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Final Sample Exam of FPGEE Sep. 2011
1. Composition of Lent Insulin is:
a. 70% crystalline and 30% Amorphous b. 30% Crystalline and 70% Amorphous c. 20% Crystalline and 80% Amorphous d. Rhombohedral crystals in zinc solution
2. Tyrosine is a precursor for all of the followings EXCEPT: a. Thyroid Hormone b. Dopamine c. 5-HT d. Nor-Epinephrine
3. Statistical significant clinical studies are mostly based on:
.a Standard Deviation b. Chi Square
c.Null Hypothesis
d.Data Range
4. Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock becauseit: I selectively dilate renal and mesenteric vascular beds. II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction. III decreases the force of myocardial contraction. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III
5. Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers'Diarrhea, which might
have been prescribed for SM include: I doxycycline. II cotrimoxazole. III amoxicillin. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III
6. The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tabletsfor a migraine
patient. Appropriate information to provide to thepatient includes which of the
following? a. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine
may be used. b. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated. c. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later,
sumatriptan may be used for the second headache. d. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets. e. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.
7. What is the prevalence ratio if 27 people in a population of 500 were affected by a disease and only 17 got reported? a. 17/27
b. 17/ 500
c. 27/ 500
d. 27/17
8. Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects? a. Calcium carbonate b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Calcium sulfate e. Aluminum silicate
9. Potassium-sparing diuretics: I exert their effect in the proximal tubule. II may cause intracellular alkalosis. III include the aldosterone antagonists. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III
10. White Petrolatum is an ointment base which can be classified as:
a. Absorption Base
b. Emulsion Base
c. Oleaginous Base
d. Water Soluble Base
11. The ethical principle of veracity requires that: a. we respect the rights of others to make choices. b. we act with honesty, without deception. c. we avoid, remove or prevent harm. d. we do good to patients. e. we act with fairness.
12. First dose syncope is associated with:
I. Terazosin
II. Clonidine
III. Dobutamine
a. I only b. III only
c. I & II only
.d II & III only
13. In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is includedas: a. an antioxidant. b. a chelator. c. a solubilizer. d. a cosolvent. e. an emulsifier.
14. Biceps muscles are part of: I the arm. II the thigh. III the rib cage. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III
15. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tabletformulation? a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet. b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily. c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution. d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst. e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.
16. Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture? a. Deliquescence b. Efflorescence c. Hygroscopicity d. Polymorphism e. Condensation
17. If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction ofthe drug would
be ionized at pH 8.4? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50%
d. 90% e. 100%
18. All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of aparenteral
product are correct, EXCEPT: a. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials. b. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature. c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass. d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution. e. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.
19. In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tensionachieved in a
blood vessel wall to: I the length of the vessel. II the radius of vessel. III the intraluminal pressure. a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III
20. Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, ifthe drug: a. is basic. b. is protein bound. c. is acidic but not protein bound. d. has a small volume of distribution. e. has a large volume of distribution.
21. Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result fromreactions
of: a. glutathione conjugates. b. glucuronide conjugates. c. glycine conjugates. d. glutamate conjugates. e. sulfate conjugates.
22. Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the: a. calcium ion channel. b. sodium ion channel. c. potassium ion channel. d. chloride ion channel. e. nicotinic ion channel.
23. Carbon monoxide binds to: I hemoglobin. II myoglobin. III cytochrome oxidase.
a. I only b. III only c. I and II only d. II and III only e. I, II and III
24. Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinicantagonists
which are esters of tropic acid and which contain: a. aniline and piperidine rings. b. aniline and piperazine rings. c. aniline and pyrrolidine rings. d. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings. e. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.
25. it contains about twice the caffeine found in coffee beans:
a. Linseed b. Kava kava c. Guarana d. Yew Plant e. Squill Root
26. Which Gene that involved in Breast Cancer:
a. BRCA-1
b. OSCB
c. CADG
d. EDRR
e. WERG
27. Pus contain all of the followings EXCEPT:
a. Dead Bacteria b. Living Bacteria c. Neutrophils d. Platelets e. Macrophages
28. Osteoarthritis can caused by which of the followings:
I. Estrogen Deficiency II. Diabetes III. Gout a. I only b. III only c. I and II only
d. II and III only e. I, II and III
29. TSH Test can be used for which of the followings:
a. Diagnose a thyroid disorder in a person with symptoms b. Screen newborns for an underactive thyroid c. Monitor thyroid replacement therapy in people with hypothyroidism d. Diagnose and monitor female infertility problems e. All of the above
30. Which of the following plants act as Benzodiazepines:
a. Kava Kava b. Strychnus nux vomica c. Black Cohosh d. Atropa Beladona e. Senna
31. According to this figure which of the following is correct:
a. This mean that Flomak should taken daily b. The medication error that Flomak can taken 4 times daily c. The right medication that Flomak administer 4 times daily d. The medication error that Flomak should taken IV e. The medication error that Flomak should taken twice daily
32. For Management of patient with GERD:
a. Raise head while sleeping b. Avoid Algnic acid in antacid preparations as it increase GERD
complications c. Use Caffeinated products and Chocolate as they decrease Reflux of
Esophagus d. A and b e. A and C
33. False positive result of anabolic steroid test can present with:
a. Cholesterol b. Aldosterone c. Spironolactone d. Valsartan e. All of the above
34. Alprostadil is:
I. PG E-1 Analogue
II. PG E-1 Analogue III. Isomer of Dinoprost I only b. III only c. I and II only d. I and III only e. II and III only
35. Substitute of Aminoglycosides with Fluroquinolones is called ….
a. Therapeutic Substitution b. Chemical Substitution c. Generic Substitution d. Clinical Substitution e. Statistical Substitution
36. ……. usually involves only a small number of people to determine if a drug or treatment is safe, and to determine the best dose of a drug and how it should be given (whether orally or intravenously).
a. Phase 3 Clinical Trial b. Phase 2 Clinical Trial c. Phase 1 Clinical Trial d. Post-Marketing Clinical Trial e. None of The above
37. …. Is coded through MDR1 Gene and always its presence allow presence of CYT-P3A4 in elimination of Xenobiotics.
a. MHC b. APC c. P-Glycoprotein d. Mitochondria e. Golgi Bodies
38. ….. is a type of Phase II Metabolism
a. Sulphonation b. Hydrolysis c. Oxidation d. Reduction e. All of the above
39. When a decreased activity of ……. is reported, we advise to lower the
mercaptopurine dose and, in the case of a complete deficiency, use of an alternative immunosuppressive therapy is recommended. During mercaptopurine therapy a full blood count has to be carried out at regular intervals to avoid leukopenia or pancytopenia.
a. TPMT b. NMDA c. Cyt-P450 d. Thiol Deficiency e. None of the above
40. Azathioprine used as ……
a. Anticancer b. Anti-Gout c. Immunosuppressant d. NSAIDs e. Alkaloidal antipyretic
41. The following structure of a drug that used for ….
a. Antibiotic b. Anti-hyperlipidemic c. Oral hypoglycemic d. Antiplatelet e. NSAIDs
42. According to the following structures Phenobarbitone (a) has longer
duration of action than Secobarbitone (b) due to
(a) (b)
a. Side chain double bond in structure (b) increase metabolism than structure (a)
b. Phenyl group at Structure (a) increase lipophilicity of compound than structure (b)
c. Structure (a) is enzyme inhibitor and structure (b) enzyme inducer d. Methyl groups in structure (b) side chain increase compound
metabolism than structure (a) e. Phenyl group at structure (a) increase Resonance so allow
metabolism to delayed in CYT 3A4
43. All of the following are right about Histamine EXCEPT: a. Endogenous substance
b. Natural Hormone c. Release in hypersensitivity d. Bind with Immunoglobulin e. Has peripheral and central action on the body
44. Valerian is a herbal drug that used as
a. Sedative b. Anxiolytic c. Antidepressant d. A and b e. B and c
45. One of valproic acid side effect is: a. Pancreatitis b. Nephrotoxicity c. Blindness d. Pulmonary Embolism e. Internal hemorrhage
46. Patient with blood pressure 160/83 can use:
a. Antihypertensive monotherapy b. Antihypertensive combination c. Central acting antihypertensive d. Non pharmacological management e. All of the above
47. Is the most important enzyme in DNA replication that help in
elongation of complementary strands a. DNA gyrase b. DNA Ligase c. DNA Polymerase d. DNA Primase e. DNA Topoisomerase
48. A patient who is receiving TPN is started on propofol by continuous
infusion. Which of the following statements about the patient’s lipid emulsion requirements is true?
a. They will be decreased. b. They will be unchanged. c. They will be increased. d. They will be at steady state e. There is insufficient information to determine whether or how they
will change.
49. What would be total calories provided by TPN mixture containing 1200cc D5W, 1000cc of 10% aminoacids, 100cc of 5% alcohol and 300cc of 20% fat emulsion ?
a. 560 calories b. 356 calories
c. 1232 calories d. 460 calories e. 1457 calories
50. This Figure shows which of the following :
a. Lineweaver-Burk Plots b. Eadie-Hofstee transformation c. Michaelis-Menten equation d. Enzyme Kinetics in a reaction e. All of the above
51. Which Diuretic of choice in case of CHF
a. Furosemide b. Acetazolamide c. Spironolactone d. Captopril e. Losartan
52. Drug that converts atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm:
a. Atropine b. Verapamil c. Procainamide d. Quinidine e. Nitroglycerine
53. The first sign that appears after MI about 24h:
a. Arrhythmia b. CHF c. Angina d. Dyspnea e. WPW
54. Which word indicates to empathy:
a. I b. You c. We d. Me e. None of the above
55. The most drug that cause itching:
a. Chloropheniramine b. Penicillin c. Morphine d. Verapamil e. Ezitimib
56. For clostridium therapy we can use:
a. Vancomycine b. Fluroquinolone c. Cefixitine d. Tobramycin e. Amoxicillin
57. The most drug that cause obesity:
a. Amitryptyline b. Gabapentin c. Oxazepam d. Orlistate e. All of the above
58. Which drug acts on NMDA receptor:
a. Glycine b. GABA c. Aspartate d. Nitric Oxide e. 5-HT
59. The least antihypertensive drug that causes erectile dysfunction:
a. Clonidine b. Metoprolol c. Prazocine d. Nitroglycerine e. Alprostadil
60. Which of the followings correct about BPH:
a. worsen with anticholinergic b. cause urine discontinuous c. can be treated with Tolterodine d. A and B e. B and C
61. Which of the followings correct about Myasthenia gravis:
a. autoimmune disease b. Cholinergic deficiency disease c. Treated with Anticholinergic d. A and B e. B and C
62. Which of the following is wrong about Biotech Antibodies:
a. Polyclonal Antibody can recognize multiple epitopes on any one antigen but Monoclonal Antibody detect only one epitope on the antigen.
b. Compared to polyclonal antibodies, homogeneity of monoclonal antibodies is very high.
c. Polyclonal are made up mainly of IgG subclass
d. Polyclonal produce large amount of non-specific antibodies but monoclonal produce large amount of specific antibodies
e. Polyclonal Antibodies are expensive in their production but monoclonal are inexpensive.
63. Osteoarthritis can be treated by:
a. Methotrexate Sulphate b. Flicanide with 5-ASA c. Hyaluronic acid and Glucosamine d. Osteobind e. None of the above
64. Most bioenergetic source in human body is:
a. DNA b. Triglyceride c. Polysaccharides d. Albumin e. Peptidoglycon
65. All of the followings are correct about Latanoprost EXCEPT:
a. is an eye medication used to treat glaucoma and ocular hypertension
b. benzalkonium chloride can provoke Lantoprost's side effects. c. dry, burning, itchy or watery eyes are most common side effect of
Latanoprost d. Lantanoprost is available as an eye drop e. It is PGE2 alpha analogue
66. Celecoxib is not:
a. a sulfa non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug b. used in the treatment of osteoarthritis c. Legend drug d. connect to cox1 by covalent bond e. Cox2 selective inhibitor
67. Which of the followings is the most drug that cause bronchospasm: a. Aspirin b. Clonidine c. Aspartate d. Alendronate e. Phynlizine
68. Which dose of aspirin is recommended for antiplatelet:
a. 1 gm b. 325 mg c. 81 mg d. 250 mg e. 125 mg
69. Patient take citalopram for 2 weeks , he did not feel better what should
you do : a. May visit a compounding pharmacy where his or her prescription
may be re-arranged into progressively smaller dosages.
b. May switch to Prozac (Fluoxetine) when discontinuing Citalopram.
c. Increase Citalopram Dose
d. A and B
e. B and C
70. Which of the following parasite can cause fuel stool:
a. Leishmania
b. Toxoplasma
c. Giardia
d. Shictosoma
e. Trypanosome
71. Which of the followings is the most drug that cause Bleeding:
a. Alcohol
b. Rodenticide
c. Acarbose
d. Insulin
e. Verapamil
72. Lead poisinous inside the city most common through:
a. Ingestion
b. Inhalation
c. Skin contact
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
73. Is an eye disorder in which the optic nerve suffers damage,
permanently damaging vision in the affected eye(s) and progressing to
complete blindness if untreated.
a. Cataract
b. Glaucoma
c. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
d. Ocular Hypertension
e. None of the above
74. For treatment of Extrapyramidal effect symptoms we can use:
a. Curare
b. Atropine
c. Physostigmine
d. Aniline
e. Strychnine
75. Causes of Parkinsonism is:
a. Dopamine Increase
b. Serotonin increase
c. Acetyl choline increase
d. Epinephrine increase
e. GABA decrease
76. Captopril cause severe cough due to
a. Increase alpha amylase enzyme
b. Inhibit acetyl choline esterase enzyme
c. Increase bradykinine levels in blood
d. Act as ACE analogue
e. None of the above
77. All of the followings are correct about symptoms of hypoglycemia
EXCEPT:
a. Palpitations
b. Anxiety
c. Dyspepsia
d. Nausea
e. Impaired judgment
78. All of the followings are correct about side effects of hydralazine
EXCEPT:
a. Vitamin B6 deficiency
b. Nausea or vomiting
c. Depression
d. Diarrhea
e. Compensatory bradycardia due to baroreceptor reflex
79. Margin cost of dispense:
a. overhead cost
b. variable cost per prescription
c. cost of product
d. cannot used for calculate differential analysis
e. all of the above
80. The vast majority of Rh disease is preventable in modern antenatal
care by:
a. injections of Ig G anti-D antibodies
b. injections of Ig M anti-D antibodies
c. injections of Ig A anti-D antibodies
d. injections of Ig E anti-D antibodies
e. injections of Ig D anti-D antibodies
Dr.Yayooo
(Dr.Yasser)
First FPGEE Online Lecturer Unique Egyptian Syndicate Lecturer for all Foreign Pharmacy Boards
www.dryayooo.myfreeforum.org
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011-20-102445747
