XAT Mock_Questions 1

7/30/2019 XAT Mock_Questions 1

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Test Booklet No. 7 7 1 5 5 9

Time: 120 minutes

Name: ___________________________________________

Enrollment ID: ___________________________________________

INSTRUCTIONS

1. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2. This booklet contains 36 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the booklet, verify that

all the pages are printed properly.

3. Fill in the information required in the answer sheet. Your test may not be evaluated if the required details are

not entered on the answer sheet.

4. Do not seek clarification on any item in the test booklet from anyone including the test invigilator or the

centre supervisor. Use your best judgement.

5. This booklet consists of three sections A, B and C with 34, 24 and 43 questions respectively, i.e.,

a total of 101 questions. If there is a problem with your test booklet, inform the invigilator/

supervisor immediately. You will be provided with a replacement.

6. Questions in each section have been allotted different marks(s), which are indicated on the right

hand side of each question. You are required to answer questions from all sections and expected to

maximize scores in each section.

7. Each question has five alternatives. Answer each question by darkening the appropriate alternative letter

against the question number on the answer sheet. For example, if your answer to question number 1 is B,

darken fully the circle B against question1.

8. All answer are to be marked only on the OMR answer sheet. Use the margin in the test booklet for rough

work. No other piece of paper is permitted to be used for rough work.

9. Use only HB pencil for marking answers on the OMR answer sheet.

10. NEGATIVE MARKS (one fourth of the mark(s) allotted for each question) may be deducted for

answering incorrectly any particular question.

11. Failure to follow instructions and examination norms will lead to disqualification.

To open the test booklet, insert a pencil beneath this page and tear along the right side of the test

booklet as indicated by the arrow at the bottom of the page.

PLEASE WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO OPEN THE TEST BOOKLET.

BEST OF LUCK!

MOCK XAT

MCT-0004/11


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MOCK XAT Page1

Section A - Verbal Ability And Logical Reasoning

Read the following discussion / passage and provide an appropriate answer for the questions 1 through

4 that follow.

Eliyahu Goldratts The Goal: The Process of Ongoing Improvementwas first printed in 1984. Ever since it was

published the book has sold more than one million copies. Goldratts business model is based on two principles.The first principle defines three ways to measure whether or not businesses are achieving the goal of making

money. These three measurements are interrelated and easy enough to apply to any process. The three measurements

are throughput, or the rate at which the system generates money through sales; inventory, or all the money that

the system has invested in purchasing things that it intends to sell; and operation expense, or all the money the

system spend in order to turn inventory into throughput. The second principle of Goldratts model relates dependent

events and statistical fluctuations to the manufacturing process.Dependent eventsare processes that must first

take place before other ones can begin . An example would be a car assembly line. Before the engine is put into the

car, the frame must be finished and the steering wheel cannot be attached until the steering column is put into place,

and so on. Statistical fluctuations occur when one is unable to precisely predict events or quantities. The book

presents an excellent example illustrating this principle. Alex and Jonah sit in a restaurant and Jonah points out that

they are able to precisely predict the capacity of the restaurant by counting the available seats. On the other hand,

they are unable to predict how long the waiter will need to fulfill their order. This uncertainty is referred to as

statistical fluctuations.

Using these two principles we are able to apply them to the traditional business model. This model relies on

forecasting and efficiencies. In this system, it is constantly the goal to reduce cost of production and keep processes

running at maximum efficiency. In many cases, this model is on a microlevel because it accounts for specific areas

of the system instead of focusing on the entire system. For example, it is most efficient to have every worker and all

machines running constantly at 100%. If this is the case, a company gets the most out of their investment in the labor

force. Companies realize that 100% is a utopian figure and scale it to an acceptable range of 85% to 95%. This

efficiency rating is then used to forecast how long it will take for processes to occur and a production schedule can

be determined. Oftentimes this schedule is inaccurate and companies miss out on opportunities to make money.

Instead of focusing on the actual capacity of the entire system, capacities are determined for individual stages,

limiting the companys ability to make money. The business model illustrated in The Goal: A Process of Ongoing

Improvementcan remedy this situation. In 1992, Goldratt titled his model the Theory of Constraints (TOC) after

a book he wrote with the same title. It suggests that companies should scale their entire production to the process

within the system with the lowest capacity; the bottlenecks. This will make the system appear less efficient, because

areas in the factory may stay idle if they have a much higher capacity than bottleneck areas. However, implementing

this approach will directly add to the bottom line. The Theory of Constraints uses dependent events and statistical

fluctuations as its base. Using the three measurements, we can see why limiting production to traditionally inefficient

rates actually increases the bottom line. The starting point to understand this concept is throughput. Every time

throughput increases, the companys sales increase, which directly adds to the bottom line. Throughput can onlyincrease if the area of lowest capacity increases its rate of throughput. Running areas of the factory that have higher

capacities at 100% will not increase the overall throughput of the system, and sales do not increase. The measure

that increases is inventory, because the factory produces parts that cannot be assembled into finished goods until

the area of lowest capacity produces enough parts. Inventory is an investment of money and thus subtracts from

the bottom line. Keeping large amounts of inventory will further subtract from the bottom line, because warehouse

space is costly. Lastly, running every worker and machine at 100% seems efficient but does not help the bottom

line by reducing operational expense. The worker has been paid regardless if he or she works at all times. Machines


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Page2 MOCK XAT

have also been obtained and operational expense does not decrease when the highest efficiency rating is reached.

In fact, running every machine at 100% can increase operational expense for machines, because they lose lifetime

hours and consume energy. Every machine/worker must adjust its throughput to the throughput of the area with

lowest capacity. This assures that operational expense and inventory stay at a desirably low figure. In fact, Goldratt

suggests that this is the most efficient way to run any manufacturing business, regardless of what the percent-

efficiency rating is of any area.

1. A manufacturing business using the Theory of Constraints in its operations is unlikely to focus on

A. Reducing operational expenses.

B. Ensuring every machine runs at maximum efficiency.

C. Sales at the expense of lowering the efficiency of some workers.

D. Adding to the bottom line of the firm.

E. Bottlenecks in the production process. (2 Marks)

2. Which of the following can be best defended as essential for the Theory of Constraints to work in a business?

A. A management bent on maximizing the return from their investment in the labor force.

B. Low efficiency of machine/workers.C. Clearly defined processes.

D. The ability to exactly forecast demand for finished products.

E. Large amounts of inventory. (2 Marks)

3. Based on the above passage, which of the following statements is best justified?

A. Instead of the traditional approach of starting with whether a business is making money or not, TOC

concentrates on improving the production processes by removing bottlenecks.

B. The Theory of Constraints eschews production schedules and instead depends on precisely predicting

events and quantities.

C. Goldratts TOC concentrates on scaling the entire production to the process with the lowest capacity.D. Goldratts model concentrates on bringing up the efficiency of processes that can be characterized as

dependent events and leaves statistical fluctuations to be dealt with by traditional forecasting.

E. The Theory of Constraints concentrates on determining capacities for individual stages instead of focusing

on the capacity of the entire system thereby ensuring that the labor and machinery in a business work

efficiently. (1 Mark)

4. What could be the best defence for limiting production to traditionally inefficient rates?

A. TOC concentrates only on specific areas with low capacity in the factory and not on the system as a

whole.

B. This way there will always be enough inventory to meet unpredictable demand.C. Operational expense is not the primary concern of TOC which concentrates on increasing sales.

D. The Theory of Constraints factors in both dependent events and statistical fluctuations.

E. The throughput of the system is determined by the rate of throughput at the area with the lowest capacity

in the factory. (2 Marks)


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MOCK XAT Page3

5. Much of our discussion with Churchland relates to the problem of so-called qualia the _______ irreducible

subjective components of experience which have been for many years a ________ for new research in

cognitive science and philosophy an orthodoxy that has been _________ recently for using qualia as a

________ term that has itself not been adequately analyzed.

The option that best fills the blanks in the above sentence would be:

A. necessarily, metaphor, praised, stoic

B. vanishingly, stumble, upheld, blunt

C. admittedly, marker , championed, subtle

D. supposedly, touchstone, challenged, totemic

E. decidedly, prop, lauded, potent (1 Mark)

6. We then looked at valuations of these companies and zeroed in ______ companies whose price earnings

multiple was less _______twenty-five; to add to our comfort, we also checked ______ the revenue and

earnings growth for the past three years.


A. for, to, on

B. for, to, at

C. on, to, at

D. on, than, on

E. at, than, on (1 Mark)

7. _____ you have a doubt or not, its always advisable to ferret _____ pertinent research papers when

tackling a new project _____your own risk.


A. If, out, for

B. Whether, out, at

C. Whether, for, on

D. If, for, at

E. Whether, for, at (1 Mark)

8. Pick the odd one out:

A. restrain: releaseB. circumscribe: allow

C. control: liberate

D. circumspect: indiscreet

E. upbraid: praise (1 Mark)


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Page4 MOCK XAT

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for questions 9 and 10:

The use of this work, honoured with a precedent in Aristotle, is nothing less than to give contentment to the appetite

of curious and vain wits, as the manner of Mirabilaries is to do; but for two reasons, both of great weight: the one

to correct the partiality of axioms and opinions, which are commonly framed only upon common and familiar

examples; the other because from the wonders of Nature is the nearest intelligence and passage towards the

wonders of art, for it is no more but by following and, as it were, hounding Nature in her wanderings, to be able to

lead her afterwards to the same place again. Neither am I of opinion, in this history of marvels, that superstitious

narrations of sorceries, witchcrafts, dreams, divinations, and the like, where there is an assurance and clear evidence

of the fact, be altogether excluded. For it is not yet known in what cases and how far effects attributed to

superstition do participate of natural causes; and, therefore, howsoever the practice of such things is to be condemned,

yet from the speculation and consideration of them light may be taken, not only for the discerning of the offences,

but for the further disclosing of Nature. Neither ought a man to make scruple of entering into these things for

inquisition of truth, as your Majesty hath showed in your own example, who, with the two clear eyes of religion and

natural philosophy, have looked deeply and wisely into these shadows, and yet proved yourself to be of the nature

of the sun, which passeth through pollutions and itself remains as pure as before. But this I hold fit, that these

narrations, which have mixture with superstition, be sorted by themselves, and not to be mingled with the narrations

which are merely and sincerely natural. But as for the narrations touching the prodigies and miracles of religions,they are either not true or not natural; and, therefore, impertinent for the story of Nature.

9. From the passage, which of the following can be inferred about authors viewpoint regarding the work of art

discussed?

A. Wonders of art cannot be conceived without the wonders of Nature.

B. Wonders of art are nearest to the wonders of Nature.

C. Nature might disclose itself in the supernatural yet the latter shouldnt be used to reveal the former in a

work of art.

D. Intelligence is closest to Nature but is rare in Art.E. Effects of Nature on the supernatural are partially known. (2 Marks)

10. Which of the following is the author of the passage mainly concerned with?

A. Presenting a defence of the work of art with respect to its use of supernatural details.

B. Pointing out the negatives in a work of art

C. Stating two positive perspectives of looking at the book or work of art

D. Presenting an argument about the role of supernatural in Nature

E. Condemning the use of supernatural in the book (3 Marks)


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MOCK XAT Page5

Analyse the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

The rule that a theory which contradicts experience must be excluded from science and replaced by a better theory

was invented by Aristotle. It was repeated emphatically by Newton, and it plays an important role in the methodology

of modern sciences. However this rule is simply dogma since there is not a single theory that is in agreement with all

the facts in its domain.

11. To which of the following statements would the author of the passage agree the most?

A. To say that theory A is better than theory B is to overlook the fact that different theories operate in

different domains.

B. The fitness of a theory is determined by the number of real life applications it gives rise to.

C. Ancient Greek thought laid the foundations of modern science.

D. A theory is only as good as the number of facts it can successfully explain and any theory A that explains

more facts and situations than theory B, including the facts and situations explained by theory B, should

replace theory B.

E. No scientific theory A should replace an older theory B just because the older theory contradicts certain

experiences that theory B does not. (2 Marks)

12. Which of the following statements, if true, challenges the idea presented in the passage the most?

A. To say that theory A is better than theory B is to overlook the fact that different theories operate in

different domains.

B. The fitness of a theory is determined by the number of real life applications it gives rise to.

C. Ancient Greek thought laid the foundations of modern science.

D. A theory is only as good as the number of facts it can successfully explain and any theory A that explains

more facts and situations than theory B, including the facts and situations explained by theory B, should

replace theory B.

E. No scientific theory A should replace an older theory B just because the older theory contradicts certain

experiences that theory B does not. (2 Marks)

13. The prime problem encountered by all materialist, determinist and self-interest theories, including selfish

gene theories, is one of explaining, or even ________, apparent instances of spontaneity, creativity and

altruism; the moment they are encountered, they are _______, transubstantiated into some other phenomenon

than that which our senses witnessed and our minds ________ them to be; they are translated from what

our experience says they are into something _______ with materialist preconceptions and the unfathomably

complex is reduced to the readily comprehensible.


A. exempting, acknowledged, dreamt, categorized

B. acknowledging, whisked away, judged, consistent

C. testing, rooted for, felt, inconsistent

D. proving, suspect, wanted, incompatible

E. innovating, changed, desired, replete (1 Mark)


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Page6 MOCK XAT

14. Perceptions depend on the worldview of a person. The worldview is the result of arranging perceptions into

images by imagination.

Assuming the above statement to be true, which of the statements logically follows from it?

I. To understand a persons worldview, we need to take his/her perceptions into account.

II. Every image is a consequence of our perception.

III. Imagination is required to develop a worldview.

IV. Even if there is a limit to the number of perceptions one can have, ones imagination is not limited.

A. I

B. I, IV

C. I, III & IV

D. I, III

E. I, II, III & IV (1 Mark)

15. Sociologists claim that the importance of parental connection in the early years has been hyped. Until now

the popular notion was that if children do not spend the first three years of their lives in close contact withtheir parents their development suffers considerably. But experts now contend that children are resilient and

continue to develop throughout their lives.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the sociologists argument?

A. Eighty-five percent of children who live in orphanages since birth grow up to be well-adjusted, outgoing

adults later in life.

B. Researchers, who have examined the life histories of children who have grown up to be well-balanced

adults despite many challenges in their lives, consistently find that the majority have had a stable, supportive

relationship with at least one parent throughout their lives.

C. Some child prodigies were cared for by people other than their parents when they were babies.

D. Children are known to forget bad experiences as their cognitive abilities are not completely developed

when they are young.

E. Children need to develop close connections during the first few years of their lives in order to grow up to

be well-balanced individuals. ( 1 Mark)

16. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the sociologists argument presented in the previous

question?

A. Eighty-five percent of children who live in orphanages since birth grow up to be well-adjusted, outgoing

adults later in life.

B. Researchers, who have examined the life histories of children who have grown up to be well-balanced

adults despite many challenges in their lives, consistently find that the majority have had a stable, supportive

relationship with at least one parent throughout their lives.

C. Some child prodigies were cared for by people other than their parents when they were babies.

D. Children are known to forget bad experiences as their cognitive abilities are not completely developed

when they are young.

E. Children need to develop close connections during the first few years of their lives in order to grow up to

be well-balanced individuals. (1 Mark)


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MOCK XAT Page7

17. The secondary definitions of words used in texts add weight and circumstance to the matter dealt with, but

only by extension of their manifold implications over the entire text and allows little circumstantial evidence to

assess the implication of a singular usage of a word.

The above statement implies the following except: (2 Marks)

A. A word can be used to imply different things within the same text.

B. The secondary definitions of words used in a text can help in interpreting the text.

C. Secondary definitions of words used in a text do not indicate the subject matter of the text.

D. In some cases, the implications of a particular word used in a text need to be examined in relation to the

entire text rather than in isolation.

E. It is possible to interpret the use of secondary definitions of words in a text by referring to the entire text.

18. A wine shop owner finds that patrons spend more money in his store when classical music rather than recent

hits are played in the background. The owner stocks up on more items in every price range and also starts

playing classical tracks in his shop.

Which of the following statements, if true, points to an oversight in the owners strategy?

A. Patrons spend more time in the store when classical tracks are played than when recent hits are played.B. Patrons in a specific age group are less responsive to classical tracks.

C. Patrons buy more expensive wines when classical tracks are played, but the total number of items

bought decreases.

D. The majority of patrons frequent the store because of the range of products available there.

E. Consumers have different tastes in classical music. (1 Mark)

19. While he had no _______ understanding the motivations of the _______rebels violently reacting to the

______ of the politician, he did feel a ______ at the heartstrings for the blissful days there was no going

back to.


A. telic, tenebrose, tug, triptych

B. trouble, truculent, truisms, tug

C. tryst, tenue, tilth, tith

D. trouble, torpid, tonant, tow

E. tryst, turgid, tourbillon, tug (1 Mark)

20. He ________ up the witness through careful questioning and made him contradict his own story. The

witness had previously tried to ____ his statement somewhat to show himself in a favorable light, but now he

had to _____ out the truth.


A. trotted, trip, trip

B. tinged, trot, truss

C. trotted, tinge, trust

D. tripped, tinge, trot

E. tied, trip, trust (2 Marks)


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21. Few sentences are given below continuously. Identify the best sequence of punctuations among the given

options. (The rule of capitalization has been ignored in the passage given below). Note: the arrows in the

options indicate text that would be within the punctuations.

the greater the reliance on pre-capitalist economic relations then the more successful capitalism is in raising

the rate of surplus value let us note that if the process of relying on household production were carried to its

limit the value of variable capital would disappear and with it wage labor

A. , . . , , , .

B. , , . , , .

C. : , - , . .

D. , , . : .

E. , , . ; . (1 Mark)

22. My parents wished to _________ me from taking up the project, but realising that my mind was made up

ceased to ____________


A. convince, persuade

B. dissuade, remonstrate

C. persuade, dissuade

D. prevent, hamper

E. reason, interfere (1 Mark)

23. Choose the odd one:

A. Half a bubble off plumb: Children in an amusement park.

B. Square deal: Legal contract.

C. Run a make on: Tracking a suspect

D. Haul over the coals: Speed up a process

E. In the bag: Cinch a business deal (2 Marks)

24. Read the following sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

I. If we are concerned about others on the basis of a conscientious desire to do our duty or adhere to

certain moral principles, then our concern for them is mediated by moral thinking, and someone, therefore,

who cares about the welfare of others without having to rely on or be guided by explicit moral principles

(or thinking) is more connected with those others than someone who acts only on the basis of suchmediating principles (or thought).

II. So the ethic of care or caring stresses connection with others both in what it says about the normative

basis of morality and in what it says about the ways in which moral goodness shows itself within a

morally good life; and by the same token, traditional Kantian or contractarian views of rights and justice

give a double importance to separateness or autonomy from others through the grounds they adduce

for moral/political obligation and the stress they place on being guided by moral principles or judgments

within the moral life.


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III. In an ethic of care, therefore, caring is treated as a natural virtue in Humes sense, but this further

highlights the way in which such an ethic involves us in connection with, rather than separateness from,

other people.

IV. The ethic of justice and rights tells us to regulate our actions or lives in accordance with certain general

moral principles (or explicitly moral insights), whereas the ethic of care stresses the good of a concern

for the welfare of others that is unmediated by principles, rules, or judgments that tell us that we ought

to be concerned about their welfare.

A. I, II, IV, III

B. IV, III, I, II

C. III, IV, I, II

D. I, IV, III, II

E. IV, II, III, I (2 Marks)

25. Read the following sentences and choose the option that best arranges them in a logical order.

I. But Jana Kobzova, an analyst at the European Council on Foreign Relations, said she thought the no

vote would make eurosceptic politicians in other countries less willing to rock the boat in future ballots.

II. In an ill-tempered press conference following Tuesday nights vote, she railed at the irresponsible and

populist politics of the SaS, which she said had failed to realise that we are a small and export-

oriented economy, and we need partners around us.

III. The big question analysts are now asking is whether Slovakias disobedience will become contagious,

emboldening other eurozone parliaments to follow its lead and say no next time the bailout mechanism

the European financial stability facility needs another cash injection.

IV. The soon-to-be-ex-prime minister, Iveta Radicova, was in no doubt that it was the SaS party, a member

of her own ruling coalition, that had sabotaged the bill and caused the government to collapse.

V. Raoul Ruparel, an economist at Open Europe, a thinktank campaigning for reform of the EU, said:

Even if Slovakias no vote becomes a yes vote by the end of the week, I do think it will encourage

those countries that have already expressed their reservations about the lack of control over the guaranteesthey have offered the Netherlands, Finland, Germany and Austria in particular to be more vocal in

the future.

VI. The SaS are the losers in this. The vote will go through without them later, but they will lose their place

in government, she said. Politicians in other countries may be more wary of following their lead lest

they too lose their jobs.

A. IV, VI, II, III, I, V

B. V, VI, III, II, I, IV

C. IV, II, III, V, I, VI.

D. III, I, VI, V, IV, II

E. I, IV, III, II, V, VI (2 Marks)


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26. When polled about their opinion of global warming, only 34 percent of the members of the T party believed

that it is happening. Political commentators now caution that if the next president of the nation is elected from

the T party, there will be no progress in the dealing with the issue of global warming.

The political commentators argument above is based on which of the following assumptions?

A. The country had introduced some measures to curb global warming in the past.

B. The T party is becoming more popular with the voters and their candidate has a good chance of becoming

president.

C. Members of the T party on the whole do not consider global warming to be an important election issue.

D. The presidential candidate from the T party will endorse the views of the majority of party members.

E. There are no rival factions within the party. (1 Mark)

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 27 and 28 that follow

it.

Steven SverdliksMotive and Rightness is an impressive and wide-ranging treatment of an important but relatively

under-explored question: Can the motive of an action affect its deontic status? (That is to say, does an actionsmotive ever determine whether that action is right or wrong?) According to Sverdlik, the answer is yes:Motives

matter.

Motives Matter (MM): There is an action X such that if X were performed from one motive it would fall into one

deontic category and if X were performed from another motive it would fall into a second deontic category in virtue

of this difference in motives.

In addition to defending the claim that motives matter, Sverdlik is also interested in figuring out which substantive

moral theory can provide the most plausible explanation of the deontic relevance of motives. His conclusion is

that extrinsic consequentialism (about which more below) does the best job of providing the desired explanation.

Consideration of this explanatory question makes up the bulk of the book (Chs. 3-7), with the first two chapters

introducing terms and examples, and the last two chapters answering additional questions that arise along the way.

So.Do motives matter? Thinkers as diverse as Aristotle, Kant, and Mill have given (or implied) negative answers,

but typically without providing much of an argument . And it does seem that an argument is needed, since almost

everyone will grant that there are plenty of moral judgments (e.g., judgments about a persons character) that can be

affected by motives. So why not moral judgments about an actions deontic status? Moreover, there are some

motives including malice, racism, and the desire for money that do seem capable of making a difference to

the deontic status of actions. For example (55-58), it seems that a racist motive might make refusing to shake

someones hand wrong when otherwise it wouldnt be. (We dont, however, want to say that motives always [or

even typically] matter, because we want our conceptions of obligation, permissibility, and wrongness to be mostly

objective.)27. Which of the following is most likely to be the source of this passage.

A. A book review

B. A treatise on philosophy

C. A newspaper editorial.

D. A debate on Do motives matter?

E. An interview (1 Mark)


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MOCK XAT Page11

28. Which of the following is most likely to be the authors reply to the question Do motives matter?

A. Not at all; what is more important is the consequence rather than the motive of the action.

B. The answer cannot be arrived at as the author is only commenting on somebody elses opinion.

C. They might, as there are certain motives which seem to influence whether the action is right or wrong.

D. They always do as moral judgements are always affected by motives.

E. Motives cannot be defined. (2 Marks)

29. The Hawthorne effect has become a term referring to the tendency of some people to work harder and

perform better when they are participants in an experiment; behavior is changed due to the attention subjects

receive from the researchers, rather than because of any manipulation in dependent variables. In the clinical

trial setting, the effect may be defined as the additional clinical response that results from increased attention

provided by participation in the clinical trial. And in fact, improvement in rheumatoid arthritis clinical trials is

often greater than improvement seen in the clinic. Interestingly, follow-up clinical trials consistently show

durability of response. A recent study presented at this years American College of Rheumatology annual

scientific meeting in Atlanta examined 264 rheumatoid arthritis patients, the goal to assess the effect, if any,

of the Hawthorne effect, and whether the results of clinical trials are upwardly biased by this phenomenon.

As for the results, it was found that all study measures improved during the trial, and worsened thereafter.

These measures included assessments of activities of daily living, pain and fatigue. The Health Assessment

Questionnaire score improved by 41.3% during the trial, but only by 16.5% when the endpoint was the

post-trial result. Likewise, pain improved by 51.7% during the trial, and by 39.7% at the post-trial time

point; the respective percentages for fatigue were 45.6% and 24.6%. By way of conclusion the authors of

the study found that significant improvement noted in the clinical trial disappeared upon entry to a non-

sponsored follow-up study. Such changes are apparently due to the Hawthorne effect.

Identify the statement that is logically consistent with the contents of the paragraph

A. Participation in a clinical trial can often lead to short-term improvements in the patients condition due to

the attention and empathy she/he receives from her/his fellow sufferers.B. The values of patient reported rheumatoid arthritis outcome variables in clinical trials are usually upwardly

biased; the effect of treatment is actually less than is observed and subsequently disseminated in articles

in journals and interviews in the media.

C. Patients tend to underreport improvements in their condition to ensure that they continue to receive close

attention from researchers.

D. Problems with the health assessment questionnaire used in the first clinical trial could have led to the

anomalous responses from patients.

E. In the context of the clinical trial, there was tangible improvement in the pain tolerance of patients due to

the Hawthorne effect. (3 Marks)


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Page12 MOCK XAT

Answer questions 30 and 31 on the basis of the following conversation between two friends, Stake (S)

and Blurb (B).

S: This world we call it, not without justifiable pathos, for many other worlds are conceivable and if discovered

might prove more rational and intelligible and more akin to the soul than this strange universe which man has

hitherto always looked upon with increasing astonishment. The materials of experience are no sooner in hand than

they are transformed by intelligence, reduced to those permanent presences, those natures and relations, which

alone can live in discourse. Those materials, rearranged into the abstract summaries we call history or science, or

pieced out into the reconstructions and extensions we call poetry or religion, furnish us with ideas of as many dream

worlds as we please, many different and some conflicting each other, but all nearer to reality than is the actual chaos

of perceptual experience, and some nearer to the hearts desire.

B:All genuine questions must have one true answer and one only, all the rest being necessarily errors; in the second

place, that there must be a dependable path towards the discovery of these truths; in the third place, that the true

answers, when found, must necessarily be compatible with one another and form a single whole, for one truth

cannot be incompatible with another-this we know a priori. We are doomed to choose, and every choice may

entail an irreparable loss.

30. Which of the following statements is Blurb most likely to object to?

i. Dream worlds can be closer to reality than actual perceptual experience.

ii. The materials of experience are reduced to permanent presences and it is only these presences that can

live in discourse.

iii. Poetry and religion are not likely to represent reality as reliably as concrete perceptual experience can.

iv. The ideas of dream worlds we create can conflict each other, but these ideas can be close to reality.

v. Discourse is incompatible with truth since discourse mostly involves reconstructing natures and relations

derived from experience.

A. iv only

B. iii and vC. i and v

D. i, ii and iv

E. i, ii and iii (2 Marks)

31. Which of the following statements is logically consistent with Stakes views above?

A. It is necessary that reality conform to our desires since it is through our experiences that our desires are

created and thereby our sense of what is real.

B. The more rational a world, the closer it must be to reality.

C. Perceptual experience cannot contribute to a conceptualization of reality in its various manifestations.D. Dream worlds can serve as tools for conceptualizing reality since they do not incorporate raw perceptual

experience.

E. The universe humans inhabit is contiguous with the human soul. (2 Marks)


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Answer questions 32 to 34 on the basis of the information below.

Five reviews of the recently published self-help bookHow to Win Friends and Influence People in the Digital

Age are reproduced below. The reviews and the reviewers are identified as indicated by the numbers.

A. Although its been 75 years since Carnegies landmark How To Win Friends and Influence People was

published, his approach to communication is still relevant today. In this new book, readers are advised to

consider the listener before speaking and to avoid criticism, condemnation, and complaint. Integrity is essential,

and its important for one to admit wrongdoing or wrong speaking. Unlike most other self-help books, this

updated book offers easy-to-employ strategies for lasting, productive progress in conversations as well as

collaborations in business or personal life.

B. How to Win Friends and Influence People in the Digital Age, like others of its ilk, perpetuates the idea

of choosing who we want to be not considering that the imperative to become yourself has begun to work

against us, making us more anxious and more acquisitive rather than giving us more freedom.

C. Filled with sentences like Todays biggest enemy of lasting influence is the sector of both personal and

corporate musing that concerns itself with the art of creating impressions without consulting the science of

need ascertainment, this unfortunate revision and updating of the Carnegie book is a big step backward

a step you can avoid making by buying the original book, which is actually very readable, whereas thisnew version is so full of managerial jargon that its incomprehensible to the ordinary reader.

D. Three-quarters of a century after the original,How to Win Friends and Influence People in the Digital

Agehas hit the shelves. Out goes much of the old advice on how to impress and befriend people with face-

to-face interaction or letters. Instead there is advice on how bloggers should interact with their readers and

a caution about how celebrities mishandle their public wrongdoings. There is heavy and sometimes unnecessary

use of managerial jargon. But that aside, this is a well-researched, informative book.

E. Dale Carnegies commonsense approach to communicating has endured for a century, touching millions

and millions of readers. The only diploma that hangs in Warren Buffetts office is his certificate from Dale

Carnegie Training. Lee Iacocca credits Carnegie for giving him the courage to speak in public.Dilbert

creator Scott Adams called Carnegies teachings life-changing.

32. According to some concerned authors, self-help books are no longer objectively appraised these days.

For reviewers, the quality of a book does not matter anymore; its the works belonging to a certain genre

that seals its fate in the reviewers book. Based on the reviews given, which reviewer is most likely to have

objectively reviewed the book without being swayed by preconceived notions about the genre it belongs to?

(1 Mark)

33. Out of the five reviews, which one bases itself on an assumption about the sort of readership the book will

attract? (1 Mark)

34. Which reviewer eulogizes the author rather than critically review the book? (1 Mark)


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Section B - Analytical Reasoning and Decision Making

Answer question nos. 35 to 37 based on the following information.

Ontongs Express Pizza Delivery Service guarantees delivery of hot pizzas within 45 minutes of placing the order,

failing which they offer the order for free. After an order is placed it takes exactly 20 minutes for the order to get

ready for delivery. A pizza delivery boy has to deliver orders of six people Arjun, Boman, Crystal, Dhiraj,

Ekansh and Fiza all of whom placed an order at the same time. The delivery boy travels on a bike at an uniform

speed of 30 km/hr and it takes him exactly 2 minutes to deliver the pizza and complete the transaction at each

persons place. There are no other factors which can affect the average travelling speed of the delivery boy.

The table given below shows the distance (in km) between the places of the six people. E.g. distance between the

places of Arjun and Boman is 3 km.

Arjun Boman Crystal Dhiraj Ekansh Fiza

Arjun 0 3 7 1 8 5

Boman 3 0 4 5 2 7

Crystal 7 4 0 4 7 2

Dhiraj 1 5 4 0 6 3

Ekansh 8 2 7 6 0 4

Fiza 5 7 2 3 4 0

The table given below shows the distance (in km) between the Delivery Unit and the places of the six people.

Arjun Boman Crystal Dhiraj Ekansh Fiza

Delivery Unit 3 2 3 4 4 1

35. If the delivery boy takes the shortest possible route, covering all the six places, then how many of the six

people will get their order for free?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

E. 0 (3 Marks)

36. The delivery boy goes to Ekanshs place immediately after going to Dhirajs place. Also, the road connecting

the places of Arjun and Dhiraj is blocked. What is the minimum time taken by the delivery boy to deliver

pizzas at all the six places and reach back the Delivery Unit?

A. 42 minutes

B. 54 minutes

C. 48 minutes

D. 50 minutes

E. 62 minutes (3 Marks)


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MOCK XAT Page15

37. If Arjun is the first person and Ekansh the last person among the six to receive the order, then what is the

minimum time taken by the delivery boy to deliver pizzas at all the six places and reach back the Delivery

Unit?

A. 50 minutes

B. 54 minutes

C. 62 minutes

D. 48 minutesE. None of these (2 Marks)

Answer question nos. 38 and 39 based on the following information.

Akshay, Bindu, Chandar, Divya, Ekta, Fatima, Giri and Harsil are eight people who form four distinct husband-

wife couples. Akshay, Bindu and Chandar are males while Divya, Ekta and Fatima are females. The couples

arrived at a party in a certain order, and no two couples arrived at the same time.

It is also known that:

I. Bindu came before both Ekta and Fatima.

II. Chandar came after both Akshay and Fatima.

III. Divya came after Giri.38. If Harsil and Giri form a couple, then how many of the following statements cannot be true?

(i) Fatima is married to Akshay.

(ii) Divya came after Fatima.

(iii) Ekta doesnt belong to the couple that was the last to arrive.

(iv) Harsil came after Bindu.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. All the four statements (1 Mark)

39. If Akshay came before Bindu, then which two people among the given options cannot form a couple?

A. Akshay and Harsil

B. Fatima and Harsil

C. Chandar and Ekta

D. Bindu and Divya

E. More than one of the above (1 Mark)


Udanabad is a small country in which just four cities have an Airport Mumbhai, Punhe, Dehli and Kohlkata and

flights operate on all six distinct direct routes Mumbhai-Punhe, Punhe-Kohlkata etc. There are five airlines Air-

1, Air-2, Air-3, Air-4 and Air-5 in the country. None of the five airlines operates on all the six direct routes. At

least one airline operates on each direct route. It is also known that:

(i) Air-1 connects Mumbhai with exactly two other cities directly. It operates on the maximum number of direct

routes among the five airlines.

(ii) Each airline, except Air-3, has operations in all the four cities. Air-3 operates on exactly three direct routes

which dont include the Mumbhai-Kohlkata route.


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(iii) Air-2 connects each city with exactly two other cities directly. It doesnt operate on the direct route between

Mumbhai and Kohlkata.

(iv) Air-4 and Air-5 operate on an equal number of direct routes. No other pair of airlines operate on an equal

number of direct routes. Air-4 operates on Mumbhai-Dehli route and Air-5 operates on Dehli-Kohlkata

route.

40. Air-2 doesnt operate on which of the following direct routes?

A. Mumbhai-Dehli

B. Punhe-Dehli

C. Dehli-Kohlkata

D. Punhe-Kohlkata

E. None of the above (2 Marks)

41. Exactly three airlines operate on the Dehli-Kohlkata direct route. The number of airlines operating on the

Mumbhai-Dehli direct route is not the highest among the six routes. Among the given options, on which

direct route is the number of operating airlines different from the rest three routes?

A. Mumbhai-Dehli

B. Dehli-KohlkataC. Punhe-Kohlkata

D. Punhe-Dehli

E. It is same for all the four pairs (3 Marks)

42. The number of airlines operating on Mumbhai-Dehli direct route is equal to that on Punhe-Dehli direct route.

On which of the following direct routes is the number of operating airlines more than three?

A. Punhe-Kohlkata

B. Dehli-Kohlkata

C. Mumbhai-Punhe

D. Mumbhai-Dehli

E. More than one of the above (3 Marks)


Eight candidates Apurv, Ekansh, Biloza, Rajat, Neeru, Preeti, Sharad, and Hasan applied for a job at KPL

Ltd. Not all of them got selected for the job.

The selection process had three rounds and three questions were asked in each round. A candidate had to compulsorily

answer all nine questions. Each correct answer fetched a candidate 3 points and each incorrect answer resulted in

a penalty of 1 point. The score of a candidate in a round is the sum of the points obtained in that round. The final

scores of the eight candidates at the end of the three rounds are shown in the table given below.

Candidate Apurv Ekansh Biloza Rajat Neeru Preeti Sharad Hasan

Total Score 15 19 11 15 11 19 15 11

It is also known that:

(i) No two candidates had the same break-up of scores for three rounds. E.g. if candidate X scored 15 points

as 5+1+9, then no other candidate scored 15 points as 5+1+9 or 1+5+9 etc. Somebody else scoring

15 points must have scored as 5+5+5 or 93+9 etc.

(ii) None of the three scores (of three different rounds) of Apurv was equal to any of the three scores of Preeti.

(iii) It can be said with certainty by looking at the score break-up of all the candidates that Neeru and a particular

candidate scored equal points in two of the three rounds.


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MOCK XAT Page17

(iv) The sum of the scores of Biloza and a particular candidate was the same in all three rounds.

(v) Rajat answered all the questions correctly in exactly one round.

43. If the candidates who got a negative score in any of the three rounds were rejected, then who among the

following were definitely rejected?

A. Biloza and Neeru

B. Biloza and HasanC. Apurv and Neeru

D. Hasan and Sharad

E. Preeti and Sharad (2 Marks)

44. If the candidates who answered all three questions correctly in at least one of the three rounds were selected,

then who among the following could have been rejected?

A. Apurv and Neeru

B. Neeru and Hasan

C. Rajat and Sharad

D. Ekansh and Preeti

E. Biloza and Neeru (2 Marks)

45. Who answered all three questions correctly in two of the three rounds?

A. Preeti

B. Biloza

C. Sharad

D. Rajat

E. Both (A) and (C) (1 Mark)


Five countries India, Pakistan, Australia, Kenya and England participated in a Cricket tournament. Eachcountry played exactly two matches against each of the other four countries. A match between two countries was

never played in a third country. E.g. An India-Pakistan match could be played in either India or Pakistan but not in

Australia, Kenya or any other country. It is also known that:

(i) Kenya did not play both the matches against any country at home (in Kenya).

(ii) India and England were the only countries who played both the matches against exactly two countries at

home.

(iii) One of the India-Kenya matches was played in Kenya.

(iv) Both the Pakistan-Kenya matches were played in Pakistan.

(v) The two India-Australia matches were played in two different countries.

46. There were exactly five pairs of teams between whom the two matches were played in two different countries.

If exactly three matches were played in Kenya, then what was the number of matches played in Pakistan?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

E. None of these (2 Marks)


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Additional information for questions 47 and 48: Exactly four matches were played in England. The number of

matches played in the five countries were five consecutive integers.

47. How many pairs of teams were there between whom the two matches were played in two different countries?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 6D. 5

E. 4 (3 Marks)

48. How many matches were played in Australia?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 6D. 2

E. None of these (1 Mark)

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Questions 49-52):

For right or wrong reasons, Company XYZ always made the headlines in the financial dailies and business magazinesduring the late 1990s. The company was headed by the 60 year old managing director Mr. Preston. He was

popularly known as a turnaround specialist and had successfully turned around many sick companies within the

XYZ group. By the end of financial year 1999, XYZ managed to report rising profits for four consecutive yearsafter incurring its first ever loss of Rs 420 million in 1995. However, by the third quarter ended September 30,

2000, Preston was a worried man.

XYZ was once again on the downward path. The companys nine months net profits of Rs 105.5 million in 2000was substantially lower than the Rs 209.8 million recorded in 1999. Its staff costs of Rs 1.29 million (23% of net

sales) was also higher as compared to Rs 1.18 million incurred in the previous year. In September 2000, XYZ washeading towards a major labour dispute as XYZ Mazdoor Union had requested the West Bengal government to

intervene in what it considered to be a major downsizing exercise.

The company provided employment to over 15,000 people in its manufacturing and sales operations throughoutIndia. However, throughout its history, XYZ was plagued by perennial labor problems with frequent strikes and

lockouts at its manufacturing facilities. The company incurred huge employee expenses (22% of net sales in 1999).

A Competitor was far more cost-effective with salaries of its 5,000 strong workforce comprising just 5% of itsturnover. When the company was in the red in 1995 for the first time, XYZ restructured the entire board and sent

in a team headed by Preston. Soon after he stepped in several changes were made in the management.

Indians, who held key positions in top management, were replaced with expatriates and Preston took over asmanaging director. They made several key changes, including a complete overhaul of the companys operations

and key departments.

Within two months of Preston taking over, XYZ decided to sell its headquarter building in Calcutta for

Rs 195 million, in a bid to stem losses. The company shifted wholesale, planning & distribution, and the commercial

department to XYZnagar, despite opposition from the trade unions. The management team implemented a massiverevamping exercise in which more than 250 managers and their juniors were asked to quit.

49. Profits may return, but honor is difficult to regain. was a line constantly repeated as trade union members

in all locations of XYZ threatened to go on strike. What was the best course of action for Preston?


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MOCK XAT Page19

A. Ignore the trade union members as there was no legally binding agreement between the company and the

union.

B. Withdraw his decision to shift specific departments to XYZnagar and call back the employees who were

asked to quit.

C. Enter into negotiations with the trade union members and draw up a long-term bipartite agreement with

them.

D. Enter into a discussion with the trade union members and agree to take back workers if they provide a

guarantee on performance.

E. Enter into a discussion with the trade union members and work on convincing them of the validity of your

decision. (3 Marks)

50. Considering the low performance of XYZ in 2000, the groups international management has decided to

replace Mr. Preston with someone less controversial. This decision can be said to be

A. Incorrect, because Mr. Preston has helped turnaround the groups performance in the years that he has

been heading it.

B. Correct, because Mr. Preston lacks an understanding of the Indian work culture and ethic.

C. Correct, because Mr. Preston has shown favouritism in the appointment of managers in higher positions.

D. Incorrect, because Mr. Preston has been an unbiased leader and no one can replace his charismaticpersonality.

E. Incorrect, because Mr. Preston is the only one who can stand his ground against the trade union.

(2 Marks)

51. However, throughout its history, XYZ was plagued by perennial labor problems with frequent strikes and

lockouts at its manufacturing facilities. This could be a result of:

1. A strong but not well-enforced resources and labour relations policy.

2. A weak human resources and labour relations policy.

3. A strong labour union and weak management.

4. The decision to move the wholesale planning and distribution to XYZnagar.

A. Only 1B. Only 2

C. Both 1 and 2

D. 1, 2 and 3

E. All of the given statements. (3 Marks)

52. Given the information in the caselet, how could the restructuring of the board been better handled?

A. Communication of the decisions to the employees use of a softer approach and more time given to

implementing the decision.

B. Communication of problems with employees followed by a participatory approach in decision making.

C. Use of a mediator who would convey the managerial decisions to the trade union workers.D. Hiring of an external human resources consultant to share the managerial decisions with the employees

and ensure implementation.

E. Hiring of an external human resources consultant to help initiate an organizational development process

and introduce change. (2 Marks)


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The CFO of a large oil & gas company contacted the VP-HR because of a significant increase in employeecomplaints, particularly related to harassment and wrongful termination. In addition, the VP-HR himself wasconcerned about the increasing amount of turnover at several sites, which reportedly had been fueled by inappropriatebehavior on the part of field hands. Initial investigations revealed that there were a large number of inexperiencedsupervisors who had been promoted solely because of turnover, a clear lack of awareness of harassment/discrimination laws and of appropriate offensive behavior response strategies, and the absence of effective screeningduring the hiring and promotion process.

53. What is the immediate course of action for the VP-HR to take?

A. Issue a warning to employees against whom complaints have been received.B. Start work on a more effective hiring and promotion mechanism, train the present supervisors and warn

those who have behaved inappropriately.C. Work on tackling each issue by first understanding the existing liability, developing a risk management

system to close gaps and prevent future liabilities.D. Hire an external consultant to further study the issues and present an action plan.E. Follow a carrot-and-stick approach punish offenders and reward good performers. (1 Mark)

54. Assuming that nonsupervisory employees often work 12 hour shifts, what would be the best way that anAppropriate Workplace Behaviour training could be imparted to them?

A. Ask the employees to come in on a weekend and schedule the training programme during this time.B. Schedule a 20-day training programme during which the employees would be expected to stay an extra

hour after work for their training.C. Introduce an in-house training programme that would be conducted over a period of 15-days every six

months.D. Introduce an easily accessible training programme whose modules could be accessed online/through

video; with follow up done by HR.E. Take the employees on a 10-day outbound trip and include a team building process along with the

training programme. (2 Marks)


Company X has decided to go in for a change in its organization structure and with that a change in the culture.Preliminary studies have shown that the organization and its employees are fast approaching a stagnation point anda way to move forward is towards change. Informal news of this change has been making the rounds of theorganisation for many months most of the speculation has been negative and rumours are that downsizing will bethe first outcome. Human Resources (HR) feels that it is time to do something about this level of speculation as it iscreating an unhealthy environment and distrustful employees.

55. What should HR do? Choose the option that puts together the courses of action in the most logical manner.1. Employees given a road map of the entire change process.2. Senior management to decide upon the rate and degree of change the organization can absorb.3. Road map of change the processes involved and timelines to be drawn up.4. Identification of the gaps that exist and need to be filled before a major organizational change.5. Scheduling a comprehensive employee development programme to handle the change.

A. 24351B. 24315C. 42315D. 42351

E. 43215 (3 Marks)


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MOCK XAT Page21

56. Given the information in the caselet and the inferences you can make from it, which of the following equationwould be the best to ensure a smooth transition? (> would mean greater/more important)

A. Number of employees before change< Number of employees after changeB. Number of employees before change> Number of employees after changeC. Timely News = Credible News.D. News from media > news from management.E. News from management > News from the media. (2 Marks)

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Question 57):

A pharmaceutical company has called in a consultant for conflict resolution. The company has traditionally seenconflict between the Research & Development (R&D) department and the Finance department. R&D feels thatFinance is too stuck on systems and procedures and needs to cut some slack for special circumstances and duringemergencies. Finance does not trust R&D. They feel the department takes things too easy and does not workenough to justify the funds that they continually ask for. This has created a difficult work environment with executivesfrom both departments refusing to cooperate with each other and the managers playing their own political game.The consultant has put down a list of problems after his preliminary discussion with both departments.

1. Unclear or inadequate administrative procedures

2. Inadequate people resources3. Uncertain project schedules4. Conflicting responsibilities5. Conflicting goals and priorities.

57. Addressing which three of the problems listed above would resolve the conflict described in the passage?

A. 1, 2 and 3B. 2, 3 and 5C. 1, 4 and 5D. 2, 3 and 5E. 3, 4 and 5 (2 Marks)

Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative (Question 58):Vivek Chandra is the Director of a large Indian NGO. Chandra has been heading the NGO for the last two yearsand has managed to establish himself as a caring and jovial boss. Of late, though there have been disturbingbehavioral changes lapses of silence, anger and frustration. Chandra had recently lost a member of his family andthe staff felt that this was his coping mechanism. They assured themselves that soon he would be back to being hisold self. However, in the last month his behavior has only worsened. There have been disagreements with theGoverning Board followed by angry outbursts. But the most disturbing fact is that a day ago Chandra was founddrinking in his office. The Board was immediately informed.

58. The Governing Board has taken this as a very serious offence and is considering action. Which of thesewould be the best course?

A. Call for a meeting without Chandra and unanimously vote for him to leave.B. Call an emergency meeting and ask Chandra to take an immediate leave of absence until a further

decision can be taken.C. Call for a psychologist to counsel Chandra in his office and hope that he recovers immediately.D. Speak to the staff, gather evidence of Chandras misdemeanors so it can be presented as a case against

his continuance as Director.E. Understand Chandras predicament and tell him that you will support him as long as he does not drink in

office anymore. (1 Mark)


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59. 501 different letters are placed inside 501 different envelopes. If for every letter there is a corresponding

pre-addressed envelope, what is the probability that exactly 4 out of these 501 letters are placed incorrectly?

A.

5014C 12

501!

B.501

4C 10

501!

C.501

4C 9

501!

D.501

4C 18

501!


Answer questions nos. 60 to 62 based on the following information.

The Air Force of a country called Ladakabad maintains two air bases one at Jambala and the other at Dagra.

Each squadron at either air base consists of 12 fighter jets and it embarks on an operation only at full strength.

During a war an air base can be used in any of the two modes Attack Mode or Defence Mode. In Attack Mode

a squadron can fly over enemy territory continuously for 8 hours while in Defence mode a squadron can fly over its

own territory continuously for 12 hours. After flying continuously for 8/12 hours (called a flight) a squadron takes

replenishment for fighter jets lost during the combat.

The table given below shows the observations made during a war that took place between Ladakabad and itsneighbouring country Jhagdalupur in the year 2010. Covered Area under Attack Mode indicates the percentage

territory of Jhagdalupur attacked by one squadron during its flight while under Defence Mode it indicates the

percentage territory of Ladakabad defended by one squadron during its flight. Fighters Jets lost indicates the

percentage of fighter jets lost per squadron per flight duringthe war.

Attack

Mode

Defence

Mode

Attack

Mode

Defence

Mode

Covered Area (Percentage territory per Squadron) 8.33% 10.00% 4.00% 12.50%

Fighters Jets lost (Per Squadron per flight) 33.33% 25.00% 25.00% 8.33%

Jambala Dagra

60. At some point during the war, for a period of 24 hours, the entire enemy terrritory (Jhagdalupur) was under

attack while the entire territory of Ladakabad was also being defended at the same time by the two air

bases. The number of fighter jets lost by the two air bases during this period was at least

A. 144

B. 104

Section C - Data Interpretation and Quantitative Ability


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MOCK XAT Page23

C. 128

D. 120

E. 160 (3 Marks)

61. At some point during the war, for a period of 48 hours, five squadrons from Jambala and the rest from Dagra

air base were continuously defending the entire territory of Ladakabad. If no squadrons from either Jambala

or Dagra air base were attacking the enemy during these 48 hours, what was the number of fighter jets lost

by the two air bases during this period?

A. 66

B. 76

C. 90

D. 102

E. 112 (2 Marks)

62. During the war, Dagra air base was damaged completely and could not be used any further. Thirty squadrons

were still available at Jambala air base. For how many more hours would Jambala air base be able to defend

the entire territory of Ladakabad?

A. 108 hours

B. 120 hours

C. 90 hours

D. 96 hours


63. The sum of the digits of a number is subtracted from the number itself. The result lies between 275 to 300.

How many such numbers are possible?

A. 12

B. 18

C. 20

D. 27


64. Mr. Meter was going from Kashmir to Kanyakumari by his car. When he started his journey the odometer

of his car showed a reading of 00000 km. On the way Mr. Meter realized that the odometer of his car was

not functioning properly and displayed in between 4 and 5 (i.e. after 34, first it showed 3 and then 35).

Odometer of the car at the end of journey showed a reading of 0095 km. Find the distance traveled by Mr.

Meter during the entire journey.

A. 1149 kmB. 594 km

C. 1171 km

D. 1271 km

E. 716 km (1 Mark)


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65. A hacker is trying to steal highly confidential information from the Department of Defense system that uses a

nine step security process. Security at each level of the system can be bypassed by entering a numeric

sequence whose sum is equal to the number of that security level. A traitor has informed the hacker that the

desired numeric sequence only consisted of digits 1 or 2 and security levels are numbered 1 to 9. The

numeric sequence to each level is unique. What is the maximum possible number of attempts that will take

for the hacker to break the security of all the levels?

A. 55B. 89

C. 512

D. 256

E. 142 (3 Marks)

66. Peculiarities of Chalata- Firata tribe are: neither an outsider can enter nor a resident can leave the tribe and

no one dies unless he/she is killed by someone else in the tribe. There are exactly seven beggars in the tribe.

Three of them are notorious criminals and killers; they rob and kill those who give alms to at least one of

them on the same day. Rubbagubba, a resident of the tribe, gives alms to exactly three of the seven beggars

on 23rd of a month. What is the probability that Rubbagubba would not be alive on 24th of the month if there

is no other killer in the tribe except the three?

A.4

35

B.7

35

C.9

35

D.18

35

E.31

35(1 Mark)


In Andher Nagri, only three different newspapers HT, ET and Hindu are in circulation. The people of Andher

Nagri read newspapers as per the distribution pattern shown in the following bar charts. The data set given below

is for the year 2009 only.

A Read HT only B Read ET only C Read Hindu only D Read HT and ET both

E Read HT and

Hindu both

F Read ET and

Hindu both

G Read all three

newspapers


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MOCK XAT Page25

Women

40%

15%12%

15%

23%

15%

10%

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

A B C D E F G

Me n

20%25%

20%19%

12%14%

5%

0

5

10

15

20

25

30

35

40

45

A B C D E F G

In the year 2009, all the people living in Andher Nagri read newspaper(s) and nobody bought two copies of thesame newspaper.

67. If the number of men who read all the three newspapers was double the number of women who read at least

two newspapers and the total number of women in Andher Nagri in 2009 was 1,000, what was the number

of men who read at most two newspapers in 2009?

A. 16,600

B. 8,270

C. 12,540

D. 14,400


68. The circulation of Hindu was banned in Andher Nagri. 60% of the males reading only Hindu switched to

ET while the rest switched to HT. 50% of the females reading only Hindu switched to ET while the rest

switched to HT. Anybody who used to read any other newspaper along with Hindu simply stopped reading

Hindu. If the total number of men was 20,000 and the total number of women was 15,000 in Andher Nagri,

find the number of copies of ET in circulation in Andher Nagri after the implementation of ban.

A. 19,150

B. 19,330

C. 22,330

D. 6,150E. 21,250 (2 Marks)


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69. In 2009, mens population was 10,000 and next year it increased by 25%. This resulted in an increase of

20% in circulation of ET among men and an increase of 30% in circulation of HT among men. The number

of men reading Hindu remained the same. What could be the minimum number of men who did not read any

newspaper in 2010? (The reading pattern of the existing readers did not change in 2010.)

A. 60

B. 80

C. 240

D. 140

E. 120 (3 Marks)

70. x, y and z are real numbers. If xyz = 1, x + y + z = 2 and x2 + y2 + z2 = 16, then what is the value of

1 1 1+ + ?

(xy + 2z) (yz + 2x) (xz + 2y)

A. 10

B.4

13

C. 0

D. 1

E.2

7

(3 Marks)

Question No. 71 is followed by two statements labeled as I and II. Decide if these statements are

sufficient to conclusively answer the question. Choose the appropriate answer from the options given

below.

A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

C. Statement I and statement II together are sufficient, but neither of the two alone is sufficient to

answer the question.

D. Either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

E. Neither statement I nor statement II is necessary to answer the question.

71. Let ABCD be a cyclic quadrilateral such that one of its diagonals is a diameter of the circle. If AB = 72cm,

find the measure of the diagonal which is not the diameter of the circle.

I. Radius of the circle is 45 cm.

II. Side opposite to AB is of length 45 2 cm . (2 Marks)


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The table given below shows the details of the post-paid mobile tariff plans offered by five telecom service providers

Wodafone, Cheeers, Slice, Airkel and Ideas.

Wodafone Cheeers Slice Airkel Ideas

250 300 275 350 325

Free Seconds 1200 1800 1600 2400 1800

Charge/second 0.8 paise 1 paise 0.8 paise 1.25 paise 1 paise

Free Minutes 45 30 50 45 30

Charge/minute 1.5 1.75 2 1.5 1.2

Free Minutes 15 20 20 30 15

Charge/minute 6.25 8 6.75 7.5 6

Local 1 80 paise 50 paise 50 paise 1National 1.5 2 1.5 1.75 1

International 5 5 4 5 5.75

2.5 2.25 2.75 2.5 2.25

30 45 30 45 40

13.50% 13.50% 13.50% 13.50% 13.50%

Call charge/minute on Roaming

Charge/Add-On service

Service Tax

STD Calls

ISD Calls

Service Provider

Fixed Monthly Rental

Local Calls

Charge per

SMS

All the charges given above are in Rupees except when mentioned otherwise. The given call charges in any

category apply beyond the specified free usage. Revised call rates while on Roaming will apply only on outgoing

calls while the incoming calls remain free. Free seconds/minutes cannot be used while on Roaming. Service Tax iscalculated on the sum of all the other charges. A plan can be activated only on the first day of a month and can be

terminated only on the last day of a month.

75. Mr. Govardhan uses the Airkels post-paid connection. In a particular month, he made 120 minutes of Local

calls, 93 minutes of STD calls and sent 100 Local SMSs. He also made 40 minutes of outgoing calls and

received 20 minutes of incoming calls while on Roaming . If he hadnt subscribed to any Add-On service,

how much did he pay as the mobile bill for that particular month?

A. Rs. 640

B. Rs. 756

C. Rs. 686.60D. Rs. 717.32

E. Rs. 746.48 (1 Mark)


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MOCK XAT Page29

76. Mr. Kashyap, who uses one of the five plans mentioned above, paid an amount between Rs. 1,000 and Rs.

1,200 as mobile bill for a particular month. Which of the following could be true for that month?

A. He was using Cheeers. His total usage during the month was 240 minutes of STD calls and 200 National

SMSs.

B. He was using Wodafone. His total usage during the month was135 minutes of ISD calls, 150 minutes of

Local calls and 118 Local SMSs.

C. He was using Ideas. His total usage during the month was 100 minutes of outgoing calls while on Roamingand 100 minutes of ISD calls.

D. He was using Slice. His total usage during the month was 100 minutes of STD calls, 100 minutes of ISD

calls, 60 minutes of Local calls and 120 Local SMSs.

E. He was using Airkel. He sent 1000 Local SMSs and made no calls during the month. (1 Mark)

77. Mr. Banerjee uses the Cheeers post-paid connection. In a particular month he made 20 minutes of outgoing

calls while on Roaming, 120 minutes of Local calls, 120 minutes of STD calls, 125 minutes of ISD calls, sent

250 Local SMSs and subscribed to three different Add-On services. Also, the government had reduced the

rate of Service Tax on telecom services from 13.5% to 10% from that month onwards. All the statements

given below are correct except:

A. He would have saved Rs. 267.85 in that month by using Wodafone.

B. He would have saved Rs. 129.50 in that month by using Ideas.

C. He would have saved Rs. 322.245 in that month by using Slice.

D. He would have saved Rs. 205.15 in that month by using Airkel.

E. He paid the maximum in that month by using Cheeers out of the five service providers. (2 Marks)

78. Mr. Harihar works in the Operations department of an educational institute and is required to send bulk

SMSs to students informing them of their class schedule. Every month he sends 14,000 15,000 Local

SMSs. He currently uses the Slice post-paid connection. New telecom rules dont allow sending more than

5,000 SMSs per month and so he needs to purchase two more mobile connections. Every month

Mr. Harihar makes Local calls of more than 600 minutes and STD calls in the range of 360 to 400 minutes.

Which of the following will prove to be the best choice for Mr. Harihar?

A. Two additional connections of Slice.

B. A new connection each of Wodafone and Ideas.

C. A new connection each of Slice and Airkel.

D. Two new connections of Airkel.

E. A new connection each of Airkel and Ideas. (3 Marks)

79. Given that product of a two-digit number AB and 74 is a three-digit number EEE, where A, B and E are

distinct non zero digits. What is the value of E?

A. 9

B. 7

C. 6

D. 8



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80. Two circles with centers C1 and C2 and radius 12 cm and 3 cm respectively, touch each other at point A.

AB is a common tangent to the circles which intersects another common tangent CD at point B, as shown in

the figure below. What is the length of the line segment AB?

BC D

AC

1

C2

A. 10 cm

B. 7.5 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 9 cm

E. 6 cm (1 Mark)

81. There were 320 students in the premises of an ongoing college fest. A student can take part in any of the

three activities Dance, Debate and Drama. Ten students took part in all the three activities and

201 students took part in Debate. Number of students who took part in Dance and Drama but not in Debate

is one-third the number of students who took part only in Drama. Number of students who took part in

Dance and Debate but not in Drama is equal to the number of students who took part in Debate and Drama

but not in Dance and is 1 more than the number of students who took part only in Debate. Twenty-nine

students just came to enjoy the performances. Number of students who took part in Dance is 27 more than

the number of students who took part in Drama. Find the number of students who took part in Dance.

A. 54

B. 45

C. 137

D. 154

E. 68 (1 Mark)

82. Seven one day matches are to be played between India and Australia in an ODI series. In a single match

probability of India winning is5

9. The result of each of the matches will always be conclusive i.e. there will

be no draw and the team winning at least 4 matches out of the 7 will be the winner of the series. Find the

probability that India will win the series.

A.6

7

54745

9

B.

4

7

5949

9

C.

6

7

5949

9


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MOCK XAT Page31

D.

4

7

54745

9


83. In an isosceles triangle ABC, AB = AC. An equilateral triangle A BC is drawn such that the line joining

A and A cuts side BC at point D. Which of the following cannot be the sum of the measures of DAC and DA C ?

A. 75

B. 60

C. 90

D. 120

E. All of these (1 Mark)

84. Total number of bananas with three friends Moti, Sumit and Manky is 10. The sum of the reciprocals of

the number of bananas with the three friends is 1. If the number of bananas with each of the three friends is

an integer, which of the following could be the difference between the number of bananas with Moti and

Sumit?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 0

D. 1

E. Either (A) or (C) (2 Marks)


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MOCK XAT Page33

C. 442.8

D. 399

E. 430.92 (1 Mark)

87. What was the average monthly Expenditure (in Rs. crores) on Raw Material in the given period?

A. 111.9

B. 112.8C. 111.4

D. 110.6

E. 112.4 (2 Marks)

88. In how many months was the increase in Profit over the previous month more than 100%?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3


89. A is the sum of the squares of first n natural numbers. How many values of n are possible for which

A will be divisible by 7? (Given that n < 100).

A. 40

B. 39

C. 42

D. 44


90. If a is an odd natural number and b is an even natural number, what is the total number of solutions of the

equation ab = 2a + b + 598?A. 16

B. 12

C. 5

D. 6

E. 8 (2 Marks)

91. Let g(a, b) be a function defined on the set of positive integers such thatg(2, 2) = 2g(a + 1, b) = g(a, b) + 2ag(a, b + 1) = g(a, b) 2b

for all positive integers a and b.

Find g(1007, 1006).

A. 2014B. 2012C. 2014D. 2012E. None of these (3 Marks)


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92. Sides of a triangle are a2 + a + 1, 2a + 1 and a2 1, where a is an integer. What is the largest possible angle

of such a triangle?

A. 90

B. 120

C. 150

D. 60

E. Cannot be determined (1 Mark)

93. In a sequence, a1, a2, a3. . . an, each term is an integer greater than or equal to 0. Also, each term starting

with the third is the difference of the preceding two terms. (a n+2 = an an+1 for

n = 1). The sequence terminates at an if an1 an < 0. For example, 120, 71, 49, 22, 27 is a sequence of

five terms. Find the positive integer A so that the sequence 150, A, ... has the maximum possible number

of terms.

A. 90

B. 92

C. 93

D. 94E. 96 (3 Marks)

94. Two cars race around a circular track at constant speeds starting from the same point. If they travel in

opposite directions, they meet in every 35 seconds. If they travel in the same direction, they meet in every 3

minutes and 30 seconds. How long would the faster car take to complete one round of the circular track?

A. 96 s

B. 84 s

C. 60 s

D. 72 s


Answer questions nos. 95 and 96 based on the following information.

There is a park which is in the shape of a right-angled triangle. A tower is situated at the mid-point of the largest

edge of the park. The two perpendicular edges of the park subtend angles of60 and 90 at the top of the tower.

Area of the park is 22592 2 m .

95. What is the height of the tower?

A. 72 2 m

B. 36 2 m

C. 36 mD. 72 m


96. There is an insect at the vertex where perpendicular edges of the park meet and wants to crawl its way to the

foot of the tower. Find the minimum time (in minutes) for which the insect has to trek in order to reach the

foot of the tower, if it can only crawl along the edges of the park with speed of 220 10 m/s.


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MOCK XAT Page35

A. ( )3 2 3+

B. ( )3 1 2+C. 12

D. ( )3 3 2 2+E. 18 (2 Marks)

97. On a leisure trip to Las Vegas, Rashmi went to a casino where she decided to play a game of rolling three

unbiased die simultaneously. Rules of the game were as follows:

(i) Participation charge was Rs.200.

(ii) The amount paid to a participant at the end of each round was associated with the price factor(p),

given as:

( )( )( )p x 3 y 1 z 1=

where x, y and z are numbers turned up while rolling the die.

If p 2 , Rs.300 was paid, else no amount was paid.

What is the probability that Rashmi will make a profit?

A. 45.83%

B. 44.44%

C. 41.67%

D. 45%



The line graph given below shows the percentage increase in CPI of five products, one from each of the five

sectors FMCG, Medical, Education, Real Estate and Recreation at the end of each quarter of the financial year

2010-2011. A financial year starts on 1st April and ends on 31st March next year.

R e c r e a t i o n

R e a l E s t a te

Ed u c a t i o n

M edica l

M on th

Pe

rcentage

increase

in

C

PI

F M C G

J u n e 2 0 1 0 S ep 2 0 1 0 M a r 2 0 11

1

0

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

D e c 2 0 1 0


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Page36 MOCK XAT

Increase in cost (in Rs.) of a product at the end of a quarter compared to the cost at the end of the previous quarter

xCos t of the product at the end of the previous quarter.

100=

(where x is the percentage increase in CPI at the end of the current quarter)

98. If the cost of the product from Education sector at the end of the last quarter of the financial year 2009-2010was Rs.10 lakhs, then what was the approximate average quarterly increase in cost (in Rs.) of the productover the four quarters of the financial year 2010-2011?

A. 20,000B. 33,000C. 42,000D. 45,000E. 48,000 (3 Marks)

99. The increase in the cost of the product from FMCG sector at the end of the first quarter of the financial year2011-2012 was Rs. 20,000 and the percentage increase in CPI was 3.2%. Find the approximate increasein the cost (in Rs.) of the product at the end of the last quarter of the financial year 201

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XAT Mock_Questions 1