Anhvan thay hai trung tam luyen thi dai hoc qsc-45 - de cuong on thi tsdh - 2013 (a)

Trung tâm Luyện thi Đại học CLC QSC-45

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1-5. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting.

1. The (A) top of the mountain (B) covered (C) with snow (D) during winter.

2. He (A) has been hoped for a rise for the (B) last four months, but his boss is reluctant (C) to give him (D) one.

3. (A) Mining over 2,000 years (B) ago, copper is one of (C) the earliest (D) known metals.

4. The (A) price of crude oil used to be a (B) great deal (C) lower than now, (D) wasn‟t it?

5. The duties of the secretary (A) are (B) to take the minutes, (C) mailing the correspondence, and calling the members

before the (D) meetings.

6-10. Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.

6. A. overwhelming B. incredible C. optimistic D. intellectual

7. A. kitchen B. mountain C. fountain D. maintain

8. A. justice B. diverse C. series D. current

9. A. tendency B. importance C. incidence D. difference

10. A. bamboo B. cactus C. camel D. hummock

11-20. Choose the word or phrase that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Speech is one of the most important (11)................ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making

noises. To talk and also (12)................ to by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we have to use

combinations of (13)................ that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be

impossible if everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (14).................

The basic (15)................ of English is not very large, and not only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite

(16).................But the more idea you can (17).............. the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are

the (18)............. thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we (19)............. the words is also very

important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (20)............. whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.

11. A. reason B. tests C. ways D. rules

12. A. be spoken B. be examined C. be understood D. be talked

13. A. systems B. sounds C. languages D. talks

14. A. easy B. important C. simple D. expensive

15. A. grammar B. word C. vocabulary D. structure

16. A. fluent B. good C. well D. perfect

17. A. need B. grow C. express D. pass

18. A. main B. certain C. full D. most

19. A. talk B. say C. pass D. send

20. A. show B. ask C. understand D. know

21-50. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D that best completes each sentence.

21. ................ patient, and you will succeed.

A. To be B. Are C. Be D. Being

22. It is believed ................causes weight loss.

A. much stress B. much stress that C. it is much stress D. that much stress

23. He doesn‟t seem to be successful ................ hard he works.

A. whatever B. although C. but D. however

24. Are there any interesting ................ in the paper?

A. news B. pieces of news C. piece of news D. new

25. We‟ve decided to interview only ten ................ for the job.

A. applicants B. applicable C. appliances D. applications

26. “Which of the two boys is a boy scout?”

“................ of them is.”

A. All B. None C. Neither D. Both


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27. The child was told to eat all his vegetables or ................he would get no ice cream.

A. in case B. in fact C. instead D. else

28. The stolen jewels were ................a lot of money.

A. priced B. worth C. cost D. valued

29. My brother is intelligent but he ................ common sense.

A. fails B. lacks C. misses D. wants

30. I am ................ tired to think about that problem at the moment.

A. simply B. far too C. much more D. nearly

31. His ................ of the school regulations really can‟t be ignored any longer.

A. carelessness B. inattention C. unfamiliarity D. disregard

32. ................after trying three times, he passed the examination.

A. Last of all B. Lastly C. Last D. At last

33. I think you should stay................

A. calm B. tranquil C. peaceful D. quiet

34. “Help!”

“................................................................”

A. Just a minute! B. Moment! C. I come at once! D. Wait on!

35. All work is better than ................at all.

A. no B. no one C. none D. not

36. The question of late payment of the bills was ................again at the meeting

A. raised B. risen C. brought D. taken

37. None of us has ever ................of cheating in class.

A. declared B. persisted C. approved D. concluded

38. We have been working hard. Let‟s ................ a break.

A. make B. find C. do D. take

39. It never ................my mind he will tell lies to me .

A. crosses B. takes C. enters D. happens

40. I‟m afraid you‟ll have to make a decision at once. We have no time to .................

A. save B. spare C. draw D. adjust

41. Those men are paid by .................

A. an hour B. hour C. every hour D. the hour

42. “Take me some medicine from the first aid kit, ................ you?

A. don‟t B. can C. do D. will

43. “I am terribly sorry!”

“ ................................”

A. It‟s nothing B. Nothing C. Don‟t worry D. Never mind!

44. The ship was put into quarantine and the passengers and the crew were ....................... to land

A. ordered B. forbidden C. permitted D. let

45. “Could I speak to Susie May, please?”

“Yes,.................................”

A. Answering B. Talking C. Saying D. Speaking

46. He spent his entire life ................ round the world, never setting down anywhere.

A. scattering B. vesting C. roaming D. roaring

47. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?”

“................................”

A. “Yes, I would.” B. “Not at all.” C. “What a pity!” D. “my Gosh!”

48. I wish you wouldn‟t call him ................that insulting name.

A. by B. with C. in D. under

49. They received a ten-year sentence for ................armed robbery .

A. committing B. practicing C. doing D. making

50. In life ................can make a mistake; we‟re all human.

A. anyone B. someone C. some people D. not anybody


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51-60. Choose the item among A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage.

The ocean bottom- a region nearly 2.5 times greater than total land area of the Earth- is a vast frontier that even

today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible,

hidden beneath waters averaging over 3.6000 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures

hundreds of times greater than at the Earth‟s surface, deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some

ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.

Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed

global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science

Foundation‟s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil gas industry, the

Dad‟s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean‟s surface and drill in very

deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.

The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15 –year research program that ended in November 1983.

During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and

rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger‟s core samples have allowed geologists to

reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago and to calculate what it problem look will like

millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger‟s

voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the

geological processes that shape the Earth.

The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the

worlds past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years;

because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that

rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns

and causes of past climatic change-information that may be used to predict future climates

51. The author refers to the ocean bottom as a “frontier” because it................

A. attracts courageous explorers B. is not a popular area for scientific research

C. contains a wide variety of life forms D. is an unknown territory

52. The word “inaccessible” is closest meaning to .................

A. unusable B. unreachable C. unrecognizable D. unsafe

53. The author mentions outer space in the first paragraph because.................

A. it is similar to the ocean floor in being alien to the human environment

B. techniques used by scientists to explore outer space were similar to those used in ocean exploration.

C. the Earth‟s climate millions of years ago was similar to condition in outer space.

D. rock formations in outré space are similar to those found on the ocean floor

54. Which of the following is True of the Glomar Challenger?

A. It is a type of submarine. B. It has gone on over 100 voyages.

C. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968. D. It is an ongoing project.

55. The word “extracting” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to .................

A. locating B. breaking C. analyzing D. removing

56. The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was .................

A. attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

B. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

C. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

D. composed of geologists from all over the world

57. The word “strength” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to .................

A. endurance B. basis C. discovery D. purpose

58. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to .................

A. sediments B. cores C. climates D. years

59. The DSDP can be said to be ................in terms of geological exploration.

A. a total flop B. of crucial importance C. a great success D. a west of time and effort

60. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth‟s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.


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B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen

D. Information was revealed about the Earth‟s past climatic changes.


Are organically grown foods the best choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown

and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly –

frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a

welcome development. However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is

unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported by scientific

evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to

separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or

cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.

Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are

numerous unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally

superior to fertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like. One thing that most

organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in

many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality

than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited

incomes, distrust the regular food and buy only expensive organic foods instead

61. The word “Advocates” is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. Proponents B. Inspectors C. Consumers D. Merchants

62. In the first paragraph, the word “other” refers to .................

A. advocates B. products C. advantages D. organic foods

63. The “welcome development” mentioned is an increase in.................

A. the amount of health food grown in North American

B. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

C. the number of consumers in North American

D. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

64. According to the first paragraph, which of the following is true about the terms “organic foods”?

A. It has been used only in recent years. B. It is seldom used by consumers.

C. It has no fixed meaning. D. It is accepted by most nutritionists.

65. The word “unsubstantiated” is closest in meaning to .................

A. uncontested B. unbelievable C. unverified D. unpopular

66. The word “maintain” is closest in meaning to .................

A. preserve B. retire C. improve D. monitor

67. Who does the author think should NOT buy organic foods?

A. Advocated of organic food B. Wealthy people

C. Concerned consumers D. Low income consumers

68. The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods instead of

conventionally grown foods because .................

A. too many farmers will stop using conventional method to grow food crops

B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods

C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

D. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown foods

69. According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally grown

foods are often .................

A. wealthy B. mistaken C. thrifty D. careless

70. What is the author‟s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

A. Very enthusiastic B. Neutral C. Skeptical D. Somewhat favorable


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71-75. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D which has the same meaning as the given one.

71. His handwriting is so small that I can hardly read it.

A. His handwriting is too bad to read.

B. He is used to small writing so I can hardly read it

C. His handwriting is the smallest I have ever read.

D. He has such small writing that I can hardly read it.

72. The only student who failed the exam was John.

A. Everyone passed the exam.

B. Together with other students, John failed the exam.

C. With the exception of John, everyone passed the exam.

D. Everyone, apart from John, failed the exam

73. “Why don‟t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam.

A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair

B. Gavin was suggested to have a haircut.

C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin‟s hair cut.

D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut

74. You are all welcome to take any food you like.

A. Any food welcomes to take if you like.

B. It‟s my pleasure to take any food you like.

C. You don‟t have to pay for any food that you like.

D. Please help yourselves to any food you like.

75. Without skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

A. With skillful surgery he would have survived the operation.

B. Had it not been for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

C. But for skillful surgery he would not have survived the operation.

D. He wouldn‟t have survived the operation if he hadn‟t had skillful surgery.


76. It is important that .................................................

A. an exact record should be kept B. an exact record to be kept

C. to keep an exact record D. keeping an exact record

77. ................................................ the book, please return it to me.

A. Should you find B. Will you have found C. Will you be finding D. Will you find

78. ................................. we went swimming.

A. So hot was the day B. It was a hot day C. Being a hot day D. Due to a hot day

79. I know Jimmy ................................him.

A. too well so as to trust B. so well as to trust C. too well to trust D. well enough as to trust

80. ................ is the price of this car.

A. What interested in us B. That we are interested in

C. That interested us D. What we are interested in

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1-2. Pick the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the italic part in each of the following sentences.

1. Henry has found a temporary job in a factory.

A. eternal B. genuine C. permanent D. satisfactory

2. Mr. Smith‟s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.

A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile


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3-7. Pick the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words.

3. A. punctuality B. technological C. characteristic D. representative

4. A. equip B. vacant C. secure D. oblige

5. A. effectiveness B. accountancy C. satisfaction D. appropriate

6. A. prevention B. implement C. fertilize D. enterprise

7. A. dynamism B. accompany C. comfortable D. interview


8. We ....................... today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.

A. were checked our homework B. had our homework checked

C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework

9. You can go to the party tonight you are sober when you come home.

A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as

10. She must ....................... in the garage when we came that's why she didn't hear the bell.

A. have been working B. be working C. have worked D. work

11. I'm sorry, but I've got ....................... much work to do to come to the beach today.

A. too B. such C. enough D. so

12. It‟s essential that every student ....................... the exam before attending the course.

A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass

13. I decided to go to the library as soon as I ........................

A. would finish what I did B. finished what I did

C. finished what I was doing D. finish what I did

14. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ....................... ancient

Peruvians did through natural processes.

A. because B. whereas C. whether or not D. even though

15. Please cut my hair ....................... the style in this magazine.

A. the same length like B. the same length as C. the same long like D. the same long as

16. ....................... in this national park declined from a few thousand to a few hundred in ten years.

A. For a number of tigers B. The number of tigers

C. A number of tigers D. That the number of tigers

17. ......................., he would have been able to pass the exam.

A. Studying more B. Had he studied more C. If he studied more D. If he were studying more

18. Study harder .......................

A. if you will pass the exam B. unless you pass the exam

C. or you won‟t pass the exam D. and you pass the exam

19. Fire safety in family houses,....................... most fire deaths occur, is difficult.

A. how B. when C. why D. where

20. ....................... of the financial crisis, all they could do was hold on and hope that things would improve.

A. In the end B. At the height C. On the top D. At the bottom

21. When I got my case back, it had been damaged ....................... repair.

A. over B. further C. above D. beyond

22. We intend to ....................... with the old system as soon as we have developed a better one.

A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down

23. ....................... that she burst into tears.

A. So angry was she B. Such her anger C. She was so anger D. Her anger was so

24. We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are .

A. out of reach B. out of practice C. out of stock D. out of work

25. Do you remember Daisy? I ran ....................... her at the Fair yesterday.

A. by B. down C. across D. in


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26. I‟m really sleepy today. I wish I ....................... Bob to the airport late last night,

A. weren‟t taking B. didn‟t take C. hadn‟t had to take D. didn‟t have to take

27. Matthew‟s hands were covered in oil because he ....................... his bike.

A. had been mending B. has mended C. has been mending D. had mended

28. “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”

“....................... ”

A. Never mind B. I can‟t agree with you more

C. You can say that again D. It‟s rubbish. We shouldn‟t use it.

29. Mark: -“.......................”

Helen: “Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday.”

A. What a beautiful dress you have on!

B. How a beautiful dress you‟re wearing!

C. You‟ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven‟t you?

D. When have you got this beautiful dress?

30. Host: “I‟m terribly sorry for this inconvenience.”

Guests: -"......................."

A. It‟s mine. I came late B. It‟s not your fault

C. I‟ll do better next time D. Fine, thanks

31. Once known as the “Golden State” because of its gold mines,.......................

A. North Carolina today mines few metallic minerals

B. few metallic minerals are mined in North Carolina today

C. there are few metallic minerals mined in North Carolina today

D. today in North Carolina few metallic minerals are mined

32. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden ....................... roots firmly anchor plants to the soil.

A. well aware B. is well aware that C. is well aware of D. well aware that


33. Children‟s games, which are amusements (A) involve more than one individual, (B) appear to be (C) culturally (D)

universal.

34. When I (A) came back I (B) realized that (C) my camera (D) had been disappeared.

35. If (A) either of you (B) take a vacation now, we (C) won‟t be able (D) to finish this work.

36. Among the (A) world‟s 44 (B) richest countries, (C) there has been (D) not war since 1945.

37. (A) What we know about certain diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from spreading easily (D)

among the population.

38-40 Pick out the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the italic part in each of the following sentences.

38. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.

A. revived B. surprised C. connived D. survived

39. Father has lost his job, so we‟ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money B. save money C. sit still D. economize

40. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can‟t understand the problems we are facing.

A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor


The modern comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper war between giants of the American press in the

late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by

Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today‟s Sunday funnies, appeared two

years later, in William Randolph Hearst‟s rival New York paper, the Morning Journal.

Both were immensely popular and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale

of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the “Yellow Kid”, the first continuous comic character

in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outhaul, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The


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“Yellow Kid” was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later

strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters‟ heads.

The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks‟s “Katzenjammer Kids”, based on

Wilhelm Busch‟s Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The “Kids” strip, first published in 1897,

served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of

characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of earlier comics.

Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country.

Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. The first appeared in the

Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a

staple of daily newspapers around the country.

41. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage?

A. In the order in which they were created.

B. From most popular to least popular.

C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared.

D. In alphabetical order by title.

42. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT............ .

A. feature the same character in each episode

B. include dialogue inside a balloon

C. appear in a Chicago newspaper

D. characterize city life in a humorous way

43. The word “prototype” is closest in meaning to .......................

A. model B. story C. humor D. drawing

44. The word “staple” is closest in meaning to .......................

A. new version B. huge success C. regular feature D. popular edition

45. The word “incorporate” is closest in meaning to .......................

A. combine B. mention C. create D. affect

46. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst?

A. Their comic strips are still published today.

B. They owned major competitive newspapers.

C. They established New York‟s first newspaper.

D. They published comic strips about the newspaper war.

47. The word “it” refers to .......................

A. balloon B. farce C. dialogue D. the “Yellow Kid”

48. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons?

A. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings.

B. They were about real-life situations.

C. Readers could identify with the characters.

D. They provided a break from serious news stories.

49. To say that Richard Outhaul had been “lured away from” the World by Hearst means which of the following?

A. Hearst warned Outhaul not to leave the World.

B. Hearst convinced Outhaul to leave the World.

C. Hearst fired Outhaul from the World.

D. Hearst wanted Outhaul to work for the World.

50. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The differences between early and modern comic strips.

B. Features of early comic strips in the United States.

C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories.

D. A comparison of two popular comic strips.



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51. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.

A. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.

B. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.

C. The noise next door stopped at midnight

D. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.

52. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them.

A. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.

B. Their dog was too fierce to visit.

C. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.

D. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.

53. If you want to be kept informed about current affairs, you should listen to the radio.

A. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs.

B. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio.

C. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs.

D. Only by listening to the radio, you can keep yourself informed about current affairs.

54. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

A. I travel by bus only as a last resort.

B. It‟s my only alternative to travel by bus.

C. I resort to travel by bus only when I have no alternative.

D. Travelling by bus is my only alternative.

55. Calling Jim is pointless because his phone is out of order.

A. It‟s worth not calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

B. It‟s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order.

C. It‟s useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

D. There‟s no point calling Jim because his phone is out of order.

56. The Prime Minister is unlikely to call an early general election.

A. The likelihood is that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

B. The likelihood is great that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

C. It‟s likely that the Prime Minister will call an early general election.

D. There is little likelihood of the Prime Minister calling an early general election.

57. Lin‟s success took us all by surprise.

A. We were taken aback by all of Lin‟s successes.

B. Lin‟s success was surprised to all of us.

C. Lin was successful, which surprised all of us.

D. We took all of Lin‟s successes surprisingly.

58. You are in this mess right now because you didn‟t listen to me in the first place.

A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.

B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t be in this mess right now.

C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.

D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn‟t have been in this mess right now.

59. Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon.

A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full.

B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.

C. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.

D. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month.

60. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.

A. The politician fell deaf when he was speaking last night.

B. What the politician was saying deafened the listeners last night.

C. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.

D. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night because they had deaf ears.


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61-70. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves

might (61)....................... to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not

(62)....................... us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (63)....................... On the other hand,

current research has not yet (64)....................... clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.

Numerous studies are now going (65)....................... in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but

others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (66)......................., these studies are preliminary

and the issue needs further, long - term investigation.

(67)....................... the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long

(68)....................... of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact

showing the (69)....................... and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people

(70)....................... bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.

61. A. cause B. bring C. produce D. lead

62. A. make B. let C. able D. enable

63. A. risky B. secure C. unhealthy D. safe

64. A. proved B. created C. demonstrated D. caused

65. A. on B. about C. through D. by

66. A. While B. Though C. Additionally D. However

67. A. Until B. When C. Provide D. As

68. A. quantities B. periods C. amounts D. intervals

69. A. way B. truth C. opposite D. fact

70. A. whose B. that C. with D. as


Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects, an estimated 90 percent of the world‟s species have

scientific names. As a consequence, they are, perhaps, the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic

diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent

group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.

Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking

difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.

For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that

about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed

66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has

been well confirmed.

A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones,

but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for

butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather than between them, is poorly

understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still

mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike comparison between temperate

and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase.

In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity,

number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly

distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar

species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be

minimized.

71. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats

C. Their names D. Their variety

72. The word "consequence" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".


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A. requirement B. analysis C. result D. explanation

73. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they……………

A. are found mainly in temperate climates B. have been given scientific names

C. are simple in structure D. are viewed positively by people

74. The word "striking" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".

A. noticeable B. successful C. confusing D. physical

75. The word “exceed” in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".

A. allow B. go beyond C. come close to D. locate

76. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT …………..

A. differences between temperate and tropical zones

B. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants

C. patterns of distribution of species in each region

D. migration among temperate and tropical zones

77. The author mentions "tropical Asia" in the passage as an example of a location where .

A. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established

B. butterflies are affected by human populations

C. butterfly behavior varies with climate

D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species

78. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?

A. European butterfly habitats

B. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region

D. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions

79. The idea "little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution" is that …………………………

A. there are many other things that we don't know about butterfly evenness distribution

B. we don't know anything about butterfly evenness distribution

C. we know much about butterfly evenness distribution

D. we know about butterfly evenness distribution to some extent

80. The word "generated" in the passage is closest in meaning to "……………………….".

A. assisted B. estimated C. requested D. caused

***********************************************************


1. Will the cost of living ................. down again, do you think?

(A) come (B) move (C) turn (D) bring

2. .......................immense distances, quasars have relatively high magnitudes.

(A) Whereas (B) In spite of (C) Although (D) Yet

3. At this point, Shannon wishes she ........................ mechanical drawing. She hates the course.

(A) didn't take (B) wouldn't take (C) hadn't taken (D) were to take

4. That house ........................ empty for a year. But they ........................ down the "For Sale" sign, so I suppose

someone ........................ it.

(A) has been … just take … has bought (B) is have … just taken … buy

(C) is … just take … has bought (D) has been … have just taken … has bought

5. If the neighbors ........................ down, I would have had to call the police.

(A) has not quieted (B) had not quieted (B) hadn't quieted (D) B or C

6. It is believed ................. causes insomnia.

(A) too much caffeine (B) that too much caffeine

(C) it is too much caffeine (D) too much caffeine that


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7. It ........................ for two hours and the ground is too wet to play on, so the match ........................

(A) has rained … has been postponed (B) rained has been postponed

(C) has rained was postponed (D) rained was postponed

8. ........................ of all modern domestic poultry is the red jungle fowl is widely believed.

(A) The ancestor (B) The ancestor is (C) That the ancestor (D) How the ancestor

9. He always has a behavior to conflict people‟s opinion in the conference.

(A) extreme (B) manner (C) feature (D) appearance

10. Subtropical zones, ........................ temperate zones, but they still have distinct summer and winter seasons.

(A) that are warmer (B) warmer (C) are warmer as (D) are warmer than

11. 'That old paint that you have stored in your garage is a fine hazard.' 'You're right. I should ................. it.

(A) get away from (B) get rid of (C) get through with (D) get along with

12. If she talked less, people ........................ her more.

(A) will like (B) like . (C) liked (D) would like

13. When ........................ he ....................... when you saw him last?

A has lived (B) does ' live (C) was living (D) have lived

14. I wish we ........................ to get to' know one another better in the time we had.

A will be able (B) were able (C) would have been able (D) had been able

15. Seldom........................ a newspaper.

A buys Anna (B) does Anna buy (C) bought Anna (D) Anna does buy

16. ........................ the severe weather conditions all the cars completed the course.

(A) In spite (B) Despite (C) However (D) Yet

17. Wood floats on water because it is ........................ water.

(A) less dense than (B) the less dense as (C) of lesser, density as (D) not as much density than

18. Solar heat penetrates more deeply into water than .......................

(A) it does into soil (B) does it into soil (C) that it does into soil (D) it is penetrating into the soil

19. What word has the pronunciation as [t] in the following words?

(A) demanded (B) naked (C) named (D) overlooked

20. Some people waste food ........................ others don't have enough.

(A) as (B) in case (C) while (D) before

21. ....................... the sun rose, the fog dispersed.

(A) As (B) When (C) Before (D) After

22. Nowhere ........................ such cooperative staff.

(A) you can find (B) you found (C) you could find (D) can you find

23. The number of people at the exhibit ....................... amazing.

(A) are (B) were (C) was (D) has

24. None of the information ........................ made public.

(A) was (B) were (C) are (D) have

25. In a fortnight's time we ........................ our exam.

(A) will have taken (B) have taken (C) took (D) take

26. Strong ........................ he was, he couldn't lift it.

(A) like (B) as (C) or (D) and

27. 'Who ................. out that tie for you?' 'No one. I chose it myself.

(A) bought (B) brought (C) turned (D) picked

28. The bank is taking ................. no more staff the moment.

(A) on (B) off (C) at (D) in


29. In spite of my father is old, he still goes to work.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

30. The result of that test must be inform before August.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

31. It‟s high time the government made something about air pollution.

(A) (B) (C) (D)


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32. My little daughter is going to being taken to day care center.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

33. There are also many single mothers and single fathers which are raising children by themselves.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

34. If listen to the questions carefully, you would answer them easily you

(A) (B) (C) (D)

35. Many people have complain about the dirty smoke from the factory

(A) (B) (C) (D)

36. The more honest we are in our trade, the more customer we‟ll have

(A) (B) (C) (D)

37. He is believed be the best player in our team

(A) (B) (C) (D)

38. The older people are, the more weaker they are

(A) (B) (C) (D)


Man‟s rise to a position as the dominant creature on this earth has been closely involved with his mammalian

cousins. Even in highly industrialized nations, mammals provide food, drink, clothing, transportation, and power. It‟s

interesting, however, that man‟s interdependency is limited to a few dozen domesticated species. The other mammals are

either in the category of “enemies” or of little interest at all.

Man has waged a war against his mammalian enemies with little result. Despite trapping, shooting, poisoning,

gassing, and a dozen other ploys, most of our enemies are still with us. The victims of man‟s dominance have been rather

the ones in which we have little interest. In fact, the majority of the animals that have become extinct during man‟s march

to global dominance have been just these uninteresting creatures.

For all of man‟s success, he is still a newcomer. It is only in the past century that we have been able to cross water

better than a porpoise or to dive as deeply as whale. It is only recently that we have been able to travel on land faster than

a cheetah or fly faster than a bird. With this new power, man has a responsibility to his cousins, because he is

interdependent, even with the mammals for which he cares little.

39. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) The evolution of man

(B) The interdependence of man and mammals.

(C) The extinction of mammals

(D) The success of man

40. According to this passage, man has been dependent on mammals for

(A) food and drink (B) technology (C) evolution (D) his success

41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

(A) Man is the dominant creature on earth.

(B) Many mammals have become extinct.

(C) Man has little need for most mammals.

(D) Man is interdependent with other mammals.

42. According to the passage, what must man do now?

(A) Develop more synthetic goods

(B) Assume more responsibility for our interdependence with mammals.

(C) Put all the mammals in the zoo where they will be protected.

(D) Intensify our efforts to control our traditional enemies.

43. According to the passage, what has man accomplished in his rise to dominance?

(A) Developed human speech

(B) Domesticated some animals

(C) Put a man on the moon

(D) Extinguished many mammalian enemies


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Samuel Morse accomplished something that is rarely accomplished: he achieved fame and success in two widely

differing areas. Throughout his youth he studied art, and after graduating from Yale University he went on to London in

1811 where his early artistic endeavors met 5 with acclaim. In London he was awarded the gold medal of the Adelphi

Arts Society for a clay figure of Hercules, and his paintings The Dying Hercules and The Judgment of Jupiter were

selected for exhibit by the Royal Academy. Later in life, after returning to America, Morse became known for his

portraits. His portraits of the Marquis 10 de Lafayette today are on exhibit in the New York City Hall and the New York

Public Library. In addition to his artistic accomplishments, Morse is also well-known today for his work developing the

telegraph and what is known as Morse Code. He first had the idea of trying to develop the telegraph in 1832, on board a

ship returning to America 15 from Europe. It took eleven long years of ridicule by his associates, disinterest by the

public, and a shortage of funds before Congress finally allocated $30,000 to Morse for his project. With these funds,

Morse hung a telegraph line from Washington, DC to Baltimore, and on May 24, 1844, a message in the dots and dashes

of Morse Code was 20 successfully transmitted.

44. Which of the following is the best topic of this passage?

(A) Samuel Morse's artistic talents (B) The use of Morse Code in art

(C) The invention of the telegraph (D) Samuel Morse's varied successes

45. According to the passage, in his early life, Morse concentrated on preparing for which of the following careers?

(A) A career as an inventor (B) A career as an artist

(C) A career as a telegraph operator (D) A career developing Morse Code.

46. According to the passage, Morse won a prize for which of the following works?

(A) A statue of Hercules (B) The Dying Hercules

(C) The Judgment of Jupiteronists (D) A portrait of Lafayette

47. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the development of the telegraph?

(A) It was a long and difficult process.

(B) It happened almost overnight.

(C) Morse's friends were highly supportive of his work.

(D) Money was not an issue in the development of the telegraph.

48. How was the first telegraph message sent from Washington to Baltimore?

(A) A voice was transmitted over the wires.

(B) The telegraph line carried a written message.

(C) The message was in a special code developed by Morse.

(D) Funds were transmitted from Washington to Baltimore.

51-65. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

In child development there is an important phenomenon that shows very clearly the process of preparation for the

future: play. (51) ........................ to popular belief, its importance should never be underestimated. Games are not the

haphazard creations of parents or educators. They should be seen as educational (52) ........................ and as stimuli for

the child‟s (53) ......................., imagination and life skills. Every game is a preparation for the future.

The manner in which children (54) ........................ a game, their choice of game and the importance they (55)

........................ upon it, show their attitude and relationship to their environment and how they relate to their

(56) ........................ human beings. Whether they are hostile or whether they are friendly, and particularly whether they

show qualities as leaders, are clearly (57) ....................... in their play. In observing children at play we can see their

whole attitude towards life; play is of the (58) ........................ importance to every child.

But play is more than preparation for life. Games are (59) ........................ communal exercises that enable children to

develop their social feeling. Children who avoid games and play are always (60) ........................ to the suspicion that they

have not (61) ........................ satisfactorily to life. These children gladly withdraw from all games, or when they are sent

to the playground with other children usually (62) ........................ the pleasure of others. Pride, lack of (63)

........................ and the consequent fear of „getting it wrong‟ are the main reasons for this behavior. In general, by

watching children at play, we can determine (64) ........................ great certainty the (65) ........................ and quality of

their social feeling.

49. (A) In contrast (B) Contrary (C) According (D) Due


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50. (A) means (B) sources (C) tools (D) aids

51. (A) psyche (B) physiology (C) mindset (D) nerves

52. (A) operate (B) approach (C) process (D) experience

53. (A) give (B) accord (C) place (D) lay

54. (A) fellow (B) contemporary (C) present (D) peer

55. (A) distinct (B) evident (C) noticeable (D) marked

56. (A) great (B) utmost (C) prime (D) most

57. (A) without doubts (B) in all (C) by far (D) above all

58. (A) attached (B) open (C) prone (D) likely

59. (A) survived (B) adjusted (C) changed (D) grown

60. (A) spoil (B) damage (C) vanish (D) worsen

61. (A) maturity (B) egoism (C) self-esteem (D) development

62. (A) on (B) in (C) with (D) for

63. (A) level (B) scale (C) scope (D) extent


64. Nothing but the whole story would satisfy Tim.

(A) Tim wouldn't be satisfied with anything.

(B) Tim wanted to know just the end of the story.

(C) On the whole, Tim was satisfied with the story.

(D) Tim insisted on being told the complete story.

65. Hardly are appeals allowed against the council decisions.

(A) The council always allows appeals against its decision.

(B) It's too hard for the council to allow appeals again its decisions.

(C) Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good.

(D) The council rarely allows appeals against1ts decisions.

66. The students did not take to their new lecturer.

(A) The students didn't understand what the new lecturer said.

(B) The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.

(C) The new lecturer didn't care his students.

(D) The students didn't follow the new lecturer.

67. No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn't succeed.

(A) Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.

(B) However hard Fred tried, he couldn't start the car.

(C) It's hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.

(D) Fred tried hard to start the, car, and with success.

68. There is not much to choose between the two essays.

A Both essays are great.

(B) One essay is just as bad as the other.

(C) One of the essays is optional.

(D) Either essays can be chosen.

69. Nobody is to blame for the fact that the meeting was cancelled

(A) Everybody is responsible for the cancelled meeting

(B) Nobody should, be held responsible for the fact that the meeting was cancelled

(C) It‟s nobody‟s faulty that the meeting was cancelled

(D) B and C

70. It never occurred to me to go by train.

(A) I used to go by train.

(B) I was used to going by train.

(C) I never thought of going by train .

(D) I never find it boring to go by train.

71. I travel by bus as a last resort


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(A) Travelling by bus is my favorite.

(B) I always travel by bus

(C) I resort to bus when I am the last to come

(D) I only travel by bus when there‟s no other alternatives.

72. It doesn't matter to them which film they go to.

(A) No matter what film are shown, they never go.

(B) They have a good taste for films.

(C) They don't mind which film they go to.

(D) Which film they go to matters more than the cost.

73. The onset of the disease is shown by a feeling of faintness.

(A) A feeling of faintness signals the final stage of the disease.

(B) One feels faint if the disease is over.

(C) The first sign of the disease is a feeling 'of faintness.

(D) Faintness causes the disease.

76-80. Choose the correct sentence among A, B, C or D to complete the meaningful sentence from the given words.

74. hard / the garden / very / morning / always / in / my brother / every / works .

(A) My brother always works in the garden very hard every morning.

(B) My brother always works in the garden every morning very hard.

(C) My brother always works very hard in the garden every morning.

(D) All of them are correct

75. Tom and Mary / good / skiing

(A) Tom and Mary are good at skiing (B) Tom or Mary are good at skiing.

(C) Tom and Mary are good for skiing (D) Tom or Mary is good for skiing.

76. It / most dangerous / corner / I / see.

(A) It is most dangerous to corner I saw (B) It is the most dangerous corner that I saw

(C) It is most dangerous corner for me to seeing (D) It‟s the most dangerous corner I have ever seen.

77. I / speak / Chinese / well / but / my wife / not

(A) I speak Chinese well but my wife is not (B) I spoke Chinese very well but my wife doesn‟t

(C) I speak Chinese very well but my wife doesn‟t. (D) I spoke Chinese well but my wife is not either.

78. It / take / a few hours / fly / London / New York.

(A) It takes a few hours to fly from London to New York

(B) It takes a few hour to flying from London to New York.

(C) It took a few hour fly between London and New York.

(D) It took a few hours flying between London to New York.

**************************************************

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Chemistry is my ................................ subject at school.

A. favourite B. popular C. liking D. wanted

Question 2: - "Would you like to join our volunteer group this summer?"

- "................................"

A. Do you think I would? B. I wouldn't. Thank you.

C. Yes, you're a good friend. D. Yes, I'd love to. Thanks.

Question 3: - "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"

- "................................"

A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that.

C. Yes, of course. It's expensive. D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.


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Question 4: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn't do all the work I ................................ last week.

A. should have done B. may have done C. need to have done D. must have done

Question 5: He runs a business, ................................ he proves to have managerial skills.

A. however B. otherwise C. and D. despite

Question 6: Whenever he had an important decision to make, he ................................ a cigar to calm his nerves.

A. would light B. would be lighting C. would have lit D. had lit

Question 7: Preparing for a job interview can be very .................................

A. stress B. stressful C. stressed D. stressing

Question 8: My brother left his job last week because he did not have any ................................ to travel.

A. position B. chance C. ability D. location

Question 9: Not until the end of the 19th century ................................ become a scientific discipline.

A. plant breeding has B. did plant breeding C. plant breeding had D. has plant breeding

Question 10: "How can you live in this messy room? Go and ................................ it up at once."

A. dust B. sweep C. tidy D. do

Question 11: - "I can't speak English well enough to apply for that post."

- "................................."

A. Me neither B. Me too C. Me either D. Me also

Question 12: Tears contain an antiseptic ................................ helps protect our eyes from infection.

A. that B. what C. how D. where

Question 13: She is very absent-minded: she ................................ her cellphone three times!

A. has lost B. loses C. was losing D. had lost

Question 14: - "Which hat do you like better?"

- "................................"

A. Yes, I like it best. B. The one I tried on first.

C. Which one do you like? D. No, I haven't tried any.

Question 15: He always ................................ the crossword in the newspaper before breakfast.

A. writes B. makes C. works D. does

Question 16: It is hard to get ................................ him; he is such an aggressive man.

A. by B. on with C. into D. over to

Question 17: The new director of the company seems to be an intelligent and ................................ man.

A. well-educated B. well-educate C. well-educational D. well-education

Question 18: The movie is ................................ Shakespeare‟s Hamlet in a number of ways.

A. like to B. alike with C. similar to D. same as

Question 19: Although the exam was difficult, ................................ the students passed it.

A. most of B. none of C. a few D. a lot

Question 20: - "Our team has just won the last football match."

- "................................"

A. Good idea. Thanks for the news. B. Yes. I guess it's very good.

C. Well, that's very surprising! D. Yes, it's our pleasure.

Question 21: Vietnam's rice export this year will decrease ....................... about 10%, compared with that of last year.

A. with B. at C. by D. on

Question 22: By ................................ the housework done, my mother has more time to pursue her career.

A. ordering B. taking C. having D. making

Question 23: The youths nowadays have many things to do in their ................................ time.

A. leisure B. entertainment C. fun D. amusement

Question 24: Mary is unhappy that she hasn't ................................ for the next round in the tennis tournament.

A. qualified B. quality C. qualification D. qualifying

Question 25: Working hours will fall to under 35 hours a week, ................................?

A. will they B. won't they C. won't it D. will it

Question 26: This factory produced ................................ motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. twice as many B. as twice as many C. as twice many D. as many as twice


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Question 27: In many big cities, people have to ................................ up with noise, overcrowding and bad air.

A. keep B. catch C. face D. put

Question 28: Had she worked harder last summer, she .................................

A. wouldn't have been sacked B. wouldn't have sacked

C. wouldn't sack D. wouldn't be sacked

Question 29: Listening is the most difficult language ................................ for me to master.

A. one B. way C. skill D. job

Question 30: In the modern world, women's ................................ roles have been changing.

A. natured B. naturally C. nature D. natural


Question 31: Successful salespeople know their products thoroughly .................................

A. and the needs of the market understood

B. but the needs of the market are understood properly

C. and understand the needs of the market properly

D. understanding the needs of the market

Question 32: The Vietnamese students have to take an entrance exam .................................

A. for going to a college and university

B. in order that they should go to a college or university

C. so as go to a college or university

D. so that they can go to a college or university

Question 33: ................................, many animals can still survive and thrive there.

A. Being severe weather conditions in the desert

B. Although the weather conditions in the desert are severe

C. The weather conditions in the desert to be severe

D. Even though the weather conditions in the desert severe

Question 34: Hillary changed her major from linguistics to business, .................................

A. hoping she can easier get a job

B. with the hope for being able finding a better job

C. hoping to find a job more easily

D. with hopes to be able easier to get employment

Question 35: An excellent hairstylist can make a man seem to have more hair .................................

A. as has actually he B. than he actually has C. than it actually is D. as is it actually

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 36: My father used to (A) giving me (B) some good advice (C) whenever I had (D) a problem.

Question 37: The woman (A) of whom the red car (B) is parked in (C) front of the bank is (D) a famous pop star.

Question 38: The (A) better you (B) are at English, (C) more chance you have to (D) get a job with international

organizations.

Question 39: (A) There are differences (B) and similarities between (C) Vietnamese and American (D) culture.

Question 40: (A) Society (B) will be having to change radically to keep pace (C) with the technology (D) available.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to

each of the questions from 41 to 50.

Today we take electricity for granted and perhaps we do not realize just how useful this discovery has been.

Steam was the first invention that replaced wind power. It was used to drive engines and was passed through pipes and

radiators to warm rooms. Petrol mixed with air was the next invention that provided power. Exploded in a cylinder, it

drove a motor engine. Beyond these simple and direct uses, those forms have not much adaptability.

On the other hand, we make use of electricity in thousands of ways. From the powerful voltages that drive our

electric trains to the tiny current needed to work a simple calculator, and from the huge electric magnet in steel works

that can lift 10 tons to the tiny electric magnet in a doorbell, all are powered by electricity. An electric current can be

made with equal ease to heat a huge mass of molten metal in a furnace, or to boil a jug for a cup of coffee.


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Other than atomic energy, which has not as yet been harnessed to the full, electricity is the greatest power in the

world. It is flexible, and so adaptable for any task for which it is wanted. It travels so easily and with incredible speed

along wires or conductors that it can be supplied instantly over vast distances.

To generate electricity, huge turbines or generators must be turned. In Australia they use coal or water to drive

this machinery. When dams are built, falling water is used to drive the turbines without polluting the atmosphere with

smoke from coal.

Atomic power is used in several countries but there is always the fear of an accident. A tragedy once occurred at

Chernobyl, in Ukraine, at an atomic power plant used to make electricity. The reactor leaked, which caused many deaths

through radiation.

Now scientists are examining new ways of creating electricity without harmful effects to the environment. They

may harness the tides as they flow in and out of bays. Most importantly, they hope to trap sunlight more efficiently. We

do use solar heaters for swimming pools but as yet improvement in the capacity of the solar cells to create more current is

necessary. When this happens, electric cars will be viable and the world will rid itself of the toxic gases given off by

trucks and cars that burn fossil fuels.

Question 41: The author mentions the sources of energy such as wind, steam, petrol in the first paragraph to ............

A. suggest that electricity should be alternated with safer sources of energy

B. emphasize the usefulness and adaptability of electricity

C. imply that electricity is not the only useful source of energy

D. discuss which source of energy can be a suitable alternative to electricity

Question 42: Before electricity, what was sometimes passed through pipes to heat rooms?

A. Gas. B. Petrol. C. Steam. D. Hot wind.

Question 43: What does the author mean by saying that electricity is flexible?

A. It is cheap and easy to use. B. It is used to drive motor engines.

C. It can be adapted to various uses. D. It can be made with ease.

Question 44: What do we call machines that make electricity?

A. Voltages. B. Electric magnets. C. Generators or turbines. D. Pipes and radiators.

Question 45: The main forms of power used to generate electricity in Australia are .................................

A. atomic power and water B. water and coal

C. sunlight and wind power D. wind and gas

Question 46: The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to .................................

A. harmful effects B. the tides C. scientists D. new ways

Question 47: Electric magnets are used in steel works to .................................

A. lift heavy weights up to ten tons B. test the steel for strength

C. heat the molten steel D. boil a jug of water

Question 48: The advantage of harnessing the power of the tides and of sunlight to generate electricity is that they

................_.

A. do not pollute the environment B. are more reliable

C. are more adaptable D. do not require attention

Question 49: Which of the following power sources causes pollution by emitting harmful gases?

A. Sunlight. B. Petrol. C. Water. D. Wind.

Question 50: The best title for this passage could be .................................

A. “Types of Power Plants” B. “Electricity: Harmful Effects on Our Life”

C. “How to Produce Electricity” D. “Why Electricity Is So Remarkable”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced

differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 51: A. exist B. extinct C. explorer D. expand

Question 52: A. eternal B. energy C. eradicate D. eliminate

Question 53: A. ancient B. educate C. strange D. address

Question 54: A. desert B. reserve C. observant D. conserve

Question 55: A. astound B. account C. country D. mounting


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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for

each of the blanks from 56 to 65.

In the United States and Canada, it is very important to (56)................................ a person directly in the eyes when

you are having a conversation (57)................................ him or her. If you look down or to the side when the

(58)................................ person is talking, that person will think that you are not interested in (59)................................ he

or she is saying. This, (60)................................, is not polite. If you look down or to the side when you are talking, it

might (61)................................ that you are not honest.

However, people who are speaking will sometimes look away for (62)................................ seconds when they are

thinking or (63)................................ to find the right word. But they always turn immediately (64)................................ to

look the listener directly in the eyes. These social "rules" are (65)................................ for two men, two women, a man

and a woman, or an adult and a child.

Question 56: A. talk B. notice C. get D. look

Question 57: A. with B. to C. for D. about

Question 58: A. others B. another C. one D. other

Question 59: A. which B. what C. that D. where

Question 60: A. yet B. in addition C. of course D. although

Question 61: A. become B. come C. seem D. turn

Question 62: A. a little B. a few C. little D. few

Question 63: A. trying B. looking C. achieving D. managing

Question 64: A. up B. back C. down D. over

Question 65: A. like B. the same C. likely D. such as



If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster.

According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents

make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental

expectations can cause great damage to children.

However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a

sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child.

Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts

and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin

lessons. Michael‟s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However,

he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling.

Winston Smith, Michael‟s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set

too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano

competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his

parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy.

Question 66: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to .................................

A. push their child into trying too much

B. help their child to become a genius

C. make their child become a musician

D. neglect their child‟s education

Question 67: Parents‟ ambition for their children is not wrong if they .................................

A. force their children into achieving success

B. themselves have been very successful

C. understand and help their children sensibly

D. arrange private lessons for their children

Question 68: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents?

A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents. C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists.


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Question 69: Michael Collins is fortunate in that .................................

A. his father is a musician B. his parents are quite rich

C. his mother knows little about music D. his parents help him in a sensible way

Question 70: The phrase "crazy about" in the passage mostly means .................................

A. "surprised at" B. "extremely interested in"

C. "completely unaware of" D. "confused about"

Question 71: Winston‟s parents push their son so much and he .................................

A. has won a lot of piano competitions

B. cannot learn much music from them

C. has become a good musician

D. is afraid to disappoint them

Question 72: The word "They" in the passage refers to .................................

A. concerts B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. Michael‟s parents

Question 73: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT ................__.

A. Winston‟s father B. Winston‟s mother C. Michael‟s father D. Michael‟s mother

Question 74: The word "unwilling" in the passage mostly means .................................

A. "getting ready to do something" B. "eager to do something"

C. "not objecting to doing anything" D. "not wanting to do something"

Question 75: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that .................................

A. successful parents always have intelligent children

B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children

C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants

D. parents should spend more money on the child‟s education

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the original

sentence in each of the following questions.

Question 76: Unless someone has a key, we cannot get into the house.

A. We could not get into the house if someone had a key.

B. If someone does not have a key, we can only get into the house.

C. We can only get into the house if someone has a key.

D. If someone did not have a key, we could not get into the house.

Question 77: She knows a lot more about it than I do.

A. I know as much about it as she does.

B. I do not know as much about it as she does.

C. She does not know so much about it as I do.

D. I know much more about it than she does.

Question 78: The boy was not allowed to have any friends, so he felt lonely.

A. Having no friends, the boy felt so lonely.

B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely.

C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely.

D. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely.

Question 79: Is it essential to meet your aunt at the station?

A. Did your aunt have to be met at the station?

B. Does your aunt have to meet at the station?

C. Does your aunt have to be met at the station?

D. Was your aunt met at the station?

Question 80: Conan said to me, "If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways."

A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.

B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.

C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.

D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.

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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is closest in meaning to the

underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: We have lived there for years and grown fond of the surroundings. That is why we do not want to leave.

A. planted many trees in the surroundings B. haunted by the surroundings

C. loved the surroundings D. possessed by the surroundings

Question 2: His new work has enjoyed a very good review from critics and readers.

A. viewing B. regard C. look D. opinion

Question 3: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth.

A. marked B. shared C. hidden D. separated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the

following questions.

Question 4: (A) Publishing in the UK, the book (B) has won a number of awards (C) in recent regional (D) book fairs.

Question 5: During our tour of (A) the refinery, (B) it was seen that both propane (C) and gasoline were produced (D) in

large volumes.

Question 6: (A) The first important requirements for you (B) to become a mountain climber (C) are your strong passion

and (D) you have good health.

Question 7: Hardly (A) did he enter the room (B) when all (C) the lights (D) went out.

Question 8: A professor of (A) economy and history at our university (B) developed a new theory of the relationship (C)

between historical events and (D) financial crises.

Read the following passage adapted from Understanding Rural America – Info USA and mark the letter A, B, C, or D

on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 9 to 18.

The well-being of America‟s rural people and places depends upon many things – the availability of good-paying

jobs; (9)................................_ to critical services such as education, health care, and communication; strong communities;

and a healthy natural environment. And, (10) ................................_ urban America is equally dependent upon these things,

the challenges to well-being look very different in rural areas than in urban areas. Small-scale, low-density settlement (11)

................................_ make it more costly for communities and businesses to provide critical services. Declining jobs and

income in the natural resource-based industries that many rural areas depend on (12) ................................_ workers in those

industries to find new ways to make a living. Low-skill, low-wage rural manufacturing industries must find new ways to

challenge the increasing number of (13) ................................_ competitors. Distance and remoteness impede many rural

areas from being connected to the urban centers of economic activity. Finally, changes in the availability and use of natural

resources located in rural areas (14) ................................_ the people who earn a living from those resources and those who

(15) ................................_ recreational and other benefits from them.

Some rural areas have met these challenges successfully, achieved some level of prosperity, and are ready (16)

................................_ the challenges of the future. Others have neither met the current challenges nor positioned

themselves for the future. Thus, concern for rural America is real. And, while rural America is a producer of critical

goods and services, the (17) ................................_ goes beyond economics. Rural America is also home to a fifth of the

Nation‟s people, keeper of natural amenities and national treasures, and safeguard of a/an (18) ................................_ part

of American culture, tradition, and history.

Question 9: A. challenge B. key C. access D. advantage

Question 10: A. because B. while C. when D. since

Question 11: A. styles B. tools C. means D. patterns

Question 12: A. offer B. turn C. force D. make

Question 13: A. foreign B. abroad C. lateral D. rural

Question 14: A. effect B. encourage C. stimulate D. affect

Question 15: A. involve B. evolve C. bring D. derive

Question 16: A. in B. of C. with D. for


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Question 17: A. research B. impatience C. concern D. stimulus

Question 18: A. abnormal B. simple C. incredible D. unique

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to

the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 19: Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. sufficiency B. excess C. large quantity D. small quantity

Question 20: There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment.

A. attraction B. speculation C. ease D. consideration

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the


Question 21: “Don‟t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leader told us.

A. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

C. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.

Question 22: “My company makes a large profit every year. Why don‟t you invest more money in it?” my friend said to me.

A. My friend suggested his investing more money in his company.

B. My friend persuaded me to invest more money in his company.

C. I was asked to invest more money in my friend‟s company.

D. My friend instructed me how to put more money into his company.

Question 23: “Mum, please don‟t tell dad about my mistake,” the boy said.

A. The mother was forced to keep her son‟s mistake as a secret when he insisted.

B. The boy earnestly insisted that his mother tell his father about his mistake.

C. The boy begged his mother not to tell his father about his mistake.

D. The boy requested his mother not to talk about his mistake any more.

Question 24: “You shouldn‟t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.

A. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.

B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.

C. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.

D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.

Question 25: “If you don‟t pay the ransom, we‟ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.

A. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.

B. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.

C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.

D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we refused to pay the ransom.

Read the following passage adapted from Cultural Guide – OALD, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer

sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.

The issue of equality for women in British society first attracted national attention in the early 20th

century,

when the suffragettes won for women the right to vote. In the 1960s feminism became the subject of intense debate when

the women‟s liberation movement encouraged women to reject their traditional supporting role and to demand equal

status and equal rights with men in areas such as employment and pay.

Since then, the gender gap between the sexes has been reduced. The Equal Pay Act of 1970, for instance, made

it illegal for women to be paid less than men for doing the same work, and in 1975 the Sex Discrimination Act aimed to

prevent either sex having an unfair advantage when applying for jobs. In the same year the Equal Opportunities

Commission was set up to help people claim their rights to equal treatment and to publish research and statistics to show

where improvements in opportunities for women need to be made. Women now have much better employment

opportunities, though they still tend to get less well-paid jobs than men, and very few are appointed to top jobs in

industry.


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In the US the movement that is often called the “first wave of feminism” began in the mid 1800s. Susan B.

Anthony worked for the right to vote, Margaret Sanger wanted to provide women with the means of contraception so that

they could decide whether or not to have children, and Elizabeth Blackwell, who had to fight for the chance to become a

doctor, wanted women to have greater opportunities to study. Many feminists were interested in other social issues.

The second wave of feminism began in the 1960s. Women like Betty Friedan and Gloria Steinem became

associated with the fight to get equal rights and opportunities for women under the law. An important issue was the Equal

Rights Amendment (ERA), which was intended to change the Constitution. Although the ERA was not passed, there was

progress in other areas. It became illegal for employers, schools, clubs, etc. to discriminate against women. But women

still find it hard to advance beyond a certain point in their careers, the so-called glass ceiling that prevents them from

having high-level jobs. Many women also face the problem of the second shift, i.e. the household chores.

In the 1980s, feminism became less popular in the US and there was less interest in solving the remaining

problems, such as the fact that most women still earn much less than men. Although there is still discrimination, the

principle that it should not exist is widely accepted.

Question 26: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that in the 19th

century,................................

A. British women did not complete their traditional supporting role

B. most women did not wish to have equal status and equal rights

C. British women did not have the right to vote in political elections

D. suffragettes fought for the equal employment and equal pay

Question 27: The phrase “gender gap” in paragraph 2 refers to................__.

A. the visible space between men and women B. the difference in status between men and women

C. the social distance between the two sexes D. the social relationship between the two sexes

Question 28: Susan B. Anthony, Margaret Sanger, and Elizabeth Blackwell are mentioned as ................__.

A. American women with exceptional abilities B. American women who were more successful than men

C. pioneers in the fight for American women‟s rights D. American women who had greater opportunities

Question 29: The Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)................__.

A. was not officially approved B. changed the US Constitution

C. was brought into force in the 1960s D. supported employers, schools and clubs

Question 30: In the late 20th

century, some information about feminism in Britain was issued by................__.

A. the Equal Rights Amendment B. the Equal Pay Act of 1970

C. the Equal Opportunities Commission D. the Sex Discrimination Act

Question 31: Which of the following is true according to the passage?

A. The movement of feminism began in the US earlier than in Britain.

B. The women‟s liberation movement in the world first began in Britain.

C. The US movement of feminism became the most popular in the late 20th

century.

D. The British government passed laws to support women in the early 20th

century.

Question 32: The phrase “glass ceiling” in paragraph 4 mostly means................................_.

A. an imaginary barrier B. an overlooked problem

C. a ceiling made of glass D. a transparent frame

Question 33: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. There is now no sex discrimination in Britain and in the US.

B. Many American women still face the problem of household chores.

C. An American woman once had to fight for the chance to become a doctor.

D. British women now have much better employment opportunities.

Question 34: It can be inferred from the passage that.................................

A. the belief that sex discrimination should not exist is not popular in the US

B. women in Britain and the US still fight for their equal status and equal rights

C. the British government did not approve of the women‟s liberation movement

D. women do not have better employment opportunities despite their great efforts

Question 35: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?

A. Opportunities for Women Nowadays B. Women and the Right to Vote

C. The Suffragettes in British Society D. Feminism in Britain and the US


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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the

main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 36: A. future B. prospect C. guidance D. involve

Question 37: A. facilitate B. hydrology C. participate D. intimacy

Question 38: A. represent B. permanent C. continent D. sentiment

Question 39: A. romantic B. reduction C. popular D. financial

Question 40: A. optimist B. immediate C. fabulous D. accuracy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences

in the following questions.

Question 41: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot.

A. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much.

B. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour.

C. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved.

D. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most.

Question 42: He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet.

A. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me.

B. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it.

C. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me

D. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me.

Question 43: Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

A. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country.

B. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours.

C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours.

D. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours.

Question 44: His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.

A. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn‟t apply to that prestigious institution.

B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious institution.

C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.

D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious institution.

Question 45: Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately.

A. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit.

B. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit.

C. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits.

D. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately.


Question 46: “Why don‟t you sit down and................................?”

A. make yourself at peace B. make yourself at rest

C. make it your own home D. make yourself at home

Question 47: “You ................................have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”

A. wouldn‟t B. oughtn‟t C. needn‟t D. couldn‟t

Question 48: The Second World War................................in 1939.

A. brought about B. turned up C. broke out D. took out

Question 49: “We‟d better................__ if we want to get there in time.”

A. turn down B. speed up C. take up D. put down

Question 50: The temperature................................_takes place varies widely from material to material.

A. which melting B. at which melting C. at which they melt D. which they melt

Question 51: The village was................__ visible through the dense fog.

A. only B. barely C. mostly D. hard

Question 52: ................................ without animals and plants?


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A. What would life on earth be like B. How would life on earth be for

C. What will life on earth be like D. How will life on earth be like

Question 53: Harry: “Are you ready, Kate? There‟s not much time left.”

Kate: “Yes, just a minute. ................................!”

A. No longer B. I won‟t finish C. I‟d be OK D. I‟m coming

Question 54: “................................ you treat him, he‟ll help you. He‟s so tolerant.”

A. No matter how B. In addition to C. Even though D. As if

Question 55: I could not................_ the lecture at all. It was too difficult for me.

A. get along B. make off C. take in D. hold on

Question 56: I did not want to believe them, but in fact, ................__ was true

A. what they said B. what has said C. that they were said D. which they said

Question 57: “You‟ll recognize Jenny when you see her. She................__a red hat.”

A. will wear B. will be wearing C. wears D. is wearing

Question 58: Alfonso: “I had a really good time. Thanks for the lovely evening.”

Maria: “................__.”

A. I‟m glad you enjoyed it B. Yes, it‟s really good

C. Oh, that‟s right D. No, it‟s very kind of you

Question 59: This shirt is ................__that one.

A. as much expensive as B. not nearly as expensive as

C. a bit less expensive D. much far expensive than

Question 60: The sign “NO TRESPASSING” tells you................_”

A. not to photograph B. not to smoke C. not to enter D. not to approach

Question 61: Sue: “Can you help me with my essay?”

Robert: “................................”

A. Yes, I‟m afraid not. B. I think that, too. C. Not completely D. Why not?

Question 62: The instructor blew his whistle and................__.

A. off the runners were running B. off ran the runners

C. off were running the runners D. the runners run off

Question 63: She built a high wall round her garden................__.

A. to enable people not taking her fruit B. so that her fruit would be stolen

C. to prevent her fruit from being stolen D. in order that her fruit not be stolen

Question 64: Before I left for my summer camp, my mother told me to take warm clothes with me ................_ it was

cold.

A. despite B. in case C. so that D. whereas

Question 65: “Never be late for an interview,................................ you can‟t get the job.”

A. unless B. otherwise C. or so D. if not

Question 66: If it................ for the heavy storm, the accident would not have happened.

A. weren‟t B. hadn‟t been C. isn‟t D. were

Question 67: The sky was cloudy and foggy. We went to the beach, ................_.

A. however B. even though C. so D. yet

Question 68: He never lets anything................_ him and his weekend fishing trip.

A. come between B. come on C. come up D. come among

Question 69: Joan: “Our friends are coming.................__, Mike?”

Mike: “I‟m sorry, but I can‟t do it now.”

A. Shall you make some coffee, please B. Shall I make you like some coffee

C. Why don‟t we cook some coffee D. Would you mind making some coffee

Question 70: Our boss would rather................_ during the working hours.

A. us not chatting B. we didn‟t chat C. us not chat D. we don‟t chat

Read the following passage adapted from A. Briggs’ article on culture, Microsoft Student 2008, and mark the letter

A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 80.


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Culture is a word in common use with complex meanings, and is derived, like the term broadcasting, from the

treatment and care of the soil and of what grows on it. It is directly related to cultivation and the adjectives cultural and

cultured are part of the same verbal complex. A person of culture has identifiable attributes, among them a knowledge of

and interest in the arts, literature, and music. Yet the word culture does not refer solely to such knowledge and interest nor,

indeed, to education. At least from the 19th century onwards, under the influence of anthropologists and sociologists, the

word culture has come to be used generally both in the singular and the plural (cultures) to refer to a whole way of life of

people, including their customs, laws, conventions, and values.

Distinctions have consequently been drawn between primitive and advanced culture and cultures, between elite

and popular culture, between popular and mass culture, and most recently between national and global cultures.

Distinctions have been drawn too between culture and civilization; the latter is a word derived not, like culture or

agriculture, from the soil, but from the city. The two words are sometimes treated as synonymous. Yet this is misleading.

While civilization and barbarism are pitted against each other in what seems to be a perpetual behavioural pattern, the use

of the word culture has been strongly influenced by conceptions of evolution in the 19th

century and of development in

the 20th

century. Cultures evolve or develop. They are not static. They have twists and turns. Styles change. So do

fashions. There are cultural processes. What, for example, the word cultured means has changed substantially since the

study of classical (that is, Greek and Roman) literature, philosophy, and history ceased in the 20th

century to be central to

school and university education. No single alternative focus emerged, although with computers has come electronic

culture, affecting kinds of study, and most recently digital culture. As cultures express themselves in new forms not

everything gets better or more civilized.

The multiplicity of meanings attached to the word made and will make it difficult to define. There is no single,

unproblematic definition, although many attempts have been made to establish one. The only non-problematic definitions

go back to agricultural meaning (for example, cereal culture or strawberry culture) and medical meaning (for example,

bacterial culture or penicillin culture). Since in anthropology and sociology we also acknowledge culture clashes, culture

shock, and counter-culture, the range of reference is extremely wide.

Question 71: According to the passage, the word culture................_.

A. is related to the preparation and use of land for farming

B. develops from Greek and Roman literature and history

C. comes from a source that has not been identified

D. derives from the same root as civilization does

Question 72: It is stated in paragraph 1 that a cultured person................__.

A. has a job related to cultivation B. takes care of the soil and what grows on it

C. has knowledge of arts, literature, and music D. does a job relevant to education

Question 73: The author remarks that culture and civilization are the two words that................__.

A. share the same word formation pattern B. are both related to agriculture and cultivation

C. have nearly the same meaning D. do not develop from the same meaning

Question 74: It can be inferred from the passage that since the 20th

century.................................

A. schools and universities have not taught classical literature, philosophy, and history

B. classical literature, philosophy, and history have been considered as core subjects

C. classical literature, philosophy, and history have not been taught as compulsory subjects

D. all schools and universities have taught classical literature, philosophy, and history

Question 75: The word “attributes” in paragraph 1 most likely means.................................

A. aspects B. fields C. qualities D. skills

Question 76: The word “static” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by “................__”.

A. regular B. balanced C. unchanged D. dense

Question 77: Which of the following is NOT stated in the passage?

A. Anthropology and sociology have tried to limit the references to culture.

B. Distinctions have been drawn between culture and civilization.

C. The word culture can be used to refer to a whole way of life of people.

D. The use of the word culture has been changed since the 19th

century.

Question 78: It is difficult to give the definitions of the word culture EXCEPT for its.................................

A. agricultural and medical meanings B. historical and figurative meanings


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C. philosophical and historical meanings D. sociological and anthropological meanings

Question 79: Which of the following is NOT true about the word culture?

A. It is a word that cannot be defined. B. Its use has been considerably changed.

C. It differs from the word civilization. D. It evolves from agriculture.

Question 80: The passage mainly discusses.................................

A. the distinction between culture and civilization B. the figurative meanings of the word culture

C. the derivatives of the word culture D. the multiplicity of meanings of the word culture

**************************************************

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for

each of the blanks from 1 to 10.

Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (1)................................ it would be possible to set up a

“village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (2)................................ the water of Port Sudan in the Red

Sea. For 29 days, five men lived (3)................................ a depth of 40 feet. At a (4)................................ lower level,

another two divers stayed for a week in a smaller “house”. On returning to the surface, the men said that they had

experienced no difficulty in breathing and had (5)................................ many interesting scientific observations. The

captain of the party, Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of (6)................................ the seabed. He said that

some permanent stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide food for the growing

population of the world.

The divers in both “houses” spent most of their time (7)................................ the bottom of the sea. On four occasions,

they went down to 360 feet and observed many extraordinary (8)................................ of the marine life, some of which

had never been seen before. During their stay, Commander Cousteau and his divers reached a depth of 1,000 feet and

witnessed a gathering of an immense (9)................................ of crabs which numbered, perhaps, hundreds of millions.

They also found out that it was (10)................................ to move rapidly in the water in a special vessel known as a

“diving saucer”.

Question 1: A. what B. which C. whether D. how

Question 2: A. down B. underneath C. into D. below

Question 3: A. at B. from C. on D. in

Question 4: A. much B. more C. any D. some

Question 5: A. caught B. exercised C. made D. done

Question 6: A. cultivating B. growing C. transplanting D. implanting

Question 7: A. inquiring B. imploring C. exploring D. enquiring

Question 8: A. castes B. forms C. systems D. breeds

Question 9: A. herd B. flock C. pack D. school

Question 10: A. hardly B. capable C. possible D. able

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 11: (A) Even though the (B) extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided (C) not to cancel

their (D) climb.

Question 12: Bill was (A) about average in performance (B) in comparison (C) with other students in (D) his class.

Question 13: (A) Although smokers (B) are aware that smoking is harmful (C) to their health, they can‟t (D) get rid it.

Question 14: (A) Found in the 12th century, Oxford University (B) ranks (C) among the world‟s oldest (D) universities.

Question 15: The media (A) have produced live (B) covering of Michael Jackson‟s (C) fans around the world (D)

mourning for him.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the


Question 16: “Why don‟t you reply to the President‟s offer right now?” said Mary to her husband.


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A. Mary wondered why her husband didn‟t reply to the President‟s offer then.

B. Mary ordered her husband to reply to the President‟s offer right now.

C. Mary suggested that her husband should reply to the President‟s offer without delay.

D. Mary told her husband why he didn‟t reply to the President‟s offer then.

Question 17: The film didn‟t come up to my expectations.

A. The film was as good as I expected.

B. I expected the film to end more abruptly.

C. I expected the film to be more boring.

D. The film fell short of my expectations.

Question 18: There‟s no point in persuading Jane to change her mind.

A. It‟s possible for us to persuade Jane to change her mind.

B. No one wants Jane to change her mind because it‟s pointless.

C. Jane will change her mind though she doesn‟t want to.

D. It‟s useless to persuade Jane to change her mind.

Question 19: It doesn‟t matter to them which film they go to.

A. They don‟t mind which film they go to.

B. Whatever films are shown, they never see.

C. Which film they go to matters more than the cost.

D. They don‟t care about the cost of the films they see.

Question 20: “Please don‟t drive so fast, Tom,” said Lisa.

A. Lisa grumbled to Tom about driving slowly.

B. Lisa complained about Tom‟s driving too fast.

C. Lisa insisted on Tom‟s driving on.

D. Lisa pleaded with Tom not to drive too fast.

Question 21: He survived the operation thanks to the skilful surgeon.

A. Though the surgeon was skilful, he couldn‟t survive the operation.

B. He survived because he was a skilful surgeon.

C. There was no skilful surgeon, so he died.

D. He wouldn‟t have survived the operation without the skilful surgeon.

Question 22: James was the last to know about the change of schedule.

A. The last thing James knew was the change of schedule.

B. Everyone had heard about the change of schedule before James did.

C. At last James was able to know about the change of schedule.

D. Among the last people informed of the change of schedule was James.

Question 23: He talked about nothing except the weather.

A. He said that he had no interest in the weather.

B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.

C. He talked about everything including the weather.

D. He had nothing to say about the weather.

Question 24: Peter had very little money but managed to make ends meet.

A. Peter got by on very little money.

B. Peter found it hard to live on very little money.

C. Peter could hardly live on little money.

D. Having little money, Peter couldn‟t make ends meet.

Question 25: She said, “John, I‟ll show you round my city when you‟re here.”

A. She planned to show John round her city.

B. She organized a trip round her city for John.

C. She made a trip round her city with John.

D. She promised to show John round her city.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the

main stress in each of the following questions.


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Question 26: A. initial B. innocent C. impatient D. abnormal

Question 27: A. settle B. compose C. relate D. protect

Question 28: A. significant B. convenient C. fashionable D. traditional

Question 29: A. buffalo B. dinosaur C. elephant D. mosquito

Question 30: A. dictionary B. supervisor C. catastrophe D. agriculture


Question 31: I won‟t change my mind ................................ what you say.

A. no matter B. whether C. although D. because

Question 32: “I‟d rather you................................ home now.”

A. go B. gone C. went D. going

Question 33: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ................................ the changes in the market.

A. track about B. up with C. pace of D. touch with

Question 34: There was nothing they could do ................................ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken

down.

A. than B. but C. unless D. instead of

Question 35: Jane ................................ law for four years now at Harvard.

A. studied B. is studying C. studies D. has been studying

Question 36: – “How do you like your steak done?”

– “ .................................”

A. I don‟t like it much B. Very little C. Well done D. Very much

Question 37: Susan‟s doctor insists ................................ for a few days.

A. that she is resting B. her to rest C. her resting D. that she rest

Question 38: ................................ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.

A. No sooner had B. No longer has C. Not until had D. Hardly had

Question 39: “How many times have I told you ................................ football in the street?”

A. not to play B. not playing C. do not play D. not to have played

Question 40: We couldn‟t fly ................................ because all the tickets had been sold out.

A. economic B. economy C. economics D. economical

Question 41: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”

Laura: “................................”

A. Of course not. You bet! B. There‟s no doubt about it.

C. Well, that‟s very surprising. D. Yes, it‟s an absurd idea.

Question 42: Through an ................................, your letter was left unanswered.

A. overcharge B. overtime C. oversight D. overtone

Question 43: “Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ................................ excuses!”

A. making B. having C. doing D. taking

Question 44: John paid $2 for his meal, ................................ he had thought it would cost.

A. not as much B. less as C. not so much as D. not so many as

Question 45: – “Should we bring a lot of money on the trip?”

– “Yes. ................................ we decide to stay longer.”

A. Because B. So that C. In case D. Though

Question 46: My mother told me to ................................ for an electrician when her fan was out of order.

A. turn B. rent C. write D. send

Question 47: The United States consists of fifty states, ................................ has its own government.

A. each of that B. each of which C. hence each D. they each

Question 48: – “Don‟t fail to send your parents my regards.”

– “.................................”

A. Thanks, I will B. You‟re welcome C. Good idea, thanks D. It‟s my pleasure

Question 49: She had to hand in her notice ................................ advance when she decided to leave the job.

A. from B. to C. with D. in


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Question 50: He ................................ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. couldn‟t go B. should have gone C. must have gone D. didn‟t have to go

Question 51: The kitchen ................................ dirty because she has just cleaned it.

A. mustn‟t be B. can‟t be C. should be D. may be

Question 52: They didn‟t find ................................ in a foreign country.

A. it easy live B. it to live easy C. it easy to live D. easy to live

Question 53: Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”

Helen: “.................................”

A. You can say that again B. I‟d rather not

C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy‟s D. It‟s up to you

Question 54: There should be an international law against .................................

A. deforestation B. forestry C. reforestation D. afforestation

Question 55: – “Mum, I‟ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”

– “................................”

A. You are right. B. Good way! C. Oh, hard luck! D. Good job!

Question 56: “This library card will give you free access ................................ the Internet eight hours a day.”

A. in B. to C. on D. from

Question 57: Only when you grow up ................................ the truth.

A. do you know B. you will know C. you know D. will you know

Question 58: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ................................?”

A. do you B. don‟t you C. can‟t you D. will you

Question 59: “Don‟t worry. I have ................................ tire at the back of my car.”

A. other B. another C. the other D. others

Question 60: The forecast has revealed that the world‟s reserves of fossil fuel will have ................................ by 2015.

A. used off B. taken over C. caught up D. run out



Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment

surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature‟s provision is the oldest known subsistence strategy and

has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary

farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.

Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their numbers have

dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands. In higher

latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater

dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower

latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short,

the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence

societies.

Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the observation of

modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile.

While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance

from the camp. When the food in the area has become exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We

also notice seasonal migration patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between

the sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.

Question 61: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means .................................

A. adapting animals to suit a new working environment

B. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans

C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home

D. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home


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Question 62: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on .................................

A. nature‟s provision B. hunter-gatherers‟ tools

C. agricultural products D. farming methods

Question 63: The word “marginal” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to “................................”.

A. suburban B. abandoned C. disadvantaged D. forgotten

Question 64: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers .................................

A. have better food gathering from nature B. can free themselves from hunting

C. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing D. harvest shorter seasonal crops

Question 65: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a .................................

A. further understanding of modern subsistence societies

B. deeper insight into the dry-land farming

C. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments

D. further understanding of prehistoric times

Question 66: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to .................................

A. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow

B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops

C. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat

D. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found

Question 67: A typical feature of both modern and prehistoric hunter-gatherers is that .................................

A. they don‟t have a strong sense of community B. they don‟t have a healthy and balanced diet

C. they often change their living places D. they live in the forests for all their life

Question 68: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?

A. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.

B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.

C. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.

D. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.

Question 69: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share .................................

A. some patterns of behavior B. some restricted daily rules

C. only the way of duty division D. some methods of production

Question 70: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?

A. Evolution of Humans‟ Farming Methods B. A Brief History of Subsistence Farming

C. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move D. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies



Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times, made in 1936.

Charlie Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing him, happened to describe the

working conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured to the city to work on

automotive assembly lines. Within four or five years, these young men‟s health was destroyed by the stress of work in

the factories.

The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp.

Abruptly, the film shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory. However, the

rather bitter note of criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentle note of satire. Chaplin

prefers to entertain rather than lecture.

Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most

pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin

vainly trying to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his mind in the process. Another popular

scene involves an automatic feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need not interrupt their labor

to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions, hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped in his position on the assembly line

and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people‟s utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve

their basic needs.

Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a social context. It does


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not offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of many who feel they are victims of an

over-mechanised world.

Question 71: According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from .................................

A. a newspaper B. a conversation C. fieldwork D. a movie

Question 72: The young farm boys went to the city because they were .................................

A. driven out of their sheep farm B. attracted by the prospect of a better life

C. promised better accommodation D. forced to leave their sheep farm

Question 73: The phrase “jostling one another” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to “................................”.

A. running against each other B. pushing one another

C. hurrying up together D. jogging side by side

Question 74: According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended .................................

A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers B. to give the setting for the entire plot later

C. to produce a tacit association D. to introduce the main characters of the film

Question 75: The word “vainly” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “................................”.

A. effortlessly B. hopelessly C. carelessly D. recklessly

Question 76: The word “This” in the fourth paragraph refers to .................................

A. the scene of the malfunction of the feeding machine

B. the malfunction of the twentieth-century technology

C. the scene of an assembly line in operation

D. the situation of young workers in a factory

Question 77: According to the author, about two-thirds of Modern Times .................................

A. was shot outside a factory B. entertains the audience most

C. is rather discouraging D. is more critical than the rest

Question 78: The author refers to all of the following notions to describe Modern Times EXCEPT “................................”.

A. satire B. criticism C. entertainment D. revolution

Question 79: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The author does not consider Modern Times as a perfect film.

B. In Modern Times, the factory workers‟ basic needs are well met.

C. Modern Times depicts the over-mechanised world from a social viewpoint.

D. The working conditions in the car factories of the 1930s were very stressful.

Question 80: The passage was written to .................................

A. discuss the disadvantages of technology B. explain Chaplin‟s style of acting

C. review one of Chaplin‟s popular films D. criticize the factory system of the 1930s

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