS-associated is commoner in homosexual

139. All of the following are true for sarcoidosis except:

Septentber 2008

a. Kveim test is the most specific test for sarcoidosis

b. Caseatingepithelioidgranulomasc. Most commonly involves lungs

d. Unknolvn etiology

140. Amyloid deposits in liver are initially seen in:

March 2009

a. Space of disse

b. Hepatic parenchvma

c. Intrahepatic ducts

d. Portai tract

141" All of the following are true for Sjogren syndrome

except: September 2009

a. Ma1, be associated with other autoimmune

dise-ases

b. Excesssivesalivationc. immunologicallymediateddiseased. Commonlv associated rvith rheumatoid arthritis

N4nrclt 2005

of proteins

March 2005

!{..Foroo

142. Multiple sinuses from infection o{ great toe ismainly caused by:

Tuberculosis

Actinomycetes

c. Trichosporum

d. Histoplasmosis

L43. Carcinoma, which has predilection for metastasis to

hands and feet bones:

a. Prostate

b. Bronchus

c. Pelvis

d. Breast

144. Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the follorvineexcept:

a. Syringomyelia

b. Varicose veins

c. Leprosy

d. Prolongedrecumbency

a.

b.

>i(9r,o,iJiiofEi:Fi:<ro.:'

:tj

:i

;:ii]:

r"ti:i

:t

Pathology

Stytentber 2AA7

Mnrch 20C7

Septenber 2007

145. All of the following are true regarding Cryptococcusneoformans except: Seyttenfuer 200ga. Affects immuocompromised patientsb. Grown on sabouraud,s agarc. Capsular antigen can be cletected in the CSFd. Anticapsular antibody is protective

146. All of the following helps in the diagnosis ofleishmaniasis except: Septentber 200ga. Aldehyde testb. Blood smearc. Immobilisation testd. Examination of the bone marrow

147. Malignant transformation to melanoma is commonin: Marth 2C09a. Dermal nevusb. ]unctional nevusc. Congenital nevusd. Lentigo nevus

148. True regarding ubiquitin is:a. Required for apoptosisb. It is found throughout the cellc. Found only in eukaryotesd. All of the above

September 2009

]# :

8. Sharp instrument should be disposed in:

September 2005a. Blue bagb. Red bagc. Black begd. Yellow bag

9. True about autoclaving is: March 2007a. 115 degree C at for 20 minb. l2l degree C at for 15 minc. 118 degree C at for 15 mind. 124 degree C at for 15 min

10. Operation theatres are sterilized by: Mnrch 20CZ

a. Ethylene oxiCe gasb. Formaldehydefumigationc. Washing r,vith soap waterd. Carbolic acid sprpying

11. Best way to sterilize all-glass syringes is:

September 2007

a. Boilingb" Autoclavec. Hot air ovend. Formaldehyde

12. Cold sterilization is done by: September 2007a. Steamb. Inionizing radiationc" Infra redd. uv

13. Incineration is done for which of the following:September 2008

a. Liquid wasteb. Anatomy wastec. Sharp r.r'aste

d. All of the above

14. Biological indicator for determining efficacy ofautoclaving is: Septenfuer 2009

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosab. Clostridium Perfringenesc. Bacillus stearothermophilusd. Salmonella typhi

15. Autoclaving is done at what temperature for 15minutes:a. 118 degree Cb. l21degreeCc" 126 degree Cd. 134 degree C

MICROBIOLOGY (euestions)GENERAL MICROBIOLOCY

1. Best laboratorv test to diagnose HIV infection

March 2007a. ELISA

b. Western blotc. Complement fixation testd. RIA

2. Best medium to grow anaerobic bacteria exclusively1S: March 2008a. Blood agar

b. Robertson's cooked meat mediumc. Thioglycollatemediumd. Sabouraud Dextrose agar

3. Which of the following is an enrichment media:

Septenfuer 2009a. Alkaline peptone waterb. Moruour's taurocholate Tellurite peptone waterc. Selenite F brothd. All of the above

4. Blood agar is an example of:a. Enrichment mediab. Enriched mediac. Selective mediad. Transport media

5" True about bacteriuria is:

March 2010

March 2007a. Usually gram positive bacteria in urineb. Bacterial culture is non specificc. More than 1 lac colony forming units/ml of mid

stream urined. Multiple bacterial species are taken into account

STERILIZATION

6. Effective mode of sterilization is:a. Hot waterb. Stearn under pressure

c. Steam at abmospheric pressure

September 2005

d. Dryheat7. Pasteurization of milk is determined by:

September 20A5,2007 & 2009a. Methylene blue reduction testb. Phosphatase test

c. Turbidity test

d" Resazurin test

March 20L0


15. Endoscopes are best sterilized by: September 2aA7

a. Boiling

b" Autoclave

c. Lysol solution 20"uo

d. Cidex solution

17. Moist heat kills all of the following except:

September 2009

a. Coxiella bumettib. Brucella

c. Salmonella

d. Mycobacteriurn

IMMUNIT}'

18. Complement Fixation test is:

a. WIDALb. Coombs test

c. Wassermann reaction

d. VDRL

19. Wheal and flare reaction is:a. Type I hypersensitivityb. Type II hypersensitivityc. Type III hypersensitivityd. Type IV hypersensitivity

September 2045

September 2005

20. Which immunoglobulin is present in the breast milk:September 2005

a. IgAb. IgEc. IgDd. IgM

21. True about IgM is: September 2005a. Mediates Prausnitz-kusbrer reactionb. Primary responsec. Transported across placentad. Secondary response

22. Cells associated with humoral immunitv is:

September 2005a. NK cellsb. B cells

c. T cellsd. Null cells

23. Which of the following is type III hypersensitivityreaction:

a. Prausnitz-kustner reactionb. Contact dermatitisc. Arthus reactiond. Rh incompatibility

24. True about Chediak Higashi syndrome is: March 2007

September 2009

a. Neutrophiliab. Impaired bacteriolysisc. Autosomal dominantd. Associated with polyrythemia

25. Which Immunoglobulin is involved in anaphylaxis:

March 2007a. IgAb. IgE

C, IgGd. Iglvl

26. All are type II hypersensitivily reaction except:

Septenber 2A07

a. Steven johnson's s)'ndrorneb. Drug induced hemolytic anemiac. Drug induced thrombocytopeniad. Hemolytic disease of newbom

27. Intravascular hernolysis is mediated by:

September 2007

a. IgAb. IgDc. IgEd. IgC

28. Which one of the following is a major component inactivation of the complement via altemative pathway:

September 2007

a. C1

b. c2c. C3

d. c429. True regarding agglutination reaction are all except:

September 2007

a. It is less sensitive than precipitation reaction fordetecting antibodies.

b. Works on the same principle as that of precipitationreaction

c. It is the method used for cross matching and bloodgrouping

d. Agglutination occurs optimally when antigens andantibody react in equivalent proportions.

30. Defect seen in Di George syndrome: September 2009a. Humoral immunityb. Cell mediated immunityc. Thyrnic hyperplasiad. Autoimmune hemolvtic anaemia

:'ile;{

$

=-c)vow-ol-oo

September 2006

.ti b. 4

t .st'a o. u

$ S+. Hyperacute rejection of renal transplant is which type

> f of hypersensitivity reaction: March 20A7

I t a. Type I hypersensitivity reaction

^ !;1\f :l b. Tvpe Il hypersensitivity reactiont::F ,i c. Type Ill hypersensitivity reaction

= t d. Typ" IV hypersensitivity reaction(IlF

^ H 35.Hyperacute rejection occurs most commonly in which

v r_i

C $ organ: March 2007

9i ::1""'=

3 D. I(rdney

! c. Lung

$ d. Heart

$ 36. Which of the following is true about anaphylaxis:

* September 2007s$ a. It is mediated by allergen specific IgE

31. Erythroblastosis foetalis is which type ofhypersensitivity:

a. Type I

b. Type IIc. Type IIId. Type IV

32. Half life of IgG:

Scptember 2007, 2009

a. 5 days

b. 6 days

c. 8 davs

d. 23 days

33. IgM have how many four-peptide subunits:

March 2010

; a.3

b. lype-I hypersensitivity reaction

c. Cytokines like Il-4, ILs and IL6 along withhistamine is released.

d. All of the above

37. Components of innate immunity that are active

Microbiology

Mnrch 201.0

March 2009 45. Enteric fever is caused by:

a. Salmonella typhib. Salmonella paratyphi Ac. Salmonella paratyphi B

d. All of the above

BACTERIOLOCY

38. Which of the following is Gram positive: March 2005

a. Veillonellab. Bacteroides

c. Fusobacteriumd. Actinomyces

39. Urease test is done for: March 2005

a. H.pylorib. Proteus

c. Corynebacteriumd. Salmonella

40. Staphylococcus aureus is a normal inhabitant of:

March 2005

a. Throatb. Nose

c. Skind. GIT A

41. Venkataraman-Ramakrishnan media is used for:March 2005

a. Sterptococcus pneumoniaeb. Staphylococcus aureus

c. Vibrio cholerae

d. Clostridium tetani

42. Toxic Shock Syndrome is most commonly caused by:

March 2005

a. Sterptococcus pneumoniaeb. Staphylococcus aureus

c. Vibrio cholerae

d. Clostridium tetani

43. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:September 2005,2010

a. Pneumocystiscariniib. Clostridiumdifficilec. Escherichia colid. Streptococcus pneumoniae

44. Diagnostic test for Enteric Fever is: September 2005

a. VDRL

b. Widal test

c. Urine culture

d. Cram's staining

against viral cells include:

a. Cytotoxic T cells

b. B cell

c. NK cells

d" AII of the above

September 2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCi screenincr Examination

4f, Causative agent of sore throat is: September 2005

3. Staphylococcusaureus

!. Sffeptococcus pyogenes

g. H. Intluenzae

d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

47. Culture medium for cultivation of mycobacterium is:

September 2005

a. Ludlam's medium

b. Loeffler's serum

s. Thayer-Martinmediumd. LJ medium

48. Type of light used in dark ground microscopy:

Scptenrber 2005

a Dark lightb. Reflected lightc. Polarized lightd. Transmitted light

49. Confirmatory test for tuberculosis is: September 2006a. Gram's stainingb. AFB

c. Guinea-piginoculationd. Tuberculin testing

50. Culture media used for corynebacterium diphtheriars: March 2007a. L| mediab. Potassium tellurite mediac. Loeffler's serum sloped. McConkey

51. True about Borrelia recurrentis are all except:

March 2007a. Causes epidemic relapsing feverb. It is transmitted by ixodes tickc. No other known animal reservoir of B. recurrentis

existsd. It infeets the person via mucous membranes

52. All are gram negative anaerobic exceph September 2ff7a. Streptococci

b. Bacteroides

c. Actinomycesd. Clostridium welchii

53. Mechanism of action of cholera toxin:

a. Increase in c-AMPb. Decrease in c-AMpc. Activates Na+ K+ ATpased" Inhibit Na+K+ ATpase

54. Chinese lefter arangement is seen in: March 2009a. M.tuberculosisb. Co4mebnacterium diphtheriac. Chlarnydia trachomatisd. M. leprae

55. Peptidoglycans are found in large quantities in cellwall of: March 2009a. Virusb. Gram positive bacteriac. Gram negative bacteriad. All of the above

56. Which of the following is seen in dark fieldnucroscoPy:a. Vibriob. Spirochaetesc. Chlamydiad. All of the above

57. Travellels diarrhea is caused due to:

Septentuer nOS t1j:"!

=ovo@

oroo

$,{t;tla. EIEC

b. EPEC

c. ETECd. EHEC

58 Most common cause of gas gangrene is: September 2009a. Clostridium histolyticumb. Clostridiumbifermentansc. Clostridium fallaxd. Clostridium perfringens

59. M. avium intracellulare is:a. Non photochromogensb. Scotochromogensc. Photocfuomogensd. Rapid grolvers

Septentber 2009

60. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by: Itlarch 20L0a. Mycobacterium cheloneb. My'cobacterium kansasiic. Mycobacterium marinumd. Mycobacterium ulcerans

61. Ghon's focus reflecla. Mitiary t rbe.c,rtotsisb" Primary complexc. Tuberculouslymphadenitisd. Post primary tuberculosis

September 2005

62" Organism responsible for catheter predisposed UTI is:

September 2005a. Pseudomonas

b. E. coli

c. Proteus

d. All of the above

September 2007, 2009

Microbiology

63. Pneumatocoele is most commonly caused by:

September 2005,2010a. Streptococcus pneumoniaeb. Klebsiella

c. Hemophilusinfluenzaed. Staphylococcus aureus

64. Mycobacterium leprae can be cultured in:September 20a6

a. Testes of guinea pigb. L] mediumc. Footpad of miced. Testes of albino rats

65. Bacteria most commonly involved in prostheticvall'ular heart disease within 2 months of surgery is:

March 2007a. Staphylococcus epidermidisb. Enterococci

c. Streptococcusviridans

d. Hemophilus

66. Complications of cholera ale all of the followingexceph

September 2N7a. Metabolic alkalosisb. Metabolic acidosisc. Acute renal failured. Hypovolemicshock

67. Which of the following is commonlyresponsible fortoxic shock s;mdrome in female patienb September 2Mga. Streptococcus-group Bb. Pseudomonas

c. H.influenzae

d. Staphylococcus aureus

68. Which of the following is true for staphylococcusaur€us food poisoning: September 2Cf.8a. Incubation period of over 20 hoursb. Immediate antibiotic therapy is requiredc. Heat labile enterotoxin is responsibled. Common with dairy products

69. Most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis is:

Staphylococcus aureusStreptococcus viridansStreptococcus intermediusCandida albicans

70. Swarming growth is shown by which gram positivebacilli:a. Clostridium tetani

september

b. Clostridium welchiic. Proteusd. All of the above

71. Which olganism can penetrate intact comea:

a" Pneumococcusb. Gonococcic. Pseudomonasd. Staphylococci

September

72. Diphtheria toxin,s mechanism of action is:

a. Inhibiting glucose synthesis september

b. Inhibiting protein synthesisc. Promotingacetylcholinereleased. Altering cyclic GMp levels

a. 1 month of treatmentb. 2 months of treatmentc. 4 months of treatmentd. 6 months of treatment

74. Which has an incubation period of less than a weelc

Marcha. Cholerab. Measlesc. Filariad. Kala-azar

VIROLOCY75. EBV(ebstein barr virus) causes all except:

a. Glandular fever sePtembu

b. Burkitfs lymphomac. Pancreatic carcinomad. Nasophar;mgeal carcinoma

76. Most serious complication of measles is:

a. Croup SePtember

b. Meningo-encephalitisc. Otitis mediad. Pneumonia

Z. Carriers for Herpes simplex virus is: Mnrcha. Manb. Monkeyc. Bothd. None

73. After initiation oI DOTS therapy for category_I, ffustsputum examination is done at March2t

ooJoootrC)

=

September 2009


ft. Nl of the following belong to arboviruses group

except: September 2009

3. Bunyavirus

!. ParamYxovirus

c. Reovirus

d. Alphavints

79. Nl of the following is true regarding HIV virus except:

a. Belongs to the subgroup lentivirus March 2010

b. Double stranded DNA virusc. Characterised by the presence of reverse

transcriptase enzyme

d. Acts on Cf)4 cells

80. SSPE (Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis) isassociated with: Mnrch 2010

a. Tetanus

b. Meningitisc. Choiera

d. Measles

81, Dengue hemorhagic fever is caused by: March 2aL0

a. Alphavirusb. Flavivirusc. Bunyavirusd. Orbivirus

82" Virus that spreads by both hematogenous and neuralroute is: September 2007a. Rabies virusb. Polio virusc. EB virusd. Enterovirus

83. Gene that encodes the toxin for cholera is transmittedbyta. Protozoab. Bacteriac. Bacteriophaged. Fungus

MYCOLOCY84. All are dimorphic fungi except:

Septembu 2007

a. Blastomycosesb. Cryptococcusc. Histoplasmad. Paracoccidia

85. True about Cryptococcus neofor:rrans are all except:

September 20aSa. Possess a prominent polysaccharide capsuleb. Abundant in pigeon droppingsc. Dimorphic fungrd' Causes meningitis in the immunocompromised

86. Which is a yeast like fungi:a. Cryptococcusb. Candidac. Blastomyces

d. Histoplasma

Septembu 2007

87. All of the following causes subcutaneous fungalinfections except:

a. Blastomycosisb. Sporotrichosisc. Maduram'gcosisd. Rhinosporodiosis

SEtember 2007

E8. N{ost common fungus causing chronic meningitis is:

Nlarclt 2009a. Blastomyces

b. Cryptococcus neoformansc. Histoplasmad. Coccidioidomycosis

89. Which of the following is not a fungal infection:

a. Blastomycosisb. Cryptococcusc. Actinomycosisd. Histoplasmosis

90. Sclerotic bodies are seen in: September 2009

a. Sporotrichosisb. Histoplasmosisc. Chromoblastomycosisd. Rhinosporodiosis

91. Amongst the following which is the rarestopportunistic fungal infection seen in AIDS patient:

September 2008

a. Cryptococcosisb. Candidiasisc. Histoplasmosisd. Aspergillosis

MISCELLANEOUS

92. True about prions are all except: September 2009

a. Associated with Cruetzfeldt-|acob disease

b. Heat labilec. Sensitive to proteasesd. Infectious proteinaceous particles

93. Southern blot test is for detection of:Antibodies against viral proteinsDNARNACarbohydrate epitopes

March 2005

a.

b.

c.

d.

September 2005

Microbiology

94. AII of the following are arthropod borne d.iseasesexcePl September 2007a. Malariab. Filariasisc. Dengued. Dracunculosis

95. Integrins are associated with all of the followingexcept:

a. Adhesionb. Arrest

Septembu 2009

c. Rollingd. Transmigration of cells

96. Which of the following infection, if occurs in the firsttrimester, leads to maximum incidence of congenitalmalformations:a. Rubellab. Toxoplasmosisc. CMVd. All of the above

March

ooJIooEI=

.i1r-1,': i g,-f,l.f,ASSESSIWEN" *

GEIMCI SCKEf;NTNG.

PARASITOLOGY (Questions)L. Promastigote form of Leishmania is found in which

part of sandfly: March 2005

a. Lvmphnode

b. GIT

c. Spleen

d. Bone marrow

2. Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of:

NIarch 20A5,2r-tOg A Scptember 2007

a. Cryptosporidiurn

b. Babesia

c. Irr-reurnocYstis

cl. Joaoplasma

3. Babesiosis is most commonly transmitted by:

lv4arch 2005

a. Pigs

b. Rats

c. Sand fh'

d. Ticks

Q-fever is caused by:

a. Rochaemeiia quintana

b. Mvcoplasma bovis

c. Coxiella bumetti

d. lvlycoplasma hominis

Megaloblastic anemia caused by:a. Taenia saginata

b. Diphyllobotrum latumc. Taenia solium

d. Echinococcus granulosus

5. Paragonismus westermani is commonly called:

March 2005

a. [.ung fluke

b. Tapeworms

c. Intestinal flukes

d. Liver flukes

7. Iron Deficiency anemia is eommonly caused by:

Enterobius vermicularis

Taenia solium

Ancvlostoma duodenale

All of the above

4. A4arch 2005

Mnrch 2005

8. True about plasmodium falciparum is:

Septentber

a. Preferentially infects old erythrocytes onlyb. Schuffner's dots is characteristicc. Crescentic macrogametocyted. Large schizonts

9. Kala azar is transmitted by: Marclta. Sand flyb. Tsetse f11'

c. Flea

cl. Hard tick10. Cyclops is a part of life cycle of: Stprerrroer

a. Toxoplasmosis

b. Echinococcus

c. Leishmaniasis+

d. Dracunculosis

11. Nor.y-McNeal-Nicolle INNNI medium is used for:

September

a. Giardia lambliab. Leishmania dor-rovani

c. Echinococus

d. Toxoplasma gondii12" Most common parasitic infection in AIDS:

Septenther

a. Ancylostorna duode'nale

b. Echinococcus granulosusc. Strongyloides stercoralisd. Enterobius vermicularis

13. Non bile stained eggs is found in:a. Ancvlostomaduodenaleb. Trichuris trichurac. Ascaris lumbricoidesd" All of the above

14. LD bodies are associated with:a. Larva migransb. Kala azar

c. Malariad" Loa loa

15. Black malarial pigment is seen in:a. P.vivax

b. P.falciparurnc" P.malariaeo. l'.ovlae

Septembe.r 2009

b.

c.

d.

SeTttentber 2005, Mnrch 2009

Scptenrber 20N


15. [,licrofilaria is not seen in:

6. LYmPnancs

6. Hydrocoele fluidg. ChYlcus urine

d. Blood

lZ. Two nuclei at the tail tip is seen in:

3. Brugian malaYi

b. Wucheria bancroftig. Onchocerca volvuius

d. Mansonella ozzardt

1S. Highly specific and sensitive test for diagnosing kala-

azari March 2070

a. Complfll€'nt fixation test rvith \VKK antigcn

b. Napier's aldehyde test

c. Chopra's antimony testd. Imrnunofluorescent antibody test

19. Interrnediate host for hydatid disease is:a. Cort'

b" Manc. Dogd. Pig

20. Investigation for definitive identification ofcryptosporodium:a. ELISAb. lmmunofluorescence testc. Demonstration of oocyte in feces

d. Fluoroscent staining rvith auramine

September 2009

September 2009

March 2010

March 2010

TnCN

{oroo

- a i'

i:;n=,,, ^ FFII'as s H$sFf EJv? 4 ;,lC,r-fi" -'..

E/IvrcI sc*Er*r*ol

CENERAL PRINCIPLES

1. Which of the following is a pro_drug:a. Clonidineb. Enalaprilc. Streptomycind. Morphine

2. Pharmocodynamics deals with:a. I\4ode of excretion of a drugb. Mechanism of action of a drngc. Transport of drug across the b--iological membranesd. Latency of onsetTherapeutic index of a drug signifies: Septonber 2005a. Dose n'hich produces maximum effectb. Safety marginc. Efficacyd. Maximum response that can be elicited by a drugFirst pass metabolism is maximum with which route:

3.

n:.

September 2005

March 2007

September 2005

for all of the

Mnrch 2010

March 2A1a

5.

a. Oralb. Subcutaneous

c. Rectal

d. Sublingual

Administration of which of the following drugrequires monitoring:a. Lithiumb. Haloperidolc. Diazepamd. Acetazolamide

Area under time and plasma concentration curvesignifies :

a. Potency

b. Extent of absorption ofdrugc. Efficacyd. Plasma clearance of a dmg

7. First order kinetics is: Se2ttentber 2005a. Absorptior-r of the drug is independent of the serumconcentration.

b. Elimination of the drug is independent of the serumconcentration.

c. Elimination of the drug is proportional to the serumconcentration.

d. Absorption of the drug is proportional to the serumconcentration.

September 2005 11. Depot progestins is administered by which route

10. Therapeutic drug monitoring is requiredfollowing drugs except:a. Sulfonamidesb. Metforminc. Cycloserine :.d. Gentamycin

a. Subcutaneous routeb. Intravenous routec. Intramuscular route

6.

a. Domperidoneb. Dobutaminec. Fenoldopamd. Metclopramide

13. Which of the following is not rnetabolized byacetYlation: septenfuer 2oo|a. Hydralazine

b. Phenytoinc. Isoniazidd. Procainamide

DRUCS ACTING ON CVS14. Beta-blockers are used in all of the following except:

a. Essential tremorsb. AV blockc. Angina pectorisd. Migraine prophylaxrs

i .5:igrffi

ffi

ffirFHffi,ffiF3

*ilti*3","4

r:i

PHARN,IACO LO Gy (euestions)

Septentber 20058. Steady state concentration of a drug is achieved in:

a. 2-3 half livesb. 3-4 half livesc. 4-5 half livesd. 5-6 half lives

9. Orphan drugs are:a. Commercially eas1, to obtain.

Septetnber )Qg7

March 2010

b. Drugs to treat rare diseases u-"uallyc. Developed with an intention ol,monetary gaind. AII of ihe above

d. Both subcutaneous and intramuscular route12. AII of the following drug act on the dopaminergic

receptors except:

NIarch 2005

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

22. Chronotrophic means:15. In a patient with concomitant diabetes, anti-

hypertensive agent of choice is:

a. Calcium channel blocker

b. Beta adrenergic blocker

c. ACE inhibitor

d. Plasrr.a kinins

September 2005

16. Which of the following is the shortest acting beta-

blocker: September 2006

a. Acebutolol

b. Sotalol

c. BisoProlol

d. Esmolol

17. Calcium channel blocker causing cerebral

vasodilatation is:

a. Nimodipine

b. Felodipine

c. Amlodipined. Nitrendipine

Scptember 2006

18. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in: March 2007

a. Hypertension

b. Myocardialinfarctionc. Renal artery stenosis

d. Left ventricular dysfunction

19. Viagra like medicine is given in which condition:

March 2007

a. Pulmonaryhypertensionb. Essenfial hypertension

c. Malignanthypertensiond. Hypertension in pregnancy

20. Which of the following is not a positive ionotropic

agent:

a. Dobutamine

b. Dopamine

c. Diltiazemd. Amrinone

September 2007

21. Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventriculartachycardia is:

a. Digoxinb. Propranololc" Adenosined. Diltiazem

March 20L0, September 20078 2010

March 20L0

a. Drugs affecting the contractility of heart

b. Drugs affecting heart rate

c. Drugs affecting the myocardial blood flow

d. Drugs affecting diastolic relaxation.

23. Which of the following calcium channel blocker has a

predominant peripheral action: September 2006

a. Verapamii

b. Diltiazemc. Nifidepined. Depranil

24. Recommended step in salicvlate toxicity is:

SePtentbl 2006

a. Chleating agents

b. Atropinec. Alkaline diuresis

d. Observation

25. Drug of choice for acute lefiventricular failure:

SePtenrber 2006

a. Rapiddigitalizationb. I/V AminophYllinec. I/V Morphined. I/V Furosemide

26. Both arteriolar and venodilator drug is:

SePtenfuer 2007

a. Hydralazineb. Sodium nitroprussidec. Minoxidild. CaptoPril

27. Allof the following drug can be used in hypertensive

crisis except-

a. Labetalol

b. Pindololc. Nitroprussided. Nifedipine

September 2007

28. Drug used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism is:

SePtenfuer 2008

a. Adrenalineb" Propranololc. Noradrenalined. Dopamine

T.T

7=ooroo

29. A patient with hypertension is also having aorticdissection. Anti-hypertensive agent of choice is

a. Sodium nitroprussideb. Reserpine

c. Pindolold. Nifedipine

30. Dopamine, in renal doses, in shock leads to:

a. Reduction in peripheral resistancen. Lonstriction of renal vasculafut.ec. Dilatation of renal vasculafured. Increase in cardiac oufput

3L. Supraventicular tachycardia can be managed best by:

b a Digitalis sePtembcr 2oo9

O o. Adenosine

J (. ursop,Vrantide

O i d. euinidine(;) : 92. Which of the following drug is commonly responsibleS , for orthostatic hypotensionE i a. Clonidine

- --r rvlLrrrru" March 2010

y! b. H,r'dralazine

+ i c. Captoprils

ti d. prazosin

.+. 33. Which of the following short-acting selective beta-g blocker drug is used in the managelrrent of arrythmia:

$ ". Carvedilol March 2o1o

I u Esmololc. Celiprolold. Bisoprolol

DRUCS ACTINC ON RESPTMTORY SYSTEM34. Mechanism of action of corticosteroids in asthma is:

Decreases mucosal edemainflammatory responseMast cell stabilizationCauses bronchodilatafionLeukotriene antagonist

b.

c.

d.

Pharmacology

SeptenLber 20Ag

lv4arch 2009

March 20a9bv suppressing

39. Leukotriene antagonists is:a. Nicordanilb Zileutonc. Sodium chromoglycatecl. Montelukast

ANTIDIABETIC DRUCS

35. Drug of choice fot rhypertension,

t"t"*ingasthmaticpatientwith

a. Timolol March

b. Propranoiolc. Metoprolold. Amlodipine

36. Drug of choice for acute severe asthma is:

Septembera. Short acting beta 2 agorustsb. Long actrng beta 2 agonistsc. Oral theophyllinecl. Inhaied ipratropium bromide

37. All of the following are true regarding sodiumcromoglycate except:a. Given in acute bronchiar asthma

Mo.rch 20i.a

b. Inhibits degranulation of mast cellsc. It is not a bronchodiiatord. It is not absorbed orally

38. Which of the following is tne most potentglucocorticoid:a. Hydrocortisone March 2o1a

b. Prednisolonec. Betamethasoned. Triamcinolone

40' In the management of diabetes mellitus, Iactic acidosisis commonly caused by which .f t}," i"ii"*i.g,

Nfarch 2009

March 2005a. Tolbutamideb. Glipizidec" Pioglitazoned. Metformin

41. Which of the following is rapidly acting insulin:

a" Lenteb. Insulin glarginec. Ultralented" Insulin lispro

September 2007

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screening Examindtion

42.Truestatement regarding mechanism of action of

sulfonylureas is: March 2008, Septembet 2010

a. Lrcreased peripheral utilization of glucose

b. Reduce trePatic glucose outPut

c. Act on SURI receptors on pancreatic beta cell

membrane

d. TranscriPtion of genes

metabolism

regulating glucose

4i!.Which of the following drug does not cause

hypoglYcemia:a. Tolbutamide

b. Glibenclamide

c. Metformind. ChlorproPamide

September 2008

44. An oral hypoglycemic agent used to treat obesity is:

SePtember 2008

a. Tolbutamide

b. Glipizidec. Gliclazided. Metformin

45. Type I diabetes mellitus is initially rnanaged by:

March 2010

a. Metforminb. Sulfonylureasc. Meglitinided. None of them

45. All of the following are true regarding adverse effects

49. Which of the following is short acting neuromuscular

blocking agenL SePtember 2007

a. Pancuronium

b. Doxacuriumc. Mivacuriumd. Vecuronium

50. Drug of choice for petit mal seizures is:

SePtembet 2007

a. Ethosuximide

b. Carbamazepine

c. Phenytoin

d. Valproate

51. Malignant neuroleptic syndrome is caused by:

March 2009

a. Antidepressants

b. Anxiolyticsc. Antipsychotics $d. Antiepileptics

52. True regarding buProPion is:

a. Dopamine reuPtake stimulator

b. It is an antianxietY drug

c. No precipitation of seizures

d. Nicotinic recePtor antagonist

53. Antidote for Restyl/Alprazolam is:

September 20A9

a. Protamine sulPhate

b. Flumazenilc. EDTAd. BAL

54. Phenobarbitone and warfarin interaction results in:

March 2005

a. Increased absorption of warfarin

b. Increased metabolism of warfarin

c. Displacement of warfarin from the binding site

d. Ali of the above

55. An anxiolytic benzodiazepine which is also

antidepressant :

a. Lorazepam

b. Oxazepam

c. Alprazolamd. Chlordiazepoxide

September 2007

March 2410

irTfi-:1>HN*=*>iiofo,$ri5o*of,<a:

ieg

:!.

of chlorpropamide except:

a. Sensitizes the kidney to ADH action

b" Less incidence of hypoglycemia

c" More incidence of weight gain

d. Disulfiram like reaction may occur

DRUCS ACTINC ON NERVOUS SYSTEM

47. False statement regarding phenytoin is: March 2007

a. Is highly protein boundb. Half life decreases with decreasing dose

c" Microsomal enzyme inducerd. Follows zero order kinetics at lower doses

48. True about Imipramine is:a. Antiepilepticb. Antidepressantc. Anxiolyticd. Antipsychotic

September 2007

March 2010

56. Which of the following drug is contraindicated ipatient of myasthenia gravis:

a. Succinylcholineb. Tubocurarec. Pyridostigmined. Halothane

57. Antidepressant drug that can cause neurolepticmalignant syndrome and tardive ayrtilJri" i*

September 200g63. Treatment for Zollinger-ellison sJmdrome is:

tna

March 2_a09

March 2010

a. Lansoprazoleb. Clarithromycinc. Meh.onidazoled. Cimetidine

September

Morch

a. Cimetidineb. Omeprazolec. Misoprostold" aluminium hydroxide

ooJo(J(.

=8,,:<:ri'L,.

a. Amineptinb. Carbamazepinec. Amoxapined. Trazodone

58. Which of the followrnania:

,ing drug is not given in acute

a. Lithiumb. Lamotriginec. Valproated. Oianzapine

59. Drug of choice f,or acute migraine is:a" Methysergideb. Sumatriptanc. Ergotamined. Propranolol

September 2009

64" True about concenSolution is:

tration of Oral Rehydration

a. sodium 7o mEq/iit March

b. potassium 20 mEq/iit

c. Bicarbonate g0 mEq/littl. Chtoride 30 nrEqitii

65. Which of the follolrrripr e,rrug rh",.";;'rlTffi:il:

ffiponenr or

DRUCS ACTING ON CASTROINTESTINAL TRACT60. Which of the following is not an antacid drug:

0e.fllti-Heticobacter pylori drugs are all of the following:

a. Crarithromycin March 2o1o

b. Amoxicillinc. Metronidazoled. Tetracycline

67. Drug of choice for NSAID induced gastric ulcer is:a. Aruminium hydroxide March 2oo;, b. Magnesium sulphate: c. Sodium bicarbonate

d. Calcium carbonate61. Drug that does not interferes with antacid:

a. Tetracycii n ,rrch 2oo|

b. Norfloxacinc. Azifhromycind. Ranifidine

62. Which of the following is a prokinetic drug with nodopamine antagonism:a' Chlorpromolitr"

""" March 20a5

b. Metaciopramidec. Domperidoned. lV{osapride

a. Miprinoneb. Misoprostolc. Carboprostd. Mirtazapine

Septentber 2008

DRUCS ACTINC ON HAEMATOPOIETIC SYSTEM68. Warfarin acts by inhibiting all of the following factorsexcept:

a. Factor III March zoo,

b. Factor VIIc. Factor IXd. Factor X

69. Warfarin effect may be enhanced by:a. phenobarbitone

b. Ketoconazolec. Rifampicind. Chronic alcoholism

March 2005


fO. Which of the following drug inhibits aggregation of

platelets:

4. Ttanexaemic acid

b. EACA

s. Aprotinin

d. Aspirin

September 2005

21. Anticoagulants are indicated in all of the followingconditions excePt:

a. Pulmonary embolism

b. DVT

c. Pericarditis

d. Myocardial in-farction

72. Aspirin in very low doses inhibits the

a. Cyclooxygenase L

b. Thromboxane .A2

c. Prostaglandin 12


73. Dose of Warfarin is managed by:a. INR

b. ESR

September 2005

c. MACd. PAH

74. Which of the following drug causes does not causes

thrombocytopenia:

a. Methotrexate

b. Aspirinc. Ticlopidined. Heparin

75. Which of the following drug inhibits plasminogenMarch 2009

a. Aspirinb. Tranexaemic acidc. Alteplase

d. Streptokinase

76. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits whiehfactor:

a. Factor IIlab. Factor VIIIac. Factor Xa

d. Factor XIIa

March 2009

Sept ember 2009 antiretroviral agent except:

a. Lamivudineb. Stavudine

c. Zidovudined" Didanosine

77.Tnte about heparin are all of the following except:

September 2009

a. Powerful anticoagulant only in vivob. Protamine sulfate is the antidote

c. Not given by intramuscular route

d. Acts by inhibiting factor IIa and Xa

78. Which of the following is advocated in dicournarolpoisoning:a. Warfarin

March 2005

b. Heparinc, LMWHd. Vitamin K

DRUCS ACTINC ON EXCRETORY SYSTEM

79. Which of the following is a potassium sparing drug:

a. Indapamide *' tePtenrber 2oo5

b. Frusemide

c. Spironolactone

d. Mannitol

80. All of the following are true regarding diureticsexcept: March 2008

a. Spironolactone is a potassium sparing drugb. Manrritol is an osmotic diureticc. Thiazides act by inhibiting Sodium-potassium-

chloride cotransport

d. Acetazolamide inhibits carbonic anhydrase enzyme

81. Which of the following diuretic causes maximum loss

of potassium in urine: March 20L0

a. Acetazolamide

b. Spironolactone

c. Ethacrynic acid

d. Furosemide

ANTIMICROEIAL DRUGS

82. Pancreatitis may be seen with all of the following

formation ofSeptenfuer 2006

March 2407

T-

v=ooroo

March 2005

!roioiJi:oiof<;=$(r<iiEfO- 1l

a. Stre;rtomycin+Isoniaziclb. Streptomycin+Eth6m6u1r1c. Ethambutol+I56niuri6d. Ethambutol+Rilu-ot.t

86. Antitubercular drug causing gout is:a. >treptomycinb. Ethambutoic. Rifampicind. Pyrazinamide

87. What is the most serious side effect of streptomycin:

il 83. Drug of choice for lymphogranuloma venerum:

a. Teiracyclineb. Chloramphenicojc. Erythromycind. Ampicillin

84. All of the following are Beta_lactamase inhibitorsexcept:a" Clavulanic acidb. Aztreonamc. Sulbactamd. Tazobactarn

89. Drug of choice for plasmodium vivax is:

a. Mefloquineb. Chloroquinec. Artesunated. Quinine

90" Drug which is never given by oral route:a. Erythromycinb. Ciprofloxacinc. Streptomycind. Albendazole

85. Which antitubercular drug combination is safer in apatient who develops hepititis wnite on aff:

a. Hepatotoxicityb. Ototoxicitl,c. Ocular to*i.ityd. Hematoiogicil disturbances

88. Gentamycin is not given orally because:

a. Adverse effects on gastric mucosa september 2005

b. Interfercs with absorption of other drug,sc.. Rapidly destroyed by gastric acid o-

ct. l,oor absorption

5

Pharmacology

March 2C0S

March 2005

March 2005

NIarch 2005

September 2A0S

Septentber 2006

March 2007

91. Drug which inhibit protein synthesis are all of thefollowing except: Marcha. Tetracycline

b. Chloramphenicol

c. Erythromycind. Penicillin

92. Drug of choice for chylamydial trachomatis is:

a. Penicilin Marcl

b. Erytirromycinc. Vancomycin

d. Azithromycin93. Which of the following drug belongs to antifolate

grouPr

a. Erythromycinb. Doxycycline ::

c. Pyrimethamine

d. Gentamicin

94. All pencillins act by:a. Inhibiting protein synthesisb. Inhibiting cell wall synthesisc. Antifolated. Inhibitis DNA p;yrase i

95. Drug used for prophylaxis of meningococcalmeningitis: c^.a. Chroramphenicol september 2aat :

b. Erythromycin .

c. Tetraryclin -

d. Rifampicin

95. Drug used orally for treating scabies:a. levamisole

b. Ivermectinc. Lindane

d" Chloroquine

97. Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteria:

March 2009a. Gentamycin

b. Ciprofloxacinc. Tetracycline

d. Vancomycin

Septentber 2af,?

SeTttember 2007

March 2009

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screenino Examination

105. Which drug is effective against both pseudomonasqg. Which of the following is not an antiretroviral drug:

March 2009

a. Lamivudineb. Zidovudinec. Ganciclovir

d. NeviraPine

99. Dose and duration of benzathine penicillin forprophylaxis of rheumatic fever is:

a. 1.2 MU every 2 weeks

b. 1.2 MU every 4 weeks

c. 2.4MU every 2 weeks

d. 2.4 MU every 4 weeks

September 2009

100. Strength of topical ophthalmic preparations oftobramycin is :

a. 3 mg/mlb. 8 mg/mlc. 10 mg/mld. 13 mg/ml

Septernber 2009

101. Drug used for chloroquine-resistant vivax malariaare all of the following except:

a. Quinineb. Doxycyclinec. Primaquined. Fluoroquinolones

102. Drug of choice for herpes zoster is:

a. Aryclovirb. Idoxuridinec. Ganciclovird" Valaciclovir

September 2009

and proteus:a. Cloxacillinb. Amoxycillinc. Carbenicillind. Ampicillin

September 2005

L06. Drug that can be used against anaerobic

streptococci: March 2007

a" Penicilinb Erythromycinc. Vancomycind. Clindamycin

107. Chromaphenicol is metabolized by: September 2007

a. Oxidationb. Acetylationc. Glucoronideconjugationd. All of the above

108. Drug which is both phototoxic and photoallergic:

". S eptenfuer 2007

a. Amiodaroneb. Procainamidec. Sulfonamided. Chloroquine

109. Beta-lactam ring is present in all of the following

TrF+

n=oot-oo

except:March 2010 a. Sulbactam

b. Imipenemc. Vancomycind. Cephalexin

March 2008

103. Which antitubercular agent is associated with side

effects as respiratory syndrome,cutaneoussyndrome, Flu syndrome and abdominal syndrome:

March 201,0

a. Isoniazidb. Rifampicinc. Pyrazinamided. Ethambutol

104. All of the following are true regarding penicillinexcept: March 2005a. Probenecid decreases it duration of actionb. All penicillin are active against gram positive

orgamsmsc. Splits into 6-amino penicillanic acid by amidased. Acts by inhibiting cell wall slmthesis

1L0. A patient on antitubercular treatment lunder DOTS]shows sputum positivity at the end of intensivephase under category I. Next step would be :

March 2009

a. Continue treatment of IP for one more monthb. Switch to category II treatmentc. Restart category I treatmentd. Start continuation phase under category I

111. All of the following are true regarding vancomycinexcept: September 2009

a. Excreted unchanged mainly by glomerularfiltration

b. Poorly distributed in the body fluidsc. May cause red man syndromed. Not absorbed oraliy

,:ii:.11,

!::

:a

Pharmacology

112. True statements regarding vancomycin uses are allof the following except: September 2009

119. Drug indicated for hyperthyroidism duringPregnancy:a. prophyrtiouracil september

b. Carbimazolec. Iodided. Radioactive iodine

120. Antimalarial drug safe in pregnancy is:

a. Quinineb. primaquinec. Artesunated. Chloroquine

September 2006, March

121. A pregnant lady is suffering from peptic ulcer. Dthat is contraindicated is:a. Omeprazole

rrlq rD'| March

b. Ranitidinec. Misoprostdid. Famotidine

: Surgical prophylaxis in MRSA pr"rrutu.,t u."u,b. D*g of choice for pseudomembranousenterocolitis

c. Effective in penicillin_resistant pneumococcalinfection

d. Methicillin_resistantinfection

Staphylococcus aureus

f13. Drug of choice for cerebral malaria is:a. Chloroquineb. Quininec. primaquined. Sulfadoxine

ANTICANCER AND ANTI.INFTAMMATORY DRUGS114. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by: September 2005a. Methotrexate

b. Melphalanc. Cyclophosphamided. Busulfan

115. Which of the following anticancer drug causesperipheral neuropathy:a. Methotreaxateb. Vincristinec. Cytarabined. Etoposide

September 2A09

116. Anticancer drug causing nephrotoxicity:

a. Imitanibb. Irinotecanc. fosfestrold. Cisplatin

117. Busulfan may cause:a. Cystitisb. pulmonary fibrosisc. Loss ofhaird. peripheralneuropathy

September 2009

122. Ergot derivatives are used in all of the followingexcept :

Marcha. Uterine contractionb. Vasoconstrictivedisordersc. Migrained. Dementia

123. Use of magnesium sulfate in pregnancy areassociated with all of the following side_effects

March 2010

>io$o$J3lo$OF<$

=$Ero.

except:

a. Muscular paralysisb. Bradycardiac. Cardiac arryhthmiasd. Respiratorydepression

March2010',

September 2007

Septentber 2005,2010 March 2007

124. All of the followinsaf er in o."rr,ur,.r

tul';1to " n""

"'" " "rtli ))ri r o r oa. Enalapril

b. Labetalolc. HydralazineMEDICATIONS IN PREGNANCY & LACTATION

118. Anti-hypertensive drug contraindicatej inpregnancy is:a. Hydralazineb. Methyldopac. Enalaprild. Amlodopine

d. Alpha-methytdopa idytor iHypertension:

a. sodium nitroprusside March2M9

b. Hydralazinec. ACE inhibitorsd. Indapamide


134. Amongst the following, extrapyramidal side effectil4ISCELLANEOUS

fb. Morphine is used in: March 20AS

a. HYPertension

b. Cardiac arrythmias

c. Acute left ventricular failure

d. A-V block

l1T,Prolactin secretion is stimulated by: March 2005

a. TRH

b. ACTHc. GnRH

d. Dopamine

128. GtI secetion is inhibited by: March 2045

a. Bromocriptine

b. Hyperglycemiac. Vigorous exercise

d. Deep sleeP

129. True about hypnotic drugs is: Scptentber 2005

a. Slower onset and longer durationb. Slower onset and shorter durationc. Quicker onset and longer durationd. Quicker onset and shorter duration

130. Oral contraceptive pills are contraindicated in:SePtember 2005

a. Premenstrualtensionb. Endometriosisc. Hepatadenomad" Pelvic inJlammatory disease

131. Mechanism of action of allopurinol: September 2005

a. Inhibits the slmthesis of uric acidb. Inhibits tubular resorption of uric acidc. Antinflammatoryactiond. Increases phagocytosis of urate crystals

132. Which drug is not given in anaphylactic shock:

SePt ember 2005

a. Adrenalineb" Steroidsc. Antibioticsd. Antihistamine

133. Which of the following is a mast cell stabilizenSePtember 2005

a. Montelukastb. Sodiumchromoglycatec. Cetrizined. Theophylline

is commonest with which drug:a. Thioradizineb. haloperidolc. Clozapined. Ziprasidone

135. Danazol is:

Septenber 2006

Septenfuer 2006

a. Anabolic steroidb. Androgens agonistc. Antiandrogensd. 5-alpha-reductaseinhibitor

136. Hypercalcemia is decreased by all of the followingexcept:a. Etidronateb. Calcitoninc. Lithiumd. Glucocorticoids

137. Thalidomide is useful in:a. Treatment of leprosy

Mnrch 2007

March 2007

b. Treatment of type II l8pra reactionc. Treatment of type I lepra reactiond. Treatment of neuritic leprosy

138. Co-administartion of which of the following drug

with Zidovudine is not preferred:a. Indomethacinb. Aspirinc. Trimethoprimd. All of the above

139. Adrenaline is added to Lignocaine injection for:March 2007

a. Less bleeding at the siteb. Higher doses can be givenc. Prolonged duration of actiond. All of the above

140. Which of the following does not cause

hyperprolactinemia:a. Levodopab. Bromocriptinec. Chlordiazepoxided. Pituitary tumour

September 2007

141. Withdrawl syndrome is associated u'ith all of the

following except:a. Alcoholb. Methadonec. Morphined. All of the above

September 2007

March 2007

Pharmacology

144. Which of the following lipid lowering drug acts byinhibitingHMG-CoAreductase: March200g,2010

142. Which of following drug inhibits xanthine oxidase:

September 20A7a. Probenicidb. Quiniarcinec. Allopurinold. Sulfinpyrazone

143. All of the following drugs causes hemolysis in G-6PD deficiency except:a. Primaquineb. Nitrofurantinc. Su,lfonamide

d. Erythromycin

September 2001

149. Which of the following is a dihydrofolate reductaseinhibitor:a. Arcohol

March 2009

b. methotrexatec. Cimetidined. Erythromych

150. Which of the {ollowing is true regarding S_HT :

derivatives: March 200ga. Cisapride is selective 5_HT4 antagonist

b. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 agonistc. Cyproheptadine is 5_HT2A asonistd. Sumatriptan action is agonlsticatty, 5_HT. lBnD

receptor mediated151.. Drug causing toxic optic neuropathy is:

a. Pyrazinamideb. Chloroquine b

c. Ethambutold. Tetracycile

September 2009a. Hypotensionb. Hypertensionc. General anesthesiad. Nasal decongestant

153. Which of the following drug is contraindicated inglaucoma:

September 20A9a. Adrenalineb. Timololc. Atropined. Pilocarpine

154. True statements regarding octreotide are all of the

(^9

oJo(J

=EEo-

a. Resins

b. Statins

c. Fibric acid deravativesd" Bile acid sequestrants

145. Drug of choice for thyroid storm is:a. Thiocayanatesb. Perchloratesc. Propylthiouracild. Radioactive iodine

146. Muscle relaxant safe in renal failure patient is:

September 200ga. Pancuroniumb. Piperacuroniumc. Curared. Atracurium

147. Which of the following drug causes gynecomastia:a. Cimetidineb. Ranitidinec. Omeprazoled. Famotidine

Septentber 2008, 2010

148. Following a bee-sting, a boy develops angioedemaand dyspnea. Treatment of choice in such a casewould be:a. I,M adrenalineb. I/V adrenalinec. I/V corticosteroidd. Antihistamine

March 2009

March 2008 152. Alpha agonist has all of the following actionsexcept:

March 2a09

Septentber 2009

September 2009

following except:a. Syntheticoctapeptideb. Used in variceal bleedingc. Contraindicated in acromegalyd. Useful in secretory diarrhea

L55. Sibutramine is used for:a" Hemorrhageb. Nasal decongestantc. l)iabetesd. Obesity

self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI screening Examination

tSO. Which of the following is used for medical

adrenalectomY: September 2009

a. Metyrapone

b. ketoconazole

6. Aminoglutethimide

d. All of the above

lS7. All of the following are true regarding sumatriptan

excePt: September 2009

a. 99"k oralbioavailability

b. Contraindicated in coronary artery disease

c. Constricts cranial vessels

d. Selective s-HT 1B/1D receptor agonist

158. Zonal hepatic necrosis is associated with:

March 20L0

a. Diclofenac soclium

b. Acetaminophen

c. lndomethacin

d. Piroxicam

159. True regarding ondansetron are all of the followingexcept: March 201.0

a. Antiemetic of choice for chemotherapy inducedvomiting

b. 5-HT3 receptor antagonistc. Significant drug interactionsd. May have 5-HT4 antagonism

160. Methanol toxicity causes blindness due to theformation of:a. Formic acidb. Formaldehyde

c. Lactic acidd. Pyruvic acid

March 2010

161. Disulfiram like reaction is commonlv caused bvwhich of the following:a. Penicillinb. metronidazolec. Tetraryclined" erythromycin

162. Sterile pyuria may occur due to:a. Lignocaine

b. Paracetamol

c. Phenytoind. Cocaine

163. Thalidomide is useful in:a. Treatment of leprosyb. Treatment of type lI lepra reactionc. Treatment of type I lepra reactiond. Treatment of neuritic leprosy

164. True statements regarding halothane are all of the

March 2005

March 2007

r:l:::

Artn!.h'rnn7 ::

March 2007following except:

j,Tl,-F:-;;>iiuii=$>ilo$;o$|-*.O1ior<it

*ii

fii

a. Unsuitable for pediatric populationb. Potentiates competitiveneuromuscularblockersc. Hepatitis may occurd. Contraindicated in patients with Cardiac

arrythmia165. Half life of albumin is: SEtember 2009

a. 5 days

b. 10 days

c. 20 days

d. 40 days

165. Which of the following is false about salmeterol:

March 2010a. Regular use may worsen asthmab. First long acting selective beta-2 agonistc. Effective for acute asthmatic attacksd. More beta-2 selective agonist than salbutamol

.F ASSESSIUENT , r- ;s'i:

EIMCI SCREENIN

FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY (Questions)NJURIES

1. Lesion with intact skin but tearing of subcutaneous

tissue rs:

a. Scalds

f. Laceration

c. Contusion

d. Abrasion

2" Not a grievous iniury:a. N{ultiple scars of face

b. Fracture of femurc. Emasculationd. Contusion of breast

3. Abrasion collar is seen in:a. Abrasions over neck

b. Bullet injury

March 2005

September 2005

c. Punctured woundsd. Lacerated wounds

4. Rupture of the skin and subcutaneous tissue is called:SePtember 2010

a. Incised woundb. Abrasionsc. Lacerated u.'oundd. Contusion

LAW AND FORENSIC MEDICINE5. Police inquest is required in all except September 2007

a. Sucideb. Accidental deathc. Dowry deathd. Murder

6. A child can not be considered responsible for a crimebefore the age of :

a. 5 yearsb. 7 yearsc. 10 yearsd. 12 years

September 2007

7. Inquest of Dowry death is done by: September 2009

a. Policeb. Magistratec. Coronerd. Medical examiner

8. In India, for exhumation maximum permissible time

Sryten*cr 2006

9. Inquest for custodial death is held by: September 2005

a. Doctor

b. Magistrate

c. Sub-inspector

d. District attorney

MEDICOLECAL ASPECT OF DEATH

10. Most informative test in parental identification:Marclt 2005

a. HLAb. Parental likeness

c. Deveiopmentaldefects

d. DNA finger printing

11. Post mortem stiffening is called :

a. Putrefaction

b. Rigor mortis

c. Livor mortis

d. Mummificafion

1,2. True about hydrocution are all except; September 2006

a. Electrocution in water

b. Death results from cardiac arrest

c. Results from falling in the water with feet first

d. Emotionally tense individuals are prone for this

13. Test used to detect blood group of blood stain:

March 2007

a. Benzidine test

b. Takayama test

c" Luminol test

d. Absorption elution test

14. DNA can be taken as sample from all of the following

except :

a. Hair roots

b. Semen

c. CSF

d. Buccal mucosa

15. Total number of deciduous teeth in al4yr old child:

SePtember 2007

a.0b.5c. L0

d. 20

Marth 2005

Septenfttr 2007

period is :a. 5 yearsb" 10 yearsc. 20 yearsd. No limit

. March 20L0

16. Regarding medical termination of pregnany, all of thefollowing are true except_: September 2007a. Professional secrecy has to be maintained

Forensic Medicine and Toxicology

without

22. Fracture of hyoid bone is indicative of : Maa. Throttlingb. Suffocation

c. Chokingd. Hanging

23. In simple hanging,the knot comes to rest at the:

a. Occiputb. Chinc. Angie of mandiblecl. Below the cheek

24. Arborescent burns are seen in:a. Flame burnsb. Lightning strokec. Ifeat stroke11. Electrocution

September

St:ptenber 2(fig

March 201A

b. trVoman has the right to abort his fetusconsent of husband

c. In an emergency-,termination of pregnanry can bedone by a single doctorTermination of pregnancy up to 20 rveeks can be

Jil Oo":

.Ot medical practirioner withour consutting

- specialist

':i

tttX tt.After death, Livor mortis is caused because of:tt,J March 200gO . a. Ir4uscle of the body began to relaxg b. N{uscle of the body began to stiffen

X c. Discolourarron as a result of capillo-venous

tr distension in the dependent parts of the body

O ,. d. Putrefaction of the body tissues

fi tS. Brain death is said to occur if there is: March 200g{ I a. Absent spinal reflexes

IIJ i, b. Cortical death following widespread brain injuryZl; c Alrc^-^^ ^rr--:

= c. Absence of brainstem reflexes

P I d. Core temperature of the body is betorv 35 degree CA'.li.f . tS. First permanent teeth to erupt is:tr I

-- r rr4.r/Erurcrr€nr reern to erupt is: September 200g

=

, a. First premolar

o b. Second premolar

6,* c. First moiar

2i d' Second moiar

!J , zO. Rigor mortis occurs due to:E rr __. û6v^ rrrurrrD uccurs que to: September 200gE i; a \irr,.-l^ ^r,L^ L- r ,X a. Muscle of the body began to relax!, h .-^^:rr^ -.^ -E "

b. Capjllo-venous distension in the most dependentbody parts

c. Muscle of the body began to stiffend. Mummificalion of the body tissues

21. Causes of death in drowning are aII except:

March 2009a. Vagal hyperactivityb. Asphyxia

c. Ventricuiarfibrillationd. Laryngospasm

25. True statement regarding postmortem wounds is:

.a sisns of spurting of arrerial btoocl on ,iffi"'o*

b. Firmly coagulated blood in the ltounds and tissuespresent

c. Edges of the rt ound cloes not gaped. Increased activity of enzymes

26. CSF test is required in:a. Morphirre poisoningb. Organophosphorous poisoningc. Alcohol poisoningd. Arsenic poisoning

27. Pugilistic attitude in fireburns is due to: h4arch 2010a. Coagulation of blood in the vascular char-rnelsb. Splitting of sofr partsc. Tight clothingd. Coagulation of protein of the muscles

28. For autopsy, vitreous is preserved in: September 200ga. Phenolb. Sulphuric acidc. Fluorided. Xylol

29. Corpus delicti means: March 2A0ga. Inquest of deathb. Postmortem findingsc, Death by asphyxiad. Essence of crirne


-^ r;16 coronary is due to:Ju. v*-

3. Strangulation. r -,^tr .''irb. A>vrL;l ^'"

r^*.-{i:n erroctc. Ldru'('L q"t"'

d. Myocardial infarction

SEXUAL OFFENCES

31.Female can give consent for sex if she is above:

Mnrch 2005

a. 12 1'ears

b. 16 vears

c. 19 r'ears

d. 21 Years

82. Female Patient with loss of interest in sex is known as:

SePtentber 2006

a. Vaginismus

b. Impotencv

c. SterilitY

d. frigiditY

TOXICOLOGY

33. Pin point pupils are seen in all of the followingconditions excePt:

a. Organophosphrous Poisoningb. Opiod poisoningc. Cerebello pontine hemarroge

d. Datura poisoning

September 2405

34. Hairs are preserved in which poisoning: March 2007

a. Arsenicb. Manganese

c. Phosphorousd. Alcohol

35. All of the following are features of Datura poisoning

except:

a. Dryness of mouthb. Deliriumc. Dilated pupild. Bradycardia

March 2007

35. Best method for methanol poisoning treatment:

March 2007

a. Ethanolb. Calcium gluconatec" Desferroxamined. BAL

37. If the hemoglobin is saturated with carbon

mcnoxide, the hypoxia involved will be: Marcir 2007

a. Hypoxic hyPoxiab. StagnanthyPoxiac. Alaemic l'rYPoxia

d. Histotoxic hyPoxia

38. Most cornmon feature of alcohol withdrawl is:

March 2007

a. Violent attitudeb. Hypertensionc. Tretnorsd. I{yperventilatiorr

39. Antidote for copper poisoning is: Ivlatcli 2(')09

a. D-peniciliamineb. Potassiurn ferrocvanidec. BALd. Desferrioxamine

,10. Not used for treating acute iron poisoning :

-. A,Iarclt 2009

a. Desferrioxamineb. BALc. Magnesium hYdroxided. Hemodialysis

41. Antidote for organophosphates poisoning are allexcept:a. Physostigmineb. Activated charcoal

c. Pralidoximed. Atropine

Septenfuer 2009

42. Fomepizole as a antidote is used in the poisoning of:

SePtember 2009

a" OrganophosPhrousb" Methyl alcoholc. Aiuminium PhosPhided. Copper

43. Pin point pupils ate seen in:a. Opium Poisoningb. Acute alcohol Poisoningc. Barhiturate Poisoningd. Epileptic coma

44. Patient presented with anemia, blue line in gums,

constipation, abdominal colic and basophilic

Msrclt 2009

March 2010

stippling. Poisoning maY be due to:

a" Arsenicb. Mercuryc. Copperd. Lead

March 2009

and

March 2005

11. Prevalence is a:a. Rateb. Ratioc. proportiond. percentage

September 2007

September 2007

September 2007

1gg..r'

1. A new drug does nort prevents a disease fromoccurring but reduce; -_ - *'osq>t rrorr

Whieh nr '.^ r^rr eath due to that disease.Inl"n of rhe following is true:

; il:]ijl:::," the ilcidcrrce _o p,"uur"luJlMarch 2005

L ,. dru prevalencew. rr wlll decrease the itc. rrre-,or^_-.^ , . ncidence and prevalencec. _Prevalence is increased

d. Incidence is increased2. Test which detects true negative is said to have:

a. Relative risk March 2005

b. Odd,s ratioc. Sensitivihyd. Specificity

, ,?;,j:T;::1'l ""_ seen in a country bur broughr

a. Endemic March 2005

b. Epidemicc. Zoonoticd. Exotic

4. Surveillance is:a' Monitoring of activir March 2005h .^-s__ ry of health workersb. Continuous monil'

-- rrLqrf,rt wurKers

,iqrri'.,,*^- :ormg of occurrencedistribution of a disease

:. :4:nit:ring of trends of a diseased. Related to ihe vtuteA rr-+:^-. ! - rnce of the organismA Patient is made to wrfor: rlk early after Surgery. This isfor:

a. False positiveb. False negativec. True negatived. True positive

a. Treating the padento. Reducing disabilityc. specific protectiond. Rehabilitation

6. Which of the followprevention:

'ing is secondary level of

i l':ol"]"ctic drug adminisrartionMarch 2005

b. Admiting disabted .hild; r;;d schootsc. Vaccination

_ d" C"r,ui.al pap smear checking7. Sensitivity of a screening test indicates:

15" First noticed case ofa. Reference case

a disease is known as: March 200g

b. Secondary casec. Tertiary cased. Index case

F ASSESSMEN1;-E/IT{CI SCREENIN

b. Quarantine

tt'"16;"t"rding cohort's study are au of rhe foilowinga. Most reliable , "eptember2007t"tw"enl s,ls};T- ,

of showing an association

: :,Tt T j:,1$::lfi lHpl;;3sequen'l disease

;. :*, s rano can be calculated

- _ q. EXposure rates can be calculated

13. Prevention of devel<under: rping risk factors in CAD comes

a. primary preventiono. Secondary preventionc. rrrmordja.l preventionq. I ertiary prevention.

14. Relative risk is associated with:a. Cohort sfudiesb"

_Cross sectional sfudiesc. Envoimmental sfudies

o. Lase control studies

c. Detecting sourc(,ol infection(r. \,aCcrnatjon10. Associated with sur

except: veillance are all of the forlor.ringa. Sentinej search Selttetnber

20102

b. Randomisationt

i:tfiililon reqarding trends of hearrh status or,

d. Providing timelvdisasters . wamings of public heal&r

September 2006

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination

g.Hefi Immunity is a feature of all of the following

,,.7F, ITI

,m':,2,{t<im-a:

i>'*zt(]9s,:,oioiFl|.{=3.mTU5-;oF-

?zira,;'

it:

*:lri1;

diseases excePt:

6. Diphtheriab. Polio

c. Tetanus

d. Measles

SEtentuer 2008

lT.Relative risk can be calculated by: September 2008

a. Incidence of disease amongst exposed/incidence ofdisease amongst non-exposed

b. Incidence of disease amongst non-

exposed/incidence of disease amongst exposed

c. Incidence of disease amongst exposed/totalpopulation of that area

d. Incidence of discase amongst non-erposed/totalpopulation of that area

18. Sentinel surveillance is used to detect: ltlarch 2409

a. New cases

b. Missed cases

c. Old cases

d. Reference cases

19. Specificity of a diagnostic test denotes: September 2009

a. True negativeb. False positivec. False negatived. True positive

20. Cohort study is associated with:a. Prevalenceb. Odd's ratioc. Relative riskd. Exposure rates

21. Ability of a screening test to diagnose true positiverefers tola. Relative riskb. Sensitivityc. Specificityd. Attdbutable risk

22. True regarding case control study are all of thefollowing except: March 20L0

a. Possibilty of biasb. Odd's ratio can be derivedc. Relativelyinexpensived. Attributable risk can be known

23. Correct statement regarding longitudinal studies is:

March 2010a" Short duration studyb. lnferior to cross-sectional studiesc. Observation is taken only onced. Helps in identifying risk factors of a disease

VACCINES

24. Which of the follow'ing vaccine should not be kept infreezer:a. DPTb. Measlesc. OPVd. AII of the above

March 2005

25. Oral cholera vaccine is effective for: September 2005

a. 6 monthsb. 12 monthsc. 2 yearsd. 3 years

26. Hepatitis B vaccine should be given as per whichschedule:a. 0,1,6 daysb. 0,1,6 rveeks

c. 0,l,6monthsd. 0,1,6 years

27. BCG should tre given:a. Immediately after birth *'

b. At the age of 1 monthc. Atthe ageof 6monthsd. At the age of 1 year

SeTttenfuer 2045

September 2005

28. Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at:. September 2005

a. Medial part of thighb. Deltoid musclec. Anterior Abdomend. Lateral part of thigh

March 2010

March 2010

September 240529. BCG vaccine is diluted with:a. Normal salineb. Distilled waterc. Dextrosed. Colloids

30. For post-exposure prophylaxis, dose of human rabiesimmunoglobulin is:

a. 10IU/kgb. 20IU,4<gc. 30IU/kgd. 40IU/kg

September 2407

31. How many doses of MMR are given: September 2007

a. 1

b.2c.3o.4

32. MMR vaccine is a type of:a. Killed vaccine

b. Toxoidc. Live attenuated vaccine

d. Immunoglobulin

September 2009.,';

Preventive and Social Medicine

33. Post exposure vaccination for measles should be done

1 day ofexposure2 day of exposure3 day of exposure7 day of exposure

SeTttember 2009

41. As per WHO, anemia is considered to exist inpregnancy/ if the hemoglobin level is below:

COMMUNICABLE AND

NON-COMMUNICABLE DISEASES34. Virus causing rabies in man is:

a. Wilcl virusb. Street virusc. Fixed virusd. All of the above

35. Quarantine period for yellow fever is:

i: il^r;::;c. 12 grr,To

d. 13 gm%42. Disease spread by hard tick is:

a. Rocky mountain spotted feverMnrch 2005 b. Epidemic typhus

c. Murine typhusd. Scrr-rb typhus

Septembcr 2005

d. Japanese encephalitis44. Causative agent f& oriental sore is:

a. Onchocerca volvulusb. Leishmania donovanrc. Leishmania tropicad. Brugya malayi

September 2006

43. Which of the following is spread by aedesmosquitoes:a. Loa L.oa

Seplentbcr 2007

b. Malariac. Dengue

March 20A7.

Septenber

Septentuer 2A07

IJJz(JoIIJ

=J,{.6,o,a;o:z',<..IIJ.'>:F,,ziIIJ i>{lI|;E',o-''

a. 1 davb. 2 day's

c. 6 daysd. t0 days

36. Plaque is transmitted by:a. Flea

b. Soft tickc. Mitesd. Hard tick

September 2005

37. True regarding elimination of neonatal tetanus invillage:a. Rate more than 1/1000 live births

september 2006

b. Attended deliveries less than 50%c. Attended deliveries more than 50%d. Rate less than 0.1/1000 live births

38. Chandler,s index isa. Round worm

associated with: September 2006

b. Hook wormc. Pin wormd. Tape worm

45. Larvae of which of the following lies parallel tosurface of water:a" Anophele, teptember 2oo7

b. Culexc. Aedesd. Sandfly

46. After the appearance of rash, prophylactic isolation ofmeasles case is necessary for a minimum of:

39. Vector for dengue fever is:a. Culexb. Aedesc. Male Anophelesd. Female Anopheles

40. Natural reservoir of Chikungunya virus in India is:

a. Monkeyb. Guinea pigc. Aedesd. Dog

a. 2daysb. 5 daysc" 7 daysd. 9 days

September 2007

47. All of the following diseases are reported to WHOexcept:

a" Plague SePtentber 2007

b. Yellow feverc. Poliod. Cholera

48. Scrub typhus is spread by:a. Ticksb. Fleas

c. Trombiculid mited. Louse

March 2007

September 2007

Self ,Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screening Examination

49. Immunoglobulin is used for all of the following 56. Which of the following is not a complication of

diseases excePt:

a. Measles

b. Rabies

c. Typhoid

d. Chickenpox

S0. Culex mosquito spreads all of the following disease

excePt:

a. Viral arthritis

b. West Nile fever

c. Yellort' fever

d. Bancroftian filariasis

51. Measles is infective for:

March 2048

a. One da,v before and 4 davs after rash

b. Four clays before and five days after rash

c. Entire incubation period

d. Only during scabs falling

52. Which of the following is best for ante-mortem

diagnosis of rabies: March 2009

a. Antirabies antibodies in blood

b. Immunofluorescence of comeal impressions

c. Immunofluorescence of skin biopsy

d. Isolation of virus from saliva

53. Which of the following is not a part of management

in grade III dog bite infected with rabies: March 2009

a. Vaccination

b. Stitch the wound with antibiotic coverage

c. Wash with soap and waterd. Administration of antirabies serum and vaccination

54. A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs afterconsuming milk. Organism responsible for this may

March 2008 mumps:

a. Orchitis

b. Oophoritis

c. Encephalitis

d. Hepatitis

It4nrdt 2409

March 2009

March 2009

57. Case notification under intemational health

regulations is done for which of the following:

September 2009

a. hepatitis B

b. HIV

c. Yeiioll'fer.er

d. Ali of the above

58. Inflrrenza shows which type of trend: Stlttctrrber 2009

a. Secular

b. Cyclicai ic. Seasonal


59. Dengue is transmitted by; Marclt2010

a. Anopheles

b. Culex

c. Mansonia

d. Aedes

60. Which of the following disease has an incubation

period of less than 1 week: March 2010

a. Measles

b. Cholera

c. Mumps

d. Pertussis

61. Which of the following diseases is under

international surveillance: March 20L0

a. Influenza

b. Malaria

c. Polio

d. All of the above

62. False statement regarding japanese encephalitis is:

March 2010

a. lt is caused by flavivirus

b. Transmitted by aedes mosquito

c. Not endemic in India

d. Man is dead-end host

Nlnrch 20A9

tl ,tl

fii.i':l i iir'

rli'

;.Ul,v,ffi,,(i,111:zl{i<iirTl

*>'tzIE]taFOfoal

-i>al]-{={m*gi0;iztltl*;be..

a. Clostridiumperfringenesb. Bacillus cereus

c. Salmonella typhid. Staphylococcus

55.Infectivity period of chickenpox is:a. 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rashb. 4 days before and L day after appearance of rashc. Only when scab fallsd. Entire incubation period

iiiiiii

63. KFD is transmitted by:a. Tick

b. Sandfli'

c. Mosquito

d. Mite64. Tru_e statement regarding poliomyeliti s is: March 2010a. Poliovirus is resistant to pasteurization

b. For every clinical case, there may be 1000subclinical cases in adults.

c. Commonly spreads by faeco_oral rorrted. Most outbreaks of polio are due to type_3 poliovirus

65. Hypertension is associated with all of the followingexcept: March 2010a. Excess salt

b. Excess exercisec. Phaeochromocytomac1. Obesity

66. WHO notifiable disease are all of the followingexcept:

March 2010a. Cholerab. Plaguec. Tetanusd. Yellow fever

DEMOCRAPHY AND PREVENTIVE HEALTH67. To achieve a NRR of 1, Couple protection rate shouldbe: March 2005a. More than 30%

b. More than4}"/oc- More than 50%d. More than 60%

68. Eligible couple is defined as: March 2005


March 2010 71. Maternal mortality rate is calculated as death of awoman upto a period of:a. Immediately after delir.eryb. 42 days after deliveryc. 7 da7,s after deliveryd. 21 days after delivery

72.Total fertility rate is defined as:a. Number of childrens born to

lifetimeb. Number of girl children bom to

lifetimec. Nurnber of bov children bom to

lifetime

Septemher 20Cs

d. Number of girl children born to married woman inreproductive age group.

uzo)otgEJi<.otoioi:oiz.i<:lUi>;FiZ':IJJ i>;IIJ;uio-1

73. Eligible couple is defined as:a. Married couple vrtth husband

groupb. Married couple rvith wife

group

September 2005

woman over her

woman over her

r{roman over her

September 2005

inn reproductive age

in reproductive age

c. Married couple irrespective of the age groupd. None of the above

74. Denominator for maternal mortality rate is:

a. Married couple with husband age 20_40b. Married couple with wife uge tS_+Sc-. Married couple irrespective of the age groupd. Just married

69. PQLI includes all of the following except March 2005a. Per capita incomeb. Literacy ratec. Life expectanry at 1 yeard. Infant Mortality

70" Denominator for calculating infant mortality rate is:

a. 100,000 pregnancies

b. 100,000 live birthsc. 100,000 birthsd. 100,000 population

75. Sullivan index denotes:a. Life expectancy at birth

September 2005,2010

September 2006

b. Life expectanry excluding disabilty free periodc" Contraceptive failure rated. Hookworm density in stool

76. Infant Mortality Rate for Japan is: March 2007d.L

c.4o.5

77. According to 2001. census the male:female ratio [sexratiol in India was:a. 890

b. 933

c. 957

d. 978

a. 1000 popularionb. 1000 birthsc. 1000 live birthsd. 1000 pregnancies

September 2005 September 2007


76. g,ccording to 2001 census, what was the growth rate

of India:

a. 1.03%

b. 1,.33%

c. 1.63%

d. r.%%

79. lndia is at which stage of Demographic cycle:

SEtember 2008, March 2009

a. High stationary

b. Early stationary

c. Late expanding

d, Low stationary

80. t{uman Development Index includes all of the

following except: March 2a09, September 2009

a. Infant mortalityb. Income

c. literacy rate

d. Life expectancy at birth

81. Which of the following better correlates withSullivan's index: March 2009

a. InJant mortality rate

b. Life expectancy at the age ofonec. Per capita income

d. Numbers of years lived without disability82. Denominator while calculating secondary attack rate

following a person with a primary disease is:

March 2009

a. All the contacts who are exposed to the affected

person

b. AII the people in his homec. All the people in his familyd. All the people in his city

83. Child-Women ratio is the number of child per:

March 2049

a. 1000 womenb. 1000 married womenc. 1000 women in reproductive age

d. 1000 married women in reproductive age

84' The number of girls a woman would bear if she

Passes through her reproductive age with the samefertility rate gives:a. Total fertility rateb. Fertility ratec. Gross reproductive rated. Net reprocluctive rate

85. Denominatot for calculating perinatal mortality rate

is: September 2009

a. 1000 births

b" i000 live birthsc. 1000 still birthsd. 1000 population

86. Percentage of children of under 4 years of age in

September 2007

87. According to WHO guidelines, number of check-

ups/antenatal visits for a woman having nonnaluncomplicated pregnancy is: Septenrber 2009

a.8b. 10

c. 14

O- lf)

88. True statement regarding'at risk babt':September 2009

a. Birth weight less than 2J5kgb. Weight less than 70% of the expected weightc. Birth order more than 3

d. Ist degree maL:rutrition

89. All of the following are components of the

India is:

a. 1,0"/o

b. 15%

c. 20%

d. 25o/"

2001 was:

a. Tripura

b. Rajasthan

c. Uttar pradesh

d. Orissa

September 2009

March2070Kuppuswamy's scale except:

a. Education

b. Maternal mortalityc. Occupation

d. Family income

90. Infant Mortality Rate of India as per 2007 census is:

March 2010

a. 34

b. 44

c. 54

d. 54

91. As per census 2001, most populous state during 199L-

March 2009March 2005

UJ; . u;";;;Z: d. 9 monrhs

llJ { 96.Daily required dose of iron iiron in an adult man is:>i-.a2i :11-'1g i D' u.d mg

>i c. 0.9mg

a. Cow milk has comparatively more fatb. Con, milk has comparatively more proteinc. Cow milk has comparatively more calciumd. Cow milk is iron deficient

100. Meals supplied in mid day meals programmeshould provide:a. 1/2 calories and U2 proteinsb. 1/2 calories and 1/3 proternsc. l/3 calories and ll2 proteinsd. 1/3 calories and 1/3 proteins

September 2Mj

101. Pellagra is due to deficiency of: September 2006.200ga. Riboflavin

b. thiamine

c. Niacin

d. pyridoxine

102. Fish Iiver oil is the richest source of: September 2006a. Vitamin Kb. Vitamin E

c. Vitamin Dd. Vitamin A

103. Number of calories in 100 grams of breast milk is:

September 2007a. 45 Kcal

b. 65 Kcal

c. 85 Kcal

d. 105 Kcal

104. Amount of proteins in human milk (in gms):

September 2007a" 1.1

b. 2.2

^ aaL. J.J

d. 4.4

105. Vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children every:

a" 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 12 months

d" lB months

NUTRITION

92. The upper line in growth chart denotes whatpercentile of WHO reference standard: Marclr 2005a. 50ft percentileb. 60th percentilec. 70th percentiled. 80th percentile

93. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended bv WHOupto:

a. 3 monthsMarch 2005

b. 4 months


March 2005

September 2a0S

is:

September 2005

99. Differences between human milk and cowall of the following except: ,-:::rf;

9 ,n. Dietary fibres are rich in:6 , "' c.,;;

J arE rrLrr rn: It4arch 2005

E b. proreogl-vcan

e . c. pectin

<,, d. starch

i- 1 nU.In India, percentage of energy from fats should be

6 " less than: March 2005,2010

ai a. ru

zi c. 30

<i d. 40

UI d. 1.0 mg

a" 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 9 months

d. 12 months

98. Toxin responsible for epidemic dropsy

BOAA

Sanguinarine

Pyrrolizidine

Ergots

a.

b.

c.

d"

Septetnber 2007


10f. WHO defines BMI of the malnourished as:

a. Berow 'g

kgm2 March 2oo8

b. Below 18.5 kglm2

c. Below 19kglm2

d. below 19.5 kglm2

107. Folic acid requirement during lactation is:

September 2A08

a. 100 microgram/day

b. 150 microgramlday

c. 200 microgram/day

d. 250 microgramlday

108. Recommended initial dose of Vitamin " A" fotprophylaxis in a 9 month old child is: September 2008

a. 4,00,000I.U

b. 5.00.000I.u

c. 1,00.000 LU

d. 2.00.000I.u.

109. A patient of total parenteral nutrition develops

delayed wound healing loss of taste, deficientimmunity and diarrhoea. Most probably it could be

due to deficiency of:

a. Selenium

b. Copper

c. Zincd. Iron

September 2008

1.10. Calories required by one year old child is:

September 2A08

a. 92kcallkgldayb" 102 kcafkg/dayc. ll2kcallkgldayd. l,22kcallkglday

111. 1st symptom of vitamin A deficiency: March 20A9

a. Conjunctivalxerosisb. Bitot's spots

c. Night blindnessd. Corneal ulcer

1L2. Vitamin not present in breast milk:a. Vitamin Ab" Vitamin B 'c. Vitamin C

d. VitaminD

113. When milk is taken before meal which of the

following element's absorption is decreased:

March 2009

a. Calciurn

b. Ironc. Phosphorous

d. Magnesium

1"14. Best indicator for monitoring the effectiveness ofiodine deficiency controi programme is:

September 2C09

a. Neonatalirypoti'ryroidismb. Hy'pothyroidism in male population , Ttc. Hypothyroidism in female populatior.r . Ncl. Size of goitror-rs lesion 'Il'!

115. How many gram of protein is given in mid day meal f;scheme:

a. 4-8 gram

b. 8-12 gram

c. 72-L6 gram

March 2410 ';,ft.{l'1xm

d. r6-20gtam t>115. Extra calories required during pregnancy state is: y,Z

,orrP 2g1g{Eta. 100 kcal/dayb. 200 kcal/dayc. 300 kcal/dayd. 400 kcal/day

117. Deficiency of zinc causes all of the follon'ing except:

NIarch 2010

a. Growth retardationb. SexuaI infantilismc. Alopeciad. Immunologicaldisturbances

118. Vitamin K is required for-a. Chelationb. Transamination

c. Carboxylationd. none ofthe above

119, Under National Programme for Prevention ofNutritional Blindness, a child in the age group of 6-

1.1 months is given a single dose of vitamin A is:

March 2005

a. 50,000 IUb. 1.00.000IU

c. 1,50,000 IUd. 2,00.000 ru

March 2005

lratot:O

iFlri=imlu:lr.-{oirZ1m:'a.

.'...''-

:--*

March 2009


UJzqoIJJ

=J

C)oU'ozIIJ

FzuJ

ulto-

120. Which of the following vitamin may have an antiinfective action: StVtember 2005

a. VitaminKb. Vitamin Dc. VitaminAd. Vitamin E

121. All of the following are antioxidant except:

September 2005a. Vitamin Ab. Vitamin B

c. Vitamin C

d. \/itamin E122. Thiamine deficiency may be seen in all of the

following except: March 2009a. Homocystinemia

b. Chronic alcoholismc. Heart failure patients on diureiicsd. Starvation

123. Which of the following is false regardingacrodermatitis enteropathica:a. Low serum zinc levelsb. Triad of diarrhea, dementia and dermatitisc. Autosomal recessive conditiond. None of the above

124. Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency

d. 4.5 gramsilitre

127. Depth of water seal in I{CA sanitary latrine of India

March 20A7

a. 10 mm

b. 20 mm

c. 30 mm

d. 40 mm

128. Amount of free residual chlorine indrinking water: September 2007, March 2010

a. 0.1 mg,{-

b. 0.5 mg/L

c. 1.0 mg,4-

d. 1.5 mg/L

129. Amount of chlorine needed to kill cyclops indrinking water is: Selttenrber 2007

a. 3 ppm

b. 4pp*c. 5 pp-d. 6pp*

L30. Guideline value for drinking water is:

September 2007

a. 1 coliforms per 100 mlb. 10 coliforms per 1000 mlc. Zero coliforms per 100 mld. 100 coliforms in 10,000 ml

131. Which of the following is false regarding respirable

dust;

a. May lead to pneumoconiosisMarch2010

b. Smaller than 5 microns is respirablec. Silicosis is the most common dust disease

d. Soluble dust remains in the lungs for a long time

132. Recommended flouride concentration in water to

prevent caries is: March 20L0

a.0b. 0.5 ppm

c. lppmd. 1.5 ppm

133. Nitrates in drinking water indicates: September 2005

a" Remote faecal pollutionb. Recent faecal pollutionc. Unpolluted waterd. Water fit for drinking

of:

a" Thiamine

b. Niacinc. Pantothenic acid

d" Cyanocobalamin

March 2a10, September 2010

ENVIRONMENT AND SANITATION

125. In ORS, the effect of glucose on sodium absorptionls: September 2005

a. Increase in sodium absorptionb. Decrease in sodium absorptionc. Variable effect on sodium absorptiond. No effect on sodium absorption

126. Sodium content in reduced osmolarity ORS is:

a. 1.5 gramslliire - september 2006

b" 2.5 grams/litrec" 3.5 grams/litre


f4. The acceptable noise level that can be tolerated 141. All were the goals for National health policy 2002

wiihout any damage to hearing is: Mnrch 2009 except: Septemher 2009

a. 85 dB

b. 90 dB

c. 95 dB

d. 100 dB

NATIONAL POLICIES AND HEALTH CARE

135. Who should be trained in a community for house to

house surveys:

a. Multipurpose worker

b. Volunteer

c. Flealth educator

d. Health guide

March 2005

136. Community health centre covers a population of:

March 2005, St'ptenfuer 2009

a. 10,000-30,000

b. 30.000-60.000

c. 60,000-80,000

d. 80,000-1,20,000

137. National rural health mission is staded by prime

a. F-,lirninate lymphatic filariasis b1, 2015

b. Eliminate Kala-azar by 2010

c. Eliminate HIV by 2015

d. Eliminate leprosy by 2005

L42. Rural population under one primary health centre

in plain areas in India is:

a. 10,000

b. 20,000

c. 30,000

d. 1,20,000

SEtember 2049

143. True about Minimum development goals is:

SeptenLter 2009

a. 'fotal of 15 goals harre to be acl-rieved

b. Targets to be achieved by 2015

c. Policy of Indian govemirent

d. Concerned only rvith the provision of primary

health care

144. All of the following are present in a subcentre

except:

a. Multipurpose worker male

b. Multipurpose worker female

c. Medical officer

d. Volunteer worker

L45. A health guide works at:

a" Each village level

b. Sub centre level

c. PHC level

d. CHC ievel

September 2009

September 2009

146. Which of the following is incorrect about ASHA:

September 2009

a. 1 ASHA worker per 1000 popuiation

b. Resident of local community

c" She must be educated till 4th class

d. 25-45 years of age

147. Death needs to be registered within: September 2009

a. 4 days

b. 7 d,ays

c. 10 days

d. 14 days

;.,1;:;i,aa

:r]ri'.it::.:.5, . j.i'.: ::.':

.,--.:-:,, .i:

, .ii

minister in:a. 2003

b. 2004

c. 2005

d. 2006

September 2007

rTfim

''<,'m:.2;li<imr>i.zig':utio,Q:F;rt=imi9tei:Zam

lt''.iiri*1:.

138. A primary health care center should provide allexcept: September 2007

a. Treatment of common diseases

b. Specialisedsurgeriesc. Immunizationd. Family planning services

139. Which of the following is posted at a subcentre:

March 2008

a. Voluntary workerb. Anganwadi workersc. Trained daid. Health guide

140. Which of the following committee proposed the

concept of primary health centre in India:March 2008

a. Mukerji committeeb. Bhore committeec. Kartar singh committeed. Mudaliar committee

''.":.

148. Which of the following is not a part of duties of


March 2070

March 2010

154. Weight of 9 students of a class is as follows _ 22,24,76,72,76,78,80,73 and.72. What is the mode:

anganwadi worker:a. Immunizationb. Health check-ups

c. Conductingdeliveriesd. Supplementarynutrition

149. Number of beds in a CHC is:

uJz()ollJ ,'

=Jr{io;o:U):

!.o:2,,(irJi)iF;zt;UJr)iUJ:E,:O-i

;j

a. 20

b. 30

c. 40

d. 50

150. Kartar singh committee recommendations arerelated to: March 2()10a. No private practiceb. Measrrres to improve effectiveness of National

Malaria Eradication programmec. Framework of health services at peripheral leveld. Concept of primary health care

151. Which of the following is a duty of multipurposeworker male: March 2010a. He will visit schools at regular intervai in the

PHC

b. Organizes staff meetingsc. Regularly visit to every house in his aread. Attends patients in the OpD

152. As per RCH, which of the following is the firstreferral unit:a. Subcentre

b. Primary health centrec. Community health centred. Medical college hospital

September 2009

BIOSTATISTICS

153" Considering the table given below, odds ratio canbe calculated as: September 2008

a. 72

b. 74

c. 76

d. 78

155. Standard deviation is defined as:a. Value of middle observation

arranged in ascending order.

March

March

when data

b. Arithmetic meanc. Dispersion of values about the meanct. Most frequently occtrrring value

156. Significant value of "p,' is: Nlarch 201Aa. 0.01

b. 0.02

c. 0.04 id. 0.05

157. All of the following are measures of dispersionExcept: Septembera. Mean Deviationb. Mode

c. Range

d. Standard deviation158. Percentage of a data can be depicted on a:

September 20ffia. Pie chartb. Bar diagram

c. Histogramd. Graph

159. A continuous quantitative data can be depicted with :

the help of- Sept 2009

a. Bar diagram

b. Pie chart

c. Histogramd. Pictogram

MISCELLANEOUS

160" Most important factor which decides the results of a

randomized controlled trial is: March 2005

a. Inclusion of all age groupsb. 50% treated with placebo and 50% witll drugsc. 100% follorv upd. Effectiverandomization

a. AB/CDb. ACEOc. AD/BC

d, BDiAC

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE I MCI Screenino Examination

161. Socially acquired behavior is known as:

March 2005, Septentber 2010

a. Culture

b. Socialization

c. Internalization

d. Custom

162. Temporary contraceptive method of choice in a37 yrwell educated, normal woman is:

a. Diaphragmb. IUCDc. N{ala-D

d. Mala-N

March 2005

L63. Best protection from STD and Syphilis is bv:Mnrch 2005

a. IUCDb. Condomc. OCP

d. Tubectomy

164. Comparing cost of 2 sfudies and choosing the one

which is economically superior to others is done by:

March 2005

a. Cost accountingb. Cost benefitc. System analysis

d. Netn'ork analysis

165. Condoms are more preferred because: September 2005

a. Reduced failure rates

b. Easily availablec. Reduced side efffectsd. Easy to use

156. Natural method of contraception is: September 2005

a. Rhythm methodb. Coitus interruptusc. Breast feedingd. A1l of the above

167. First step in investigating an epidemic is:

Septenfuer 2005

a. Confirmation of the diagnosisb. Isolationc. Mass immunizationd. Verification of the diagnosis

168. Triage in casuality is done for: September 2006

a. Prevention of such casualitiesb. Treating patientsc. Case segregationd. Predicting after effects of casuality

169. To facilitate the screening of visual-acuity, WHOdefines blindness as counting fingers at a distance

of:a. 1 metreb. 3 rnetres

c. 6 metres

d. 9 metres

S4ttembcr 2006A Septeruber 20L0

Sclttt'trt|ttr 21t07

March 2008

170. Human anatomical waste is put in:a. Yellowb. Red

c. Blue

d. Biack

171. True regarding Df)T is:

a Svntlielicinst'cticiclc

b. Natural insecticide

March 2007

c. Organophosphateirrsecticide

d. No incidence of resistance

172,ln a faclory, sickness absenteeism predicts:

Septetnber 2007

a. Relationship between employee and employer

b. Working environmentc. Managerial controld. State of health of workers

173.Kata thermometer is used to measure: September 2A07

a. Air pressure

b. Degree of hotness in airc. Air cooling powerd. Air density

174.Trse regarding malathion are all of the followingexcept:

a. Used as a sprayb. Can be used as an altemative to DDTc. Most toxic of all members of the groupd. Belongs to organophosphorous insecticides

175. Sickness benefit under ESI Act is payable for howmany days in a year:

a. 71 days

b. 81 days

c. 91 days

d. 101 days

March &. Septcmber 2008

176.Target forwater supply in rural areas of India is:

Septentber 2008

a. 30 litres per capita per day

b. 40 litres per capita per dav

c. 50 litres per capita per dayd. 60 litres per capita per day

Tnm

m.'2i='.:<imi>a:zisitcn;o|'Oi>r: l-i=imlEli6i=..lrl

c. Compariscn of alternati_resd. Sequence of actrons

179. As per the school health committeerecommendation, medical examinationchildren should be done every:a 1 Yearb. 2vearc. 3 yeard. 4year

180. Which of the following can be eliminated by doubleblinding: March 2009a. Berkensonian bias

b. Recall biasc. Interviewer,s biasd. Selection bias

181. In disaster situation, how many colour codes areused for triage: september 2ooga. 1

b.2L.J

d. None of the above182. Ratio of doors and windows to the floor for a

classroom should be at least:a. 20%b. 25%c. 30%d. 35%

September 2009

183. Bhopal gas tragedy of India is an example ofMarch2010

a. Assaultb. Civil Injuryc. Hurtd. Wound

Septentber

186. WHO guidelines for minimal sperm count is:

a. 10 million/mlb. 20 miltion/mlc. 50 million/mld. 60 million/ml

SeTttentber 2007

777' Agroup of experts discussing a topic in front of theaudience without any specific order. This mode of


St1rtt,,,Lr, ,OOt

of schoolMarch 2009

d. HIV drug trial185. When someone iltegally harms property., body orsomeone,s reputation, it is known as:

communication is known as:a. Panel discussionb. Group discussionc. Team presentationd. Symposium

rii

1.78. Benefits of cost benefit analysis of a programme aremeasured in terms of: Septenfuer 200ga" Number of lives savedb. lr4onetary gains

UJzEoIIJ

=JS,Oio:v),:,

olZt(,ltJ;>.:FizlUI:)rlIJ.t',[]

187. Essential health care made universally accessible toindividuals and acceptable to them is called:

-" Multiple exposure epidemicb. Propagated epidemicc. Point source epidemicd. Slow epidemic

184. Which of the following is not included in phase Iclinical trial of medicine: March 2007a. Healthy volunteersb. Patient with end stage diseasec. Epilepsy patients

a. Essential heaiTh careb. Primary health carec. Community health cared. Social rnedicine

188. Anti tobacco day is:a. lMayb. 15 Mayc. 25Mayd. 31May

September 200g

September 2009

189. Process by which an individual gradually acquiresculture and becomes a member of a social group isknown as:

a. Intemalisatio., teptenrber 20a9

b. Acculturationc. Socializationd. Custom

190. The critical path method in health planning andmanagement is: March2010a. Shortest time taken to complete the projectb. Longest path taken to complete the iroyectc. Mid-point for reviewing the proiectd. None of the above

191. Which phase of clinical trial involves normal humanVolunteers:

March 2010a. phase 0b. Phase IL. rnase lld. Phase III

children less than 12yrs:a. CSOMb. Otosclerosisc. furous otitis media

March 2009

March 2009

d. Atresia of auditory canals on both sides5. Negative Rhinne,s test for 256 Hztuning fork

indicates a minimum air_bone gap of Marclt 2009

a"

b.

c.

u-

siFll.*€#,€sj

ffii.2.7VE

ae.

trr

{iF]:;

t1:

t:'-'.z::a

a.:a:

,',,.::

a. 1OdB

b. 15dB

c. 20dB

d. 25dB

6. Cauliflower ear seen in:a. Hematoma of the auricleb. Carcinoma of the auriclec. Fungal infection of the auricled. Congenital cleformity

7. Causative organism for malignant otitis externa is:

HemophilusStaphyiococcus

Streptococcus

Pseudomonas

**o.*,ffiXffi***EAR, NOSE AND THROAT (ENT) (euestiorJ

1. Hyperacusis is seen in all of the following except:

March 2007a. Exposr-rre to loud soundsb. Otosclerosisc. Meniere's diseased. Severe head injury

2. Menieres disease is characterized by the triad ofMLtrclt 2()08a. Lleafness, nvstagmus, tremors

b. Deafness, vertigo, nysragmusc. Deafiress, tinnitus, t ertigod. Deafness, tremors, tinnifus

3' The first clinical presentation of acoustic neuroma isfeature of:

Septenfuer 200ga. Brainstem involvementb. Cerebellar involvementc. Faciai nerve! involvementd. Cochleovestibular symptoms

4. Most common cause of conductive deafness in

b. Otosclerosisc. Dislocation of the incudostapediai jointd. ASOM

9. Most comtnon cause of chronic ear infection in India is:

a. Svphilitic otitis mediab. TB otitis mediac. CSOMd. Fungal otitis merdia

Septentlter 2a09

10. Referred pain in the ear is commonly from:

a. Maxillary carcinom;b. Nasopharyng"ul

"uJ.i.,o*uc. Carcinoma tongued. Malignant otitis externa

Septentber 200g

11. Tuning fork frequency used for testing is:

a. 572H2b. 1048 Hzc^ 248H2d. All of the above

Septentber 2009

12. Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of whichpart of the semi circular canals: Scptenfuer 2009,2A10a. Lateralb" Posteriorc" Anteriord. AII of the above

13. AII of the following are true about glomus_jugularetumor except: March)010, Septerfuer 2010a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodesb. Pulsatile tinnifus and conductiro d"uf.,er, ,"".,c. Most commoniv affects maled. Paraganglioma,s

NOSE

14. CSF rhinorrhoea is due to the fracture of which of thefollowing March 2aog

a. Nasal bonesb. Cribriform plaiec. Temporal troned. Maxiliary bone

8. Unilateral conductive hearing loss in a patient withhistory of head injury. On examinatlo.r, ty*pur.i.membrane is normal and mobile.The cause fordeafness could be:a. Collection of fluid in the middle ear

septenber 20ag

EAR

Septentber 2009


19. One of the most important complication of li$itracheostomy is: SePf ember 2008 i;;l;6.Youn8's :l"t:ltii is done for: March 2009

a. AiroPhtc rnrruns

b. Vasomotor rhinitis

c. Antrachonal PoIYP' d. Allergic rhinitis

16. Treatment of choice for antrochoanal polyp:

SePtenfuer 2009

a. IntranasalPolYPectomY

b. Caldwell-Luc oPeration

c. EndoscoPic sinus surgery

d. Intranasal ethmoidectomY

17. Which of the following is associated with olfactory

nerve dysfunction: Mnrch 2010

a. Dorvn syndrome

b. Tumer s)'ndrome

c. Parkinst tn disease

d. Marfan sYndrome

lHROAT

18.All of the following are true regarding tracheostomy

fube excePt:

a. Double lumen tube

b. Made of titanium silver alloY

September 2008

c. Cuffed tube prevents aspiration of pharyngeal

secretions

d. Ideally should be changed every 3'd day

a. Surgical emPhYsema

b. Hemorrhagec. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

d. Displacement of tube

20. Stridor in an infant is most commonly due to:

March 20L0

a. Diphtheriab. Acute ePiglottitisc. Foreign bodY asPiration

d. Laryngomalacia

MISCELLANEOUS

21. Paralysis of which muscle lead to hyperacusis in Bell's

palsy:a. Tensor veli Palatinib. Levator Palatinic. Stapedius

d. Stemocleidomastoid

22. florner's syndrome is caused by:

a. Facial injurY

Septcmber 2008

b. Nasopha4mgeal carcinoma with metastasis

c. Meniere's disease

d. All of the above

March 2009

:m

?.,210;CN:.mi>i:Zi(]i+i-?n:o:>l{:;.:rntzl-li

:::i|: t

s6,!f AssEsslvrErv"girurcEzMcr SCRE.rNTNG

OPHTHALMOLOGY ANATOMY-1. Maximum cones arc secn in:

a. Limbusb. Fovea centralisc. Macula lutead. Blind spot

2. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by: March 2005a. Third cranial nerveb. Fourth cranial nervec. Fifth cranial nerved. Sixth cranial nerve

3. Axial length of eye ball is: Mnrclt 2005a. 16 mmb. 20 mmc. 24 mmd. 28 mm

4. 1mm change in the axial length of the eyeballprodtrces a change in refractive index by: March 2a0Sa. 1Db. 2Dc. 3D

d. 4D

5. Blind spot of Mariotte is also known as: March 2007a. Optic discb. Ora serrata

c. Maculad. Fovea

6. Depth of anterior chamber of the eye: March 2007a. 2-3 mmb. 3-4 mmc. 4-5 mmd. 5-6 mm

7. If the length of eyeball increases by I mm. The neteffect will be: September 2007a. Myopia of 6Db. Hypermetropia of 6Dc. Myopia of 3Dd. Hypermetropia of 3D

8. Eye structure with maximum refractive power:

March 20a7Anterior surface of lensPosterior surface of lensAnterior surface of corneaPosterior surface of cornea

Septembera. +6D

b. +10D

c. +16D

d. +60 D

OPHTHALMOLOCY PROCEDURES

11. In direct ophthalmoscopy, image is magnified by:

March2ffiSa. 5 timesb. 10 timesc. i 5 timesd. 20 times

12. All are true regarding direct ophthalmoscopy except :

Marcha. Image is erect

b. Magnification is more than indirectophthalmoscopy

c. Wide area of fundus with least magnification ca"Uiseen in hypermetropics .

d. It has a large field of view. ,j13. Isochromatic charts are used fon March 2Mg,:.

a. Contrast sensitivity : jb. Testing colour visionc. Visual fields chartingd. Visual acuity testing

14. True regarding retinoscopy are all of the followingexcept: September21N;a. Helps in estimating the condition of the refraction "l

b. Usually performed at 1 m distance l

c. Consists of a plane and a concave mirrord. Hyperopes display an,,against,, movement ,

15. Which of the following is the most reliableprovocative test for angle closure glaucoma: .:

SePtember 20il5

a. Water drinking testb. Mydriatic-miotic test r

c. Homatropine mydriatic testd. Dark room test

OPHTHALMOLO Gy (euestions)

March 2005

9. The normal pH of tears is:a. 6.0

D. b.5

c.7.0

10. Power of normal eye is:

b.

c.

A


15. Initial manoeuver done in congenital dacryocystitis:

Saptember 2007

a. Probing

b. Massaging

c. Ointments

d. Observation

OPHTHALMOLOGY PHARMACOLOGY

17. Which of the following is not an antiglaucoma drug:

September 2006

a. Brimonidine

b. Prednisolone

c. Dorzolamide

cl. Timolol

18. The drug of choice for cytomegalovirus retinitis inHIV patients: Marclt 2007

a. Aryclovirb. Ganciclovir

c. Ribavarin

d. Vidarabine

19. Which of the following drug can be used topically ineye: September 2007

a. Erythromycin

b. Ganciclovir

c. Clindamycind. Tetracyclines

20. 1% atropine is given in uveitis to:a. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation

22. All of the following drugs are associated with cornealdeposition except:a. Chloroquineb. Amiodaronec. Quinacrined. Antimony

CONJUNCTIVA

23. Herbert's pit is seen in:a. Vernal conjunctivitisb. Atopic conjunctivitisc. Gonococcal conjunctir,'itisd. Chlamydial conjunctivitis

24. Xerosis is seen in:a. Vitamin A dc'ficiencyb. Vitamin B deficiencyc. Vitamin C deficiencyd. Vitamin D deficiency

25. Arlt's line is seen in:

September 2009

September 2006

Septentbcr 2006

Marclr 2007

a. Ophthalmia neonarorumb. Trachomac. Angular conjunctivitisd. Vernal catarrh

26. Conjunctival xerosis is seen in all of the followingexcept: March 2008

a. Steven-Johnson syndromeb. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca

c. Vitamin A deficiencyd. Sarcoidosis

27. Xerophthalmia can be caused by: March 2010

a. Steven-Johnsons).ndromeb. Vitamin A deficiencyc. Suifa drugsd. All of the above

28. Which of the following virus does not cause

conjunctivitis: March 2010

a. CMVb. Adenovirusc. Herpes simplex virusd. Picornavirus

29. Trachoma can cause all of the following except:

March 2005

a. Loss of visionb. Clouding of the corneac. Trichiasisd. Enopthalmos

o,Tl

!-+!{,,I;>.l-;=o:l-iorO.<

March 2010

of anteriorslmecnlae

b. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posteriorsynechiae

c. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of posteriorslmechiae

d. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posteriorsynechiae

21. Pilocarpine is used in all of the following except:

September 2006

a. Primary, Open Angle Glaucomab" Malignant Glaucomac. Acute Angle Closure Glaucomad" Chronic Synechial Angle Closure Glaucoma

Ophthalmotogy

30. Epithelial lining of conjunctiva is:a. Squamouskeratinizedb. Pseudo-stratifiedc. Cuboidaid. Stratified non-keratinized

CORNEA

31. Diagnostic test for corneal ulcer:a. rnethlzlgns blggb. Sodium fluorescein dyec. Alcian l,.lued. Rose Bengal

March 2005

32. Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in: hla,-ctt 20()5a. Fuirgal keratitisb. Congeniial svphilisc. I)irlyctc.nular keratitisd" Trachorna

33. Dendritic ulcer is seen in:a. Fung;-rl keratitisb. Clilamydial keratitisc. Herpes zoster keratitisd. Herpes simplex keratitis

34. True about keratoconus are all of the following except:Septenfuer 2005

a. Can be seen in Dortn,s syndromeb. It manifests just after birihc. Munson sign is characteristicd. Corneal transplantation is needed in severc. cases.

35. Corneal lesion seen in Hutchinson triad associatedwith congenital syphilis is: Septentber 2006a. Disciform keratitisb. Interstitial keratitisc. Phylectenular keratitisd. Mooren ulcer

36. True about Fuchs endothelial dystrophy are all except:Septenfuer 2006

a. Cornmonly seen in the elderly femaleb. Svmmetrical and unilateral conditionc. Comea guttatae is characteristicd. Iratient tl,picallv complains of seeing halos in the

morning37" True about Moorens ulcer: Mnrch 2007

a. Painless conditionb. Affects corneac. Sudden loss of visiond. Bilateral in majoritv of cases

38. Normal endothelial cell density fper mm squarej incornea to maintain transparency is: Septenilter 2gg7r,,,i

a. -100

b. 400

c. 500

cl. 600

39" Refractive index of cornea is: Septentber 2|0(t7

7.28

1.38

1.48

1.58

40. True about corneal opacity are all except:a. Anttrior siaplll,ie*o has iris tissr_rc

n'ithin tire scar tissue

b. Healing of a perforated cornealformation of aclhe?ent leucoma

c. A strictly ktcalized dense leucorna interferes mcrethan a thin,diffuse nebula covering the papillary area.

d. Some opacities may persists despite destruction ofBowman's membrane

41. Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nerve:

Trochlear

Trigeminai

Abducens

Facial

September 20A8 :,!.,.

42. Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except:

Mnrch 2aA9

It4arch 2009

Mnrclt 2005, 2()07

C,oJ,o='J,tF-o-o

c

d

b

c.

A

Penetrati ng kera toplastl'

Debridement of the edges of the uicer43. Acute corneal hydrops is seen in: Selttentber 200g

Cornael dystrophy

Anterior staphyloma

Interstitial keartitis

Keratoconus


44. Nerve involved in exposure keratopathy:

SePtenfuer 2009

a. Third cranial nerve

b. Fifth cranial nerve

c. Seventh cranial nerve

d. Ninth cranial nerve

45. Cornea gets its nourishment mainly from:

SePtentber 2009

a. AtmosPhere

b. Aqueous humourc. Vitrcous humotrrd. Corneal vessels

46. In Lon'e syndrome, all of the following are seen

except: Sclttenrber 2407

a. Undescended testes in males

b. Cataractc. H;'Pertoniad. Low IQ

47. Initial treatment for perforated corneal ulcer is:

March 2009

a. Conjuctival flaP graftingb. Tissue adhesive glue

c. Contact lens

d. Local anesthetics drops instillation

48. Which of the following is not true regarding fungal

corneal ulcena. ConvexhypoPyonb. Commonly perforatesc. Hyphate marginsd. Satellite lesions are seen

UVEAL TRACT AND CLAUCOMA

March 2009

49. Anterior uveitis is most commonly associated with:March 2005

a. HLA DR4

b. HLA D27c. HLA 84d. HLA B 27

50. Definitive managenment in primary angle closure

51. Most serious complication seen in other eye after

traumatic iniurY to one eYe:

Marclt 2005, SePtember 2008

a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

b. Corneal edema

c. Sympathetic oPhthalmia

d. Sudden loss of vision

52. Posterior staphyloma is seen in: September 2005

a. MyoPia

b. HypermetroPia

c. Astigtratrsmd. PresbYoPia

53. Follorving anatomical changes predisposes to angle

closure glaucoma excePt:

a. Smali cornea

b. Flat cornea

c. Anterior chamber shallower Od. Short axial length of eYebal , 3

54. Structure commonly involved in sympathetic ,

=ophthalmia: Mnrch 2007 ja. Cornea ,>b. Lens i:l-

Nlnrdt 2A()7

c. Optic nerve

d. Iris and ciliary bodY

a. Canal of schlemm

b. Trabecular meshwork

c. Irisd. Scleral venous Plexus

57. True about open angle glaucoma ale all except:

March 2008

a. Open anterior chamber angle

b. Frequcnt change in presbyopic correction

c RaPid visi'.-,n loss

d. Cornrnonest form of glaucoma

i=io55. Which of the following is painless condition: F

$nttmbt 2007' Ya. Anterior diffuse uveities

r" " "- -" - O

b. Anterior nodular uveities i<

c. Posterior uveitis l

d" IridocYclitis i

56. In angle closure glaucoma, obstruction to outflow of

aqueous humour mainly due to the involvement of:

Seulenfuer 2007

glaucoma:a. Trabeculectomyb. Surgical iridectomYc. Laser iridotomycl. Pilocarpine

Marclt 2005

tu

,,,..ji

Ophthalmology

(,,o,J :oil:J.:<:E,rF.it:O-,.oj

,1

58. True about angle recession glaucoma are all except:

September 2009a. \,tiosis is commonly seenb. 'iears of the iris sphincter and ciliary bodyc. Angle recession more than 1g0 degreed. Secondary open angle glaucoma

59. Which of the following is seen in iridodialysis:

September 2009a. Biocular diplopiab. Degenerative conditionc. Iris is torn ar,t,ay from its ciliary attachmentd. Normal pupil

60. Prostaglandin used in the management of glaucoma:

Septeniber 2009a. Bimatoprost 0.03%

b. Travoprost0.004%c. Latanoprost 0.005%

d. Ali of the above

61. HLA testing aids in the diagnosis of which ocularaffection:a. Conjunctivitisb. Uveitisc. Retinitisd. Viteous hemorrhage

62. Neovascular glaucoma is caused by:

March 2010

March 201-0a. CRVOb. CRAOc. Diabetes mellitusd. All of the above

63. Very high intraocular pressure, vertically oval mid_dilated pupil and shallow anterior chamber is seen in:

March 2A10a. Primary open angle glaucomab. Acute primary angle closure glaucomac. Malignant glaucomad. Pupillary block glaucoma

64. Hundred day glaucoma is associated with:

September 2006a. Neovascular glaucomab. CRAOc. CRVO

d. Steroid-related glaucoma

65. Anterior uveitis is commonly associated with:Septe-mber 20Ag

a. Psoriasis

b. Reactive arthritisc. Ankylosing spondylitisd. All of the above

LENS :

66. Which of the following subfypes of cataract is the ]i

most common cause of visual morbidity: Nlarch 2005a. Senile

b. Congenitalc. Traumaticcl. Drug toxicity

67. Ideal site for intraocular lens implantation is:

March 2005, September 2006 & 2009a. Subcomealb. Capsular bag 'c. Anterior to the pupild. Anterior chamber

68. Rosette shaped cataract ina. Senile cataract

b. Diabetic cataractc. Traumatic cataractd. After cataract

69. What is the magnitude of magnification whenrefractive correction of aphakia is done with contactlens: September 2006

a. 1.-2"h

b. 8%

c. 20-30%

d. More than 50%

70. Most common cause of blindness in India is:

September 2006

a. Glaucomab. Cataractc. Trachoma

d. Vitamin A deficiency

71. Sunflower cataract is seen in:a. Trauma

b. Diabetes

c. Chalcosis

d. HIV

March 2005,2N7 |

March, Septenrber 2007


T2.Ectopia lentis is seen in all of the following except:

March 2007

a. Marfan's syndrome

|. Homocystinuriac. Weil-Marchesanislmdrome

d. Down s1'ndrome

73. Most common cause of cataract is:

a. Traumab. DMc. Age related

d. HereditarY

74, Which of the following is most irnportant factor forrefractive en:ors:

a. Lens

b. Vitreous hemorrhage

c. Aqueous humourd. Axial eyeball length

75. In extra-capsular cataract surgery [ECCE], which part

of the lens is excised: September 2008

a. Anterior capsule

b. Posterior capsule

c. Nucleusd. \ltrhole lens

76. Snowflake cataract is associated with: September 2008

a. Hypertensionb. Adult diabetesc. Traumad. fuvenile diabetes

77. Intumescent cataract is associated with which fype ofglaucoma:a. Phacolytic glaucomab. Phacomorphinc glaucomac. Phacotopic glaucomad. Pseudophakic glaucoma

78. Diabetic cataract is due to accumulation of:

a. Fructoseb. Galactosec. Glucosed. Sorbitol

RETINA

79. Tractional retinal detachment is seen in:a. Myopiab. DM retinopathyc. Traumad. Vitreous loss after Surgery

80. Correct statement regarding Coats disease:

March 2007

a. Unilateralb. Presents in fourth to fifth deacde

c. Sudden loss of vision

d. Hereditary in nafure

81. Characteristic feature of diabetic retinopathy:

September 2005,2010 March 2007

a. Hard exudateb. Soft exudatec. Ambylopiad. Microaneurysm

82. Roth's spot are seen in:a. SABE

b. Traumac. Hypertensiond. Trachoma

83. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in: March 2007

a. HIVb. Diabetes Mellitusc. Hypertensiond. All of the above

84. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of

March 2007

Mnrch 2007

t!

retinal detachment: March 2008

a. Feeling of curtain obscuring their field of vision

b. Fioaters

c. Photopsiad. Fall in visual acuity

September 2009 85. Rubeosis iridis is not seen in: Septemher 2008

a. CRVOb. Diabetic retinoPat\c. Hypertensive retinoPathYd. Ocular ischemic syndrome

86. Most common eye pathology in toxoplasma infection

March 2009 is:

a. Corneal ulcerb. Retinochoroiditisc. Uveitisd. Cataract

Marclt 2009

87. Chodoretinitis is commonly caused by all of the

LLnrclt 2007

March 2009

ro]Ti-1{;Ii>ti l-;=:o:,: fio;o,:<t

i.::

ri

March 2005 Following excePt:

a. CryPtococcosis

b. Onchocerciasis

c. Cytomegalovims infectiond. Toxoplasmosis

Ophthalmology

ooJo=JIF-Io-o

88. True regarding photoretinitis are all of the followingexcept: Marclt 2009a. No effective treatmentb. Caused by ultravio)et raysc. Caused by infrared raysd. Complete recovery is possible

89. Retinal tear is associated with which degeneration:

March 201Aa. Equatorial drusenb. Reticular pigmeniary degenerationc. Paving stone degenerationd. Lattice retjnal degeneration

90. All of the following are seen in retinitis pigmentosaexcept: Septetrher 2009a. Prominent retinal vessels

b. Ring scotoma

c. Pigmentation around the retinal veinsd. Pale disc

91. Vision loss in HIV is commonly due to infection with:March 2005

a. Herpes virusb. Toxocara

c. Toxoplasma

d. Cytomegalovirus

92. The superficial retinal hemorrhage is seen in whichlayer of retina: Mnrch 2070a. Inner plexifonn layerb. Nerve fibre layerc. Inner nuclear layerd. Outer nuclear layer

93. Photoretinitis is due to:a. Visible raysb. Infrared raysc. Ultraviolet rays

d. All of tire above

OPHTHAL ONCOLOCY

94. Lisch nodules are seen in:a. Retinoblastoma

b. Neurofibromatosis

c. Retiniitis pigmentosad. Neuroblastoma

95. Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes in microscopy is seenin: c-.-a-. ,Septentlser

a. Retinitispigmentosab. Trauma

c. Retinoblastomad" Neuroblastoma

96. Most common malignant eyelid tumour is:

September 2@a. Melanomab. Retinoblastomac. Neuroblas'roma

d. Basal cell carcinoma

97. All of the following childhood tumours causeproptosis except:a. Iletinoblastomab. Metastatic neuroblastomac. Rhabdomyoru..oriud. Leukemia

98. White pupillary reflex is seen in:a. Retrolental fibroplasiab. Complete retinal detachmentc. Retinoblastoma

d. All of the above

Septentber 200g

MISCELLANEOUS

99. Which of the following is the most common cause ofvitreous hemorrhage in young individuals:

It4a r ch, S ep t en tb er 2ffi5a. Trauma

b. H1'pertensionc. Eale's disease

d. Diabetes

100. Scleritis is most commonly associated with:March 2ffi5 ,

a. Diabetes

b. Osteoarthritisc. Rheumatoidarthritisd. Hvpertension

101" tight reflex is carried through:a. Cranial nen'e Vlb. Cranial nerve VIIc. Cranial nerve Vd. Cranial nerve II

March 2010

March 2009March 2005


€1iii.

:; fiLlaser used to manage "U"t:",'::Tl

103. Lens used to treat astigmatism:

a. Concave lens

,, b. SPhericallensit.' c. Convex lens

d. Cylindrical lens

104. All of the following are seen in Hornels syndrome

excePt:

a. Enophthalmosb. Hypelhvdrosisc. Miosisd. Ptosis

Septembcr 2005, March 2007

105. Constriction of pupils is seen in: Septenfuer 2005

a. OnlY light reflex

b. light reflex and accommodation reflex

c. AtroPine medicationd. AII of the above

106. Laser used in LASIK for correcting myopia:

Septenrber 2005, March 2007 I 2009

a. Excimerb. Xenon

c. Nd:Yagd. None of the above

107. True statement regarding myopia: September 2006

a. Parallel rays comes to focus posterior to the retina

b. Parallel rays comes to focus anterior to the retina

c. An abnormal shortness of the axial iength of the

eye

d. Newborns eYe is mYoPic

108. Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in young individual

1L0. Oculocardiac reflex is seen in which surgery:

Mnrch 2007

a. Cataract surgery

b. Strabismus surgery

c. Ventricular Septemberal Defect surgery

d. Valvular surgery

111. Type of squint seen with 6th cranial nerve palsy:

March 2007

a. Crossed diPloPia

b. Uncrossed diPloPia

c. \'ertical diPloPia

d. No diPloPia

112. |et-black spots in the retina are seen in:

ScPtember 2008

a. Retinoblastoma

b. DiabeticretinoPathY

c. Retinitis Pigmentosa +

d. HYPertensiveretinoPathY

c. Surgery

d. Side-effects

114. Early ocular sign of herpes zoster:

L13. -SAFE' strategy for control of trachoma; 'S'-stands f Ifor: SePtember2\\|?>

a. safety i=b. Solutions iO

1.,,"', u. Excimer laser,

.,. ' b. Argon green laser,:.:,i:. c. Diode laser

,;.:r, d. Nd:YAG laser

March 2005, September 2009

September 2005

March 2007, Septenrber 2009

March 2007

'o.-o:,-r{

irioMarch 2009 i,Q)

indicates:a. Eale's disease

b. Glaucomac. Chorioretinitisd. Coat's disease

109. For preventing Retinopathy of Prematurity,

concentration of oxYgen should be:

a. 20-30%b. 30-40%c. 50-60%

d. 60-70%

a. Punctate keratitis

b. follicularkeratitisc. dendritic ulcer

d. vesicles on eYelids

115. Bitemporal hemianopia is seen in the lesion of:

Marclt 2009

a. Lateral geniculate bodY

b. OPtic nerve

c. OPtic chiasma

d. OPtic tract

116" Synchisis scintillans means:

a. Vitreous detachment

b" Liquefaction of vitreous

c. Adhesion of iris

d. Vitreous hemorrhage

:4!,:.

117. Which of the following is not a cause ofl-rypermetropia: Septenrber 2009

a. Short axial length of the e1'eball

b. Flat cornea

c. Increased refractive index of the cortex of lens

d. Anterior dislocation of the lens

According to WHO, blindness is defined as:

September 2009,2010

a. Visual acuity of less than 1/60

b. Visual acuity of less than 3/60

c. Visual acrrity cf less than 6/60

d. \/isrial acuity of less than 6/18

119. The terrn ankyloblepharon means: Scpterrtl,cr 2009

a. Smaller appearing palpebral fissureb. Inconrplete closure of palpebral aperture \4/hen

eyes are shut

c. Adhcsions of the margins of the two lidsd. Eversion o{ the lid margin

120. Keratoconus is seen in:a. Patau syndrome

b. Down syndrome

c. Turner syndrome

d. \,Veber syndrome

March 2010

121. To check power of IOL, which formula is commonly

Ophthalmology

March 20j,0 following except:a. Alopeciab. Anorexiac. Pseudofumor cerebrid. Peripheral neuritis

March 2010

124.T'rue regarding amaurosis fugax are all except: .:,

M^nrch2g1g:,

a. transient and recurrent episodes of -,'isual ktss ,.,.

b. Binocular lesionc. Emblous from the carotid artery is the commonest

cause t.

d. Ocular examination may be normal125. Amongst the following causes of blindness, one

which is less common in India:a. Trachornab. Diabeticretinopathyc. Onchocerciasisd. Refractive errors

126. A pupil responds to accomodation but light reflex isabsent. It is known as: March2()05

a. Adie's pupilb. Hutchinson pupilc. Argyll Robertsonlupild. None of the above

127. Muscle to be affected commonly in thyroidophthalmopathy is:a. Superior recfusb. Inferior rectus

c. Superior obliqued. Inferior oblique

128. Hypervitaminosis A manifests as all of the

March2A16"1,

ooJo=JIFTILo

used:

a. Hoffer formulab. Holladay formulac. SRK formulad. None of the above

L22.^kue about paralytic squint is:

a. Uniocular diplopiab. Binocular diplopiac. The person cannot use the two eyes togetherd. Diminished visual acuity

123. Hemorrhage in vitreous humour is caused by all ofthe following except:

a. Diabetes meliitusb. CRVO

c. Glaucoma

d. Trauma

March 2010

Scptenrber 2M

129. Best for correcting 15 degree esotropia in a 5 year .;:old child is: September 2N7'11

a. Refraction testing under atropine followed by full;j;

correctlonb" Surgical correctionc. Occlusive patchesd. Ocular exercises

130. Afferent pathway for pupillary light reflex is:

SePtembet 2N7

a. Oplic nen'eb. Oculomotor nervec. Trigeminal nerved. Ciliary nerve


131. Angiod streaks are seen in which of the following:March 2009

a. Tendinous xanthoma

b. Pseudoxanthomaelasticum

c. Xanthelesma

d. Eruptive xanthoma

f2. Which of the following is not seen in papilledema:

March 2009

a. Marked venous engorgement

b. Elevation of optic disc

c. Cotton wool sPots

d. Prominent oPtic disc margins

133. Blue Sclera is associated with:

a. OsteogenesisimPerfecta

b. Marfan's s1'ndrome

c. AlkaPtonuriad. All of the above

c. Removal of the eyeball along with extraocular

muscles

d. Ilemoval of the eyebail along with extraocular

muscles and part of skuliSeptentber 2009136. Peribulbar injection is given in:

a. Anterior chamber

b. Subtenon space

c. Periorbital space

d. Subperiorbitalspace

137. Common cause of sudden blindness in a young

September 2009,201.0diabetic female is:

a. Glaucoma

Mnrch 2009 b. Vitreous defects

c. PaPilledema

d. Cataract

September 2009

134. Which of the following is a cause of sudden

blindness in a quiet eye with a normal media and

funcius:

a. Acute retrobulbar neuritis

b. Vitreous hemorrhage

c. Iridocyclitisd. All of the above

135. The term enucleation means: September 2009

a. Removal of eyebail contents

b. Removal of eyeball along with a portion of optic

nerve

138. Vision 2020-Right to sight by WHO targets ail

except: 3

a. Cataract

b. Trachoma

c. Epidemicconjunctivitisd. Onchocerciasis

SEtember 2009

L39. Which of the following orbital structure is involved

in blow out fracture of the skull:

a. Lateral wallb. Medial wallc. Roofd. Fioor

March 2010

SELF ASSESSIVIENTC :

zffil Ew.oiirrrc E/Mcr scREEN rNG rfnrwNffiGENERAL MEDICINE (Questions)

9. Which of the followine is not a side effect of blood

Mnrclr 2005

March 2005

hlarclt 2045

HEMATOLOCY

1 In hemolytic anemia, all of the following are trueexcept:

a. Bone marrow hyperplasiab Reticulocytosisc. Increased unconjugated bilirubind. Increased hapioglobulinMost common form of shock is:

a. Hypovolemic shock

b. Cardiogenic shockc. Neurcgenic shockd. Sep';icemic shock

i)ialysis is not effective in:a. Salicr'Latepoisoningb. Digoxin poisoningc. Barbjturate poisoningd. Methanol poisoning

4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is associatedwith:a. Diabetes lvlellitusb. Vitamin 812 deficiencyc. Hemolytic uremic sy'ndromed. All of the above

March 2005

i. In alpha-thalassemia trait,electrophoresis shows:March 2405

a, Increased FIbF and normal FIbA2b. Normal HbF and normal HbA2c. Normal HbF and decreased FIbA2d. Decreased FIbF and normal FIbA2

6. Not a feature of hereditary Spherocytosis: March 2007

a. Autosomal dominantb. lncreased RBC surfaee areac. Increased MCHCd. Normal or decreased \4CV

7. Causes of megaloblastic anaemia are all except:

March 2007a. Hemodiaiysisb. Amlodipinec. Fish tapeworm infestationd. Blindloop syndrome

8. First investigation to be done in a patient withthrombocytopenia:a. Platelet countb. Bleeding timec. Prothrombin timed. aPTT

transfusion: Septenfuer 2009

a. Hypokalemiab. Hypomagneserniac. Hypocalcemiad. Iron overload

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

10. Most irnportant factor determining rnyocardial Oz

consumptron:a. Mvocardial fibre tensionb. Cardiac outpritc. Blood v,)lumeC. Heart rate

11. Which of the following is not a cause of Corpulmonale: March 20A5

a. lntermittent pulmonary embolismb. Kyphoscoliosis +

c. COPDd. Mitral stenosis

March 2005

1.2. Dresslels syndrome is due to:a. Cor pulmonaleb. Mitral stenosisc. Myocardial infarctiond. Pulmcronary embolism

13. A -wave in fVP indicates:a. Atrial relaxationb. Atrial contractionc. Bulging of tricuspid valve into right atriumd. Ventricular contraction

14. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard in :

lvlarch 2005

a. Normal individualsb. Left bundle branch blockc. ASDd. VSD

15. Most important in aetiology of coronary artery diseasels:a. VLDLb. LDLc. HDLd. All of the above

16.1AA"/o Oxygen is not effective in;a. Pulmonary edemab. MIc. Tetralogy of fallotd. COPD

Mnrclt 2005

.a.,li*ia.t;

,,1.:.,?" .

i*rrt**

March 2005

Marclt 2005

September 2008 Nldrch 2005

General Medicine

' . c. Duration of prophylaxis is at least 5 years after onset

. ,. d. Duration of prophl'laxis is till 25 years of age:rj:i::; -:! : r:,!i*;:

.';;ii li1i,. 18. Severity of mitral stenosis is determined by:

-:1'. . .j,rii, ro' revcrrrY L

'^:t ' :''' : a. lntensity of S'l heart sound

.'J rz. True regarding secondary prophylaxis of a 6 year old

.rl:tl:. child with carditis is: Mnrch 2005

b. Duration of prophylaxis is till tA y"ears

March 2005

Septtentber 2005

hypertension:September 2005

b. Diastolic murmur durationc. Opening snapd. Intensity of diastolic murmur

19. ST segment elevation is seen in:a. Prinzmetal's anginab. Acute pericarditisc. Acute MI

LlJ d. All of the above

7 ' z}.Continuous murmur is found in which arterial

O disease: SePtcmber 2005

7i a. Atherosclerosis

]|i b. Dissecting aortic aneurysm

= c. Arteriovenous Frsruia

= d. Thromboangitis obliteransJ zt.Swan Ganz Cuih"te. is used to measure:

tviii a. Mean arterial pressure

= b. Cardiac output

iii c. Blood volume

fi d. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

- ' 2z.Which of the following is seen in a patient with,; tricuspidlncompetence:.r a. Hepatic pulsafionri b" A wave in ]VP:, .. Mid diastolic murmurl. d. Normal cardiac output,',, 23" Pulsus bisferiens occurs in:. a. HOCM

i : bARi . c. ASandARi .' t..i '. - d. All of the aboveg,

;; ',,'.' 24. Most common feature of essentiali ,'

Septenfuer 2005

September 2005

' "^.

l

25. Left ventricular hypertrophy is caused by all except ,

September lQQ5

a. Aortic stenosis

b. Chronic cor pulmonale

c. Chronic kidney disease

d. Essential hypertension

26. Malignant hypertension can lead to all of the ,

following except:

a. Hypertensive retinopathy

b. Respiratory failurec. Renal failure

MarchZMi

d. Flemolvtic blood picture

27.ECG changes in atrial fibrillation do not include:

March 2AA7

a. Absence of P rvavesh lrreqrlrritv nf R-f{ intCryal

c. Tall P t,aves 3


28. Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration

after myocardial infarction: March

a. First week

b. Second week

c. Third week

d. Fourth'lveek

29. Austin Flint Murmur is commonly mistaken for the

murmur of: lY4arch 2M7

a. Mitral regurgitationb. Pulmonary regurgitation

c. Tricuspid stenosis

d. Mitral stenosis

30. Large'a'waves in |VP represents: March2007

a.- Complete heart blockb. 1't degree A-V block

c. Sinus bradycardia

d. Tachycardia

3l-. Acute anginal attack can be terminated by:

SePtentber 2ffi7

a. Nitroglycerin.b. Digoxinc. L,ignocaine

d. Verapamil

lt:j1rl,-l..:.lt

;.:i

,,.;1: ;11

f l1,.ii:,,.1i::i:l':, .' ::, ;tri:.'; :"

.l

riil.'t;i:,

'riii

a. Visual disturbancesb. Headachec. Palpitationsd. Dizziness


32. Carotid sinus massage will terminate:


a. Atrial fiutter.

b. Atrial fibirillationc. Supraventiculararrythmia

d. Suprventicular tachycardia

33. Which of the following is the most common

arrhythmia: September 2007

a. Inappropriate sinr.rs tachycardia

b. Junctional Preniafure complexes

c. Atrial fibrillationd. Atrial flutter

34. Pacemaker is indicated in which of the follon'ingcondition: September 2407

a. Acute myocardial infarction n'ith first degree AVblock

b. Acute myocardial infarction with fascicular blockc. Sick sinus syndrome

d. All of the above

35. Indication for aortic stenting is:

a. Acute aortic occlusionb. Aortic dissectionc. Rheumatic aortitisd. Tetralogy of fallot

March 2008

36. One of the main disadvantage of stenting is:

March 2008

a. Elastic recoilb. Late stent thrombosisc. Restenosis

d. Less efficacy in bifurcation lesions37" Preferred biochemical markers in patients presenting

with myocardial infarction September 2008

a. Myoglobinb. Cardiac specific Troponinsc. CK-MBd. All of the above

38.Split first heart sound is heard in Septenrber 2008

a. Mitral stenosisb. Left bundle branch blockc. Complete right bundle branch blockd. Pulmonary hypertension

39. A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chestpain. On auscultation, she had multiple non-ejectionclicks. Investigation of choice would be:

September 2008

a. Serum markersb. Chest X-rayc. Electrocardiographyd. Echocardiography

40. False regarding Austin-Flint murmur is: March 2009

a. Systolic murmurb. Severe aortic regurgitationc. Origtrates at anterior mitral valve leafletd. N4av be confused

"vith Murmur of mitral stenosis

41. A lady presented with dyspnea and palpitations.On examination there was a non eiection click.Next investigation is: Marclt 2009^ A--:^^---L-,d, nr 15rv6r ayr rJv

b. Chest X-rayc. Electrocardiographyd. Echocardiography

42. Austin flint murmur is a: Septenher 2009

a. Pansystolic murmurb. Midsystolic murmurc. Middiatolic murmurd. Confinuous murmur

43. Dyspncrea at rest is which grade: Septenfuer 2009

a. Ib.2c.3d.4

44. Murmur heard in aortic regurgitation is:Seotenfuer 2009

a. Continuous murmurb. Austin flint murmurc. Crescendo-decrescendod. Graham Steele's Murmur

45. Pericardial effusion is best diagnosed by:Swtember 2009

a. Chest X-rayb. Echocardiographyc. ECGd. Angiography

45. Treatment of orthostatic hypotension includes allexcept:

a. High salt and fluid intake

b. Physical countermaneuvers

c. Dopamine

d. Fludricortisone

March 2014

i;

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General Medicine

-i't

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47. A patient presented with shock with pump failure.Ideal management would be:

a. Intra-aortic ballooningb. Intracardiac adrenaline

c. Rapiddigitalizationd. Dopamile

Septenfucr 2006

48. Most common valvular lesion after myocardialinfarction is: September 2008

a. MRb. AR

c. AS

,J Scnicrr,hr'r;rl dofect

49" A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is inshock.The reason is: Septenfucr 20UE

a. Right ventricular infarctionb. Tr{itral rt'gurgitation

54. True statement regarding oliguria: March

a. Urine formation less than 50 mli24 hoursb. Urine formation less than 250 mL/24 hoursc. Urine formation of less than 500 mL/24 hoursd. Urine formation less than 750 mL/24 hours

55. Hemodialysis related complications are all of the .:ifollowing except: September 2ffitji

lTJ

=Ioul

=JtUJzUJo

i. c. Infarction causing septal defect

::' d. Decreased eiection fraction from left ventricle,,:: 50. AU of the following can lead to sudden death except:^

:i:l

.\

,': c. Ventricular fibrillationd. Massive pulmonary emboli

51. Pulsus alternans is seen in: March 2009

t? a. MS with MR

'ii u. AS with ARt c. Left ventricular failure

, d. Digitalis poisoning

.! EXCRETORY SYSTEMai

!i 52. Syndrome characterized.by proteinuria, hematuriaMarch 2007

a. Altered cardiovasculardynamicsb. Anaphylactoid reactionc. Hypertensiond. Muscie cramps

56. Most common cause of death in a patient rvith chronic

renal failure on clailysis: Mnrclt2\tVa. Uraemiab. Infectionc. Cardiovascular disease

d. respirator), failure *57. Renal artery stenosis is not associated with:

March2Wa. Marfan's s)'ndrome :

b. atherosclerosis

c. polyarteritisnodosad. takayasu arteritis

58. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for:

Scptenber 20[E ;

a. Antiphospholipid syndromeb. Goodpasture's syndromec. Renal amyloidosisd. Diabetic nephropathy

59. To diagnose diabetic nephropathy, earliest sensitive

test is:

a. Regular blood sugar estimationb. Blood urea nitrogenc. Microalbuminuriad. Serum creatinine test

CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT60. Best marker to assess prognosis after Surgery for colon '"'

'i'j and hypertension:,t a. Nephrotic svndrome.n

,,r.i b. Acute nephritisD ^- ^t -^ll'- c. Renal cell carcinoma

,.,-r.it;i:

'- d. Neplrroclacinosis

September 2008

a. Massive MIb. Atrial flutter

March 2010

March2A05

d. Nephroclacinosis

ti ss.Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by all of theliiiali{ rû^--ihd 6v.6n+. h,toreh )oo)March 2008:i following except:'.' - l:!il::::::..i1

- T^-_: ^jL_ â l jrljjffi a. ToxicitY of lithium: b Amvloidosis:ll!:i :r '::i:: U. Amvloidosis' c. Hvpocalcemia

.:

carcinoma:

a. CA19-9b" cA-125c. Alpha fetoprotein

d. CEA. d. Hypokalemra

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examination

61, Hepatorenal syndrome is characterized by all of thefollowing except: March 2005

a. Reduction in creatinine clearance

b. Managed effectively by renal vasodilating agents.c. Proteinuria less than 500 mg/dd. Normal intrinsic kidney

f2. Typhoid ulcer perforation mostly occurs in:a. 1 -2 rveek

b. 2 -3week

c. 3-4 weekd. 4-5rveek

March 2005

63.45 year cld rnan complaining of vomiting Vomitusconsist of food mass taken few days back, foulsmelling breath and occasional dysphagia to solidfood. Diagnosis is:a. Achalasia cardiab. Diabetic gastroparesisc. Scierodermad. Zenkers diverticulum

64. True about hepatitis E are all except:

September 2005,2010a. Transmitted by faeco-oral routeb. Majority of patients develops chronic infectionc. Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single

stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus.d. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequently in

pregnancy65. All of the following are features of Obstructive

jaundice except: Seyttember 2007a. Normal alkaline phosphataseb" Mildly elevated serum aminotransferases levelc. Clay colour stoolsd. Pruritis

f6. All are the features of carcinoid syndrome except:

Septenfuer 2007a. \Aheezingb. Diarrheac. Acute appendicitisd. Flushing

57. An young man is brought to casualty with history ofhematemesis.There is mild splenomegaly on

68. Enzyrne specificaily raised in chronic alcoholics:

Setttember 20A9

a. Camma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)b. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)c. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

d. Ratio of AST: ALT59. Hepatosplenomegaly is not seen in:

a. lvlalaria

b. Lymphornac. Sickle cell disease

d. Kala azar

INFECTIOUS DISEASES

70. Spirochaetes can be identified by :

a. Levaditi stainb. Fontana stain

3c. Gram stain

c" 8 weeks

d. 10 weeks

73. Bacteria causing vomiting and diarrhea within 6 hoursof food intake is: March 2005a. Clostridium perfringensb. Salmoneila spp.

c. Vibrio cholerae

d. Staphylococci aureus

74. Not a cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis:

a. Lupus vulgarisb. Scrofuloderma

c. Exanthematouslesion

d. Ervthema migrans

d. Dark field microscopy ,471. Most common CNS manifestation of HIV:-4^^+:^.. ,^. t q

Inlectron ,t, .,7t

a. seizures nl"d'2005 \D

b. Dementia i-c. Focal neurologic deficits .: Sd. stroke

ue'crrs ig

72.Post exposure prophylaxis [PEP] for HIV should be ,i6given for a minimum period of: March 2005 :.fa. 4 r,veeks

b. 6 weeks ifn

March 2010

NInrch 2005March 2005

.O:rfl

j

;

;

examination. Cause of bleeding is:a. Gastritisb. Oesophageal varicesc. Tumourd, Leukaemia

March 2009Marclt 2005

-,... a. SlrePtococcus

'- ,t..,,', .l- b. H.influenzaer1 ,'.',". c. Pneumocystii

r:. 1 ::l-:,'.,'':;- i ': , . d. All of the above:;1;;i;$:;-l;:

i: :,..ia'.,.i 76. Chest X-ray findings in tuberculosis associated with

' lt ., HIV are all except: September 2005: |.::l]irrl:; a. Disseminatedhrberculosis

b. Lupus vulgaris' c. Pleural effusion

d. Hilar lymphadenopathy

TT.Drugused to treat Cryptococcal meningitis is:

[U r,

Z,) a. Pentostatin

6 i b' AmPhotericin B

March 2007

81. Which drug is given as a single dose to prevent

mother to child HIV transmission: March2A0i

a. Didanosine

b. Nevirapine

c. Acyclovird. Nelfinavir

82. Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection ifprophylaxis is given: March 2ffi7

a. 1"/o

b. 2%

c. 3n/"

d. 1%

83. Possibility of vertical transfer of HIV infection if no

prophylaxis is given:

a. 25%

b. 50%

c. 75%

d. 100%

March20()I

84. True regarding sialadenitis in AIDS are all except:

Septembu 2W

a. May present as Sjogren's sl.ndrome

b. Unilateral parotid enlargement is common

c. Non tender enlargement of salivary gland

d. May present as xerostomia

85. Not seen in dengue: Mnrch201A

a. Hemorrhagic tendencies

b. High grade fever

c. Circulatory problem

d. Hepato-splenomegaly

85. Symptoms of secondary syphilis are all except:

March2010

a. Localized or diffuse mucocutaneous lesion

b. Generalized and tender lymphadenopathy

c. Self resolving

d. Condyloma lata is seen

87. Which infection is common after organ

transplantation:a. Pneumocystii

b. Nocardia

c. Cvtomegalovirus

d. Toxoplasma

March2010

7i c. ZidovudinelJiIIJ t d' Clotrimazole

! f,: ZS. Which of the following is not true about Mumps:

J ii March 2007

{ ,, a. Caused by paramyxovirus(v.= " b. lncubation period is less than 14 daysIIJ.:2 ,, c. Orchitis is a common complication in males

lll ii d. Aseptic meningitis is a commoner complication in

or',

General Medicine

Marclr 2007

children

i: zs. Whicn of the following is best for diagnosing typhoid

i t" the first week:

a. Stool culture

;u U. Blood culture..-.. C. Urlne Culrure

.;

a. Common site is right posterosuperior part of liver

b. Alcoholics are susceptible to develop amoebic liver

abscess

c. Anchovy sauce pus

d. Fever is the most .'ommon sig'n

i' ', ii,, I


ENDOCRINOLOCY

88. Pretibial myxedema is seen in:a. Papillary Ca thyroid

b. Follicular Ca thyroidc. Thyrotoxicosis

d. Myxedema

89. Long term control of diabetes is assessed by:

March 2005

a. Randomblood sugar

b. Microalbuminuria/creatinine ratioc. F{bA2

d. F{bA1C

90. All of the following are features of hypothyroidismexcept:

a. Dry skinb. Bradycardia

c. Myxedema

d. Lid retraction

Septentber 2005

91. Complications in Diabetics mellitus type -II occu(saround:

a. 5 years of onset

b. 10 years of onset

c. 15 years of onsetd. 20 years of onset

Septentuer 2405

92" HbIAC indicates blood glucose level in the previous:

March 2047

a. 1 weekb. 2 weekc. 3 weekd. 8 week

93. Pheochromocytoma is a feature of all of the followingexcept: september 2oo7a. MEN I syndromeb. MEN lI syndromec" Neurofibromatosis lype Id. Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

94" Pheochromocytoma is characterized by:

September 2007a. Headacheb. Paroxysmal hypertensionc. Profuse sweatingd. All of ttre above

95. Pheochromocytoma predorninantly secretes whichhormone: Seotenfuer 2AA7

a. Serotoninb. Epinephrinec. Nor-epinephrined. Dopamine

96. Excessive insulin levels are associated with:September 2007, 2009

a. Diabetes mellirusb. Pancreatic cancerc. Zollinger-eliisonsVndrorned. Pheochromocytoma

97. I{hich of the following is seen in Conn's syndrome:

Septentber 2007

a. Water retentionb. Hypernatremia

:

c. Hyperkalemiad. Edema :

98. Diffuse hyperpigmentation is seen in all except: :

Septenber 2007 i;

a. Addison's disease

b. Cushings s)'ndromec. Pcrphyria cutanea tardad. Phenl{ketonuria

99. All of the following are features of hyperthyroidism

March 2005

omzmnl-

=]7IgQzrlc. Weight loss i

d. Moist skin j:):,

100. All of the following are true regarding primary 'r

except:a. Rise in BMRb. Delayed deep tendon reflexes

hyperparathyroidism except:

a. Hypocalcemiab. Hypophosphatemia

September 2007 ':

rl:r

September 2007 ::,

c. More than half of the patients are asymptomaticd. Parathyroid adenoma is the commonest cause

101. A patient of tuberculosis presented with low levelsof sodium,chloride and bicarbonate. He also had

hyperpigmentation of palmar creases. Mostprobable diagnosis is:a. Cushing's syndrorneb. Addison's disease

c. Primaryhyperaldosteronismd. SecondarvhvBeraldosteronism

Septenfuer 2008

General Medicine

UJ : Phact'chromocYtoma

Z h. Hvootlrvroidism

n c. lnsulinoma

= d. Cushing's syndrome

Al-f 105. Not seen in cushing's s)'ndrome: March 2009

= a. Hypertension

e b. weighr gain

J c. Hirsutis

# ci. Hypogiycemia

fi tOo. All of the following are seen in acromegaly except:

2:;IIJ'i a. Diabetes mellitusO .i b. Enlarged nose

rr c" Increased heel pad thickness

102. Which of the following plays an important role intlre treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: NInrch 2009

a. Norrnal saline

b, Bicarbonate

c. Potassium

i: u. Carcinoma

n. I1vpcrPlasia'.: c. Adenoma

d. Familial isolated hyperparathi,roidism104. lVeight gain is seen in all of the following except:

Ir4nrch 2009

March 2009

1 d. Muscle hypertrophy: tOZ. Not true about congenital hypothyroidism:::t: March 2009

a. Males more often affected"

b. No signs at birthc. Occurs due to antibodies against thyroid

peroxisomes

d. Seen in 1:4000 live births108. Most common cause of hypothyroidism in India:

September 2009

a. Iatrogenicb. Pituitarv tumoursc. Iodine deficiencyd. Hashimoto's disease

109. Investigation of choice for diagnosing primary ihypothyroidism: Mttrch 2007, Septentber 2Q4g

a. Decreased free T3

b. Decreased free T4

c. Elevated TSH

d. Anti-TPO antibodies

110. Most common form of diabetic neuropathy is:

a. Cranialneuropathiesb. Radiculopatl'ries

c. Sensorimotorpoll'neuropathyd. Lirnbmononeuropathies

111. Regrading typhoid ulcer, all of the following are

true except:

a. Perforation is commonb. Obstruction results due to stricture formalionc. Bleeding is usudld. Ileum is the common site

112. True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non

ketotic hyperglycemia is:

a. No change

b. Mild elevation

c. Moderate elevationd. Severely elevated

113. Primary causes of non-inflammatory edema include

all of the following except:

a. Increasedintravascularpressure

b. Decreasedvascularpermeability

c. Obstruction of lymphaticsd. Reduced plasma colloid oncotic pressure

METABOLIC AND NUTRITIONAL DISORDERS

114, Tetany is not seen in:a. Malabsorptionb. Hyperventilationc. Antiestrogentherapyd" Thyroid Surgery

1L5. Normal anion gap acidosis seen in:a. Lactic acidosis

b. Cholera

c. DKAd. Uremia

ir,; d. Insulin

1]1;, fOS. Most common cause of hyperparathyroidism:i.,iili*{ March 2009 September 2@;

March 2A0S

Septenrber 2ffi5

September 2ffi9

L4arch 2005

March20A5


124. Features of T wave in ECG of hypokalemia patientsr{:i

lL5. pH=7.28, P aCO2=70, Condition is

consistent with: Mnrch 2005

a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Metabolic alkalosis

c. Respiratorl'acidosisd. Respiratory alkalosis

117. Hypocalcemia with hypophosphatemia is seen in:September 2006

a. Crush injurYb. Rhabdomyolysisc. Vitamin D dependent rickets-Ild. Renal failure

118. All of the following are used in the management of

hyperkalemia except: lv[arclt 20{J7

a. Calciurn gluconateb. Sodir.rmbicarbonatec. I.V. infusion with glucose and insulind. I.V. KCI intusion

119. Not seen in hyponatremia: Marclt 2009

a. Nausea

b. Delusionc. Vomitingd. Anorexia

120. Neurological manifestations of water intoxication

are all of the following except:

a. Headache

b. Confusion

March 2009

c. hrcreased risk of intracerebral hemorrhaged. Convulsions

L21. Normal anionic gap is seen in:a. Lactic acidosisb. Diarrheac. Ketoacidosisd. Methanol poisoning

122" Incteased plasma concentration of calcium isassociated with:a. Ricketsb. Osteomalacia

March 2009

c. Primaryhyperparathyroidismd. Pseudohypoparathyroidism

123. Not an ECG finding of hypokalemia: September 2009

a. Absent T wavesD. b I elevatlonc. Flat T waves.d. Prominent lJ wave

are all except:

a. Elevated T wa.:ir

b. Inverted T wave

c. Fiat T wave

d" Bigeminal T wave

125. Anion gap is increased in all except: September 2009

a. Ureterostomy

b. Ethylene glvcolc. Methylene glycold. Diabeticketoacidosis

126. The ECG in hyperkalemia classically shou's:

ScPtember 2009' 2010

a. lncrease QRS duration

b. Shortened PR interval

c. Prominent U r.vaves td. Increased R wave amplitude

127. Which of the following is not associated with zinc

deficiency:a. Delayed wound healing

b. Loss of libidoc. Pigmentation

d. Sexual infantilism

Mnrch 2005

NEUROLOCY

128. Not seen in case of hemorrhage in MCA tertitory:Mnrch 2005

a. Contralateralhemiplegiab. Aphasia

c. Dysarthriad. Urinary incontinence

1,29. Brain death is defined as loss of:

a. Withdrawl reflex

b. Brain stem functions

c. Cortical functions

d. Spinal reflex

March 2005

1.30. Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is:

SePtenrber 2005

a" Profouund sensory loss

b" loss of limb reflex

c. Residual paralysis

d. Descendingparalysis

Septtcnfuer 2009

ojnl',2. [Tl'v1>,l-:,='Jll'9:o.-':.2j 111

March 2009

General Medicine

Marclt 2007 138. Most common cause for meningitis in adults:

IIJ .

=9.o.IJJ i

=tJ,,{,.E:.UJ '.Z';:ul,:O.r

131. Spike and Dome pattern is seen in:a. Petitmai seizures

b. Grandmal seizures

c. Cionic seizures

d. Myoclonic seizures

132. An upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve willcause: Mttrch €t S ept ember, 2007

a. Paralysis of the lower half of face on the same side

b. Paralysis of the lou'er half of face on the opposite side

c. Paralysis of the upper half of face on the same side

cl. Paral-'rsis of the upper half of face on the opposite side

133. Argvll-Robertson pupil is seen in:

a. Horner's syndromeb. Retrobulbar optic neuritisc. Diabetes

d. Neurosyphiiis

Mtrclt 2009

134. CSF findings in Tubercular meningitis: Marclr 2009

a. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, decreased

lymphocytes

b. Increased glucose, decreased proteins, decreased

lvmphocytesc. Increased glucose, increased proteins, increased

lvmphocytesd. Decreased glucose, increased proteins, increased

iymphocytes

135. Most Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage

is: March 2009

a. Rupture of bridging veins

b. Saccular aneurysm rupturec. Hypertensiond. Idiopathrc

136. Initial Investigation of choice of subarachnoid

hemorrhage: March 2A09

a. Angiographyb. Lumbar puncturec. CT scan

d. Serum electrolytes

L37. Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors are seen

in: SePtember 2009

a. Lambert-Eaton-mvasthenic syndrome

b Hyperthyroidismc. Botulismd Myasthcnia gravis

a. H.Influenzae

b. N.meningitidisc S+rnh rrrrpriq-- "'*t-." "*' - *"

r'i Strentoe^..r ri '. ..-.r.. ------ pneumonlae

L39. Kernig's sign is seen in:a. \/iral encephalitis

b. Pyogenic meningitis

c. Brain abscess

d. All of the above

140. Flapping tremor is seen in all except:

a. lVilscur disease

b. Th\irotoYicos s

c. Uraemia

d. CO: narcosis

September

l\4nrch 20AS

141. Bilaterally pinpoint ptrpil, hyperpyrexia and loss of

consciousness is suggestive of: March 2ffi5

a. Subarchnoid hen'rorrhage :

b. Cerebral infarctionc. Pontine hemorrhagc

d. None

142. Dominant parietal lobe injury leads to all of the

following except: March 2ffi5

a. Agnosia

b. Dvsphasia

c. Dyscalculia

d. Urinaryincontinence

143. Most common cause of intracranial bleed is:

March 2005

a. Berry aneurysm

b. Hypertension

c. Coagulopathy

d. Diabetes

144" Which of the followingthe side of the lesion in

a. Vibrationb. Touchn Tomnorrfrrro

d. Al1 of the above

ii

t

?7]

t

.:

,iii

*fi

$'

.{t

sensation is preserved on

Brown-Sequard syndrome:

SePtemher 2005


145. Cranial nerve commonly involved in Guillain Barre

syndrorne is:

a. Opticb. Trochlear

c. Oculomotord. Facial

146. Most common causative agent for meningitis in the

immunocompromised patient is: Septentber 2009

a. Histopiasmosis

b. Cryptococcus

c. Candida albicans

d. Coccidiomycosrs

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

147. Management of steroid resistant asthma is done by:

March 2005

a. Oral steroids

b. Long acting Beta-2 agonist

c. Leucotrineantagonistd. Theophyliine

1.48. Lung Carcinoma is most commonly associated with:March 2005

a. Silicosis

b. Asbestosis

c. Coal dustd. Beryllill^

149. True about COPD are all except:

a. Polycythemia

b. Left ventricular Failure

c. Right ventricular Failure

d" Clubbing is not a sign of COPD

September 2005

150. Characteristic of obstructive pulmonary disease are

March 2009

all except:

a. Reduced FEVt

b. Reduced diffusion capacity

c. Reduced residual volumed. Reduced mid expiratory flow rate

1,51. Respiratory acidosis is caused by all except:

SePtember 2007

a. Chronic bronchitis.

b. COPDc. Pulmonaryhypertensiond. Interstitial lung disease

152. Pulmonary edema rvill be caused by: September 2007

a. Mitral stenosis

b. Pulmonary emobolism

c. Pneumonia

d. COPD

153. All of the following are signs of Cor pumonale

except:

a. Feeble pulse

b. Elevated JVP

c. Hepatomegaly

d. Peripheral edema

September 2007

154. Diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress

syndrome is:

a. Pao2/Fio, ratio is </= 100

b. Paor./Fio, ratio is <l:200

c. Pao2lFio2 ratio is </:300

d. Pao2/Fio2 ratio is </= J00

Stytenfucr 2008

155. Most common occupational malignancy in India is:


a. Breast

b. Lungc. Skin

d. Bladder

156" Positive End Expiratory Pressure is useful in:

Marclt 2009

a. Pneumonia

b. ARDS

c. Pulmonary edema

d. All of the above

157. Investigation of choice in pulmonary embolism:

Marclt 2009

a. Ventilation perfusion mismatch

b. Conventionalangiographyc. ChestCTd. MRI angiography

1.58. ECG pattern seen in pulmonary embolism is:

om,Z,m.7'>r,=m,go.Zm

March 2007

Septentber 2009',,:: a:

a. S3Q3T1

b. s1Q1T3

c. S1Q3T3

d. s3Q3T3.

(

General Medicine

159. Most common ECG change in pulmonary embolismis:

a. Sinus bradycardiab. Sinus tachycardiac. Tall T wave in iead IIId. Left bundle branch block

September 2009

160. True regarding type_III respiratory failure are allexcept:

Septenfuer 2009

166. Investigation of choice for diagnosing lungsequestration is:a. X-rav chest_pA viewb. Plain CT scan_chest

c. Angiographi,d. MRI

ONCOLOCY

167. Treatment regimen for Hodgkins lymphoma is:

September 200g

I Also knor",'n as perioperative respiratory failureb. There is impaired CNS drive to breathec. Occurs as a result of atelectasisd. Can be marraged conserr,.atively

161. Type-II respiratory failure is associated with:St'ptembcr 2009a. Flail chest

b. Pulmonary eclemac. Interstitial lung diseased. COPD

162. Example of type-I respiratory failure is: March 2010a. Cardiogenic shockb. Ateiectasisc. Myasthenia gravisd. COPD

163. True about ARDS are all except:a. Mortalitv rates ranges between 40 to 65okb. Pneumonia is commonly associated with itc. Ilecovery in terms of lung functions is poor in

ARDS survivors, d. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is present if: Pao2lFiorratio </= 200I 164. Most common symptom of Interstitial Lung disease.. rsi March 2010a. Hcmoptysis

,,,.,. b. Dl,spnea

,,,'.;l c. Substernal discomfortd. Wheezing

r 165. True about pancoast tumour are all of the followingexcept: March 2005a. Onlv 3-5% are small cell carcinomasb. Involves eighth cervicai and first two thoracic

nerves commoniyc. t{orner's sl.rrdrome may be a manifestationd. Lor,r'er lobe Carcinoma

168. Not seen in tumor lysis syndrome: Septenrbcr 2009a. Hyperphosphatemiab. Hyperuricemiac. Hypocalcemiad. hypercalcemia

169. False statement regarding Hodgkin,s disease is:

September 2a09a. CNS is the commonest site of invoivementb. Mediatinal involvement is common in

nodulosclerosis tvpec. Characteristic cell is a Reed_Sternberg celld. Increase in eosinophils ald plasma cllh

170. Working formulation in staging of non_hodgkins

a. VADb. CMF

c. ABVDd. CHOP

uJzC)oUJ

=JtrUJzUJ(9

March 2010

lymphoma is based on;a. Morphology of cellsb. Cell surface markersc. Sur.r'ival characteristic of cellsd. Cellular genetics

MISCELLANEOUS

171.. 45 year old man complains of back pain andmultiple joints pain. X-Ray shows bilateralsacroilitis.Diagnosis could be:a. Rheumatoidarthritisb" Ankvlosingspondylitisc. Psoriatic arthritisd. Osteoarthritis

March 2010

Mnrch 2005

March 2009

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening Examination

179. All of the following can occur in rheumatic feverfi2. Anti mitochondrial antibody is typically seen in:

March 2005

a. Hepatic cirrhosis

b. Cardiac cirrhosis

6. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

d. Primary biliary cirrhosis

173. Characteristic of mixed connective-tissue disease

IMCTD] are all of the following except: March 2005

a. Hvpogammagiobulinemiab. lr4embranous glornerulonephritis

c. Polyarthritisd. CNS involvement

L74. Patient complaining of finger stiffness and

dysphagia.What could be the most probable

diagnosis:

a. Achalasia

b. Lower esophageal ringc. Esophagealcarcinoma

d. Scleroderma

175. Not a premalignant condition:a. Retinitispigmentosab. Crohn's disease

c. Ulcerative colitis

d. Leukoplakia

L76. Nephrocalcinosis seen in all except:

March 2005

a. Sarcoidosis

b. Acute pancreatitis

c. Hyperparathyroidismd. Vitamin D intoxication

177. Hypercholesterolemia is commonly associated with:

Septenfuer 2005

a. Diabetes mellitusb. hypothyroidismc. Nephrotic sl.ndrome

d. All of the above

178. Most specific antibody for Systemic lupus

erythematosus: March 2007 €t Septenrber 20L0

a. Anti-Sm antibodiesb" Anti-ss DNA antibodies

c" Anti-RNA antibodiesd. ANA antibodies

March 2005

March 2005

except:

a. Mitralregurgitationb. mitral stenosis

c. Pericarditis

d. Loud first heart sound

Septentber 2007, 2010

180. All of the following are associated with polyuria

except: Septembcr 2A07

a. Diabetes insipidusb. Diabetes mellitusc. Rapidlyprogressiveglomerulonephritisd. P;'eloncphritis

181. Bone age corresponds to chronological age in:

Mnr* 2409

a. Uncontroiled diabetes

b. Familial short stature-

c. Osteomalacia

d. Rickets

182. Preobesity is defined as BMI of: March 2009

a. L8.5-24.9

b. 25-29.9

c. 35-39.9

d. 40-M.9

183. Alkaline phosphatase is elevated in all except:

March 2009

a. Myocardialinfarctionb. Biliary cirrhosis

c. Pregnancy

d. Pernicious artemia

184. True regarding Felty's syndrome are all except:

a. splenomegal, t ePtember 2oo9

b. Neutrophiliac. Femalepreponderance

d" Associated with rheumatoid arthritis

185. Which of the following is true for acanthosis

nrgrrcans: March 2010

a. May be an indication of skin malignancy

b" Hypopigmentationc" May be associated with Insulin resistant diabetes

mellltusd. Commonly occurs in lean and thin

joimi:Zrm?;vI>ll-i=lmls?oi:,

-\z*1Tl

***

it

185. Correct statement regarding von recklinghausen

diseaselNF-1] are all except: March 2014

a. Never turns malignantb. N{utations of gene on chromosome L7 causes NF1

c. Ma1' be associated with nervous system tumors

d. Lisch nodules can be seen

187. Acantholysis is seen in:a. Bullous pemphigoidb. Dermatitisherpetiformisc. Hailey-Haileydiseased. Ali of the above

188. A patient develops gross hematuria 3 days after an

attack of URTI. Which of the following is

189. Tripple screening test for Down syndrome during ".H

pregnancy includes all of the following except: ..:

General Medicine

March 2005

March 2005

a. Maternal serum AFPb. Serum beta-HCGc. AlkanlilePhosphatased. Serum oestriol

190. The tourniquet test is positive ifmore than: March

the petechiae are

2007 A September

March 2010

l\/ln!^L a^^-'.,lqtrrt LUUJ,..:

' . 'tl.i: i:..1

. '.t i,.:.tii''i.r

:ilil:n::ll:,.:!r::,.

responsible:a. Drug abuse

b. Acuteglomerulonephritisc. Minimal change disease

d. IgA nephropathy

a. 50 petechiae per square inchb. 40 petechiae per square inchc. 30 petechiae per square inchrl. 20 pr'tr'chiae per square inch

191. Most common cause of short stature is:

a. Constitutionalb. H1'pothyroidismc. Grorvth hormone deficiencyd. Systemic illness *

UIzo6,tJl:

='Jtlllz'IIJ'o,

i..i .i:i. .:,t:: .!.

LF ASSESSMENr&E/MCI SCREENING

GENERAL SURGERY (Questions)BURNS

1. All of the following are tme regarding fluidresuscitation in burn patients except: March 2008

a. Consider intravenous resuscitalion in children withbums greater than 15% TBSA

b. Oral fluids must contain saltsc. Most preferred fluid is Ringer's lactated. Half of the calculated volume of fluid shorrld be

given in first B hours2. According to "rule of nines", burns involving

perineum are: Nlnrclr 2009^ 10/a. I o

b. 9%

c. 18%a a10/q. Ll /o

3. Which of the following is not seen in 3rd degreeburns: March 2009a. Loss of skin appendagesb. No vesicles

c. Red colourd. Extremely painful

4. In second degree burns, re-epithelialisation occursaround: Septenfuer 2009

a. l weekb. 2 rveeks

c. 3 weeks

d. 4 weeeks

5. Which of the following is false regarding deep 2nddegree burns: September 2009

a. Heal by scar depositionb. Painless

c. Damage to deeper dermisd. Less blanching

6. In burns management, which of the following is themedium of choice: March 2010, September 2010

a. Dextrose 5%

b. Normal salinec. Ringer lactated. Isolyte-M

7. All of the following are complications in a patient ontotal parenteral nutrition except:a. Hyperchlosterolemiab. Hyperglycemiac" Hypotriglyceriedemiad. Hypophophatemia

VASCULAR SYSTEM

8. Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in:

a. AV fistula

b. Raynaud's disease

c. Buerger's disease

d. Aneurysm

9. W-hich of the following is associated with Virchowe

triad:

a. Hypercoagulabiiity

b. Disseminated malignancy

c. DVT

c1. .A11 of the above

1.0. Hemorrhage leads to:

a. Septicemic shock

b. Neurogenic shock

c. Hypovolemic shock

d. Cardiogenic shock

SEtember

Stptentber ZNS

11. Which of the following is true for shock:

September 2M5'i

a. Hypotension

b. Hypoperfusion to tissues

c. Hypoxia

d. All of the above

12. Most common vessels to be affected in BuergersMost common vessels to be affected in Buergers , j;l:disease: March2NV ::;.i

a. Femoral artery ,.:

b. lliac artery

c. Popliteal artery :

d. Anterior and posterior tibial artery

13. Drug used for sclerotherapy of varicose veins are all of

March2W

Septentbet 2007

t:,.

:i:

,t.i

the following except:

a. Ethanolamine Oleate

b. Polidocanol

c. Ethanol

d. Sodium tetradecyl sulfate

14. Ravnaud's syndrome occurs in all of the followingexcept:

a. SLE

b Rheumatoid arthritis

c" Osteoarthritis

d. Cryoglobulinemia.

Septentuer 2008September 2A07

30. Acute Pancreatitis is associated with:a. Elevated serum amalyseb. Alcoholc. Gali bladder stonesd. Ali of the above

b.

o.

31. Traurna to spleen in a stable patient is best diagnosedby,

Generalsurgery

September 2005 38. Which of the folloning is the most pathognomonicsign of impending burst abdomen:a. Fever

b. Shock

c. Pain

d. Serosanguinous discharge

ilie!

$

i 32. Splenectomy can lead to: September 2005a. Leucoprgni3b. Thrombocvtosisc. Thrombocytopenlad. Thrombocytopenia and leucopenia

33. Investigation of choice for Acute pancreatitis:

SeTttember 2005 A 2006a. X-ray abdomenb. CTscanc. USGd. ERCP

34. Charcoat triad is seen in:a. Acute pancreatitisb. Acute appendicitisc. Acute hepatitisd. Cholangitis

September 2006

35. Investigation for assessing proper functioning ofbiliary system: March 2007a. USGb. CT scanc. HIDA scand" All of the above

36. Best way to diagnose gall bladder stones: March 2007a. USGb. Oral cholecystographyc. Percutaneous transhepaticcholangiographvd. Intravenous cholangiogram

37. Charcot's triad is defined by all of the followingexcept:a. Feverb. Gall stonesc. Jaundiced" Pain

Septtember 2007, March 2U09

Septenfuer 2005, March 200gX-ray abdomenUSGCT scan

diagnostic peritoneal iavage

39. Which of the investigation can itself lead to acutepancreatitis: March 200ga. USG

b. CTscan

c. ERCP

d. MRI scan

40. Indications of splenectomy are all except: Nlarclt ZC|j|a. Hereditary spherocl,tosisb. Trauma

c. Poh.cythemia

d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura41. All of the following relarding diagnosis of acute

peritonitis are correct except: March 20Aga. Raised WBC count irr peritoneal aspirateb. Moderately raised amylase levels are diagnostic of

peritonitisc. CT scan mav aid in diagnosisd. Upright films shows free air under the diaphragm

48. Most sensitive and specific for acute pancreatitisamongst the following is:a. S.amylase

b. S.Alanine transaminase

c. S.lipase

d. C-reactive protein49. Splenectomy is useful in:

a. Hemophiliab. Polyrytheniac. HereditarySpherocytosis

cl. Thalassemia

50. Pentad of pain, fever, jaundice, confusion and shock is

seen ln:a. Pancreatitis

b. Hepatitisc. Cholangitis

d. Appendicitis

,;,.,.1;

t,.:i..j

,ll!:

>:ft,:lU,,OrEifr;oiJi<asiuJlzr;:uJ!oi

;$

;fit,

March 2C08

Scptenfttr 2008

March 2009


51. Most common type of gallstone in India is:

March 2009

a. Cholesterol

!. Pigment

c" Mixed

d. Both A and C

52. Investigation of choice for hydatid disease is:

SePtember 2009

a. CT scan

b. Elisa

c. Biopsv

d. USG

53. A11 of the following are common cause of post

splenectomy infections excePt:

SePtember 2009

a. H.influenzab. Ecoli

c. Klebsiellad. Streptococcus

54. Management of infected pancreatic necrosis includes

all of the following except:

a. Percutaneousdrainageb. Pancreaticnecrosectomy

March 2010

c. Manage conservatively with antibiotics alone

d. Nutritional support

55. Investigation of choice for acute cholecystitis:March 2010

a. Plain Radiographyb. USG

c. CT scan

d. Barium studies

56" Calculous cholecystitis is associated with all of the

58. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in:September 2005

a. Dubin Johnson syndrome

b. Cilbert's syndrome

c. Criggler Najjar type Id. Criggler Najjar type II

59. True regarding primary sclerosing cholangitis

associated with ulcerative colitis are all of the

following except: March 2007

a. Biiiary Cirrhosis is a known complication

b. Increasecl risk of hilar cholangiocarcinoma

c. May har.'e raised levels of alkaline phoshphatase

d. Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis resolt'es after total

coiectomy

60. Investigation of choice for diagnosing intra

abdominal bleeding in an ulstable patient:

S eptember 2007

a. CT scan

b. MRI scan

c. USC

d. diagnostic peritoneal lavage

61. All of the following are seen with bile duct stone

March 2008

omzmnrU,c7om7

i

ti

:i

ii,.].

i;;:

*

following except:

a. Oral contraceptivesb. Oestrogen

c. Obesityd" Diabetes

57. Chronic calcific pancteatitis is associated with all ofthe following except:

a. Hypercalcemiab. Diabetes mellitusc" Malabsorption of fat

September 2005

except:

a. Obstructive jaundice

b. Distended and palpable gall bladder

c. Pruritis

d. Clay coloured stools

62. Which of the following statement is true regarding

pyogenic liver abscess: September 2009

a. Diagnosis can be confirmed by serological test

b. Radiographic features are diagnostic

c. Usually a large and single abscess is seen in cases of

direct spread.

d" Systemic manifestations are uncommon

63. Reversed "3" sign on barium studies is seen in which

condition:

a. Ampuilary carcinoma

b. carcinoma stomach

c. Carcinoma head of pancreas

d. Insulinoma

September 2009

March 2005

f;

*t::i

iL,,$.1!r

d. Diabetes associated complications are uncommon

t,utov,f,@JtrIJJzulo

64. All of the following are true regarding splenicrupture except: September 2009a. Elet'ation of the left dome of diaphragmb. Obliterated psoas shadow

c. Obliterated colonic gas shadowd. Obliterated splenic outline

55. A 26 year old male presented with 4 day history ofpain in the right sided lower abdomen with frequentvomiting. Patients GC is fair and clinically a tenderlump was felt in the right iliac fossa.Most appropriatemanagement for this case would be: March 2010a. Flxploratorv iaparaotomvb. imrnediate appendicectomyc. Ochsnt'r-Sherren re5;irr,an

d. Extemal drainage

66. Investigation of choice for gall bladder stone is:

March 2010a. OCG

b. USG

c. PTC

d. X-ray

CASTROINTESTINAL TMCT67. Routine management of paralytic ileus include all of

the following except: March 2005a. Electrolyte correctionb. Nasogastric aspirationc. Parasympathomimetics

d. Intravenous fluids

68. Ideal management in an old and frail patientpresenting with a mass situated 15 cm anay from anal

70. Which of the following is not associated n ith Crohn,adisease:

a. fistulab. stricturec. Sclerosing cholangitis

d. granuloma

71. Hirschsprung's disease involves which region o{intestine: Marcha. Colonb. Rectumc. Rectosigmoid partd. Terminal ileum

72. Hirschsprung's disease in diagnosed by: hlarch2(fr5a. USG

b. CT scan

c. Anogramd. Rectal biopsy

73. Which of the followirg is the investigation of choicefor diagnosing carcinoma colon:a. X-ray abdomenb. CTscanc. Colonoscopyd. Barium enema

September 2ffi5.,

74. Uncommon complication of meckels diverticulum is:,,

September 2Nia. Intussusceptionb. Diverticulitisc. Malignancyd. Increased bleeding

75. Acute appendicitis is characterized by all of thefollowing except:

a. Anorexiab. Rovsing's sign

September 2M5

c. Fever >42 degree celsiusd. Peri-umbilical colic

76. True about Barrett's esophagus are all of the follo$'itlgexcept: Septembu2Ma. Hvperplastic change in the lining mucosa of

esophagus

b" Patient is usually asymptomaticc. Histology of the lesion shows mucus secreting

goblet cells

d. Chronic gastroesophageal reflux is a predispostlt6

factor

orifice:a" Abdomino-perineal resection

b. Colonoscopic removalc. Hartman's operationd. Anterior resection

General Surgery

March 2005

March 2005

69. Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of thefollowing except:

a. Colicb. Tremors and giddinessc. Hyperglycemiad. Epigastric fullness


7/, Commonest cause of peptic ulcer disease:

Septenfuer 2006

a. NSAID ingestion

b. Smoking

c. H.pylorid. Genetic factors

78. Commonest cause of esophageal perforation:March 2007

a. Boerhaave sl'ndromeb. Carcinoma of esophagusc. Acid ingestiond. Instrumentation

79, Entero enteric fistula is found in all except:March 2007

a. Crohn's diseaseb. Colo-rectal malignancyc. Actinomycosisd. Ulcerative colitis

80, Which of the following statement is false: March 2007a. Granulomatous inflammation is found in Crohn's

disease.b. Perianal lesions are common in Crohn's disease.c. Stricture involving the colon is found in ulcerative

colitis.d. Fistula formation is common in Crohn's disease.

81. Which of the following is not a commoner cause ofintestinal perforation: March 2007a. Gastric ulcerb. Gastrointestinal cancerc. Typhoidd. Crohn's disease

82. Commonest operation done for gastric outletobstruction with peptic ulcer is: March 2007a. Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomyb. Truncal vagotomy with pyloroplastyc. Highly selective vagotomy with pyloroplastyd. Gastrojejunostomy

83. Metabolic disturbance seen with pyloric stenosis:

March 2007

a. Hypokalemic hyponatremic alkalosisb. Hyperkalemiac. Hyperchloremicacidosisd. Hypematremia

84. Hellels myotomy is done for. September 2007,2009,201.0a" Esophagealcarcinomab. Pylorichypertrophyc" Achalasia cardiad. Inguinal hemia

Septernber 2009, 2010

a. Appendicularabscessb. Pelvic abscess .oc. Appendicular mass . i tTid. Acute appendicitis j:,2

88. Trichobezoar is pathological ingestion of: ifnSeplembcr 2009':7

a. \'egetable matter ,' >b. Hair ,l-c. Coins iAo. )rones C

89. Most common site of volvulus is: i7March 2010 Septettuer 2f|r0 iG)

a. Ileum .imb. Appendix ',4c. Sigmoid colond. Caecum i:

85. A patient presents with history of mild diarrhea,blood in stools with multiple fistulas. What is themost probable diagnosis: September 2007

a. Intestinal fuberculosisb. ulcerative colitisc. Crohn's disease

d. Typhoid86. All of the following predisposes to carcinoma of the

esophagus except: September 2008

a. Achalasiab. Zenker's diverticulumc. Barrett's esophagusd. Piummer-Vinson disease

87. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:

90. Which of the following is false regarding gastrooesophageal reflux disease: March 2005 :i

a. Transient relaxation of the lower esophagusb. Tea and coffee should be avoidedc. Length of LES is an important factord. Omeprazole is the preferred agent for management

91.The commonest cause of significantly lowergastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged personwithout any known precipitating factor may be due to


a. Ulverative colitisb" Ischemic colitisc. Angiodysplasiad. DiverLiculum of sigmoid colon

92. Which of the following is not true for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome:a. Recurrence after operationb. Reduced BAO : IvIAO raticr

c. Gastrin producing tumourd. Diarrhoea may be a presenting feature

93. Which of the following plays a major role in thedevelopment of dumping syrdrome:a. Vagolytic mechanismb. Smaller stonachc. Excessive food in the stomachd, Large volurne of hyperosmotic fluid in the intestine

94. Treatment of an incidentally detected appendicularcarcinoid measuring 2.5 cm is:a. Right hemicolectomyb. Limites resection of the rieht colonc. Total colectomyd. Appendicectomy

95. Features of achalsia cardia are all of the followingexcept:

a. Regurgitantvomitingb. Elongated and dilated esophagusc. Rat-tail deformitl' and filling defect on barium studyd. Increased difficulW in sn'allowing

HERNIA

96. Spigelian hemia is:a. Hernia passing through the obturator canalb. Hernia occurring through the linea albac. Hernia through the triangle of petitd. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line

97. Strangulation most commonly occurs in:Seatember 2005

a. femoral herniab. Direct inguinal herniac" Indirect inguinat hemiad" Lumbar hemia

98. True regarding indirect inguinal hernia are all except:

March 2008a. Most common lype of herniab. Always unilateraic" Inguinal herniotomy is the basic operationd. Transillumination distinguishes it from hydrocele

Generalsurgery

5c1,tt1,'Lr,' rrr,t

a. Richter's herniab. Spigelian herniac. Sliding herniad. lnterstitial hemia

Septentber 2@g

lvlarch 2009 1.00. Most common type of hernia in the young age .,;

99. If caecum is involved as a pad of the wall of hernial i

sac and is not its content, then it will be k.ro*n ur,-- i

t.-:

.'.i::..i,ti:,i

*$

truJoE,:)aJtlUzIJJo

',,i;i...,:9,t.t,.

'.;:.,.r.t,.:;;it'i. - .

1,,.:.;::l't '':l.' . ".,i.r, ,,,.

,'.,$;;t",,,t""

, ':iiit.,",

, ,.,':1 ,,1::i

l;', ;t,t.

t';

group:a. Femoral herniab. Direct inguinal herniac. Indirect inguinal ht'rniad. Urnbilical hemia

Septernber 2ffi

Mnrclt 2009101. While operating upon strangulated hernia, the sac is

opened at: Scptembcr 200g

March 2009

a. Neckb. Bodyc. Fundusd. Mouth

102. Which of the following describes Richtels hernia:

September 2Wa. The strangulated loop of ,W, lies within the

abdomenb. Hemia occurring at the lerrel of arcuae linec. lnvolves only a portion of the circumference of *re

bowel.d. Hernia occurring through the linea alba

103. Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer is:

March 2005

a. Umbilical herniab. Incisional herniac. Strangulated hemiad. Fatty hernia of linea alba

CENITOURINARY SYSTEM

1,04. tnvestigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:

March 2005, Septenrber 2010

a. CT scanb. Voidingcystourethrographyc. Intravenousurographyd. X-ray KUB

Marclt 2005

105. Seminoma is carcinoma of:a. Kidneyb. Urinary bladderc. Testes

d" Penis

September 2005


100. Reflex nephropathy is diagnosed mainly by:

SePtember 2405

a. X-ray KUB

b. Micturating cysto uretl-rrogram

c. CT scan

d. MRI scan

107. Lateral internal sphincterotomy is useful for:Septembet 2007

a. Anal fistulab" Anal canal stricturesc. Haemorrhoidsd. Anal fissure

108. Treatment of choice for 3rd degree hemorrhoids is:

SePterfuer 2007

a. Sclerotherapyb. Band ligationc. Hemorrhoidectomyd. All of the above

109. Which one of the following is radiolucent stone:

September 2007

a. Calcium oxalateb. Cystinec. Uric acidd. Phosphate

110. True about incompletely descended testis are all ofthe following except: March 2008

a. Early repositioning can preserve functionb. It may lead to sterility, if bilateralc. Poorly developed secondary sexual charactersd. May be associated with indirect inguinal hemia

11L. Most radiosensitive testicular tumour is: March 2008

a. Seminomab. teratomac. Interstitialtumoursd. Lymphoma

112. Erythroplasia of Queyrat occurs in: September 2008

a. Scrotumb. Testesc. Penisd. Bladder

113. A 25 year old man presents with hydrocele on the

left side. Associated condition could be a:

SePtember 2008

a. Nephromab. Hepatic malignancyc. Testicular tumourd. Penile malignancy

1L4. Treatment of stage I teratoma is:

a. Chemotherapy

b. Radiotherapy

c. Surgery

d. Observation

1L5. Fournier's gangtene is seen in:

a. Scrotum

b. Shaft of penis

c. Base of penis

d. Glans penis

September 2008

September 2008

116. Most common testicular tumour in 4th decade is:

Mrch 2009

a. Teratoma

b. Dermoidc. Seminoma

d. All of the above

117. Following urethral rupture, immediate procedure to

be done is: SeTttember 2008, March 2009

a. Urinarycatheterizationb. Suprapubiccystostomy

c. Referral to a urologistd. Observation

1.18. Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients

who had undergone transurethral resection of

prostate suggests:

a. Hypernatremiab. Sepsis

c. Hepatic coma

d. Water retention

Septemher 2009

119. Associated with urinary bladder carcinoma are all of

the following except: Srptenrber 2009

a. Smoking

b. Human papilloma virus infection

c. Schistosomiasis

d. Cyclophosphamide

120. All of the following are radio-opaque stones except:

September 2009

a. Calcium

b. Struvite

c. Uric acid

d. Cystine

omzmnl-acnomn

Generalsurgery

L21. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is 129. During thyroidectomy, inferior thyroid artery issuggestive of:a. Horseshoe kidneyb. Duplicaiion of renal pelvisc. Simple cyst of kidneyd. Ureterocele

122. Thimble bladder is seen in:a. Diverticulaeb. Bladder stonesc. Schistosorniasisd. Tuberculosis

123. Narrowest part of the urethra is:

byta. Cremasteric veinb. Dorsal vein of penisc. Internal pudendal veind. Pampiniform plexus

126. Spider-leg appearance is seen in:

a. Prostatic urethrab. Bulbar urethrac. Penile urethrad. Membranous urethra

L24. Which of the following causes orchitis withoutepididymitis: March 2009a. Syphilisb. TBc. Gonorrhoead. Chlamvdiatrachomatis

125. Drainage of venous blood from testes followingdivision of testicular vein for treatment of varicocele is

ligated at: Septentber 2a06a" Maxiamally away from the glandb. Close to the glandc. Halfr,r'ay from the glandd. None of the above

130. FNAC is useful in all except: March 2N7a. Follicularcarcinoma

b. Papiilary carcinomac. Anaplasticcarcinomad. Merlullary carcinoma

131. Features of hyperthyroidism are all except:

March 2Aa7a. Voracious appetiteb. Cold intolerance

c. Emotionaldisturbance

d. Sleeplessness

132. Metastasis from follicular carcinoma should betreated by: September 2007

a. Radioiodine

b. Surgery

c. Thyroxined. Observation

133. AntiTPO antibodies are present in: September 2007

a. Reidel'sthyroiditisb. Grave's disease

c. Hashimotosthyroiditisd" DeQuervain's thyroiditis

134. All of the following are true regarding Gtave,sdisease except: March 2008

a. Orbital proptosisb" Presents as primary thyrotoxicosisc. Anti-TPO antibodies

d. Pretibial myxoedema

135. True regarding Papillary carcinoma of thyroid is:

March 20A8

a. Undifferentiatedcarcinoma

b. Blood-bome metastasis is commonerc. Excellent prognosis

d. Capsulated

I'tlarch 2010

March 2005

LInrch 2009

March 2009

March 2010a. Pyelonephritisb. Polyrystic kidneyc. Renal artery stenosisd. Ureteric stones

127. All of the following are seen in chronic pyloricobstruction except: March 2010a. Alkaline urineb. Acidic urinec" Hypochloremiad. H1'pokalemia

THYROID128. All of the following are features of Graves disease

except:a. More common in malesb. Tremorc" Pretibial myxoedemad. Intolerance to heat

Septenrber 2005


f6. Most common cause of solitary thyroid nodule is:

Septentber 2008

a. Physiologicalgoitre

b. Follicular adenoma

c. Colloiddegenerations

d. Cysts

f7, Thyroxine can be given in which thyroid carcinoma:

SePtember 2009

a. PaPillary

b. Medullary

c. Anaplastic

d. Undifferentiated

$8. After thyroidectomy for medullary carcinoma of

thyroid, which is important for determining

recurrence of tumour:

a. thyroglobulin

b. TSH

September 2009

c. Carcinoembryonicantigen

d. Thyroxine levels

139. Amyloid deposition is seen in which type of

carcinoma thyroid:

a. Follicular

b. Anaplastic

c. Anaplastic

d. Medullary

September 2009

140. All of the following are true regarding medullary

BREAST

142. Most important prognostic factor for breast

Carcinoma is:

a. Age of the patient

b. Lymph node involvement

c. Genetic factors

d. Family history

143. Group of lymph node involved in breast carcinoma

are all of the following except:

a. Supraclavicular

b. Prebracheal

c. Axillary'

d. Intemal mammary

Mnrch 2005

144. Unilateral breast involvement with scaly skin around

the nipple and intermittent bleeding is suggestive of:

3 SePtember 2005

a. Galactocoele

b. Pagets disease

c. Eczema

d. Sebaceous cysts

145. Simple Mastectomy includes removal of:

September 2005 €i 2006

a" Only breast

b. Breast and axiJ.lary nodes

c. Breast +axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle

d. Breast+axillariesnodes+Pectoralismajor

muscle+pectoralis minor muscle

146. Peau d'Orange of breast is due to:

September 2005,2010, March 2007

a" Obstruction of Vein

b. Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.

c. Obstruction of glandular ducts

d. Obstruction of arteries

147. Structure preserved in Modified radical [Pateyl

mastectomy is: Septenrber 2006' 2009

a. Axillary vein

b" Pectoralis major muscle

c. Nerves to serratus anterior

d. All of the above

March 2005

..O:mi:Z,irn*v*>$l-*o*cinto*m*F$<-(-

{::l:

*icarcinoma of thyroid except:

a. Total thyroidectomy is done

b. Parafollicular cells involved

c. TSH dependent

d. Releases calcitonin

141. Which of the following is initial investigation of

choice for a patient presenting with solitary nodule of

March 2010

March 2005thyroid:

a. Thyroid function test

b" FNAC

c. Radionuclide scan

d. MRI

GeneralSurgery

March 2008

rii.

,'t1,"i

ffi

1,48. Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in whichtype of breast cancer:

a. Tubular carcinomab. Medullary carcinomac. Colloid carcinomaJ l^fl --- -r^-,,cl. lnilammatory carclnoma

1,49. True regarding breast carcinoma is:

Septernber 20A7

155. Minimum score in Glassgow Coma Scale:

a.0b. 1

c.2o.J

156. Raised Intra cranial Pressure will cause:

a. Tachycardia

b. Hvpotensionc. Papilloedema

March2MT

b. Majority of submandibular stones are radio-lucent ,:

c. Stones are the most common cause of obstruction r

within the submandibular glandd. Patient presents rvith acute swelling in the region

of the submandibular gland

160. True regarding cystic hygroma is:

a. Alrvays unilateralb. Brilliantlytranslucentc. Subsides itselfd. Always presnts at birth

March 20At

161. Most common congenital anomaly of the face is:

March 2009

a. Cieft lip alone

b. Isolated cleft palatec. Cleft lip and cieft palate

d. All have equal incidence

March2@L

.,..i,*:.i,:

a. Occurs most commonly in upper inner quadrantb. Late menarche and early menopause predisposes

for breast malignancyc. Commoner in nulliparous wornel-ld. Unrelated r.r.ith the family historv of breast cancer

150. All of the following are predisposing factors forbreast carcinoma except:a. Family history of breast carcinomab. First child at a younger age

c. E.rrly menarche and late mcnopaused. Nulliparous lvomen

HEAD.NECK

151. Both breasts are affected in which type of breastcarcinoma:a. Inflammatoryb. infiltrativec. Ductald. Lobular

152. Stones are most commonly seen in which salivarygland: March 2005,2007a. Submandibularb. Sublingrralc. Parotidd. Occurs with equal frequenry in all the salivary

glands.

1"53. A man sustained injury and presented with fluidcoming out through nose. What could be thepossible fracture:a. Fracture base of skullb. Fracture of mandiblec. Fracfure of maxillad. None of the above

154. What is not found in head injury:a. Confusionb. Loss of consciousness

c. Lucid intervald. GCS score of 0

Marclr 2007

March 2007

ltnlntrhrr )OO.9"-r-'" "' -"'_

d. Normai locrking anterior fontanelle in infants

157. Surgerv of choice for pleon'rorprhic adenoma is:

Stptetnber 2007,2A10

a. Totalparotidectornvb. Superfici.rl parotidectonryc. Total paroiidectomy n'ith lymph node dissection

d. Radicaiparotidectomy

158. True statement regardihg fracture base of the skull

are all of the following except: March2ffi8;

a. Prophylactic antibiotics are usually not required r.,i

Septentuer 2009 b. Associated with 8 cranial nerve palsv

c. Early surgery is indicated for optimal outcome

d. May present with CSF otorrhoea

159. All of the following statement regarding stones in

the submandibular gland are true except: March 2008

a. 80% of stones occur in the submandibular qland

!,.&i:IIJ i(,tEIf,t@iJ}:<lt:,IJJ I'ZiiuttC,l


152, Carcinoma of tongue most commonly occur at:

March 2009a. Dorsum

b. Lateral border of anterior 2/3rdc. Lateral border of posterior 1/3rdd. Tip

163. Most common location of ectopic submandibularsalivary gland tissue is: September 2009a. Cheek

b. Palate

c. Angle of mandibled. Tongue

164. True regarding Sjogren's syndrome are all of thefollowing except: Septenfuer 2009a. Autoimmune conditionb. Males are commoniy affectedc. Progressive destruction of lacrimal and salivary

glandd. No single laboratory investigation is

pathognomic.

165. Branchial cyst arises from the which branchial cleft:

September 2009a. Firstb. Second

c. Thirdd. Forth

166. Most common tumour of eyelid is: September 2009a. Neurofibromatosisb. Squamous cell carcinomac. Basal cell carcinomad. Rhabdomyosarcoma

167. Surgical correction in cleft palate primarily aims atall of the following except: March 2010a. Control of regurgitationb. To promote normal dentition and facial growthc. To get a normal speechd. Normal appearance of lips, nose and face

168. Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid

LUNGS

169. Emergency management for Tension pneumothoraxls: Septenfuer 2005a. Thoracotomyb. Insertion of a chest tubec. Needledecompressiond. Tracheostomy

L70. Management of flail chest with respiratory failureis: September 2006a. Chest tube drainageb. Oxygenadministrationc. IPPVd. Intemal operative fixation of the frachrres

segments

171. True about flail chest are all except: March 2007a. Ultimately leads to respiratory failureb. Paradoxicalrespirationc. Fracture of 3-4 ribs ?

d. Mediastinal shift172. Carcinoma responding maximally to radiotherapy is:

September 2006a. Squamous cell carcinomab. Adenocarcinomac. Small cell carcinomad. None of the above

173. Most common symptom in pulmonary embolism:September 2007

a. Dyspneab. Pleuritic chest painc. Cyanosisd. Hemoptysis

174. Condition which builds within hemithoraxresulting in collapsed lung, flattened diaphragm,contralateral mediastinal shift and compromisedvenous return to right side of heart is known as:

September 2007a. Open pneumothoraxb. Flail chestc. Massive pulmonary hemorrhaged. Tensionpneumothorax

175. IPPV is useful in:a. Hemopneumothoraxb. Pneumothoraxc. Flail chestd. Hemothorax

March 2009

,oi|'rl:.2imn,Dtrt'rU,

ici.,FioirTt.ini<I

gland is most common after:a. Uveo-parotid feverb. Mumpsc. Debilitation after major surgeryd. After administration of iodine

March 2008

General Surgery

&uto&fCD

J

tUJzIIJ(,

176. Which of the following subtype of lung carcinomaproduces superior vena cava syndrome:

Septonber 2a09a. Small cell carclnomab. Adenocarcinomac. Anaplasficcarcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma

SURCICAL ONCOLOCY

177.Most common subtype of Basal cell carcinoma is:

March 2005a. Sr,rperficiai basal cell carcinomab. Nodr,rlar basai cell carcinomac. Sclerosing basai cell carcinornad. Pigmented basal ccll carcinoma

L78. Sister |oseph Nodules are present at: Mar& 2A05

a. Umbilicusb. Diaphragmc. Lungd. Liver

179. Most common histological type of carcinoma of baseof tongue:a. Squamous cell carcinomab. Adeno carcinomac. Basal cell carcinomad. Transitional cell carcinoma

March 2007

180" Feafures of carcinoma penis include all except:

March 2007a. Metastasize to inguinal lymph nodesb. Surgery is the treatment of choicec. Hypospadias is a premalignant lesiond. Circumcisionprovides protection

181. True about breast carcinoma are all except:

March 2007a. Positive family historyb. Median age of presentation is about 40 yearsc. More common in muslimsd. Peau d'orange is due to subcutaneous lymphatic

involvement

L82" Aim of surgery in carcinoma rectum is: March 2010a. Limited excision of the rectumb. Sacrificing gastrointestinal continuityc. Preserving the anal sphincterd. Preservingmesorectum

183. All of the following are false for Gall BladderCarcinoma except:a. Carries a good prognosis

March 2005

b. Gallstones may be a predisposing factorc. Commorrly squamous cell carcinomad. Jaundice is rare

1.84. Psammoma bodies are seen in:a. Papillary carcinoma of thyroidb. Follicular carcinoma of thyroidc. Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid

March 2007

d. Lymphoma of thyroid185. False statements about carcinoma esophagus are all

of the following except: March 2007a. Most common in lorver thirdb. Histologically,adenocarcinomaonll,c. Unrelated to tobacco chen ingd. It is more common in females

MISCELLANEOUS

186. Glasgow coma scale in death is: September 2005a.0b. 1

c.2d.3

187. Commonest complication of parenteral nutritionincludes all except:a. Hyperglycemiab. Hyperkalemiac. Hyperosmolardehydrationd. Azotemia

188. Chyluria is caused by all except:a. Pregnancyb. Childbirthc. Filariasisd. Bile duct stones

189. Which of the follorving is preferred cannulation sitefor total parenteral nutrition: September 2007

a. Subclavian veinb. Great Saphenous veinc. Median cubital veind. Extemal jugular vein

190. Which is best method for supplementing nutritionin patients who have undergone massive tesection

March 2007

Nlarch 2007

September 2007of the small intestine is:a. Parenteralb. Enteralc. Gastrostomyd. All of the above


191. Level V cervical nodes includes:

a. Upper jugular nodes

b. Middle jugular nodes

c. Lower jugular nodes

d. Posterior triangle nodes

September 2007

f2. Which of the following is ideal in moderate

hemorrhagic shock:

a. Dextrose

b. Ringer lactate

c. Blood

d. Dextran

September 2007

193. Which of the following solution is a colloid:

SePtenfuer 2007

a. Normal saline

b. Albuminc. Ringer iactate

d. dextrose 5%

194. leep disease is also known as:

a. Anal incontinence

b. Hemorrhoidsc. Pilonidal sinus

d. Anal fissure

March 2008

195. Ideal investigation for fistula-in-ano is: March 2008

a. Endoanalultrasoundb. MRIc. Fistulographyd. CT scan

196. Cellulitis is most commonly caused by:Swtember 2008,2010

a. Clostridiab. Staphylococcic. Streptococci

d. H.Influenzae

197. Hypochloremic alkalosis is seen in:a. Achalasia cardiab. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

c. Ureterosigmoidostomyd. Diarrhea

198. Cryoprecipitate eontains:a. factor IIb. factor Vc. factor VIIId. factor IX

March 2009

199. A patient on antibiotics for treatment for peritonitis

presents with mucus diarrhoea. Most probable

cause could be:

a. Ulcerative colitis

b. Activation of latent tuberculosis

c. Antibioticassociateddiarrhoead. Gastritis

200. CVP is usually measured in:a. Superior vena cava

b. Right atrium

September 2009

September 2009

c. Junction of superior vena cava and right atrium

d. Subclavian vein l

201. Pneumoperitoneum is created by: Septenfucr 2009

a. Cervical group of lymph nodes

b. Stemocleidomastoidmuscle

c. Internal jugular vein


205. All of the following conditions result in chronic

thick walled pyogenic abscess exeept: March 2005

a" Inadequate surgical drainage

b. Virulent strain of offending organism

c" Prolnged course of antibiotic therapy

d. Presence of foreign body

a. 02b. coC. CO2 iQd. N20 " imiz

202. All of the following are true regarding pilonidal $msinus exceph SePtemberz\lgYV

a. Seenpredominantlyinwomen t>dFb. Occurs only in sacrococcygeal region. 1'c. tendenry forrecurrenc " trpd. Obesity is a risk factor i=

203.Graft is not taken up by the following tissue: i 6March 2005 $n1

a. Fat *Ib. muscle

"{<

c. Skull bone 1d. Deep fascia 1

204. In radical neck dissection, which strucfure is not tRemoved: March 2005 :l'

March 2009

Generai Surgery

i:.,+,1, 'lr,i.:l.,,'

ll'.,;:il;t

: i 'j''.' ' ,,'

206. Which of the following is true regarding

tuberculous lymphadenitis: March 2005

a. Historv of contact lr,ith TB patient rnay be present

b. Commoniy seen in the 1'oung and childrenc. Mostly in the ccrvical regiond. Ail of the above

207. Sen-m amylase level is increased in all of the

following except: March 2005

a. Intestinalobstructionb. Perforated ulcerc. Acute pancreatitisd. Acute appendicitis

208. Cystic hvgroma may be associated'with: Mnrclr 2005

a. Turner's syndromeb. Klinefelter'ssr.ndromec. Don'n's syndromed. All of the above

209. Differential diagnosis of a lesion, histologicallyresembling giant cell tumour in the small bones ofthe hand/feet, include all of the following except:

March 2005

a. Fibrosarcomab. Enchondromac. Hyperparthyroidismd. Aneurysmal bone ryst

210. All of the following are features of carcinoma penis

Except:

a. Surgery is the treatment of choice

March 2005

b. Balanoposthitis may be a predisposing factorc. Metastaizes to inguinal nodes

d. Histologically a transitional cell carcinoma21.1. Curling's ulcer are associated with:

September 2005

a. Patient with gastrinomab. Head injuriesc. Burns

d. Analgesicoverdosage

212. Cock's peculiar tumour is:

a. Infected sebaceous cyst

b. Osteomyelitis of skulic. Cyst in the skulld. Tumour of the skull

Septenfuer 2007

213. Basal cell carcinoma usually spreads by which route:

September 20aia. Hematogenous route

b. Lymphatic route

c. Direct spread

d" All of the above

2L4. Which of the following is commonest site for rodent l

tUIg) .E,':--J

ai.J;<:&,,:IJJ.:z"ltJ j(9"'

215. Highest chance of success in renal transplant is

possible when the donor is:

a. Father

b. Mother

c. Twin -:

d. Son

Septenfuer 20A1, 2010

216. HtA matching is not necess ary for:a. Liver transplant

b. Renal transplant

c. Heart transplant

d. Comeal transplant

September 2ffi7

217. Which of the following is seen in Addison's disease:

September 2407

a. Hypernatremia

b. Hypokalemia

c. Hyperglycemia

d. Hypercalcemia

218. All of the following conditions are associated with

September 2A07

ulcer:

a. Lips

b. Orrter canti'rus of eve

c. Inner canthus of eve

d. Cheek

raised amylase level except:

a. Carcinoma pancreas

b. Perforated ulcer

c. Acute pancreatitis

d. Acute appendicitis

219. Adson test is positive in:a. Cervical spondylosis

b. Cervical rib

c. Cervical vertebra fracture

d. Superior vena cava syndrome

September 2A07

September 2007

SELF ASsEssefigerre.NNNCC/MCI SCRE.*NING EXAMIN

ORTHOPAEDICS (Questions)ORTHOPAEDIC TRAUMA1. Hill-Sachs lesion is seen in: NIarch 2005

a. Ilecurrent dislocation of elbou'b. Recurrent dislocation of pateliac. Recurrent dislocation of hipd. Recurrent dislocation of shoulder

2. Supracondylar fracture of the femur commonlyinlures which structure: September 2005a. Sciatic nerveb. Popliteal nervec. Popliteal vesselcl. Femoral vessel

3. Comrnonest complication of extra capsular fracture offemur is:a. Non unionb. Mal unionc. Avascular necrosisd. Osteoarthritis

4" Most serious complication of fracture ofis;a. Fat embolismb. Pulmonary embolismc. Deep vein thrombosisd. Associated joint injuries

Septentuer 2005

5. Which of the following nerve is damaged in thefracture of the shaft of the humerus:

March, Septeruber 2a05a. Musculocutaneous nerveb. Radial nervec. Ulnar nerved. Median nerve

6. Epiphyseal plate fractures are classified by:Seatnnber 2005

a. Herring's classificationb. Salter-Harris classificationc. Garden'sclassificanond. Pauwel's classification

7. Uncommon in Colle's fracture:a. Non-unionb. Mal-unionc. Rupture of EPL tendond. Refler sympathetic dystrophy

8. True regarding Monteggia fracture is: March 2007a. Upper ulnar fracture & dislocated radial headb. Upper radial fracture & dislocated ulnac. Lower radial fracfure & dislocated ulnad Lorter ulnar fracture & dislocatcd raclius

9. lVhat is the position of the leg in fracture neck offemur:a. Internal rotation deformitv ofb. External rotation deformitv ofc. Internal rotation deformitv ofd. External rotation deformity of

10. March fracture is fracture of:

Septentber 2@Jless than 45 degree ,r,

less than 45 degree '

.1,

a long boneSeptember 2005

March 2007

L2. Fracture of distal end of radius mayfunction of which tendon:a. Extensor pollicis longusb. Flexor pollicis brevisc. Extensor indicisd. Extensor digitorum

more than 45 degree ',

more than 45 degree.

injuries is: :.March2W

September

a. Calcaneus ":'

b. 2nd metatarsalc. Distal fibrrlad. Proximal tibia

11. Humeral supracondylar fracture commonly results invrhich nerve injury: S eTttetnber 20A7

a. Musculocutancous nerveb. Radial nervec. ulnar nerved. Median nerve 3

results in loss ofSept ember

13. Complication of humeral lateral epicondyle fracture ,,1

is:a. Non unionb. Tardy ulnar nerrre palsyc. Cubitus valgus deformityd. All of the above

14. Bone commonly fractured in facial

a. Nasal bonesb. Nasoethmoid bonec. Zygomanc boned. Mandible

Scptember 2N8

15. Manoeuvre carried out for diagnosing medialmeniscus injury is: March2010

a. McMurray's test

b. Lachmann's test

c. Valgus stress testd. Varus stress test

16. Manoeuvre for diagnosing rupture of medialcollateral ligament is:a. Posterior drawer testh, Anterior drar.t.er testc. Lachmann's testcl. Valeus stress test

March2il'A


INFLAMMATIONS OF MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM 24. Monoarticular joint involvement is seen in which oI

the following: September 2007 it ri17. Fibrous ankylosis is caused by which of the following:

March 2A05

a. Septic arthritisb. TB arthritisc. Bechet's disease

d. Psoriatic arthritis

18. Metacarpophalangeal joints are most commonly

affected in:a. Osteoarthritisb. Psoriatic artirritisc. IRhettmatoid arthritisd. Rheumatic fever

19. Felon is:

a. Mid palmar sPace infection

b. Infection of ulnar bursa

March 2A05

Mnrch 2407

c. Terminal pulp sPace infection

d. Infection of nail bed

20. Iliac crest involvement is common in which

condition: Mnrch 2007

a. Ankylosing spondylitisb. Rheumatoid arthritisc" Reiter's syndrome

d. Osteoarthritis

21. Commonest presenting symptom of Pott's spine is:

Mnrch 2007

a. Cold abscess

b. Back painc. Decreased sPinal movements

d. Collapse of spine

22. In a patient with gouty arthritis, strongly birefringent

needle-shaped crystals with negative elongation in

synvial fuid aspiration are comPosed of:

SePtember 2007

a. Monosodium urate

b. Calcium pyroPhosPhatec. Homogentisic acid

d. Sodium pyroPhosPhate

23. Charcots/ neuropathic joints are most commonly seen

ina. DMb. Syringolmyeliac. Leprosyd. Rheumatoid arthritis

September 2007

a. Primarvosteoarthritisb. Rheumatoicl arthritisc. Tuberculararthritisd. Sero-neagtive spond-arthritis

25. Most common joint involved in osteoarthritis in India:March 2409

a. Shoulderb. Hipc. Kneed. Ankle

26. Part of knee most commonly involved inosteoarthritis:a. Medial comPartmentb. Laterai corrlPartmentc. Medial and lateral comPartmentd. Patellofemoral comPartment

Mnrch 2009

27.Felty's syndrorne is associated with which of the

following: SePterfuer 2009

a. Osteoarthritis 3

b. Rheumatoid arthritisc. Ankylosing sPondYiitisd. Psoriatic arthritis

28. Purulent inflammation and infection of terminai pulpspace of distal phalanges is known as:

SePtentber 2009

a. Acute paronYchiumb. Whitlowc. Acute suppurative tenosynovitisd. Apical subungual infection

29. All of the following are true regarding ankylosingspondylitis excePt: March 2010

a. Involvement of sacroiliac iointb. Most of people areHLAB2T positive

c. 50% of pafients may have urinary infection

d. Bamboo spine may be a radiologicai feature

30. HLA 827 is commonly associated with which of the

following: March 2010

:,o',.7,,{

'Tlo'T,.D'.llllsi.6iu,

a. Rheumatic fever ::

b. Rheumatoid arthritisc. Osteoarthritisd. Ankylosing sPondYlitis : ,

OTHER NON TRAUMATIC CONDITIONS ,l

31. Duputryens contracture commonly affects: ." ......-,,.'

SePtember 2005 '

a. Little finger ,

b. Ring firger .

c. Middle fingerd. Index finger i''' r,

Orthopaedics

b. lVidening of epiphysis- diaphvsis distancec. Cupping and splaying of metaphvsisd. Rarefaction

. 35. Duchenne,s muscular dystrophy affects which group, of muscle s commonly: Septeiber ZbOg

Ur "', a. Calf muscles

O :: b. Sl-roulder muscles

-::A c. l-orearm muscles

iii . d. Respiarr.ory muscles

? ,, ,U. In Duchennes muscular dystrophy, calf muscle is:

L ,i, September 200g

O a Hypertrophied

T D. Arroptued

tr c. Pseudoatrophied

U d. Pseudohvpertrophied.

O 37. Congenital talipes equinovarus deformity includes allof the following except: March 2010

32. Aseptic necrosis is common in:March 2007, Septenfuer 2010

a. Scaphoidb. Calcaneumc. Cuboidd. TrapeziumBest diagnostic modality to diagnose avascularnecrosis is:a. MRI scanb. CTscanc. X-ravd. USG

34. AII of the following are seen in rickets except:

a. Frenkels line

r,r a. Eversioni: b. Forefoot adduction-: c. ,t oretoot cavus

o. Equrnus38. All of the following are true about rickets except:

March 2010

Ulnar nerveMedian nerveRadial nerve

erpow rs: Sr|ttember 2005a. Ulnar nerveb. Median nen'ec. Radial nerved. Muscuiocutaneous nerve

4L. Foot drop occurs due to the involvement of:March 2007

a. Sciatic nerveb. Direct injury to the dorsiflexorsc. Common peroneai nerve palsyd. All of the above

September 200lr

Stptctrfucr 2009 42, Most common nerve injured in fracture of medialepicondyle of humems is: Mdrch 2A{)7

40. In Hansen's disease, the nerve commonly affected atelbow is: (--+..---,

a. Radial nerveb. Ullar nervec. Median nerved. Musculocutaneous nerve

43. Positive Trendelenburghign is seen in: March 2007a. Superior gluteal nerve palsyb. In-ferior giuteal nerve palsyc. Obturator nerve palsyd. Ilihypogastric nerve palsy

44. Carpal tunnel is associated with all of the followingexcept: September 2007

a. Hyperparathyroidismb. Rheumatoid arthritisc. Wrist osteoarthritisd. Acromegaly

45. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen in:SePtember 2008

a. Cubitus varus deformityb. Cubitus valgus deformityc. Dinner fork deformityd. Garden spade deformity

46. Carpal tunnel syndrome is due to involvement ofwhich nerve: March 2009

a. Radial nerveb. Median nervec. Ulnar nerved. Axillary nerve

47. Inability to adduct the thumb is due to the injury of:

lvlarch 2009

a. Median nerveb. Ulnar nervec. Radial nerved. Musculocutaneous nerve

'!

Iu

a.h

d


48. Tinel sign indicates:

a. Nerve degeneration

b. Nerve regeneration

c. Bothd. None

September 2009

49. Partial claw hand is caused by lesion involving the:

March2010

a. Radialnerveb. Ul:rar nervec. Median nerved. Anterior interosseous nerve

ORTHOPAEDIC ONCOLOCY

50. Radiological finding of ewings sarcoma is:

Scotentber 2005

a. Soap bubble aPPearence

b. Sunray apPearence

c. Onion peel apPearence

d. Codman's triangle

51. Osteosarcoma conunonly af f ects: September 2005

a. Metaphysisb. Diaphysisc. Epiphysisd. None of the above

52. Commonest location of aneurysmal bone cyst islSePtembet 2006

a. Femurb. Pelvisc. Vertebraed. Tibia

53. Which of the following is seen in multiple myeloma:

March 2007

a. Raised serumcalciumb. Decreased serum calciumc. Normal serum calciumd. None of the above

54. Most common tumor of sPine is:

a. Secondariesb" Ewings sarcomac. Oteosarcomad. Multiple myeloma

September 2008

55. Punched out lesion in the skull is indicative of:

SePtember 2008

a. Ewings sarcomab" Multiple myelomac. Metastasisd" Osteosarcoma

56. Sunray appearance on X'ray may be seen in:SePtember 2048

a. Osteoclastoma

b. Osteoblastomac. Osteosarcoma

d. Chondroblastoma

57. Tumour which can occur following exposure to

radiation is:a. Osteosarcomab. Osteoblastomac. Ewing's sarcoma

d. Osteoclastoma

MISCELLANEOUS

March 2009

58. First epiphysis to appear around the elbow region is:

Mnrch 2005 :..:

a. Head of radius i'

b. Capituiumc. Trochlea t'

..,

d. Medial condYle iO59. Supination and pronation occurs at which of the ,tV

following joinh SePtember 2006 Ia. Wrist joint | *b. Eibow joint :9'c. Radio-ulnar joint tId. CarpometacarPal ioint \4

60. Example of syndesmosis ioint is: Qsntowhor ?on7 i r ' I

a. Tibiotalarlo*a '''o" Ju'rrr rr' -""

Ib. Tibiofibuiar joint , Qc. Elbowjoint i.(nd. CarpometacarPal joint

61. Trendelenburg sign is positive due to the involvement i''

of: March 2009 t:'

a. Gluteum maximus !:

b. Gluteus mediusc. Psoas majord. Adductor magnus

62. "Marble Bone" appearance is seen in:

a. Osteomalaciab. OsteoPetrosis

c. Rickets

d. OsteoPorosis

63. Spondylolysis is more common in:

a. Intervertebral disc

b. Anterior Partc. Pars interarticularisd. Annulus fibrosus

March 2009

March 2009

Orthopaedics

March 2009 67. Knuckle bender splint is used for: September

a. Ulnar nerve palsy

b. Radial nerve palsy

c. Median nerve PaisYd. Axillary nerve palsY l:

68. Maximum weight that can be given with skeletal .':-::

Septenrber 2@g

Match2010

a. Osteosarcoma

b. Osteomalacia

c. Multiple myelomad. Malnutrition

SEtember 2009traction is:

a. 5kgb. 10 kgc. 15 kgd. 20 kg

Stpttentber 2009 69. Who coined the term orthopaedics:

a. Louis Pasteur

b. Erlu'ard jenner

c. Nicholas andryd. Kuntscher

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CI 5CREENIN

a. 700 mlb. 800 mlc. 900 mld. 1L

2. Nocturnal enuresis may be considered normal upto:March 2005

a. 3 years

b. 4 years

c. 5 I'earsd. 6 years

Height of a newbom doubles at:

a. 1 year

b. Z1tear

c. 3 yeard. 4 year

Weight of a child triples at:

a. 6 monthsb. 1 yearc. 18 monthsd. 2 year

September 2405

5. A 8 month old baby will be able to do which of the

CROWTH

t. Fluid intake by a 8 kg boy should be:

PAEDIATRICS (Questions)

March 2005

Septenrber 2005,

Marclt 2A10

March 2047

March 2009

9. Very low birth weight is less than:

a. 1000 gm

b. 1500 gm

c. 2000 gm

d. 2500 gm

10. Anterior fontanelle ossifies by:

a. 6 months

b. 12 months

c. 15 months

d. 18 months

11. Moro reflex disappear by:a. 2 months

b. 3 months

c. 4 months

d. 5 months

NUTRITION

September 2009

12. Vitamin D deficiencv is manifested as: Swtember 2005

a. Scurr,y

b. Night blindness

c. Beri-Beri

d. Rickets

13. Malnutrition is assessed clinically by; September 2007

a. Mid arm circumference

b. Weight for age

c. Body mass index

d. Al1 of the above

14. Specific sign of kwashiorkor is:

a. Pitting edema

b. Weight loss

c. Flag sign

d" Muscle wasting

September 2007

15" Prelacteal feed given iust after birth is: March 2009

a. Colv's milkb. Honey

c. Water

d" None

16. All of the following are the features of scurvy except:

SePtenfuer 2009

a. Hyperkeratosis

b" Ecchymosis of lower limbs

c" Hypoglycemiad" Bleeding gums

March 2007

March 2010

following:a. Stable sittingb. Pincer graspc. Stands without supportd. Says mama

5. Normal weight of infant at 1 year from birth is:

SePtember 2007

a. Doubledb. Trippledc. Quadrupledd. Variable increase

7' A child of 3 years will be able to:a. Copy circleb. Ride bicyclec. Copy crossd. Copy triangle

8. A child of 4 years can do all of the following except:

Smtember 2009

a. Skipb. Goes down stairs one foot per stepc. Tell a storyd. Copies triangie

Paediatrics

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17. A child of age 9 needed prophylaxis of vitamin A.

The dose and route of administration is:

Scpternber 2009

a. 1,00,000 IU intramuscularlyb. 1,00,000IU orallyc. 2,00,000 IU intramuscularlyd. 2,00,000 IU orally

L8. Breast feeding should be initiated with in:SePtember 2009

a. Half an hourb. Onehourc. One and a half hourd. Trgo hour

19. Acute malnutrition in a chiid is clinically assessed by:Srytentber 2005

a. Body mass indexb. Weight for age

c. Height for age

d. Weight for height

NEWBORN

20. Which of the following condition doesn't present

with cyanosis at birth:a. TOFb. Transposition of great vessels

Septenfuer 2006

c. PDAd. Tricuspid atresia

21. True about administration of corticosteroids for fetallung maturity all of the following except:

SePtember 2007

b.

Repeat dose if the rvomen remains undeliveredafter the first courseDecreased risk of enterocolitis and intracranialhaemorrhage

c. Contra-indicated in eclampsiad. Indicated in women with preterm labor between

24-34 weeks of gestation

22. All of the following are components of APGAR score

except: SEtember 2008

a. Heart rateb. Respiratory effortsc. BP

d. Muscle tone

23. Physiological jaundice in a term baby lasts upto:Marclt 2005 €t September 2010

a. 4 daysb. 7 da7,s

c. 10 daysd. t4 days

25. A 32 weeks premature, healthy infant weighing less

than 1kg is having jaundice with serum bilirubinlevel of 5 mg%. Ideal management in such a case

would be: Septenber 2A06

a. Observationb. Phototherapyc. Medical managementd. Erchange transfusion

26. Fetal lung maturity is assessed by all of the followingexcept: September 2@7

a. Lecithin:sphingomyelinnratiob. Foam stability indexc. Maternal alpha feto-prctein levcld. Amniotic fluid phosphatidl,lcholine level

27. Most common cause of pathological jaundice on firstday of life is:

a. Physiologicb. Biliary atresia

c. Rh incompatibility td. Sepsis

28. Which of the following is not a cause for neonatal

jaundice manifesting for the first time in the second

week: September 20A8

a. Rhesusincompatibilityb. Hypothyroidismc. Jaundice due to breast milkd. Galactosemia

29. Most common cause of neonatal mortality in India is:

March 2010

a. Congenital malformationsb. Birth injuriesc. Prematurityd. Inbom error of metabolism

30. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all of the

Nlarch 2008

following except:

a. Crigler Najjar Syndromeb. Physiological jaundice

c. Dubin-fohnson syndromed" Gilbert syndrome

CONCENITAL DISORDER

31" All of the following are associated with Down

syndrome except: March 2010

a" Sensory hearing loss

b. VSD

c. Hypothyroidismd. Duodenal atresia

a.

March 2010


32. Which of the following is associated with Down

syndrome:a. Raised PAPP-A level

b. Decresed beta-HCG level

c. Raised estriol level

d. Decreased AFP level

CVS DISORDERS

March 2014

33. All of the following are features of chest radiography

in Tetralogy of fallot excePtr

a. Boot shaped heart shadow

b. In 80% right sided arch of aorta

September 2007

c. Oligemic lung fields

d. Right atrial enlargement

34. Which of the following step is least useful in the

management of TOF: March 2010

a. Anastomosis of a systemic artery with pulmonary

arteryb. Modified Blalock-Taussig shrmt

c. Administer 100% oxygen


35. Most common cause of death in aortic stenosis

38. Koplik's spots are seen in: Septembet 2008

a. Typhoidb. Measles

c. Mumpsd. Polio

PEDIATRIC ONCOLOGY


malignancy of the childhood:

a. CLLb. ALLc. CMLd. AML

MISCELLANEOUS

40. Decreased LAP score is found in:

March 2008

a. Leukaemoid reaction

b. Myelofibrosisc. Pemicious anemia

d. Polycythemia

41. Characteristic of a child with acute post-streptococcal

glomerulonephritis is:

a. Leucocytosis

b. Fever

c. Raised ASO titred. Pedal edema

42. Basic abnormality in a case of nephritic syndrome is:

SePtember 2008

a. Hyperlipidemiab. Proteinuriac. Pedal edema

d. Hypertension

43. A 5 year boy presented with massive haemetemesis'

He is not febrile. Per abdomen examination revealed

massive splenomegaly without hepatomegaly' Most

probable diagnosis would be: March 2005

a. Non-cirrhotic portal fibrosis

b. Extrahepatic portal venous obstruction

c. Budd-Chiarisl'ndromed. Hepatic carcinoma

$i

March 2007

March 2005

patients is:

a. Pulmonary edema

b. Atrial flutterc. IHD with ventricular fibrillationd. Cerebral embolism

36. Congestive heart failure is seen in all of the followingexcept:

a. TAPVCb. TOFc. Coarctation of aorta

d. PDA

INFECTIOUS DISEASES

37. Commonest virus causing diarrhea in infants is:

SePtember 2006

a. Poliovirusb. Adenovirusc. Rotavirusd. Rhabdovirus

March 2005

September 2007

i-ur>rm:tl;>:{',:,4

iot(n

ASSESSMENT

OB STETRICS (Questions)OBSTETRICS ANATOMY

1. The distance from the upper end of sacrum to lowerborder of pubis corresponds to: Mnrch 2009a" Transverseconjup;ateb. True conjugatec. Diagonal conjugated. Obstetric conjugate

2. Smallest pelvic diameter in anteroposterior plane of

9. Polyhydroaminosis is volume of amniotic fluid morethan:a. 1000 mlb. 2000 mlc. 3000 mld. 4000 ml

10. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly on ultrasound canbe done at: Septenfuer 2005

a. 5 weeks of gestationb. 8 weeks of gestation

c. 10 rt'eeks of gesi:ationd. 14 weeks of gestation

11. True regarding pre-exposure tetanus immunizationare all except: September 2005

a. If already immunized, a booster in the last trimesteris advocated

el

b. Vaccine is given intramuscularlyc. Tetanus immunoglobulin is injected to the motherd. 2 doses are recommended

12. Placenta Praevia is characterized by all of thefollowing except:

a. Painless bleedingb. Causeless bleedingc. Presents in first trirnesterd. Recurrent bleeding

September 2005

13. A pregnant lady in her first trimester presents withvaginal bleeding. On examination the os is closed anduterine size corresponds to the period ofamenorrhoea.The condition could be: September 2005

a. Septic abortionb. Compiete abortionc. Inevitable abortiond. Threatend abortion

14. Post term pregnancy is the pregnancy which continuesbeyond:a. 274daysb. 284 days

c. 294daysd. 304 days

September 2006

15. Ideal time for screening of blood sugar for diabetes in

inlet:a. Obstetric conjugateb. Diagonal conjugatec. True conjugated. Transverse conjugate

3. Largest fetal head diameter:

seen ln:a. Cervical carcinomab. Circumvallate placentac. Placenta praeviad. Abruptio placentae

a. Occipitofrontalb. -suboccipitofrontalc. Mentoverticald. Submentovertical

4. Pelvis with only one ala is known as: March 2010a. Rachitic pelvisb. Naegele's pelvisc. Scoliotic pelvisd. Robert's pelvis

ANTENATAL PERIOD

5. Most common type of vertex presentation:March 2005

a. Right Occipito Posteriorb. Left Occipito posteriorc. Right Occipito Anteriord. Left occipito anterior

6. Pregnant lady presents with fulminant hepatitis. MostCommon Cause: March 2005, September 20L0a. Hepatitis Db. Hepatitis E

c. Hepatitis B

d. Hepatitis A7. Hydramnios is complicated by all except: March 2005

a. Placenta abruptiob. Pre-eclampsiac" Postdated pregnanryd. Atonic Hemorrhage

8" Painless, heavy, recurrent bleeding of sudden onset is

Mlarch 2009

March 2009

Seplember 2005

a pregnant female is:

a. 1.6-20 weeks

b. 20-24weeksc. 24-28 weeksd" 72-16rveeks

Mnrch 2005

September 2006

15. During pregnancy/ maximum urinary HCG level isreached in: March 2007a. 30 daysb. 50 daysc. 70 daysd. 90 days

17 . A 32 w-eeks pregnant lady presents in emergency roomwith continuous bleeding per vaginum.The uterus ispainful and tender.Most likely diagnosis is:

September 2007a. Circumvallate placentab. Rupture of membranesc. Placenta praveiad. Accidental hemorrhage

18. Type of anemia in pregnancy is:a. Megaloblastic

September 2007

b. Microrytic hypochromicc. Microcyticnormochromicd. Normochromic normorytic

19. Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnantwomen requiring long term antihypertensive therapy:

Seotember 2007a. Nifedipineb. Metaprololc. Methyldopad. Hydralazine

20" True about abruptio placentae are all except

September2))8a. Hypertension in the pregnancy is important

predisposing factorb. Placenta lying in the lower segmentc. Tender and hard uterusd. Continuous bleeding per vaginum

21. Most common cardiac lesion seen in pregnancy:

September 2008a. Mitral regurgitationb. Mitral stenosisc. Tetralogy of fallotsd. Patent ducfus arteriosus

22. Shortest diameter of true pelvis amongst the followingls:a. True conjugateb. Diagonal conjugatec. Interspinous diameterd. Interfuberous diameter

Obstetrics

September 2008 USG:a. Duodenal atresia

b. Fetal hydropsc. Down's symdrome

d. Anencephaly

23. Which Ig crosses through placenta: September 20Aga. IgAb. IgEc. IgGd. IgM

24. Fetal adrenals release which hormone predominantlrna" Oestrogenb. Testosterone

c. Aldosteroned. Cortisone

25. tlltrasound is done in 1st trimester for all except:

March 2009

a. Mulfiple pregnancyb. Fetal anomalies

c. To estimate gestational age

d. To know the position of the placenta

26. Maximal level of cardiac output is seen at:

September 2A09

a. 22-26 weeks of pregnancyb. 26-30 weeks of pregnancyc" 30-34 weeks of pregnancyd. 3+38 weeks of pregnancy

27. Congenital anomalies that can be identified by USGare all except:

a. Hydrops fetalisb. Esophageal atresia

c. Anencephalyd. Cystic hygroma

28. pH of vagina in pregnancy is:

September 2009

September 2ffi9

a. 2-4b. 4-6c. 6-8

d. 8-10

29. Uterus reaches up to umbilical level at: September 2009

a. L6 weeks

b. 20 weeksc. 24 weeks

d. 28 weeks

30. Earliest fetal anomaly that can be diagnosed withSeptember 20N

March 2009, September 20fi

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31. Best time for diagnosing fetal abnormalities by USG:

September 20A9

a. 6-12 weeks of pregnanryb. 13-19 weeks ofpregnancyc. 20-26 weeks of pregnancy

d. 27-32 weeks of pregnanry

32. Term for relation of different parts of the fetus to oneanother: SEtember 2009

a. Fetal station

b. Fetal attitudec. Fetal lied. Fetal presentation

33. Vaccine not contraindicated in pregnancy are all

38. Which of the following genital infections carries thehighest risk for preterm delivery: March 2005

a. Trich.omonas vaginitisb. Monilial vaginitisc. Bacterial vaginitisd. Human papilloma virus

39. During pregnanct fibroid may have all o{ the

,:,

:.ii

:ti

*

f ollowing complications except:

a. Metastasis

b. Painc. Post partum hemorrhaged. Preierm iabour

March 2009

March 2005 :,

].:

;t

except:

a. Rabies

b. Hepatitis Bc. Yellow feverd. Hepatitis A

34. Increase seen in plasma volume in pregnancy:

March 2010

a. 1.0-20"/o

b. 20-30o/o

c. 30-400/"

d. 40-s0%

35. Change noticed in diastolic blood pressure in

LABOR

40. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateralepisiotomy are all except:

a. Less blood loss

b. easy repairc. extension of the incision is easy

d. muscles are not cut41. Progress of the labour is assessed with the help of

March 2005

a. Cervicographb. Partogramc. Dilatation chartd. Growth curve

42. Bishop's classification is used for:a. Progress oflabourb. Requirement of induction for labourc. Gestational age of fetusd" Fetal well bein

43. A hypertensive primigravida with completelysubsided pre-eclamptic feafures,pregnancy should be

March 2010

March 2010

:!,

i*o*wltUt${..*ITlf"{i,7!oiU,:i!

i.i;

pregnancy is:a. Decline of 10-20 mm of Hgb. Decline of 5-10 mm of Hgc. Elevation of L0-20 mm of Hgd. Elevation of 5-10 mm of Hg

36. Increase in cardiac output seen in pregnancy is:

March 2010

a" 10%

b. 20"/"

c. 30%

d. 40%

37.True regarding rubella infection in pregnancy is:

March 20L0

a. Risk of congenital infection is more in last trimesterb. Vaccination is indicated in pregnanry for protectionc. IgM antibodies in fetus reflects immunityd, It is caused by DNA virus

continued at least upto:a. 35 weekb. 37 weekc. 39 week

d. 40 week

44. Which of the following is seen in 2nd stage of labor:

September 2005

a. Expulsion of the fetusb. Increase in contractionc. Cervical dilatationd. All of the above

March 2005

September 2005

Obstetrics

U'(JtFIJJFamo

45. A full-term multigravida is having breechpresentation. Ideal management in this case would be:

Sextentber 2006

a. Elective caesarean sectionb. External cephalic version followed by vaginal

deliveryc. Trial of labourd. Extemal cephalic version followed caesarean section

46. External cephalic version is conhaindicated all of thefollowing except: September 2006

a. Antepartum hemorrhageb. Multiple pregnancyc. Breech presentationd. ltupfured membranes

47.True labour pains is represented by: Septenber 2006

a. Pain and discomfort in the abdomenb. Shot'c. Relieved by enema ans administration of sedatived. Dull in nature

48. Pressure in ventcuse assisted delivery is:

September 2006

i: a. 0.4 kgisq"cm

:, b 0.6 kg/sq.cm

,,: c. 0.8 kg/sq.cm.:. d. 1.0 kg/sq.cm

I 49. Shoulder dystocia results in the following except:

March 2007". a Erb's palsy., b. Klumpke's palsy, c. Sternomastoid swelling. d. Anencephaly

., 50. Shoulder dystocia is seen predominantly in:: March 2007

.l a. Transverse lie

,, b. Cord around neckc. Anencephalyo. r|ano Prolapse

52. Ideal management of a37 weeks pregnant elderlyprimigravida with placenta praevia and active

bleeding:a. Labour inductionb. Caesarean section

c. Vaginal deiiveryd. Expectant treatment

September 2007

53. Successful trial of labour can be expected in:

a. Android pelvis March2wl

b. Naegele's pelvis

c. Flat pelvis

d. Generally contracted pelvis

54. Contra-indications to ergometrine are all except:

Mqrch 2AA8

a. Suspected muitiple pregnancy

b. Cardiac problems

c. Atonic uterine bleeding "d. Rh-negative mother

55. Which of the following is not a parameter in Bishop's

score:

a. Cervicalconsistency

b. Station of head

c. Position of head

d. Cervical length

56. Drug which is contraindicated before 2nd stage of

March 2N9

March 2009labor is:

a. Mifepristoneb. Oxytocinc. Misoprostold. Ergometrine

57. Contraindication for applying forceps:

a. crowning of head

b. head station +1

c. maternal cardiac disease

d. CPD-.i.:,* 5l.Prerequisite for applying forceps are all except:

, ,. SePtcmber 2007'1. a. Aftercoming head of breech

'.ffi b. Thereshouldbeno CPD

;,.i'i,{ c. Saggital suture should be in line with transverse'' diameter of pelvis

d. Foetal head should be engaged,'&i,$.,.,ii-:.,iiji':.r

,,a.,,,t ,

March2N9

58. Causes of prolonged first stage of labor are all except

March 2a09

a. Weak uterine contractions

b. CPD

c. Rigid perineum

d. Transverse presentation


59. Cord cutting should be delayed in which condition:Se1ttember 2009

a. IUGRb. Sever anemiac. Rh incompatibilityd. Asphp<ia

60. The average blood loss in normal delivery is:

September 2009a. 250 mlb. 500 mlc. 750 mld. 1000 ml

61. Ideal management of 37 lveeks uncomplicated breechpregnancy is: March 20L0a. Spontaneous vaginal deliveryb. Elective caesarean sectionc. External cephalic version and trial of vaginal

deliveryd. External cephalic version followed caesarean secfion

62. All are done in 3'd stage of labour except: March 2010a. Injection of ergometrineb. Cord clampingc. Massage of uterusd. lnjection of oxytocin

63. A primigravida with vertex presentation is havingfully dilated cervix. Head is well engaged and ishaving a station of +2. Foetal heart monitoring showslate deceleration. Most appropriate management insuch a case would be:a. Observationb. Vacuum extractionc. Forceps applicationd. Immediate Caesarean

September 2009

POST NATAL PERIOD64. After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta,

patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would

66. Retained placenta can lead to: September 2005

a. Placental polypb. Proionged bleedingc. Puerperal sepsis

d. All of the above

67. Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery iscommonly due to:a. Traumaticb. Uterine atonyc. BIood coagulopathyd. Mixed causes

September 2005

68. Low birth weight baby is defined as baby weighing:

Septembet 2.006

a. 1000 gmb. 1500 gmc. 2000 gmd. 2500 gm

59. Most common cause of uterojvesical fistula in India:

Septemher 2006

a. Pelvic Surgery

b. Obstructed labourc. Tumoursd. Tuberculosis

70. Drugs used to control post partum hemorrhage are allexcept: September 2007

a. Prostaglandin analogue

b. Oxytocinc. Progesterone

d. Ergotmetrine

71. All of the following are signs of uterine scar

dehiscence except: September 2009

a. Tachycardiab. Fetal distress

c. Strong uterine contractionsd. Falling BP

72. A woman with a history of repeated abortions gave

birth to a low birth weight baby. The child is havingrashes over palm and rhinitis. The most probablediagnosis isa. Congenital HIVb. Congenital syphilisc. Congenital rubellad. Pemphigus

September 2009

io]TD,;a,.{.:JTIj{',,4:lotu,

include all except:a. Check for placenta in uterusb. Check for laceration of labiac. APGAR scoringd. Uterine massage and I/V oxytocin

65. AntiD Rh is given for: September 2005a. Rh positive father,Rh positive motherb. Rh negative father,Rh positive motherc. Rh negative father,Rh negative motherd. Rh positive father,Rh negative mother

March 2005

Obstetrics

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73. Percentage of scar dehiscence in lower uterinesegment caesarean section is: September 2009

a. 0.1-2%

b. 2-5%c. 5-9"/"

d. More than 10%

74. Involution of uterus occurs at the rate of:

Swtember 2009

a. 1.0 cm/day

b. 1.25 cm/day

c. L.5 cm/day

d. 2.0 cm/day

75, Most common cause of post partum hemorrhage:

September 2009

a. Traumab. Uterine atonyc. Tumours

d. Blood coagulopathy

MISCELLANEOUS

76.Exact number of weeks between last menstnral period

ILMPI and expected date of delivery [EDD]:March 2005

a. 38 weeks

b. 39 weeks

c. 40 weeks

d. 41 weeks

77.Most common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopiantube: March 2005

a. Infundibulumb. ampullac. isthmusd. interstitium

78. Treatment for choice for fubal pregnancy with no

evidence of bleeding or rupfure:a. Salpingectomy

b. Salpingostomyc. Observationd. Salpingocentesis

September 2005

79. Misoprostol is indicated in all of the following except:

a. Postpartumhemorrhageb. Missed abortionc. Induction of labour

d. Menorrhagia

80. Commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy: March 200?a. Previous tubal disease

b. Oral contraceptivesc. IUCDd. Endometriosis

81. Method of termination of pregnancy in first trimesterare all of the following except:

a. Ethyl dacryryanateb. Misoprostol + Mifepristonec. Methotrexate + Misoprostold. Suction and evacuation

September 2007

82. True regarding gestational trophoblastic neoplasia are

moles

c. The genotype is 46XX i! majority of complete moles

d. The genotypes is 69XXY in majority of incomplete

moles

83. Not associated with twin pregnancy:a. Pre-eclampsia

b. Oligohydramniosc. Antepartum hemorrhaged. Atonic uterus

84. All of the following are associated with pathogenesis

of acute hydrops fetalis except: September 2009

a. Hypoproteinemiab. Anemiac. Hypoplasia of placental tissue

d. Metabolic acidosis

85. If division of fertilized egg takes place in between F8

days. It would give rise to which kind of twinpregnancy:a. Monochorionic/monoamnioticb" Monochorionic/diamnioticc. Dichorionic/monoamnioticd. Siamese twins

March 2009

86. Which of the following is not a manifestation of

all except:

a. pHCG is highly elevated in both the

preSnancyb. Classical svmptoms are only seen

neonatal tetanus:a" Irrritabilityb. Hypotoniac. Difficult feedingd. Facial grimacing

March 2009

forms of molar

with complete

March20ffi

September 20N

September 2005,2010

ESSMENT

GYNAECOLOGY (Questions)GYNAECOLOCY ANATOMY

1" The mucosal lining in vagina is composed of:

March 2005

a. Transitionalb. Ciliated columnarc. Stratified squamous non keratinized

d. Pseudostratified columnar

2. Hormone responsible for ferning pattern of cervical

mucus: March 2007

a. Progesterone

b. Estrogenc. LHd. Prolactin

3, Commonest uterine anomalY is:

a. Uterus unicomisb. Uterus bicomisc. Uterus didelPhYsd. SubsePtate uterus

CONTRACEPTIVES

March2007

4. Contraceptive which is supplied by government free

of cost: SePtember 2006

a. MiniPillb. Norplantc. Mala-Nd. Centchroman

5. Pearl index is used to calculate: March' September 2009

a. Accidental Pregnanciesb" PoPulationc. FertilitY rate

d. Abortions

6. Levonorgestrol containing IUCD Prevents PregnancyMarch 2007primarilY due to:

a. Making endometrium unrecePnve

b. Suppressing ovulationc. tiiatit'tg inflammatory changes within the

endometriumd. Making cervical mucus thin

7. Teehnique of Cu-T insertion:

a. Surgery under local anaesthesia

b. Surgery under general anaesthesia

c" Pushingd. LaparotomY

8. Conventional contracePtion is:

a. OCPb. Surgical sterilizationc. 'Condoms

d. IUCD

CYNAECOLOCY-INFECTION

9. Gold standard investigation in diagnosing PID is:

March2005

a. Anti chlamYdial Ab

b. LaParoscoPY

c. USG

d. Blood leucocYte count

10. Which of the following condition is most iikely to be

associated with vaginal PH of 4 : September 2009

a. AtroPhic vaginitisb. Trichomanas vaginatis

c. Candidal I'aginitis

d. Gardenelia vaginitis

L1. A female presented with thick white discharge and

pruritus. aetiological agent fu:

a. Gardnerellab. Trichomonas vaginalis

c. Candidad. Gonococci

GYNAECOLOCY-ONCOLOGY

September 2009

12. A 46years old lady has abnormal uterine bleeding

with simple hyperplasia of endometrium' The

treatment of choice would be: March 2005

a. Total HYsterectomY

b. Progestronc. Estrogen+ Progestogend. Estrogen

13. Meig's syndrome is associated with ovarian:

Sevtember 2006

a. Teratomab. Brenner tumour

c. Fibromad. Theca cell tumour

14. Most com{non cervical carcinoma:

a. Adenocarcinomab. Sarcoma

March 2007

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

d. Small cell carcinoma

15. The risk of endometrial carcinoma is highest with the

following histological pattern of endometrial

hyperplasia: -

March 2A07

a. Simple hyperplasia n'ith atyPia

b. Simple hvperplasia without atypta

March 2010

September 2006


c. Complex hyperplasia with atypia

d. Complex hyperplasia without atyPia

16. Sensitivity of conventional PAP smear in picking up

cervical cancer is:

a. 70%

b. 80%

c. 90%

d. 100%

17. Not useful for diagnosis, in a female of 55 years

presenting with postmenopausal bleeding:Seatember 2009

a. Transvaginal USG

b. Postcoital test

c. Pap smear

d. Endometrial bioPsY

18. Endometrial carcinoma with vaginal metastasis,what

FIGO stage would it be :

a. Stage III ab. Stage III bc. Stage III c

d. Stage IV a

September 2009

19. Therapeutic conisation is indicated inl. September 2009

a. CIN IiIb. Cervical metaPlasia

c. Microinvasive carcinoma

d. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia

20. Treatment of choice for choriocarcinoma:SePtember 2009

a. Observationb. HysterectomYc. Chemotherapy with Methotrexate

d. RadiotheraPY

21. Carcinoma cervix involving upper 2/3d of vagina'

The stage would be: September 2009

a. Stage II a

b. Stage II bc. Stage III ad. Stage III b

MISCELLANEOUS

22. Colposcopy is used to visualize all except: March 2405

a. Upper 2/3'd endocervix

b. Lower 1/3'd endoCervix

c. Lateral fornixd" Vault of vagina

23. Heamatocolpos is seen in:a. Septate uterusb. Bicomuate utems

c. Unicornuate uterus

d. Imperforate hYmen

24. Estrogen deficiencY leads to:

a. PostmenoPausalbleeding

September 2005

b. Decreased risk of cardiovascular diseases

c. OsteoPorosis

d. Dysmenorrhea

25. Hirsuitism is seen in all except: Septembet 2007 ' 201-0

a. AcromegalY

b. Hyperthyroidismc. Arrhenoblastoma

d. PCOD

26. Laparoscopy is the diagnostic procedure of choice for:

March 2008

a. Ca uterus

b. Ca cervix

c. Ca rectum

d. Endometriosis 1

27.78year old girl presented with primary amenorrhea,

normal breast development, absent pubic and axillary

hair.Condition is:

a. Tumer s}'ndrome

b. Mullerian agenesis

c. Premature ovarian failure

d. Testicular feminizing syndrome

28. Not seen in anorexia nervosa:

a. Osteoporosis

b. Refusal to feeds

c. Weight loss

d. Menorrhagia

29, Preserved in manchester operation:

a. Full length of cervix

b. Competenry of os

c. FertilitYd" Menstruation

September 2009

September 2009

September 2009

30. Most important part of post operative management of

vesico vaginal fistula is:

a. Complete bed rest

b. Acidification of urine

c. Continuous bladder drainage

d. Antibiotic

September 2009

31. Most important manifestation of ureterovaginal

SEtember 2007

'i

;

:oi<2Zt>$m{oioi1-io*o*<g{*$.{

Ig

fistula is:

a. Hydronephrosisb. Overflow incontinence

c. Stress incontinence

September 2005

September 2009

Gynaecology

d. Continuous incontenence

32. Methylene blue 3 swab test is done fot urinaryfistulae.source of leakage if the low-ermost slvab gets

stained:a. Ureterb. Urinary bladderc. Urethrad. None of the above

33. lVhat is the most common complication after

abdominal hYsterectomY:

a. Ureteral injuryb. Intestine dvsfunctionc. Urinary bladder atonY

d. Vaginal vault ProlaPse

34. Hysterectomy is indicated in postpartum period fonMarch 2007

a. Trvin Pregnancyb. Endometriosisc. Fibroid uterus

d. PPH not controlled bY

artery

of intemal iliac

35. Gynaecomastia is seen in all except September 2007

a. Spironolactoneb. HyPothYroidismc. Klinefelters s)'ndrome

d. Cirrhotic liver diseases

March 20L0

March 2007

I)JcIJIJJ

zo

j;.-t*.rt

:*

{,l

4.. ,.,q;,ili:$,':i

'€

BACTERIAL INFECTION

1. Chancroid is caused by:a. Herpes simplex virus

b. HPVc. T. paliidumd. H.ducreyi

8. As per IVHO recommendation, duration of treatment

2. Which of the following is associated with leprosy:

SePtember 2005

a. Foamy historytes

b. Epitheliod cells

c. Noncaseatinggranulomas

d. All of the above

3. Incubation period of syphilis is: Septentber 2006

a. 10-14 days

b. 30-60 days

c. 9-90 days

d. 3-6 months

4. All of the following are commonly involved indisseminated gonococcal infection except:

9. Most important in establishing diagnosis of leprosy

a. |oint and tendons

b. Skin

c. Braind. LiverWhich of the following is true for multibacillaryleprosy: SePtember 2006

a. More than 5 iesions on skin smears

b. Clofazimine is an important drug to be given

c. Treatment is to given for 12 months

d. All of the above

Asmmetrical several nerves thickening with sevetal

hypoesthetic macules on skin indicates which stage

of leptosy: March 2009

a. Borderlinelepromatousb" Tuberculoid leprosy

c. Borderlineborderlined. Borderline tubeculoid

7" Innumerable, small, normoesthetic and symmetrical

skin lesions are present in which type of leprosy:

March 2009

a. Borderlinelepromatousb. Lepromatous

c" Borderline tubeculoidd. Tuberculoid

FUNGAL INFECTION

1.0. A 40 yr old male has a rash over gtoin withdemarcated peripheral scaling and central clearing. Itcould be due to:

a. Candidiasisb. Malassezia furfurc. Trichophytond. Aspergillosis

' Septentber 2005

1L. Most common fungal infection in neutropenic patient

ls:

a. Candidiasis

b. Aspergillosisc. Histoplasmosis


12. Fungus which affects hair is:

a. Microsporumb. Trichophytonc. Both of the above


13" Kerion is:

a. Viral infectionb. Fungal infectionc. Bacterial infectiond. Parasitic inJection

PICMENTATION DISORDERS

September 2005

14. Deereased number of melanocytes are seen in:March 2005

Evidence of neural involvementHypopigmented patches

Slit smear for AFB

Positive lepromin test

PebaldismAlbinismVitiligoAll of the above

is:

a,

b.

c.

A

September 2009

March 2010

March 2009

March 2009

September 2006

5.

6"

a.

b"

u-

DERMATOLOGY (Questions)

Septenrber 2005 of multibacillary leprosy is:

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 9 months

d. 12 months

Dermatology

l:;: except:' a. Autosomal recessive condition

ffi b. Normal procluction of melanin

15. All of the following are true regarding albinism 23. Erythroderma is related with all of the followingexcept: SePtember 2008

a. Lepromatous leProsY

b. Psoriasis

c. Air-borne dermatitisd. Sulfonamides

24. Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with all of the

following excePt:

a. Giuten sensitive enteroPathY

b. Enteral lymPhoma

c. Atrophic gastritis

d. Ulcerati're colitis

September 2008

25. Most common type of pemphigus in India is:

September 2008

a. P.foliaceus

b. P.vulgarisc. P.erythematosusd. P.vegetans

26. Nail deformity commonly sgen in lichen planus are

all of the following excePt:

a. Pterygiumb. Longitudnal grooves

c. Oncholysisd. Beau's lines

March 2009

27. Causative agent of molluscum contagiosum is a:

SePtembet 2009

a. Bacteria

b. Virusc. Priond. Fungus

28. The following is an important feature of psoriasis:

SePtember 2009

a. Crustingb. Silvery Scaling

c. Coarse bleedingd. Erythematous macules

29. Fir tree pattern lesion on trunk is seen in:SePtentber 2009

a. PemPhigoidb. Psoriasis

c. Pityriasis rosea

d. Pityriasis versicolor

30. Wickham's striae is a feature of: September 2009'2010

a. Psoriasis

b. Pityriasis rosea

c. Lichen Planusd. Vitiligo

March 2009

March 2005

March 2007

]{

'i

'rl'{,i1

iii

ooJoF

=Eulo

MISCELLANEOUS

17. Latest retinoid drug used in acne is:

a. Retinoic acid

b. CiindamYcin

c. Adapalane

d. Azelaic acid

18. True isomorphic phenomenon is not seen in:

March 2005

a. Lichen sclerosis

b. Lichen planus

c. Vitiligod. Psoriasis

19. Silver plaques are a feature of:

a. Lichen Planusb. Psoriasis

c. Vitiligod. Albinism

20. Butterfly rash is associated with:

September 2006

September 2006

a. DLE

b. SLE

c. Rheumatoid arthritis

d. Reiter's sYndrome

21. Auspitz sign is seen in: March 2007, September 20L0

a. Psoriasis

b. Fungal infections

c. Vitiiigod. Melasma

22. Ashleaf sPots are seen in:

a. Psoriasis

b. Tuberous sclerosis

c" Multiple sclerosis

d. Pemphigus vulgaris


31. Which of the following features are associated with Tinea crurisScabies

Infantile eczema

Papular urticaria

September 2009

a.b.

a. Munro's micro-abscesses, fir tree appearence andepidermal hyperplasia

b. Munro's micro-abscesses, parakeratosis, andepidermal hyperplasia

c. Munro's micro-abscesses, satellite pustules andepidermal hyperplasia

d. Munro's micro-abscesses, wickham's striae andepidermal hyperplasia

32. Salt and pepper dyschromatosis is seen in:September 2009

a. Dermatofibrositisb. Sclerodermac. SLEd. Psoriasis

33. A child presented with complaint of severe itchingover the web of fingers, more at night. Examinationrevealed burrows. Most probable diagnosis is:

Sevtember 2009

34. Which of the following is the histological feature ofpemphigus;a. Acanthosisb. Colloid bodiesc. Acantholysisd. Basal cell degeneration

March 2010

35. Drug of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis:March 20L0

a. Rifampicinb. Thalidomidec. Dapsoned. Clofazimine

gmv={oroo

-re:: iF- '-*;

SCREEN

March 2005

,

a.

b.

ANAESTHESIA (Questions)RECIONAL ANAESTHESIA

1. Epidural anaesthesia is preferred over spinal

anaesthesia because:

a. Prolonged duration of effect

b. Cheaper

September 2006

c. Less incidence of intravascular injection

d. Less incidence of epidural hematoma

SYSTEMIC ANAESTHESIA

2. Short acting anesthetic agent used for day care surgery

1S: Srytternbcr 2005,2q10

a. Diazepam

b. Ketamine

c. Propofol

d. Sevoflurane

3. Nirous oxide is contraindicated in all of the followingexcept:

a. Volvulus surgeries

b. Pneumothorax

c. Patient in shock

d. Tympanoplasties

September 2006

4. Which of the following anaesthetic agent also has

anti-emetic property:

a. Ketamine

b. Thiopentone

c. Propofol

d. Nitrous oxide

September 2006

5. A multigravida \ffoman was posted for emergency

caesarean section. Correct statements are all of the

following except- September 2006

a. Cricoid pressure is applied n'hile intubating

b. Isoflurane should not be used as it causes placental

insufficienry

c. CS is done to prevent fetal distress and meconiumm

aspirationd. Cord clamping to be done after a few minutes

6. Anaesthetic of choice in asthma patients: March 2007

a. Halothane

b. Thipentone

c, Ketamine

d. Fentanyl

7. All of the following are induction agents except:

Sentenfuer 2007

a. Thiopental

b. Halothane

c. Nitrous oxide

d. Propofol

8. Regarding neuromuscular blockers which of the

following is true: March 2009

a. Neostigmine reverses the effect of succinylcholine

b. Atracurium is a depolarizing agent

c. Pancuronium should be avoided in renal disease

d. Depolarizing blocking dmgs shorvs no fasciculations

9. Which of the following is the best induction agent:

Septenfuer 2009

a. Ketamine

b. Diazepam :

c. Nitrous oxide

d. Thiopentone

MISCELLANEOUS

10. Pin index of orygen is:

a. 0,5b. 1,5

c. 2,5d. 3,5

L1. Laughing gas is: March 2005

a. Ketamine

b. Nitric oxide

c. Nitrous oxide

d. Methane

12. All of the following are used for intravenousinduction except: March 2005

a. Bupivacaine

b. Thiopentone

c. Ketamine

d. Etomidate

13, Incorrect statement about orygen storage is:

September 2006

Pressure is 2,000 pounds per square inch

Acceptable pvrity is 99c/a

CommorLly used rylinders on anaesthesia machine

are of type E

d. Blue rylinder with orange collar

Anaesthesia

ti

*t$it$

14. Which of the following is not widely used in

cardiopulmonary resuscitation:

a. Adrenalineb. Calcium

c. Atropined. VasoPressin

15. Site for external cardiac massage is:

September 2006

a. Lower third of stemum'b. Junction of body and manubrium stemi

c. Xiphoid Processd. 2 fingers left to xiphoid process


complication related to intubation: March 2009

a. Bleedingb. MalPosition

c. Sore throatd. Abductor ParalYsis

17. Contraindication of bag and mask ventilation are all

of the following excePt:

a. Tracheo-esoPhageal fistula

b. Hiatus hemia

c. PregnancY

d. EmptY stomach

18. Drug of choice for sedation of a patient in ICU is:

September 2009

a. DiazePam

b. LorazePam

c. Propofold. Alprazolam

March 2009

March 2009I

ESSMsc

March20-l-0 the following drug:

a. HaloPeridolb. BenzodiazePines

c. Lithiumd. ChlorPromazine

9. Drugs used for treating schizophrenia are chiefly:

March 2010

a. Antimaniacb. Antidepressant

c. Antihistaminicsd. Antipsychotic

MOOD DISORDERS

10. Suicidal tendency is associated with: September 2005

a. Depression

b. Schizophrenia

c. Impulsive disorderd. Ail of the above

11. A 40 year old man with elevated mood: March 2007

a. Schizophrenia

b. Maniac. Depression

d. Hysteria

12. Estimation of serum levels is important for which ofSeptember 2009

13. Ftequent suicidal tendencies are seen in which of the

following:a. Schizophrenia

b. Severe dePression

c. Borderline personality disorder

d. All of the above

CHILD PSYCHIATRY

September 2009

14. Drug of choice for attention deficit disorder with

hyperactivity is:

a. ChlorPromazine

b. Clonidinec. Imipramined. Methylphenidate

15. True regarding autism is:

a. A metabolic disorder

b. Caused due to teratogenic drugs

c. Impaired reciprocal social and

interaction

d. Neurodevelopmental disorder

September 2009

N

1(PSYCHIATRY (Questions)

March 2010

syndrome:a. Wemicke's encePhaloPathY

b. Delirium tremensc. Seizuresd. Aloholic hallucinosis

SCHIZOPHRENIA

5. Catatonia is a tyPe of :

a. Schizophreniab. Phobiac. Depressiond. OCD

5. Delusion is a disorder of:

a. Thinkingb. Memoryc. Perceptiond. Leaming

September 2407

September 2007

7. Most common type of schizophrenia is: March 2009

a. Paranoidb. Simplec" Catatonicd Undifferentiated

8. Which of the following is the drug of choice for

medication-resistantschizophrenia: September2009

a" Haloperidolb. Chlorpromazinec. Clozapined" Flupentixol

PSYCHOACTIVE SUBSTANCE USE DISORDER

1. Chronic use of anti-psychotic drug can lead to:

SePtember 2006

a. Orthostatic hYPertensionb. Parkinsonismc. Tardive dyskinesiad. All of the above

2. Benzodiazepine overdose in a patient presenting withcoma, is treated by:a. Protamineb. Flumazenilc. Coumarind. Midazolam

March 2010

3. All of the following are true for Korsakoff's psychosis

except:a. Organic amnestic s1'ndrome

b. Loss of insightc. Deficienry of ryanocobalamind. It may follow Wemicke's encephalopathy

4. Most severe manifestation of alcohol withdrawl

September 2009

interpersonal

Self Assessment & Review OF FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

NEUROTIC DISORDERS

16. Drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder is:

March, 2005, September 2009

a. Sertraline

b. Alprazolam

c. Chlorpromazine

d. Fluoxetine

17. Panic attack is:

a. Acute anxiety

b. Chronic anxiety

c. Acute depression

d. Chronic depression

September 2005

MISCELLANEOUS

18. Which of the following is a shortest acting

benzodiazepine:

a. Diazepam

b. Lorezepam

c. Midazolam

d. Alprazolam

September 2005

19. Neurofibrillary tangles are associated with:

March 2007

a. Bipolar disorder

b. Alzheimer's disease

c. Schieophrenia

d. Multiple infarctions

20. Illusion is:

a. A false unshaken belief not

cultural background

b. Perception without stimuli

c. Abnormal perception by a sensory misinterpretationof actual stimulus

d. Fear of closed spaces

21. The term'psychoanalysis' is associated with:

March 2009

a. John Broadus Watson

b. Carl Gustav |ungc. Sigmond Freud

d. Wilhelm Reich

22. Which of the following is a method of breaking bad

news:

a. Burstb. Spread

c. Spiked. Divert

a. DSM-IV-TRb. ICD-10c. Both of the aboved. None of the above

24. Organic cause for erectile dysfunction is mostcommonly:a. Psychologicalb. Vascularc. Neuronald. Hormonal

25. In EEG, alpha wave denotes:

Înr.L )nno ..4:

l.:

,:i:j..

:r

t23. Presently, classification of psychiatric illness is done it

bv: March 2009 :..,by,

oo

September 20A9September 2007

keeping one's sociao-a. REM sleepb. Awake and eye closed and mind wanderingc. Sleep with eyes closedd. Mental activity

RADIODLA-GNO SIS (Questions)GENERAL PRINCIPLE

1. Filament in X-ray machine is made up of: March 2005

a. Molybdenumb. Tungsten

c. Strontiumd. Silver

2. Who discovered X-rays:a. Roentgen

b. Curie

c. Becquerel

d. Gray

3. Roentgen is the unit of:

a. Radioactivityb. Radiation exposurec. Absorbed dose


THORAX

4. Rib notching is a feature of:

September 2007

September 2006

a. ASD

b. PDAc. Coarctaation of aorta

d. All of the above

5. A patient presents with the clinical features ofinterstitial lung disease. How will you confirm thediagnosis:

a. CT scan

b. X-Rayc. Bronchoscopy

d, MRI

September 2007,2010

5. All of the following are seen on the right side of the

cardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except:

September 2008,2010

a. Right atriumb. Superior vena cava

c. Inferior vena cava

d. Pulmonary artery

7. Investigation of choice for bronchiectasis is:

September 2009

a. Chest X-rayb. MRIc. CTscand. V-P scan

is:a. 15 mlb. 25 mlc. J5 mld. 45 ml

ABDOMINAL

suggestive of:a. Ileal atresia

March 2010 b. Anorectal malformationc. Bladder calculid. Duodenal Atresia

8. Minimum fluid collection required for radioiogicaldetection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view

11. Initial investigation for an amoebic liver abscess is

Sntember 2009

a. USG

b. Exploratory laparotomyc. CTscand. Technetium-99 scan

MUSCULOSKELETAL

12. Investigation of choice in a patient brought with

9. Double Bubble sign on abdominal skiagram is

September 2009

Marclr 2005

September 2009

March 2005

10. Gold standard investigationdor diagnosing cysticechinococcus is:a. USG

b. X-rayc. ELISAd. CT scan

traumatic paraplegia:a. Plain X-rayb. Myelographyc. CT scan

d. MRI scan

13. White line of Frenkel is seen in:a. Osteoporosisb. Osteomalaciac. Scurvyd. Beri-Beri

September 2008

14. Which of the following is the radiological features ofrickets:a. Frenkel lineb. Narrowing of epiphysisc. Metaphyseal cupping and splaying

d. Pelikan spur

September 2008

19. Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the

following excePt:

a. G-6-PD deficienry

b. Sickle cell anemia

c. Aplastic anemia

d. Thalassemia

MISCELLANEOUS

March 20L0, September 2010

20. Which of the following is the best view for visualizing

minimal pneurnoPeritoni um:-

a. X-ray abdomen-erect vieil'

b. X-ray abdornen-suPine view

Septenfuer 2005

c. Left lateral decubitus with horizontal beam

d. Left lateral view with vertical beam

21. Which one of the following is the preferred route for

performing cerebral angiograPhY:

a. Transfemoral route

b. Transbrachial route

c. Transradial route

d. Transaxillary route

22. USG finding in chronic renal disease may be:

March 2009

a. Enlarged kidneY

b. Noral kidneY

c. ShrunkenkidneYd. All of the above

March 2009

Radiodiagnosis

i ,U. Ouaio".tive isotope of which of the following is used

i i" bone scans: SePtember 20A9,2070

i " Phosphorous

$ b. Iodine

* c. Technetium

$ d. Gallium

$ fO. Whi.tt of the following is not a radiological feature of

$ rickets: March 20L0

a. MetaPhYseal cuPPing

:l b. I'hyseal widening

:: c. Frenkel's line

d. Triradiate Pelvis:t

-: srur-li tz. nrrat ganglia calcification is seen in all of the

$ f"ttowing except: March 2007

$ a. HypoParathYroidism

$ b. HypothYroidism

_* .. HyperparthYroidism

gi d. Acromegaly

il 18. Pu.".t"tal sinus which can be visualized best on a

.: occipito-frontal view is: September 2009t;:

I $ a. Frontal sinus

l*. b. Ethmoidal sinus

:$ c. Sphenoid sinus

$ a. Maxillary sinus

it

$$

x$*i

il$:#3:

&hs.'i

ffii::.lti*?g

F+ji:;il

**li1r:ii';;*i;t:,

March 20AS

March 2008

March 2A09

March 2009

RADIOTHERAPY (Questions)RADIOSENSITIVITY OF TISSUES

L. Most radiosensitive organ is:

a. Liverb. Fat

c. Bone marrowd. Nervous tissue

2. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive

tissue:a. Adrenalb. I'ancreas

c. Gonads

d. Uterus

3. Which of the following is a harmful:a. Alpha particleb. Gamma particlec. Neutrond. Electron

4" Most radiosensitive cell is:

a. NeutroPhilb. Lymphocytec. MegakarYocYte

d. Basophil

5. Radioactivity acts on which phase of cell cycle:

March 2010

a. GIb. G2

c.Md.s

DIACNOSTIC

6. Radiation exposure occurs in all of the followingexcept:a. CT scan

b. MRI scan

c. Fluoroscopyd. X-ray

September 2005

7. Which of the following doesn't produce radiation

hazardza. MRIb. Doppler USG



8. Gamma camera is used for:

a. Mesuring the radioactivitYb. Radionuclide scans



Septenfuu 2006

9. Which of the following radio of Iodine is used for

thyroid scan: SePtenfuer 2008

a, l-123b. r-125

c. I-127

d. I-131

THERAPEUTIC

10. Element most commonly used in brachytherapy ofcarcinorna cervix: Mnrch 2005

a. Carbonb. Technetiumc. Nitrogend. Cesium

11. lVhich of the following has longer half life:March 2009

a. I'123b. I-131. t-1?.)

d. All have equal half life

12. Radiotherapy is most useful in which of the

following: March 2010

a. Choriocarcinomab. Osteosarcoma

c. Seminomas

d. Renal cell carcinoma

MISCELLANEOUS

13. Radium emits which of the following radiations:SePtember 2007,2010

a. Gamma raYs

b. Alpha raYs

c. Beta raYs

d. All of the above

14. Amount of radioactivity absorbed by body is

measured bY: March 2010

a. Curieb. I{oentgenc. Rad

d. Rem

15. Maximum dose of radiation which is considered safe

for human in a Year is:

a. 5 Rads

b. 10 Rads

c. 15 Rads

d. 20 Rads

September 2007

March 2010

September 20L0 Questions

L. Which of the following artery is present inanatomical snuff box:a. Anterior interosseous artery

b. Brachial arteryc. Radial arteryd. Ulnar artery

2. Peyels patches are present in:a. Duodenumb. jejunumc. Ileumd. Stomach

September 2010

September 2010

3. I{hich of the following nerve does not supplysubmandibular gland:

a" Lingual nerveb. Chorda tympa.ic. Sympathetic plexusd. Auriculotemporalnerve

September 2010

4. Arch of aorta begins and ends at which level:a. T2

b. T3

c. T4

cl. r5

September 201.0

9. Which of the following is true: September 201.0

a. ExtraCellular Fluid is rich in organic anion

b. ECF is more than IntraCellular Fluid

c. High sodium to potassium ratio is seen in ECF

d. ECF is potassium ion rich

10. Haldane effect is defined as: September 2010

a. Important mechanism meant for oxygen transPort

in the bodyb. Binding of oxygen to hemoglobin increases

capacity for carbon dioxide

c" Deoxygenation of blood increases capacity for

carbon dioxide

d. All of the above

11. Hypocalcemia results ina. Absent tendon reflexes

b. Shortened QT interval in ECG

September 2070

c. Reduced excitability of nerves and muscle cells

d. Tetany

5. True about cardiac muscles are all except:

Se1ttentber 2007, SePtenfuer 2010

a. Property o{ spontaneous and rhythmic contractionb. Cardiac muscle exhibits cross striationsc. Cardiac muscle cells are linear and longitudinal.d. Cardiac muscle is supplied by autonomic nerve

fibers

6. Commonest position of appendix:September 2007, SePtember 2010

a. Pelvicb. Retrocaecalc. Subcaecald. Promontoric

7. Muscle which helps to open Eustachian tube while

sneezing: March 2005, Septembet 2010

a. Tensor veli palatinib. Levator veli palatinic. None of the above :r

d. Both A and B

8. Safety muscle of tongue is: Mmch 2009, September 2010

a" Styloglossusb. Genioglossusc. Palatoglossusd. Hyoglossus

12. Iron binding protein is Septenrbet 201'0

a. Ferritin

b. Ferroportin 1

c. Transferrin

d. Hephaestin

13. Platelets ate stored at what temperature:

a. 20 degree Celsius

b. 15 degree celsius

c. 10 degree celsius

d. 5 degree celsius

September 2014

14. The hormone which helps in milk secretion:

September 2008, SePtember 2010

a. Oxytocinb. Growth hormonec. FSHd. Prolactin

15. Sweating is mediated by: March 2009, September 2010

a. Cholinergic mediated sympathetic activityb. Noradrenergic mediated sympathetic activityc" Noradrenergic mediated parasympathetic activity

d. Cholinergic mediated parasympathetic activify

September 201 0 (Questions)

t7.

18.

16. Ol'ulation is due to surge of:

a. FSH

b. LH

a. m-RNAb. I-RNAc. r-NAd. DNA

19. Which of the following is

HartnuP's disease Pateints:

Septenrber 2006,201-0

found in urine inSePtember 2010

c. Prolactind. TSH

22. Which is involved inCoA in mitochondria:a. Ornithineb. Xanthinec. Camitined. Albumin

23. Pulses are deficient in:a. LYsineb. Methioninec. Bothd. None of the above

transport of long chain acYl-

SePtember 2010

Xanthine Oxidase is associated with which co-factor:

a. Zinc SePtember 2010

b. Copperc. Seleniumd. MolybdenumCodor,, are present in: Septenfuer 2010

September 2005,201'0

24. Final product of purine metabolism is:

March 2010, SePtermber 2010

a. Uric acid e

b. Creatininec. Xanthined. PhoshPhates

25. Northern blotting technique is used for tle separation

of: March 2005' SePtember 2010

a. DNAb. Proteinc. RNAd. Protein DNA interaction

25. Sodium fluoride is added to blood' as it inhibit:Mar ch 201'0, SePtemb er 2010

a. Hexokinaseb. Glucokinasec. Glucose-6-PhosPhatased. Enolase

c. Reticulorytosisd. Howell-jolleYbodies

29. Which of the foliowing is not a feature of prirnary

tuberculosis:a" APical cavitYb. Ghon's focusc. ParatrachealtYmPhadenoPathYd. Heal sPontaneouslY bY fibrosis

SO. FriaUte ".ra

b,'tty ""gut"iiotrs

are seen in which of

the following:a. Infective endocartitis

b" Libman sack's endocartitis

c. Rheumatic fever

d. All of the above

a. PhenYalanineb. Omithinec. CYstined. ClYcine

20. Which element is required by phosphofructokinase:

a. Magnesium ^

SePtember 2010

b" Inorganic PhosPhatec. Manganesed. CoPPer

2L. Adipocytes use which of following: Septemher 2010

a. GLUT1b. GLUT2c. GLUT3d. GLUT4

ACTH type of substance is produced by which type

of lung malignancY

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Small cell lung carcinoma

c. Large cell carcinoma

d. Oat cell carcinoma

Which of the following is not a feature ot

megaloblastic anaemia:

a. ThrombocYtoPenia

b" MegakaryocYtes

ii zz.

t.,a;:'t;:.

ti.1r;.'t

;i:tr:.'i.i.:

li 28.

ifi,..,.l-

lfi:


31.

32.

38.

39.

40.33.

41.

Which of the following is the first symptom of irondeficiency anemia:a. Low iron concentration in blood

b. Reduced hemoglobin

c. Reduced PCV

d. Reduced ferritinLacunar cells is seen in which type of Hodgkins

Lymphoma

a. Mixed cellularity tyPe

b. Lymphocytepredominant

c. Nodular Sclerosis TYPe

d. All of the above

Which of the following is not a featute of red

infarction:a. Venous occlusion

b. Occurs in organs having dual circulation

c. Occurs in solid organs

d. Occurs in previously congested tissues

34. Most common lung cancer in non-smokers is:

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Oat cell carcinoma


35. Sickle cell anemia is characterized by:

a. Microrytosis

b. Macrorytosis

c. Splenomegaly

d. Autosplenectomy

36. Which of the following is ultrastructural feature of

irreversible cell iniury:a. Formation of PhagolYsosomesb. Formation of amorphous densities in the

mitochondrial matrix

c. Formation of blebs in plasma membrane

d. Detachment of ribosomes from rough

endoplasmic reticulum

37. Lobar pneumonia is caused bY:

a. Staphylococcusaureusb. Klebsiella

c. Streptococcuspnuemonlaed. Pseudomonas

Pathology of Alzeheimer's disease is:

a. Defecienry of cholinergic action

b. Excess action of dopamine

c. Accumulation of beta-amyioid protein


Chalcosis is deposition of:

a. Ironb. Calcium

c. Copper

d. Lead

Christmas disease is due to deficiency of ',a.m

42.

a. Deficiency of factor IX ,, -gb. Deficiency of factor X ,' {c. Deficiency of factor XI 1:' md. Deficiency of factor XII 1=Biomarker to rise earliest hr myocardial infarction is: H

March 2010 Va. Troponin-I

^ IXIb. Creatine kinase-MR |6c. Myoglobin !:r.ld. froponin-f ! OIn acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are numerous .6in: SePtember 2009 Ca. M2 :fmb. M3 ig')c. M4 i:,{d. M5 ;t

43. Nephritic syndrome is characterized by all of the ,'Yfollowing excePt: tvtarch 2010 6a. Hematuria .,:

b. Edema ic. Hypertension :'

d. Massive proteinuria iil,44. Bysinnosis is caused by: March 2070 ",1,. ,:

a. Bagasse :,1.,1.ib. Mold hay :r .: : :

c. Cotton ..1.. ,: .,..:

d. Bird droPPings ... ,, ,

': ..: ' '-^.r

-,... l. , ',,'

:'.'. .t.'.,,,1.., , ,i.:-,r -. '.'--,.i .,r

- _lr'

:'.

I

'

:.:].' :' :j:

.."'l,, . ;

,t, t'.,, . i.iii.;.'r '{i1:;i-!ir


46.

15. VDRL is a tyPe of:

a. brdirect hemagglutination test

b. Slide flocculation test

c. Gel PreciPitation test


September 2010

Confirmatory test for Syphilis is: September 20L0

a. \'DRLb. Rapid plasma reagin test

c. FT-ABS

d. A1l of the above

Earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by foetus

in response to infection: September 20L0

a. IgAb. IgEc. IgMd. IgG

48. Heterophile antibody test is done for:SePtember 2014

a. Rickettsialinfectionsb. Infectiousmononucleosisc. SmallPoxd. japaneseencePhalitis

Furosemide mechanism of action in LVF is:SePtember 2010

a. Inhibitor of Na-K-Cl ion symport

b. Aldosteroneantagonistc. Mercurialderivatived. Carbonic anhYdrase inhibitorSide effects of glucocorticoids are all of the followingexcept September 2010

a. Hlpoglycemiab. Cataractc. Psychoses

d. OsteoPorosis

55. Antitubercular drug which is least hepatotoxic:SePtember 20-1'0

a. RifamPicinb. Pyrazinamidec. Ethambutold. INH

49. Which of the following has opsonins on its surface:

a. IgG SePtember29l)

b. IgM

c. IgE

d. IgA

50. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:

SePtember 2005,20L0

a. PneumocYstiscariniib. ClostridiumDifficilec. Escherichia colid. Streptococcus Pneumoniae

51. Travelle/s diarrhea is caused due to:

SePtenfuer 2009,2010

a. EIECb. EPECc. ETECd. EHEC q

52. Pneumatocoele is most commonly caused by:

Sevtember 2005,201.0

a. StrePtococcusPneumoniaeb. Klebsiellac. HemoPhilusinfluenzaed. staPhYlococcusAureus

56. Nevirapine belongs to: September 2010

a. Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

b. Protease inhibitor

c. Non Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor


57. Which of the following is inhibited by Aspirin:SePtember 2010

a. Cyclo oxYgenase

b" LipooxYgenase

c. PhosPholiPase


58. Metoprolol is preferred over Propranolol as it:SePtember 2010

a. Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors

b" Is more Potent in blocking beta-2 receptors

c. Is more effective in suppressing essential tremors

d. ImPairs exercise caPacitY

JJ.

59"

60.

Self Assessment & Review of

Mechanism of action of Telmisartan is:September 2010

a. Blocks alpha adrenergic receptorsb. AT-2 receptor antagonistc. Blocks 4'T-L receptors

d. Mast cell stabilizerBeta2 adrenergic receptots are not found on:

September 2010

a. Arteriolesb. Veins

c. Adipose Tissue

d. Uterus61. W-trich of the following is used

hypercholestremia:a. Thiamineb. Biotinc. Pyridoxined. Nicotinic acid

62. Acetazolamide decreases intraocular nressure bvwhat mechanism: September 2010

a. Decreases aqueous humor productionb. Decreases vitreous volumec. Increased drainage of aqueous


63. Which of the following is not true regardingcarbimazole: Seotember 20L0

a. Safely used in pregnanryb. More potent than propylthiouracilc. Single daily dose administrationd. Does not inhibit peripheral conversion of T-4 to

T-3

69. Arsenic poisoning mimics which disease:September 2010

a. Acute cholerystitisb. Cholerac. Dhatura poisoningd. Morphine poisoning

70" Mechanism of action of cyanide poisoning:Seotember 2010

a. Inhibits protein breakdownb. Inhibits DNA synthesisc. Inhibits protein syntheisid" Blocks Cytochrome enzyme P- 450

FMGE / MCI Screening Examination

54. Contents of Ringels lactate are all exceptSeutember 2010

a. Sodium ionb. Potassium ionc. Chioride iond. Bicarbonate ion

65. Drug of choice for parorysmal supraventriculartachycardia is: March 20L0. Swtember 2007A 2U0a. Digoxinb. Propranololc. Adenosined. Diltiazem

66. True statement regarding mechanism of action ofsulfonylureas is: March 2008, September 2010a. Increased peripheral utilization of glucoseb. Reduce hepatic glucose outputc. Act on SIIRI receptors on pancreatic beta cell

membraned. Transcription of genes regulating glucose

metabolism

67. Anti-hypertensive drug contraindicated in

Pregnancy rs:

a. Hydralazineb. Methyldopac. Enalaprild. Amiodopine

September 2005, 2010 March 2007

68. Which of the following drug causes gynecomastia:

for treatment ofSeptenfuer 2010 ':cntm

],7t{. fll.!'. [P:,i rTl;rviiNiioitlliiO;i^toirC,im,iclti:{r6;LZ,!:Cf)rt.

-r

,..:ii'.1 ,: ,

t. ::-1 . '-a , ,

,:, ... ,, ,

..'., ". t"',..'-: ' i, .

' .',.'-' i,'':. ,i;',, .' ii'.

-"' i l

ir:.;,

' , i,

i' :

71,.

72.

a. Cimetidineb. Ranitidinec. Omeprazoled. Famotidine

Cobra venom is primarily:

a. Musculotoxic

b. Neurotoxic

c. Cardiotoxic

d" Hematotoxic

Rape is defined under:

a. IPC 375

b. rPC376

c. IPC377

d. IPC 378

Septemher 2008, 2010

September 201.0

September 2010


75.

76.

73. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in which of the

following:

a. Arsenic poisoning

b. Kerosene poisoning

c. OrganophosphorusPoisoning

d. Dhatura poisoning

Septentber 2010

Sinus not present at birth is/are: Septenfuer 2010

a. Maxillaryb. Ethmoidalc. Frontald. All of the above

What is rhinophyma: September 2010

a. Hypertrophy of sweat glandsb. Hypertrophy ofsebaceous glandsc. Hypertrophy of meibomian glandsd. Hypertrophy of lacrimal gland

79. Melanoma of choroid spreads most commonly to:a. Lungsb. Kidneysc. Adrenalsd. Liver

September 20L0

80. Which of the following is not a feature ofocculomotor nerve palsy: September 2010

a. Mydriasisb. Absent papillary reflexc. Proptosisd. Ptosis

81. Drug which is not used in glaucoma:a. Timolol September 2010

b. Physostigminec. Pilocarpined. Atropine

82. Chronic, sterile inflammation of meibomian gland is

74. Sweating does not occur in:

a. Heat exhaustion

b. Heat fatiguec. Heat rashd. Heat Stroke

September 2010

77. Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which partof the semi circular canals: September 2009,2070a. Lateralb. Posteriorc. Anteriord. All of the above

78. All of the following are true about glomus-jugularetumor except: March 2010, Septenfuer 2010

a. Commonly metastasizes to lymph nodesb. Pulsafile tinnilus and cd-rductive deafness seen

c. Most commonly affects maled. Paraganglioma's

83. Which of the following mydriatic does not have any

cycloplegic effect:a. Phenyephrineb. Tropicamidec. Atropined. Cocaine

September 2010

84. Cycloplegics are used for the treatment of:September 2410

a. Lens induced glaucomab. Closed angle glaucomac. Iridoryclitisd. ChorioretinitisCherry red spot is seen in:a. CRVOb. CRAOc. Eale's disease

d. RetinitispigmentosaWhat is epiphora:

September 201.0

September 2010

a. Everted upper eyelid following surgery

b. CSF running through nose after injuryc. Abnormal flow of tears due to obstructed lacrimal

ductd" CSF mnning through ears after injury

85.

85.

seen ln:a. Extemal hordeolumb. Internal hordeolumc. Chalaziond. Stye

September 2010

:.,1',:

a ..:),:l

. ':::a.a:

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE / MCI Screeninq Examination

87, Keratometermeasuresa. Thickness of cornea

b. Radius of corneac. Curvature of cornea

d. Depth of posterior chamber88. Grave's ophthalmopathy mostly presents as:

September 2010

a. Proptosisb. Ptosis

c. Reduced intraocular tensiond. lncreased power of convergence

89. Which of the following is malignant intraoculartumor of children: Srytembcr 20L0

a. Retinoblastomab. Rhabdomyosarcomac. Melanomad. Chloroma

90. Single drug used for treatment of trachoma is:September 2010

a. Tetracyclinb. Doxycyclinec. Azithromycind. Chloramphenicol

Gower's sign is seen in:a. Congenital myopathyb. Guillain-Barreslmdromec. Duchhene Muscular Dystrophyd. All of the above

Looser's zone is present ina. Multiple myelomab. Osteomalacia

c. Pseudoparathyroidismd. OsteoporosisWhat is Neurapraxia:

September 2010

September 20'L0

September 2010

a. Complete division of nerveb. Loss of conduction due to axonal interruptionc. Irreversible injuryd" Reversible physiological nerve conduction block

97. Triple arthrodesis does not involve September 2010

a. Calcaneocuboidlointb" TalanovicrrlarJointc. Talocalcaneal |ointd. Tibiotalar Toint

91. Regarding Sjogren's syndrome, all are true except:

Septenfuer 2010

a. Keratoconjuctivitissiccab. Rheumatoidarthritisc. Epiphorad. Autoimrnune in nature

92.Characteristicfeatureofdiabeticretinopathy:

September 2005, 2010 March 2007' :,,

a. Hard exudateb. Soft exudatec. Ambylopiad. Microaneurysm

93. Common cause of sudden blindness in a young

Septenfuer 2010

diabetic female is:a. Glaucomab. Vitreous defectsc. Papilledemad. Cataract

98. Housemaid's kneefollowing:

5c1, | 11 1, 1t r, 201)9. St 1, tot rtte ra

2010 m'g-.{m

='w|TIfi

.,No,.A

is bursitis of which of the !September 2010'.O

94. a. Olecranon bursa Cb. lnfrapatellar bursa ' fflc. Prepatellar bursa 'V,

' " ttrsa {o- )uDacromlal Dursa

99. In spinal fuberculosis, the commoner route of spread,. Qis: Septentber 2010';:17a. Direct spread , Ab. Blood t:--c. Lymphatics l

d. All of the above ,

100. Tuberculosis in Pott's disease involves:

a. Hip Jointb. Knee Jointc. Spined. Wrist Joint

101. Aseptic necrosis is common in:March 2007, Septenfuer 2a70

a. Scaphoidb. Calcaneumc. Cuboidd" Trapezium

95.

96.

a


102. tn nephrotic syndrome,which infection is more

conrmoner in children: September 2010

a. Cellulitisb. Pneumoniac. UTId. BacterialPeritonitis

103. 10 vear old child with mental age of 2 years will have

a. Presents before the age of 5 years

b. Mostly presents as abdominal mass

c. Spreads mostlY bY lYmPhatics

d. ResPonds well to treatment

106. First sign of sexual maturity in boys is:

a. Increase in height

b. Increase in facial hairs

c. Testicularenlargementd. Axillary hairs

107. Best index for chronic malnutrition is:

a. Height for age

b. Weight for age

c. Weight forheightd. All of the above

September 2010

September 2010

10E. Physiological iaundice in a tegr baby lasts upto:

March2005 I SePtember 20L0

a. 4daysb. 7 days

c. 10 daYs

d. 14 daYs

c. Cervical mucus

d. All of the above

L13. Folic acid is given during which trimestet of

an IQ level of:

a. 20

b. 30

c. 50

d. 70

104. Figure of 8 in chest X-ray is suggestive o*a. TOF

b. TAPVCc. Ebsteins anomalY

d" None of the above

105. Which of the following is false about Wilm's tumonSePtembet 2010

109. Plasma levels of hCGevery:a. DailYb. 2daysc. 4 daysd. 6 days

110" hCG is secreted bY:

a. CytotroPhoblastb. Chorionic villic. SynrytiotroPhoblastd. None of the above

111. Teratogenic effects are

following infections:

September 20L0

Septembu 201'0

during pregnancy doublesSePtembet 2010

Septembet 2010

rare with which of theSe7tember 20L0

Pregnanclr:a. Firstb. Second

c. Thirdd. ThroughoutPregnancy

114. Which of the following is true regrading hCG:

SePtember 20L0

a. Half-life is around 7 daYs

b. Low levels are seen in hydatidiform mole

c. HCG can be detected as early as 8-9 days after

concePtion.d" All of the above

115. Pregnant lady presents with futminant hepatitis'

Most Common Cause: March2005, September 20L0

a. HePatitis Db. HePatitis E

c. HePatitis B

d. HePatitis A

Septembo 20L0

a. CMVb. Rubellac. Varicellad. HIV

112. Which of the following is a part of lochia:

a. Red blood cells SePtembu 2010

b. Decidual membranes

'''


115. Fetal adrenals release which honnonepredominantly:

March 2009, September 201,0

a. Oestrogenb. Testosteronec. Aldosteroned. Cortisone

118. All of the following are side effects of OralContraceptive Pills except September 20L0

a. Thromboembolismb. Liver disease

c. Ovarian fumord. Breast Carcinoma

119. Featutes of Bacterial vaginosisfollowing except:

a. Abundantlactobacillusb. pH>4.5

122. Wood's lamp is not used for diagnosing:September 2010

a. Vitiligob. Porphyriac. Pityriasisd. Lichen planus

123. All of the following are immunologically mediatedblistering diseases excepta. Pemphigus r"ulgarisb. Pemphigusfolliaceousc. Bullous pemphigoidd. Psoriasis

September 201-0

127. Which of the following induction agent is mostpreferred for day care $urgery:a. Morphineb. Propofolc. Diazepamd. Ketamine

September 20'10

117. Misoprostol is indicated in all of the followingexcept:a. Postpartumhemorrhageb. Missed abortionc. Induction of labourd. Menorrhagia

September 2005,201,0

c. Clue cells

d. It is sexually transmitted120. Menstrual regulation is done upto:

a. 35 days of Amenorrhea

b. 42 days of Amenorrhea

c. 49 days of Amenorrhea

September 2010

d. 56 days of Amenorrhea

121. Hirsuitisrr is seen in all excepk September 2007,2010a. Acromegalyb. Hyperthyroidismc. Arrhenoblastoma a'

d. PCOD

124. Defect seen in Vitiligo is: September 20L0

a. Absent melanosomes

b. Absent melanocytesc. Reduction in melanin slmthesis

d. Reduction in number of melanorytes

125. Auspitz sign is seen in: March 2007, September 2010

a. Psoriasisb. Fungal inJectionsc. Vitiligod. Melasma

125. Wickham's striae is a feature of: September 2009,2010a. Psoriasisb. Pityriasis roseac. Lichen planusd. Vitiligo

are all of theSeptember 201.0


September 2010

close friends and is having reduced appetite andimproper sleep. He is probably suffering from:

September 2010128. Shailza, a 40 year old female is having headache for

the past 6 months. A1l her investigations werenormal. She had several consultations and she hadno relief of her symptoms. She still believes that she

has some problem in her brain. Likely diagnosiscould be:a. Acute maniab. Acute depressionc. Psychogenicheadached. Hypochondriasis

September 2010

129. Rupak, a 22 year old, unmarried man is sufferingfrom sudden onset of third person hallucination forthe past 12 days. He is suspicious of his telatives and

131. Wimberger's ring is seen in:a. Ricketsb. Scurvyc. Hemophiliad. Pellagra

September 2410

L32. Investigation of choice for marking out calcification

a. Acute depressionb. Acute maniac. Acute Psychosisd. Schizophrenia

130. Which of the following is nothallucination:

of an intracranial lesion rs:

a. CT Scan

b. MRI scanc. USGd. Contrast studies

133. Air crescent sign in chest X-ray is seen in:SePtember 20L0

a. Blastomycosisb. Pneumoniac. Invasiveaspergillosisd. Bronchiectasis

134. A patient presents with the clinical featutes ofinterstitial lung disease. How will you confirm the

diagnosis:a. CT scan

September 2007, 2010

138. Which of the following isotope is commonly used inteletherapy: SePtember 2010

a. Cesiumb. Iridiumc. Technetium

a. It can occur in any sensory modalityb. It is independent of will of observerc. It is defined as perception occurring witltout

external stimulationd. Always pathological

b. X-Rayc. Bronchoscopyd, MRI 3

135. All of the following are seen on the right side of thecardiac silhouette in chest X-ray except:

September 2008,20L0

a. Right atriumb. Superior vena cavac. lnferior vena cavad. Pulmonary artery

136. Radioactive isotope of which of the following is used

in bone scans:a. Phosphorousb. Iodinec. Technetiumd. Callium

137. Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the

following excePc March 2010, September 2010

a. G-6-PD deficienryb. Sickle cell anemiac. Aplastic anemiad. Thalassemia

d. Iodine139" Radium emits which of the following radiations:

September 2007,2010

a. Gamma raysb. Alpha raysc. Beta raysd. All of the above

a feature ofSeptember20L0

September 2009,2070

iil

fii:

!I:.i

:1

;i


It represents

communityIt represents

community

the number of total cases in the

140. Reversed cold chain is used for: Septenrber 2010a. Transportation of vaccines back from vaccination

centre to hosoitalb. Transportation of vaccine from hospital to

vaccination centrec. A system of storing and transporting samples at

recommended temperatures from the point ofcollection to the laboratory

d. Transporting oral polio vaccine only141. Certificate of vaccination of Yellow Fever is valid for

how manv vears: September 201.0

a. 1 yearb. 2 years

c. 5 years

d. 10 years

142. Incubation period of Rabies depends on:

September 2010

a. Number of bites

b. Site of bitec. Animal species

d. All of the above

143. Poliomyelitis is diagnosed by:a. Clinicalpresentation

September 2010

b. Antibody titer measurement in bloodc. Isolation of virus from bloodd. Isolation of virus from stool

144. Amongst the following which carries the leastchance of transmitting HIV infection:

Swtember 2070

a. Heterosexualkrtercourseb. Blood transfusionc. Verticaltransmissiond. IV drug abusers

145. Swine Flu pandemic in 2009 was caused due to whichstrain:a. H1N1b. H3N1c. H5N1d. H7N1

146. What is Incidence Rate:

a. It represents the number ofcommunity

b. It represents the number ofcommunity

September 2070

the number of cured cases in the r,:

L47. Urban population of India as per census 2001 is:

September 2010

a. 1,I.6%

b. 27.8Yo

c. 30.5%

d. 38.6%

1,48. Which of the following is not included in the

primary prevention for hypertension: Septenfuer 2010

September 20L0

old cases in the

new cases in the

a, Exercises U,mb. Weight control

c. Health education qd. Early diagnosis and treatment t

L49. All of the following features are seen in dengue !hemorrhagic fever except: . 54rf ernlser 2070 Vla. Positive tourniquet test rylb. Platelet counts less than 1 lac nc. Falling hematocrit value N,Od. Acute onset of high fever ': I

150. Rabies vaccine is prepared from which strain ofl'Ovirus: Selttember 2t|r}'ffa. Street virus Cb. Fixed Virus mc. Wild virus @-

d. All of the above ' IL51. Which of the following is not included in neonatal !

mortality: Septenber 2U0 A;a. Early neonatal mortality \/b. Late neonatal mortatityc. Post neonatal mortality

:d. None of the above :.r:

152. ESI act does not cover which of the follorvrng: :

S,Yttrrfuer' 20-10

a. Hotel employee ,

b. Transpoters

c. Railway employees

d. Factory employees ,

153. PERT is a type of: SeTttember 2010

a. Netrvork analysis

b. Input output analysis i

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c. System anaiYsis

d. Cost benefit analYsis

154. Which of the following is the most reliable

bacteriological indicator of water pollution:SePtember 20-10

a. Fecal strePtococcib. Salmonella tYPhic. Escherichia colid. Clostridium tetani

155. In which of the following interpretation of benefits

is done in terms of results achieved: September 2010

a. System anall'5isb. Cost accountingc. Cost benefit analYsis

d. Cost effective analYsis

155. Most common cause of matemal mortality in India is:

SePtember 2010

a. Toxaemiab. Puerpural sePsis

c. Haemorrhaged. Anemia

157. All of the following are features of cost accounting

except: SePtember 2070

151. Requirement of iron during pregnancy is lin mg']:SePtember 2010

a. 7A0

b. 800

c. 900

d. 1000

152. Which of the following is uncommon symptom of

deficiency of vitamin A: September 20L0

a. Night blindness

b. XeroPhthalmiac. Keratomalaciad. PolyneuroPathY

163. Criteria for assessment of severity of disease in ICU

is:a. APACHE IIb. Glassgow scale

c. Apgar score fd. Bishop score

September 20!a

154. Denominator for maternal mortality rate is:SePtember 2005,2010

a. 100,000 Pregnanciesb. 100,000live birthsc. 100,000 birthsd. 100,000 PoPulation

165. Wernicke's encephalopathy results due to deficiency

March 20L0, Sqtenrber 2070

a. Thiamineb. Niacinc. Pantothenic acid

d. CYanocobalamin

156. Socially acquired behavior is known as:

March 2a05, SePtember 2010

a. Cultureb. Socializationc. Intemalizationd. Custom

l1T.Tofacilitate the screening of visual-acuity, I4IHO

defines blindness as counting fingers at a distance of,

September 2006€t SePtanbu 2010

a. 1. metreb. 3 metresc. 6 metresd. 9 metres

a.

b"

c.

d.

Data on cost of a prograrnme is providedControl of cost can be doneBenefits are expressed in terms of money

Planning and allocation of peoples and financial

services can be done158. Which of the following diseases is not covered under

WHO International Health regulation:SePtember 2010

a. Wild PoliomYelitisb, SARS

c. Human Influenzad. Cholera

159. Most common c.rncer worldwide is: Septenrber 2010

a. Breastb. Lungc. Cervixd. Oral cavity

160. Carrier state is not seen in which infection:SePtember 2010

a. Tetanusb. Ameobiasisc. Pertussisd. Diphtheria


175. Predisposing factors for carcinoma of penis are all ofthe following except:

Septenrber 2010 a. pagets disease

b. Phimosisc. Balanoposthitisd. Papilloma

Septenfuer 2010

168. Bezold abscess is seen in:a. SternocleidomastoidMuscleb. Sternohyoid musclec. Sartorius muscled. Semimembranosusmuscle

159. What is a xenograft: Septenfuer 2010

a. Graft from L twin to other twinb. Graft from 1 species to other species.

c. Graft from father to other childd. Graft from sister to brother

170. Which of the following is most sensitive and specific

screening test for carcinoma of breast:SePternber 2010

a. FNACb. Mammogramc. USG

d. Self Examination

171. Commonest malignancy t)?e in oral cavity is:

Sntentber 2010

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Transitional cell carcinoma

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

d. Basal cell carcinoma

172. Brodie-Trendelenburg test is positive in:SePtember 2010

a. Deep vein thrombosis

b" Sapheno-femoralincompetencec. Thromboangitisobliteransd" Below-knee perforators incompetency

173. In 3-glass utine test, there is thread in the first glass.

What is the probable diagnosis:

a. Cystitisb. Prostatitisc. Urethritisd. Pyelonephritis

Septentber 2010

\74. A 70 year female patient having coronary artery

disease was found to have apnptomatic gallstones on

routine ultrasound scan of the abdomen.What the

best management for his gallstones:Septenfuer 2010

Laparoscopic removal of gall bladderOpen cholecystectomyERCP assisted galistones removal

Observation

1,76. Palmar surface of hand represents: Septenrber 201'0

a. 1% of total body surface area

b. 2% of total body surface area

c. 3% of total body surface area

d. 4% of total body surface area

l77.For shock patient, best guideline to check foradequacy of fluid replacement therapy:

SePtenber 2()-l'0

a. Hemoglobinb. Urine outputc. Blood pressure and pulsed. Central Venous Pressure

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178. Villous adenoma presents as:

a. Hypercalcemiab. Hypokalemiac. Hyperphosphaetemiad. All of the above

179. Lucid interval is associated with:a. Intracerebralhematomab. Subarachnoidhematomac. Extradural hematomad. All of the above

Septeniltcr 201.0

Septetrther 2010

180. Most common type of breast carcinoma is:Seytenfuer 20'l'0

a. Lobularb Sarcoma

c. Ductald. Granuloma

181" Which of the following is feature of Diffuse axonal

injury:a. No unconsciousness

b. Transientunconsciousnessc. Prolongedunconsciousnessd. None of the above

Septenfuer 2010

182" In burns management, which of the following is the

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a.

b.

c.

d.

medium of choice:

a. Dextrose 5%

b. Normal saline

c^ Ringer lactate

d. Isolyte-M

March 20L0, Septentber 2010


I

tIt

, fSS. Buerger's disease usually affects all of the followingexcept:a. Small sized arteriesb. Medium sized arteries

Septenber 2009, 2010

c. Large arteriesd. Deep veins

184. Hellels myotomy is done for: Septanber 2M7,2009,2010a. Esophagealcarcinomab. Pyloric hypertrophyc. Achalasia cardiad. Inguinal hernia

185. Ochsner-Sherren regimen is used for:Septentuer 2009,2010

a. Appendicularabscessb. Pelvic abscessc. Appendicular massd. Acute appendicitis

185. Most common site of volvulus is:March 2010 Seatenfuer 201.4

a. Ileumb. Appendixc. Sigmoid colond. Caecum

187.The commonest cause of significantly lowergastrointestinal bleed in a middle aged personwithout any known precipitating factor may be due to

March 2008, Se.ptenfuer 2010

a. Ulverative colitisb. Ischemic colitisc. Angiodysplasiad. Diverticulum of sigmoid colon

193. Kussmaul's sign is not seen in:

a. Right Ventricular infarction

b. Constrictivepericarditis

c. Restrictivecardiomyopathy

d. Cardiac tamponade

Septenfuer 2010

194. Characteristic of type-Il respiratory failure is:

SePtember 2010

a" Low PaO2 and low PaCO2

b. Low PaO2 and normal PaCO2

c. Normal PaO2 and high PaCO2

d Low PaO2 and high PaCO2

188. Investigation of choice in Vesico-ureteric Reflux is:

March 2005, Septenfuer 2010

a. CT scanb. Voidingcystourethrographyc. lntravenousurographyd. X-ray KUB

1.89. Peau d'Orange of breast is due to:

September 2A05, 2010, March 20a7

a. Obstruction of Veinb. Obstruction of lymphatic ducts.c. Obstruction of glandular ductsd. Obstruction of arteries

190. Surgery of choice for pleomorphic adenoma is:

Septenfuer 2007,2010

a. Total parotidectomyb. Superficialparotidectomyc. Total parotidectomv with lymph node dissectiond. Radicalparotidectomy

191. Ideal investigation fot fistula-in-ano is: March 2008

a. Endoanal ultrasoundb. MRIc. Fistulographyd. CT scan

192. Highest chance of success in renal transplant is

possible when the donor is:a. fatherb. Motherc. Twind. Son

September 2007,2010

195. Which of the following does not present with

hemoptysis:

a. Mitral stenosis

b. Pulmonary embolism

c. Empyema

d. Bronchiectasis

Septernber 2010

196. Which of the following is not seen in chronic renal

failure: September 201.0

Hyperkalemia

Metabolic acidosis

Hypophosphatemia

Hypocalcemia

a.

b.

d.

Self Assessment & Review of FMGE i MCI Screening

197. Pulsus paradoxus is not seen in: September 2010

a. Cardiac tamponade

b. Constrictivepericarditis

c. HypertrophiccardiomYoPathY

d. Severe COPD

198. Most severe and persistent symPtom for acute

201. True about hepatitis E are all except:

a. Transmitted by faeco-oral routeb. Majority of patients develops chronic infection t

,

c. Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single ' , ,

stranded RNA genomic,HAV like virus. r

d. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequentiy in , 'i

Pregnanry ,,, ' ..,

202. Which of the following is not associated with zinc .l ',

I -.. .:jdeficiency: March 2005 "

Sepf entber 2005, 20-l 0 :

a. Delayed wound healing :

b. Loss of libidoc Pi smentafinn

''b--'. '"-.--.'"

d. Sexual infantilism

203.Allofthefollowingcanoccurinrl.reunraticfeverexcept:

a. Mitralregurgitationb. mitral stenosis

c. Pericarditis

d. Loud first heart sound

Septentber 2007, 201 0

204. Most common cause of short stature is: March 2010

a. Constitutionalb. Hypothyroidismc. Growth hormone deficiencY

d. Systemic illness

mountain sickness is:

a. Headche

b. Dizziness

c. Drowsiness

d. Cyanosis

199. Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of

acute mountain sickness:

a. Frusemide

b. Spironolactone

c. Acetazolamide

d. Al1 of the above

200. Hyponatremia is seen in all of the following excePt:

SePtember 2010

a. Congestive heart failure

b. Kidney problems

c. Diabetes insipidus

d. SIADH

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