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Examination paper: Six Sigma Management IIBM Institute of Business Management 1 IIBM Institute of Business Management Examination Paper MM.100 Six Sigma Green Belt Section A: Objective Type (40 Marks) This section consists of Multiple Choice questions. Answer all the questions. Each question carries 1 mark. Part One: Multiple Choices: 1. The primary purpose of a control chart is to: a. Set Specifications and tolerances b. Compare operations. c. Determine the stability of a process. d. Accept or reject a lot of material 2. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of the following times? a. Before the chart is first started b. After the first ten points are plotted c. When the plotted points hug the centerline d. After the process is shown to be in control 3. Precision is best described as: a. A comparison to a known standard b. The achievement of expected outgoing quality c. The repeated consistency of results d. The difference between an average measurement and the actual value 4. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain consistent results repeatedly when measuring the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the definition of: a. Repeatability b. Precision c. Reproducibility d. Accuracy 5. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of statistical control? a. Most of the product out by the process is in specification. b. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits. c. All variation has been completely removed d. Previously optimal process settings are used.

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Page 1: Examination paper six sigma green belt & six sigma black belt

Examination paper: Six Sigma Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 1

IIBM Institute of Business Management

Examination Paper MM.100

Six Sigma Green Belt

Section A: Objective Type (40 Marks)

• This section consists of Multiple Choice questions. • Answer all the questions. • Each question carries 1 mark.

Part One: Multiple Choices: 1. The primary purpose of a control chart is to:

a. Set Specifications and tolerances b. Compare operations. c. Determine the stability of a process. d. Accept or reject a lot of material

2. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of the following times?

a. Before the chart is first started b. After the first ten points are plotted c. When the plotted points hug the centerline d. After the process is shown to be in control

3. Precision is best described as:

a. A comparison to a known standard b. The achievement of expected outgoing quality c. The repeated consistency of results d. The difference between an average measurement and the actual value

4. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain consistent results repeatedly when measuring the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the definition of:

a. Repeatability b. Precision c. Reproducibility d. Accuracy

5. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of statistical control?

a. Most of the product out by the process is in specification. b. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits. c. All variation has been completely removed d. Previously optimal process settings are used.

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6. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from the mean squared divided by the sample size?

a. Range b. Standard deviation c. Variance d. Mode

7. An X and R chart is used to:

a. Indicate process variation b. Specify design Limits c. Interpret costs d. Identify customer expectations

8. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting and understanding the process of capability?

a. A flowchart b. A histogram c. An affinity diagram d. An Ishikawa diagram

9. The type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a:

a. Histogram b. Pareto chart c. U chart d. Cusum chart

10. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?

a. Temperature in degrees b. Attendance at meetings c. Weight in pounds d. Length in metric units

11. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control chart?

a. P chart b. U chart c. Np chart d. C chart

12. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?

a. Determining the flow of a process b. Detecting shifts in a process c. Developing theories based on symptoms d. Arranging theories by defect count

13. Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?

a. Mode b. Mean c. Standard deviation d. Range

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14. Which of the following type of tools or techniques is considered qualitative? a. Histogram b. Frequency distributions c. Pareto chart d. Process observations

15. Out of the following which technique is most useful in narrowing issues and limiting discussion?

a. Brainstorming b. Quality function deployment c. Cause and effect analysis d. Mutilating

16. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called:

a. Bias b. Sensitivity c. Random d. Shift

17. For a normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would include what percentage of the total population:

a. 47% b. 68% c. 95% d. 99%

18. If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of data will be less than 30?

a. 59.18% b. 40.82% c. 9.18% d. 1.33%

19. A company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various customers. The first step in investigating the problem would be to

a. Check the inspection records b. Establish the correlation of the returns to shipments c. Brainstorm the potential causes d. Classify the returns by type and degree of serious

20. Which of the following is the best definition of a flow chart?

a. A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories b. An illustration used to analyze variation in a process c. A picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential order d. An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change

21. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to the effective functioning of a team?

a. Eliminating unnecessary activities b. Development team performance measures c. Defining process in detail d. Monitoring each member’s performance

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22. What is the standard deviation of the population-10, 4, 16, 12, and 8? a. 4.00 b. 4.47 c. 16.00 d. 20.00

23. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of a problem?

a. Check sheet b. Flow diagram c. Force-field analysis d. Activity network diagram

24. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?

a. Median b. Mid-range c. Mean d. Mode

25. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in:

a. SPC charts b. Multi-vari charts c. Cause and effect diagram d. Run charts

26. Which of the following describes the deming method for continuous improvement?

a. Cost of quality analysis b. Process map c. Tree Diagram d. Plan-do-check-act cycle

27. In analysis of variance, which of the following distribution is the basis for determining whether the variance estimates are all from the same population?

a. Chi square b. Students c. Normal d. F

28. Which of the following statement best describes the set of value of a random variable?

a. It is finite. b. It is an interval c. It can be discrete or continuous. d. It can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.

29. Which of the following is the best description of randomization?

a. A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment b. A means of assuring representative sampling c. The repetition of an observation or measurement d. The relationship between two or more variables

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30. When the order of items is not important, which of the following method is used to determine the number of sets and subsets of items?

a. Combination b. Permutation c. Factorization d. Simulation

31. Scatter diagrams are best described as:

a. Histograms. b. Correlation analysis. c. Pareto analysis. d. Ishikawa diagrams.

32. A __________ is created to determine customers of a specific process.

a. Pareto chart b. Flow diagram c. Cause and effect diagram d. Scatter diagram

33. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when components or raw materials need to be replenished. This practice is an example of:

a. Kanban b. Poka-yake c. Checkpoints d. Hoshin

34. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle time reduction and concurrent operations?

a. A timeline b. A Pareto diagram c. An X and R chart d. A PERT chart

35. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of the following?

a. Counted values measured values b. Counted values visual features c. Measured values counted values d. Visual features counted values

36. All of the following are common ways for people to react to conflict except:

a. Competing b. Collaborating c. Avoiding d. Sabotaging

37. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by taking samples based on the categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and demographic. This technique is known as

a. Random sampling b. Data collection c. Stratification d. Customer classification

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38. Which of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time? a. Analyzing current processes b. Reducing queue times c. Setting priorities d. Implementing activity-based costing

39. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between receipt and payment of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the following tool is the next to be used by them?

a. Fishbone diagram b. Scatter diagram c. Box and whisker plat d. Histogram

40. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to the Human Resource department?

a. Intermediate b. Hidden c. External d. Internal

Section B: Short Notes (30 Marks)

• This section consists of Short Notes Questions. • Answer all the questions. • Each Question carries 6 marks.

1. Describe how QFD fits into the overall DFSS process.

2. What is interrelationship Digraph? Explain it with example.

3. Find the area under the standard normal curve between +1.50 standard deviations and +2.50

standard deviations.

4. Define terms related to One-Way ANOVA and interpret their results & data plots.

5. Define & describe the use of Rational Sub grouping.

END OF SECTION A

END OF SECTION B

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Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

• This section consists of Applied Theory Questions. • Answer all the questions. • Each question carries 15 marks. • Detailed information should from the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).

1. Suppose you are cooking steak for 100 people, & the current approval rating is 75% acceptable.

You want to know the affect of different methods and approaches to see how the overall approval or “yield” is affected. By using the Full Factorial method explain how the overall approval or “yield” is affected.

2. Interpret Control Charts? Distinguish between common & special causes using rules for determining stastical control.

END OF SECTION C

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IIBM Institute of Business Management 8

IIBM Institute of Business Management

Examination Paper MM.100

Six Sigma Black Belt

Section A: Objective Type (40 Marks)

• This section consists of Multiple Choice questions. • Answer all the questions. • Part one questions carry 1 mark each & Part Two questions carry 2 marks each.

Part One: Multiple Choices: 1. Calculate the estimated variance of the population from which the following values have been randomly selected: 2.8 2.7 2.6 2.9 2.8 2.8 2.8.

a. 095 b. 009 c. 088 d. 008

2. The mean, median and mode of a distribution have the same value. What can be said about the distribution?

a. It is exponential b. It is normal c. It is uniform d. None of the above

3. Approximately what percent of the data values are smaller than the mean?

a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. None of above

4. A normal probability plot is used to:

a. Determine whether the distribution is normal b. Plot Z value c. Determine process capability d. It percent out of specification

5. Nominal Group technique is used to:

a. Help a group reach consensus b. Generate a group on new ides c. Provide a consistent stable group leadership d. Provide a name for the group

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6. An example of a project metric would be: a. The decrease in defect occurrence b. The decrease in product cost c. The decrease in cycle time d. All the above

7. A correct statement about the relationship between the terms parameter and statistic is:

a. A population statistic is more accurate than a parameter b. A sample parameter is used to estimate a statistic c. A sample statistic is used to estimate a population parameter d. Standard deviation calculation requires both statistics and parameters

8. A and B are events. P(A) = 0.80 and P(B) = 0.90:

a. Events A and B are disjoint or mutually exclusive b. Events A and B are not disjoint or mutually exclusive c. P (A and B) = 0 d. P(A and B) = 1.7

9. In a certain sampling situation, a=0, b=0.08. the power of the sampling plan this case is:

a. 0 b. 0.08 c. 1.00 d. 0.92

10. A newspaper article describes a high positive correlation between obesity and orange juice consumption among six-year-old children’s. Parents who restrict the use of orange juice for their children have:

a. Made a type I error b. Made a type II error c. Misunderstood margin of error d. Confused correlation with causation

11. In an experimental design context, replications refer to:

a. Duplicating experimental result at another location b. Repeating a test with the same factor levels c. Obtaining the same or similar result from different factors d. Repeating an experiment but using at least one different factor level

12. Find the upper control limit for a range chart if n=4 and the average range is 2.282.

a. 2.282 b. 4.564 c. 5.208 d. 3.423

13. An x-bar control chart been established with control limits of 3.245 and 3.257, n=5. An engineer collects the following sample and plots the average on the control chart: 3.257, 3.256, 3.258, 3.259

a. The process is out of control b. The process is not out of control c. The engineer misused the control chart d. The control limits are incorrect

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14. TEIZ is an acronym which refers to: a. A set of problem solving tools b. An organization of quality professionals c. An experiment using transitional results d. A Russian general responsible for creative thinking

15. A robust design is one which;

a. Has high reliability b. Has low maintenance frequency c. Is simple to manufacture’ d. Is resistant to varying environmental condition

16. A frequent cause of system sub optimization is:

a. Optimizing individual process b. Failing to draw a system flow chart c. Using data with outliers d. Failing to consider the normal distribution

17. The x2 distribution is:

a. Symmetric b. Left skewed c. Right skewed d. Normal

18. An advantage of using standard deviation rather than range for measuring dispersion of a large sample is that:

a. Standard deviation has a simpler formula b. Calculators have a standard deviation key but not a range Key c. Standard deviation uses information from each measurement d. Range calculation are not normally distributed

19. The team development stage characterized by expression of individual opinions and ideas often without regard for team objectives is known as:

a. Performing b. Norming c. Conflicting d. Storming

20. SMED is an acronym for activity that:

a. Involve housekeeping in the work area b. Makes mistake of a certain type impossible c. Emphasizes the pull of the customer d. Reduces set up the time

21. A principle advantage of fractional factorial experimental designs is:

a. Reduced cost b. Improved accuracy c. Increased confounding d. Higher confidence level

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22. Dr. W Edwards Deming: a. Lectured in Japan after World War II b. Was an author of several books in the US c. Is considered an expert in the quality field d. All of the above

Part Two: 23. What percent of population falls below the lower specification limits?

a. 9.18% b. 22.66% c. 6.68% d. 1.83%

24. Find the mean, median and mode of the following data set: 9, 11, 12, 14, 18, 18, 18, 20, and 23:

a. 15.5, 18, 18 b. 15, 14, 18 c. 15, 12, 18 d. 15.5, 16, 18

Use for problems 25-27: A B Res.

25. Calculate the main effect of factor A:

a. 20 b. 25 c. 30 d. None of the above

26. Calculate the interaction effect:

a. 20 b. 25 c. 40 d. None of the above

27. If it is desirable to maximize the response R, the following levels should be used:

a. A+ and B+ b. A+ and B- c. A- and B+ d. None of the above

1 - - 20 2 - + 30 3 + - 40 4 + + 50

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Use for questions28-30: Here is an experimental design with result:

A B C Responses

1 - - + 10 11 10

2 - + - 22 20 23

3 + + + 34 36 37

4 + - - 26 25 25

28. This experimental design is:

a. Full factorial b. Half factorial c. Quarter factorial d. None of the above

29. The number of factors, levels and replications:

a. 3, 3, 3 b. 3, 2, 2 c. 3, 2, 3 d. None of the above

30. An indication of the experimental error is available because the design has:

a. Multiple replications b. Multiple levels c. Multiple factors d. None of the above

31. The average number of defects is 21.6. Find the upper control limit for the C-chart.

a. 26.4 b. 24.6 c. 26.2 d. None of the above

Section B: Short Notes (30 Marks)

• This section consists of Short Notes Questions. • Answer all the questions. • Each Question carries 6 marks.

1. Briefly define Affinity Diagram with an example.

2. By using imaginary figures draw a Run Chart.

END OF SECTION A

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3. Consider the following data & develop a normal probability graph paper & normal probability plot: 7.9, 9.7, 10.6, 12.7, 12.8, 18.1, 21.2, 33.0, 43.5, 51.1, 81.4, 93.1

4. A painting process produces coatings with a thickness of 0.0005 & a standard deviation of 0.00002. What should the tolerance limits be for this process? Briefly explain Tolerance design?

5. What is Pugh matrix? State the steps which are used in Pugh matrix.

Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

• This section consists of Applied Theory Questions. • Answer all the questions. • Each question carries 15 marks. • Detailed information should from the part of your answer (Word limit 200 to 250 words).

1. Define & describe the purpose of root cause analysis? Recognize the issues involved in

identifying a root cause analysis and list various tools for resolving chronic problem?

2. Describe the purpose & elements of FMEA including risk priority number (RPN), and evaluate FMEA results for processes, products, & services. Distinguish between design FMEA (DFMEA) & process FMEA (PFMEA) and interpret results from each.

-

S-2-210311

END OF SECTION B

END OF SECTION C