Web view18.To have a competitive advantage within an international context, ... The environment within the nations in which they operate. ... Presentation Evaluation

BSB ASSESSMENT SPRING SEMESTER 2013

The Learning Goals and Learning Objectives were approved by the full RSCoB Faculty on November 28, 2012.

Learning Goal #1: Students will know the skills associated with the functioning of an effective organization in a global environment.

Learning Objective 1.1: Students will understand and develop the skills necessary to manage the resources needed for organizational success and sustainability.Where measured:

Taught by: Questions: ReceivedResults

EC 2040 Endres If the price of microprocessors (which are used to make computers)falls, what will occur in the computer market?

A. Change in equilibrium price and quantity cannot be determined.B. Equilibrium price of computers will be lower, but equilibrium quantity will be higher.C. Equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity of computers will increase.D. Equilibrium price of computers will increase, but equilibrium quantity will be lower.

DungNaiduFanonCavanaugh

ACC 2010 Hazelbaker 1. Which one of the following describes something that would be reported in the income statement?

A. salaries paid to employees for services providedB. amounts owed to creditorsC. products available to be sold to customersD. a truck used to deliver products to customers

2. Which one of the following describes something that would be reported in the current asset section of a classified balance sheet?

A. salaries paid to employees for services providedB. amounts owed to creditorsC. products available to be sold to customersD. a truck used to deliver products to customers

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3. Accountants are responsible for measuring various operating, investing and financing activities. Which of the following correctly matches the activity with its type?

A. Investing - paying utilities for the month.B. Investing - purchasing land.C. Operating - paying dividends to stockholders.D. Financing - selling equipment for cash.

4. If the retained earnings account increases from the beginning of the year to the end of the year, then

A. net income is less than dividends.B. a net loss is less than dividends.C. additional investments are less than net losses.D. net income is greater than dividends.

1. When a payment is made on an account payable:A. Assets and stockholders' equity decrease.B. Assets and liabilities decrease.C. Liabilities and revenues decrease.D. Assets and expenses decrease.

2. Receiving cash for providing services will:A. Increase revenue and decrease assetsB. Increase assets and increase liabilitiesC. Increase assets and increase revenueD. Increase one asset and decrease another asset

ACC 2020 Terzian The following information is taken from the production budget for the first quarter:Beginning inventory in units 1,200Sales budgeted for the quarter 426,000Capacity in units of production facility 472,000

How many finished goods units should be produced during the quarter if the company desires 3,200 units available to start the next quarter?

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A. 428,000B. 424,000C. 474,000D. 429,200

The standard rate of pay is $20 per direct labor hour. If the actual direct labor payroll was $117,600 for 6,000 direct labor hours worked, the direct labor price (rate) variance is

A. $2,400 unfavorable.B. $2,400 favorable.C. $3,000 unfavorable.D. $3,000 favorable.

Clemente Inc. incurs the following costs to produce 10,000 units of a subcomponent:Direct materials $8,400Direct labor 11,250Variable overhead 12,600Fixed overhead 16,200

An outside supplier has offered to sell Clemente the subcomponent for $2.85 a unit.

If Clemente buys the subcomponent, there will be no change in the fixed overhead. If Clemente buys the subcomponent for $2.85, by how much will net income increase (decrease)?

A. $3,750B. $19,950C. $(8,850)D. $(2,850)

If an investment center has generated a controllable margin of $150,000 and sales of $600,000, what is the return on investment for the investment center if average operating assets were $1,000,000 during the period?

A. 15%

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B. 25%C. 45%D 60%

MKT 2050

Gulas 11 Strategic planning for a large firm such as Disney probably occurs______.A. Only in its corporate headquartersB. Only at the individual business unit levelC. At both the overall corporate level and at the individual strategic business

unit levelD. On an as needed basis based upon the success of the divisionE. At the location best suited for this function based upon findings of the

SWOT analysis.

2. When XYZ Corporation was considering whether to do a qualitative or quantitative research study, they were in the second step of the marketing research process, which is to_______.

A. define the problemB. decide whether to use observational or exploratory research techniquesC. calculate the budgetD. determine population characteristics for sampling

E. determine the research design.

12 A firm’s internal business environment does NOT include ______________.A. Its employeesB. Its corporate cultureC. Its productsD. Its technologiesE. e. Elements of the legal environment.

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FIN 2210 Ingram Finance will use one of the following three sets of questions for assessment of this learning objective:

FIN 2210 Questions Assessment A:

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1. What is the present value of $13,450 to be received four years from today if the discount rate is 5.25 percent?

A. $10,854.20B. $10,960.59C. $10,974.21D. $10,982.18E. $11,003.14

2. Michael's, Inc. just paid $1.40 to their shareholders as the annual dividend. Simultaneously, the company announced that future dividends will be increasing by 4.5 percent. If you require an 8 percent rate of return, how much are you willing to pay to purchase one share of Michael's stock?

A. $31.11B. $32.51C. $40.00D. $41.80E. $43.68

3. You want to earn a 12 percent rate of return. Panco, Inc. preferred stock pays a $4.50 annual dividend. What is the maximum price you are willing to pay for one share of this stock?

A. $32.50B. $37.50C. $39.00D. $40.50E. $45.00

4. Wine and Roses, Inc. offers a 7 percent coupon bond with semiannual payments and a yield to maturity of 7.73 percent. The bonds mature in 9 years. What is the market price of a $1,000 face value bond?

A. $953.28B. $953.88

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C. $1,108.16D. $1,401.26E. $1,401.86

5. What is the net present value of a project with the following cash flows and a required return of 12 percent?

A. -$287.22B. -$177.62C. $177.62D. $204.36E. $287.22

6. The preferred stock of North Coast Shoreline pays an annual dividend of $1.70 and sells for $20.24 a share. What is the rate of return on this security?

A. 5.95 percentB. 7.08 percentC. 8.40 percentD. 11.90 percentE. 14.17 percent

7. The risk-free rate of return is 4 percent and the market rate of return is 12 percent. What is the expected rate of return on a stock with a beta of 1.28?


8. The Bet-r-Bilt Company has a six-year bond outstanding with a 5 percent coupon. Interest payments are paid semi-annually. The face amount of the bond is $1,000. This bond is currently selling for 98 percent of its face value. What is the company's pre-tax cost of debt?

A. 4.72 percent

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B. 5.31 percentC. 5.35 percentD. 5.39 percentE. 5.42 percent

9. Which of the following is not considered a capital component for the purpose of calculating the weighted average cost of capital as it applies to capital budgeting?

A. Long-term debtB. Common StockC. Accounts PayableD. Preferred StockE. All of the above are considered capital components for WACC and capital

budgeting purposes.

10. Flaherty Electric has a capital structure that consists of 70 percent equity and 30 percent debt. The company’s long-term bonds have a before-tax yield to maturity of 8.4 percent. Using the DCF approach, the company determines that the cost of equity is 12.55 percent. If the company’s tax rate is 40 percent, what is the company’s weighted average cost of capital, WACC?

A. 10.73%B. 10.30%C. 11.31%D. 7.48%E. 9.89%

FIN2210 Questions Assessment B

1. You would like to give your daughter $40,000 towards her college education thirteen years from now. How much money must you set aside today for this purpose if you can earn 6.3 percent on your funds?

A. $17,750.00B. $17,989.28C. $18,077.05

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D. $18,213.69E. $18,395.00

2. Angelina's made two announcements concerning their common stock today. First, the company announced that their next annual dividend (D1) has been set at $2.16 a share. Secondly, the company announced that all future dividends will increase by 4 percent annually. What is the maximum amount you should pay to purchase a share of Angelina's stock if your goal is to earn a 10 percent rate of return?

A. $21.60B. $22.46C. $27.44D. $34.62E. $36.00

3. Jim owns shares of Abco, Inc. preferred stock which he says provides him with a constant 6.58 percent rate of return. The stock is currently priced at $45.60 a share. What is the amount of the dividend per share?

A. $3.00B. $3.15C. $3.50D. $3.54E. $3.62

4. Party Time, Inc. has a 6 percent coupon bond that matures in 11 years. The bond pays interest semiannually. What is the market price of a $1,000 face value bond if the yield to maturity is 12.9 percent?

A. $434.59B. $580.86C. $600.34D. $605.92E. $947.87

5. You are considering a project with the following cash flows:

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Year 1: $5,600 Year 2: $9,000 Year 3: $2,000 What is the present value of these cash flows, given an 11 percent discount rate?

A. $8,695.61B. $8,700.89C. $13,732.41D. $13,812.03E. $19,928.16

6. Donnelly and Son pay $8 as the annual dividend on their preferred stock. Currently, this stock is selling for $72 a share. What is Donnelly's cost of preferred stock?


7. The stock of Martin Industries has a beta of 1.43. The risk-free rate of return is 3.6 percent and the market rate of return is 12.6 percent. What is the expected rate of return on Martin Industries stock?


8. Wilson's Cabinets has bonds outstanding that mature in eight years, have a 6 percent coupon and pay interest annually. These bonds have a face value of $1,000 and a current market price of $1,020. What is the company's pre-tax cost of debt?

A. 5.68 percentB. 6.19 percent

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C. 6.34 percentD. 6.82 percentE. 7.57 percent



budgeting purposes.

10. Peter's Audio Shop has a cost of debt of 7 percent, a cost of equity of 11 percent, and a cost of preferred stock of 8 percent. The firm has a target capital structure of 53% equity, 34% preferred stock and 13% debt. The company's tax rate is 34 percent. What is the weighted average cost of capital for Peter's Audio Shop?


FIN 2210 Questions Assessment C:

1. Your grandmother invested one lump sum 17 years ago at 4.25 percent interest. Today, she gave you the proceeds of that investment which totaled $5,539.92. How much did your grandmother originally invest?

A. $2,700.00B. $2,730.30C. $2,750.00D. $2,768.40

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E. $2,774.90

2. How much are you willing to pay for one share of stock if the company just paid an $.80 annual dividend (D0), the dividends increase by 4 percent annually and you require an 8 percent rate of return?

A. $19.23B. $20.00C. $20.40D. $20.80E. $21.63

3. Butterup's 'N More wants to offer some preferred stock that pays an annual dividend of $2.00 a share. The company has determined that stocks with similar characteristics provide a 9 percent rate of return. What price should Butterup's expect to receive per share for this stock offering?

A. $18.35B. $20.00C. $21.80D. $22.22E. $24.22

4. Gugenheim, Inc. offers a 7 percent coupon bond with annual payments. The yield to maturity is 5.85 percent and the maturity date is 9 years. What is the market price of a $1,000 face value bond?

A. $742.66B. $868.67C. $869.67D. $1,078.73E. $1,079.59

5. You are considering a project with the following cash flows: Year 1: $1,200 Year 2: $1,800

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Year 3: $2,900 What is the present value of these cash flows, given a 9 percent discount rate?

A. $4,713.62B. $4,855.27C. $5,103.18D. $5,292.25E. $6,853.61

6. Teri's Tires has 7 percent preferred stock outstanding that sells for $68 a share. What is Teri's cost of preferred stock?


7. The risk-free rate of return is 4 percent and the market risk premium is 12 percent. What is the expected rate of return on a stock with a beta of 1.28?


8. Ernst's Electrical has a bond issue outstanding with ten years to maturity. These bonds have a $1,000 face value, a 5 percent coupon, and pay interest semi-annually. The bonds are currently quoted at 96 percent of face value. What is Ernst's pre-tax cost of debt?


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budgeting purposes.

10. An analyst has collected the following information regarding Christopher Co.:• The company’s capital structure is 70 percent equity and 30 percent debt.• The yield to maturity on the company’s bonds is 9 percent.• The cost of equity is 12.2 percent.• The company’s tax rate is 40 percent.

Given this information, calculate the company’s WACC.A. 10.16%B. 12.56%C. 10.78%D. 13.55%E. 9.29%

MGT 3100

Petrick Beth consistently submits budget reports on time. They are accurate and thorough. As her supervisor, you want her to continue this kind of behavior so you:

A. tell her privately that she’s doing a good job on the budget reportsB. praise her behavior publicly in front of her coworkersC. say nothing about her good work, but avoid reprimanding her the next time

she makes a mistake.D. put a note in her personnel file and give her an extra amount of money at the

time of her next salary review.

You manage the department. Tiffany, your subordinate, told you that on some days she is energized by her job and that on other days she thinks she is just putting in time in

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order to get to the next day. You want to provide her with an intrinsic reward, so you:A. give her a cash performance bonusB. promote her to a supervisory positionC. give her two tickets to a pro football gameD. assign her work that she thinks is meaningful

Imagine that you work for TransCon Unlimited, a trucking company that ships freight throughout the United States. You have just accepted a position as a new first-line manager. Your employees include many rough-looking, tough-talking warehouse workers. Which of the following activities is the best way to provide a motivational environment for your employees?

A. Set challenging goals, establish clear work objectives and standards of good performance.B. Get on their good side by offering free pizza to the entire shift each week.C. Share information about company politics.D. Threaten to reduce their pay if they don’t meet expected standards of

performance.

Behavior modification (OBM) uses of principles of learning theory to influence employee behavior in organizations.

TrueFalse

MGT 3110

Back 23. __________________ can be defined as an integrated understanding of the interconnectedness of human activity with all related man-made and naturally occurring systems.

A. ReciprocityB. UtilitarianismC. SustainabilityD. Virtue ethicsE. All of the above

24. ________________ is defined as seeking to meet the needs and aspirations of

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present society without compromising the ability to meet those of future generations.A. SustainabilityB. Sustainable developmentC. Reciprocity developmentD. ReciprocityE. All of the above

25. Triple-bottom-line accounting is a term and approach that originated with the publication of John Elkington's 1998 book Cannibals with Forks: Triple Bottom Line of 21st Century Business. In it, Elkington argues that accounting practice should be expanded to include ___________________________ .

A. employee, customer, and supplier costs.B. financial, employee, and social costs.C. environmental, social, and financial costs.D. social, customer, and financial costs.E. All of the above

26. The Eco-Effectiveness Model of Sustainability was developed by Michael Braungart and William McDonough in 1995. It is an approach that views industry as a natural system. Like natural capitialism, this approach envisions the next industrial revolution as one where the end of a product cycle is the beginning of the next nutrient cycle. For this reason, the Eco-Effectiveness Model is also called the ______________ Model.

A. Grave-To-GraveB. Grave-To-CradleC. Cradle-To-GraveD. Cradle-To-CradleE. All of the above

EC 3010 Endres 1. Banks are important to the study of money and the economy because theyA. have resisted rapid financial innovation.B. channel funds from lenders to borrowers.C. are the only important financial institution in the U.S. economy.

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D. create inflation.

SCM 3070 Polak Which is true regarding a responsive supply chain?A. Demand is stable and predictable.B. Product life cycles are short and change often because of innovation.C. Customers require standardization.D. Contribution margins are low.E. The primary competitive priority is cost.

Which of the following is true regarding order amplification?A. The fluctuation of orders at the manufacturer is larger than the fluctuation in

sales.B. The amplitude of order quantity over time is smaller than the variation of

sales.C. The less the uncertainty, the greater the amplification in orders.D. The amplification is greatest near the customer.E. Sharing point of sale information typically increases amplification

Under a periodic review system, enough inventory must be carried to protect against a specified probability of a stockout during an interval of time the length of the ______.

A. replenishment lead timeB. review periodC. replenishment lead time plus the review periodD. bottleneck cycle timeE. bottleneck cycle time plus the replenishment lead time

Which decision must be made by an inventory manager prior to implementing the periodic review system?

A. specify the time between ordersB. specify on-hand inventoryC. specify the target inventory levelD. specify the order quantityE. specify the lead time

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Which of the following is not a good approach for suppliers who are providing JIT services to manufacturers?

A. Use the “push system” for deliveriesB. Locate near their customersC. Have small warehouses near the manufacturing plantD. Use standardized containersE. Join together with other suppliers to help each other make small deliveries

A push production system is appropriate whenA. Demand uncertainty is highB. Demand uncertainty is lowC. Forecast accuracy is poorD. Economies of scale are unimportantE. Demand is characterized by high variety and low volume

A project has three paths. A-B-C has a length of 25 days. A-D-C has a length of 15 days. Finally, A-E-C has a length of 20 days. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. A-D-C is the critical path.B. A-B-C has the most total slack.C. The expected duration of this project is 25 days.D. The expected duration of this project is 25 + 15 + 20 = 60 days.E. The project has been crashed.

A type of organization in which project participation cuts across functional boundaries, but in which the functional units "loan" resources to projects while still maintaining control over them is called

A. Pure project structureB. Pure functional structureC. Hybrid or Matrix structureD. Product structureE. Process project structure

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The chief disadvantage of the shortest processing time (SPT) rule isA. average job flow times are excessiveB. average number of jobs in the system is excessiveC. long-duration jobs may have excessive flow times, especially when the set

of jobs is changingD. average job lateness is excessiveE. The makespan is too short

Operations Scheduling refers to specifyingA. professional appointmentsB. The due date for each jobC. The start and completion times of jobsD. The makespan of each jobE. The flowtime of each job

MGT 4990

Kemper 1. A company pursuing a low cost strategy will likely have _____________ product differentiation than a higher cost competitor.

A. greaterB. lessC. no significant difference in

4. The Schottenstein family closed its chain Value City, a victim of the economic slowdown and an excess of debt. The inventory and buildings were sold to satisfy creditors’ demands. What strategy is this?

A. LiquidationB. DiversificationC. Turn-aroundD. Divestment

12. Determine the market capitalization of a firm by:A. Subtracting liabilities from assets to get owner’s equityB. Multiplying share price by number of shares outstanding

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C. Multiplying number of shares outstanding by par valueD. None of the above is true

22. All other factors being equal, when industry rivalry is high:A. Profits are lowerB. Profits are higherC. Intensity of rivalry has no effect on industry profitsD. A monopoly exists

Learning Objective 1.2: Students will understand and know how to analyze the dimensions of the global environment.Where measured:


MS 2050 Chesen 1. A 99% confidence interval for the mean number of days that trials in a certain court take from inception to completion is needed. A random sample of cases from this court is confidence interval.21 3 10 4 1 13 15 7 6 313 2 19 2 4 11 10 6 8 6

2. The mean number of hamburgers able to be consumed in a competitive eating contest is to be studied by the organizer of contests of this type. A random sample of the number of hamburgers devoured by participants in these kinds of events is selected. The data for these participants is shown below. At the 10% level of significance, has the mean number of hamburgers consumed decreased from its previous level of 27 hamburgers?22 32 21 18 17 30 16 11 19 1915 14 38 29 25 15 19 20 21 28

3. A criminologist wishes to study the relationship between the amount of rainfall daily and the number of traffic accidents in a certain city. Specifically, she wishes to use the amount of rainfall to predict and explain the number of accidents. Sample data concerning the variables of the situation are given below.

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Rainfall Accidents 0.7 16 0.1 18 1.2 23 1.5 20 0.3 11 0.2 19 0.9 15 0.3 25 1.8 27 1.5 30 1.0 22 1.7 17

2.0 26

State both the sample regression coefficients and the sample regression equation for this model.

Provide meanings for each of the regression coefficients of this model. These meanings should be specific to the model.

4. At the 2% level of significance, is there evidence of a significant correlation between amount of rainfall in the city and number of accidents? Show all relevant steps and justifications for your answer.

MKT 2500

Gulas 4. The _____________environment refers to the characteristics of a society, the people who live in the society, and the culture that reflects the values and the beliefs of that society.A. Political and legalB. SocioculturalC. EconomicD. Technological


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E. Natural.

5. After exporting, the next level of commitment a firm can make to a foreign market is a contractual agreement. Two of the most common types of such agreements are ________.

A. contract manufacturing and contract marketingB. contract manufacturing and strategic alliancesC. joint ventures and franchising

D. warehousing and franchising

6. All the following are barriers to successful exporting EXCEPT ___________.A. tariffsB. local content laws

C. export quotas D. economic sanctions E. export merchants

EC 3010 Endres 1. The evidence from banking crises in other countries indicates thatA. deposit insurance is to blame in each country.B. a government safety net for depositors need not increase moral hazard.C. regulatory forbearance never leads to problems.D. deregulation combined with poor regulatory supervision raises moral hazard.

Jenkins

SCM 3070 Polak Which of the following best describes crossdocking?A. it eliminates the storage and order picking functions of a distribution

warehouse while still performing its receiving and shipping functionsB. it eliminates the receiving and storage functions of a distribution warehouse

while still performing its shipping and order picking functions

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C. it eliminates the storage and shipping functions of a distribution warehouse while still performing its order picking and receiving functions

D. it eliminates the receiving and order picking functions of a distribution warehouse while still performing its storage and shipping functions

E. it eliminates the receiving and shipping functions of a distribution warehouse while still performing its storage and order picking functions

The Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) Model function that entails all order management activities from processing customer orders to routing shipments, managing goods at distribution centers and invoicing the customer is called ____.

A. PlanB. SourceC. MakeD. DeliverE. Return

What type of commerce makes up the highest percentage of electronic transactions?A. B2CB. C2CC. B4BD. B2BE. T42

The Bullwhip effect can be mitigated (counteracted) byA. sharing point of sale (POS) information throughout the supply chain.B. purchasing only high quality leather and using a low cost producer whenever

possible.C. frequent use of sales and promotion.D. modifying the supply chain during the product life cycle.E. both c and d are correct.

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MGT 4990

Kemper 10. A firm might reasonably enter the international arena for all of the following except:A. Seeking new markets for its goodsB. Trying to gain control of supply chain

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C. To prevent a competitor from moving in and gaining an advantageD. Attempting to lower production costsE. Simplifying organizational communication, processes, and practices.

16. Which of the following foreign market entry modes would be most affected by high tariffs, trade barriers, and transportation costs:

A. ExportingB. Wholly owned subsidiaryC. LicensingD. Franchising

17. Internationalization results in decreased profitability within industries because of:

A. Lower entry barriers, higher bargaining power of buyers, and lower seller concentration

B. Higher entry barriers, higher bargaining power of buyers, and higher seller concentration

C. Lower entry barriers, lower bargaining power of buyers, and lower seller concentration

D. Higher entry barriers, lower bargaining power of buyers, and higher seller concentration

18. To have a competitive advantage within an international context, firms need to have a fit with:

A. Key success factors in the situationB. Resources, capabilities, and opportunitiesC. The environment within the nations in which they operateD. All of the above

21. A multinational corporation’s strategy to adapt its products to local customers’ preferences is referred to as a:

A. Global integration strategyB. Nationalization strategyC. Diversification strategy

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D. National differentiation strategy

Learning Goal 2: Students will be able to integrate the skills and concepts associated with the function of an effective organization.

Learning Objective 2.1: Students will understand stakeholder relationships and stakeholder engagement strategies that foster organizational success.Where measured:


EC 2040 Endres Antonia sells pasta to all the finest Italian restaurants in town. Nobody can make pasta like Antonia. As a result, hers is the only business in town that sells pasta to restaurants. Assuming that Antonia is maximizing her profit, which of the following statements is true?

A. Pasta prices will be less than marginal cost.B. Pasta prices will equal marginal cost.C. Pasta prices will exceed marginal cost.D. Pasta prices will be a function of supply and demand and will therefore

oscillateE. around marginal costs.


ACC 2010 Hazelbaker 1. If you were a supplier to the ABC Company and you were trying to decide whether you should require them to pay cash or allow them to purchase on account, you would primarily look to which financial statement to help make that decision?A. Balance SheetB. Income StatementC. Statement of Stockholders’ EquityD. Statement of Cash Flows

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ACC 2020 Terzian 1. NF Toy Company is unsure of whether to sell its product assembled or unassembled. The unit cost of the unassembled product is $24 and NF Toy would sell it for $52. The cost to assemble the product is estimated at $17 per unit and the company believes the market would support a price of $68 on the assembled unit. What decision should NF Toy make?

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A. Sell before assembly, the company will be better off by $1 per unit.B. Sell before assembly, the company will be better off by $16 per unit.C. Process further, the company will be better off by $23 per unit.D. Process further, the company will be better off by $11 per unit.

MKT 2500

Gulas 7. Marketers first identify consumer needs and then provide products that satisfy those needs, ensuring the firm’s long-term profitability. This practice is referred to as _______.

A. consumer orientationB. the marketing conceptC. total quality managementD. production orientationE. the marketing mix.

8. A ______________ strategy allows a company to identify its best customers, stay on top of their needs, and increase their satisfaction.

A. CRMB. target marketC. undifferentiated targetD. concentrated targetE. differentiated target


FIN 2110 Ingram Finance will use one of the following three questions for assessment of this learning objective:


11. Which of the following statements is correct?A. Given the multi-owner nature of most large corporations, agency costs

associated with perquisite consumption are not really a problem.B. Managers may operate in the stockholders' best interests, but they may

also operate in their own personal best interests. As long as managers stay within the law, there simply are not any effective controls that

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stockholders can implement to control managerial decision making.C. Shareholder agency costs include the opportunity costs associated with

constraining managerial freedom but do not include managerial salaries.D. An agency relationship exists when one or more persons hire another

person to perform some service but withhold decision-making authority from that person.

E. All of the above statements are false.

FIN 2210 Questions Assessment B:

11. Which of the following statements concerning "agency problems" is most correct?A. Regardless of economic conditions, if a firm's stock price falls during the

year, this indicates that the firm's managers must not be acting in the best interests of the shareholders.

B. One method of controlling agency problems is to engage in the taking of "poison pills."

C. One of the best means to control agency problems is to require the managers and other important decision makers of the firm to also be owners of the firm.

D. Agency problems probably would not exist if the important decisions of a firm were made by persons who have no vested interests, such as ownership, in the firm.

E. None of the above is a correct statement.


11. Which of the following statements is correct?A. Other things held constant, it is generally safer to invest money in a

proprietorship than in a corporation.B. There really is no difference between a general partnership and a

corporation, because both have multiple owners and both offer limited liability to the owners.

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C. If you are planning to start a business, which you will run as the sole employee, and if you expect the business to earn $1,000,000 per year before taxes, you always can minimize the total taxes you pay by setting up the business as a corporation.

D. Agency problems tend to increase when managers own larger relative amounts of the company's stock.

E. Maximizing the income statement item "net income" might not be the best goal for a corporation if the managers are interested in maximizing the economic welfare of the firm's stockholders (that is, the firm's stock price).

MGT 3100

Petrick Just before quitting time yesterday afternoon, Kim’s supervisor announced to his work group that he was making some immediate changes in the production process. He said the changes would affect the work performed by members of the work group, and may affect their pay. The changes are effective today. The work group is resistant to the changes primarily because:

A. they don’t like their supervisorB. the changes will expose their current work problemsC. they don’t understand the changes and/or don’t see how they benefit themD. they figure “any news from the supervisor is bad news”

Organization development (OD) is a systematic approach to change that is designed to help an organization become more effective.

TrueFalse

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MGT 3110

Back 19. Typically, stakeholders of a for-profit company include its ______________ .A. customersB. employeesC. stockholdersD. suppliersE. All of the above

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20. Ethicists use the term stakeholder theory to describe a coherent and original answer to the central philosophical question in organizational ethics, __________________________ ?

A. What kind of attitudes should organizations haveB. What kind of cognitive abilities should organizations strive to haveC. What kind of affective attitudes should organizations haveD. How should organizations behaveE. How can we improve job satisfaction

21. R. Edward Freeman's book Strategic Management: A Stakeholder Approach (1984) is widely recognized as the first major work in stakeholder theory. Identify the primary school of thought that served as the foundation for Freeman's book.

A. The corporate planning literatureB. Open systems theoryC. The study of corporate social responsibilityD. Organization theoryE. All of the above

22. The _______________ model, which received its most ardent defense from Nobel laureate Milton Friedman, holds that the corporation must strive to maximize returns for its shareholders.

A. sock holderB. stockholderC. shareholderD. sock hopE. All of the above

MGT 4990

Kemper 2. Which of the following is generally not desirable in the majority of a given firm’s board members?

A. IndependenceB. Experienced in top leadershipC. Knowledge of the business

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D. Currently holding positions as senior managers in the firm

13. A firm’s mission should inform you about:

A. Why it exists and what it doesB. What it aspires to beC. Its guiding principlesD. Its potential for short-term profitability

14. In conducting a strategic analysis, which of the following tools would be MOST helpful to analyze both your internal and external environments:

A. SWOT analysisB. PESTEL analysisC. Value chain analysisD. Competitor analysis

21. A multinational corporation’s strategy to adapt its products to local customers’ preferences is referred to as a:

A. Global integration strategyB. Nationalization strategyC. Diversification strategyD. National differentiation strategy

Learning Objective 2.2: Students will understand the processes involved in idea creation and development, production, and distribution of quality products and services.Where measured:


EC 2040 Endres On a 100 acre farm, a farmer is able to produce 3,000 bushels of wheat when he hires 2 workers. He is able to produce 4,400 bushels of wheat when he hires 3 workers. Which of the following possibilities is consistent with the property of diminishing marginal product?

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A. The farmer is able to produce 5,600 bushels of wheat when he hires 4 workers.

B. The farmer is able to produce 5,800 bushels of wheat when he hires 4 workers.

C. The farmer is able to produce 6,000 bushels of wheat when he hires 4 workers.

D. The farmer is able to produce 6,200 bushels of wheat when he hires 4 workers.

Cavanaugh

EC 2050 Herrick Which of the following does Not represent an increase in aggregate investment spending?

A. the purchase of a newly built commercial facility by a computer retailerB. the purchase of corporate bondsC. the purchase of a laptop by an accounting firm for the purpose of conducting

businessD. the purchase of a website design service by a retailer.

DaoudOlsonFreireDungCavanaugh

ACC 2020 Terzian The following data have been recorded for recently completed Job 323 on its job cost sheet. Direct materials cost was $2,260. A total of 37 direct labor-hours and 141 machine-hours were worked on the job. The direct labor wage rate is $13 per labor-hour. The company applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate is $14 per machine-hour. The total cost for the job on its job cost sheet would be:

A. $3,259B. $2,741C. $4,715D. $2,287

Bodway, Inc., has provided the following budgeted data:Sales 10,000 unitsSelling price $50 per unitVariable expense $30 per unitFixed expense $180,000

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To have an operating income of $40,000, how many units would the company have to sell?

A. 20,000 unitsB. 9,000 unitsC. 11,000 unitsD. 7,333 units

Use the following table,Present Value of an Annuity of 1Period 8% 9% 10%1 .926 .917 .9092 1.783 1.759 1.7363 2.577 2.531 2.487

A company has a minimum required rate of return of 9%. It is considering investing in a project which costs $350,000 and is expected to generate cash inflows of $140,000 at the end of each year for three years. The net present value of this project is

A. $354,340.B. $70,000.C. $35,436.D. $4,340.

MKT 2500

Gulas 9. The _________________ element of the marketing mix is used to communicate the value proposition using forms such as personal selling, advertising, coupons, and publicity.

A. productB. placeC. priceD. distributionE. promotion.

10. Which of the following statements is NOT a reason successful new-product introductions are becoming more difficult for firms?


31

A. costs of research and development may be hugeB. products are becoming outdated faster than everC. venture capitalists have run out of money to investD. the number of products competing for limited retail shelf spaceE. increasing manufacturers’ costs.

11. Consumer satisfaction/dissatisfaction is within the ___________step of the consumer decision-making process.

A. problem recognitionB. information searchC. evaluation of alternativesD. product choiceE. postpurchase evaluation

MGT 3100

Petrick The Director of Nursing is looking for a new vacation schedule for nurses throughout the hospital. She evaluates a schedule system as soon as she learns about it. She quickly finds a vacation schedule that is “good enough” for her needs. The Director of Nursing may be making which of the following decision-making mistakes:

A. trusting common sense (intuition)B. selecting the first viable alternative, rather than the best alternative

(satisficing)C. refusing to see the situation from other’s perspectives (perceptual defense)D. sticking with a bad decision (escalation of commitment)

Juan has been told that his decision to expand the product line in his retail store is not working. It appears that there is too little demand and too much inventory. In spite of all of the negative feedback, he tells his marketing department to increase advertising and his purchasing department to add to the breadth of the product line. Juan’s behavior can best be described as:

A. dissonance reductionB. escalation of commitmentC. framing errorD. anchoring and adjustment

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You have just been assigned the task of developing an innovative new product, using people from engineering, marketing, purchasing, and one or two other departments in the organization. To help this group to be as creative as possible, you should:

A. give the team a very tight deadline to come up with a creative ideaB. threaten to fire any team member who suggests a silly idea that wastes the

time of the product development processC. encourage competition among team members as to who has the best job

performanceD. move these employees out of their departments and into a common area

where they can continuously interact with each other

During a brainstorming session, George remarks, “I don’t think that’s a very good idea. Let’s stay focused!” He has violated which rule of brainstorming?

A. Evaluate the alternatives as they are presentedB. Initially, all different types of ideas should be considered. *C. Quality takes precedence over quantityD. He did not violate any rules.

Both entrepreneurs and intrapreneurs value creativity and autonomy and have a strong desire to achieve.

TrueFalse

EC 3010 Endres 1. As disintermediation continues in the banking industryA. more regulation of financial markets may avoid such problems in the future.B. banks are unable to remain competitive with other financial intermediaries.C. consumers no longer desire the services that banks provide.D. markets produce alternatives to costly regulations.

Jenkins

SCM 3070 Polak Causes of variation that can be identified and eliminated are called what?A. RandomJohnson

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B. AssignableC. MysteriousD. StochasticE. Common

On a control chart, what separates sample points indicating common causes of variation from those indicating assignable causes of variation?

A. Center linesB. Control limitsC. Specification limitsD. Production limitsE. Mean divided by standard deviation

The terms, "general purpose equipment," "flexible and capable of some customization" and "wide variety of goods or services in small batches (which can be larger than one-piece)" best relate to

A. ProjectsB. Job shopsC. Flow shop processesD. Continuous flow processesE. Craftwork

Automobile factories and hospital laboratory work are examples ofA. ProjectsB. Job shop processesC. Flow shop processesD. Continuous flow processesE. Cottage industries

Which of the following is not a principal dimension of the servicescape?A. Ambient conditionB. Process and job designC. Spatial layout and functionality

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D. Signs and artifactsE. corporate symbols

Which of the following is not true regarding the differences between goods and services?

A. Demand for services is easier to forecast.B. Customers participate in many services.C. Services cannot be stored as physical inventory.D. Patents do not protect services.E. Service include intangibles.

MGT 4990

Kemper 5. Russia’s largest car maker is cooperating with General Motors to build 75,000 sport utility vehicles annually in Togliatti, 600 miles from Moscow. This type of initiative is called a:

A. mergerB. divestmentC. takeoverD. joint ventureE. acquisition

5. According to Michael Porter, there are just two generic strategies a business can follow successfully. They are:

A. low price, low differentiationB. low cost, low differentiationC. low price, high differentiationD. low cost, high differentiationE. none of the above

6. Omaha-based Berkshire Hathaway sells ice cream, jewelry, construction material, insurance, and newspapers, among other things. With that in mind, which of the strategies listed below is closest to their approach?

A. DiversificationB. Integration

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7. When tobacco giant Philip Morris bought Miller Beer and Kraft foods, what strategy were they pursuing?

A. DivestitureB. Concentric diversificationC. Vertical integration

8. Procter and Gamble agreed to buy Clairol shampoo from Bristol-Meyers Squibb for $4.95 billion. From the viewpoint of P&G, this was a(n):

A. acquisitionB. divestmentC. takeover

9. Pennsylvania-based Quaker Steak and Lube opened its 10th restaurant—and first in the Dayton area--across from Wright State. In doing so, what strategy was it following?

A. Product developmentB. DiversificationC. DivestitureD. Market development

11. All of the following businesses sell a highly differentiated product except:A. Dorothy Lane MarketB. Mercedes-Benz automobilesC. Speedway gasolineD. Rolex watchesE. Starbucks coffee

15. A firm is said to have a sustainable competitive advantage when it:A. Outperforms its rivalsB. Earns a persistently higher rate of profits than rivalsC. Prevents its rivals from imitating or copying what it doesD. All of the above

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19. According to Michael Porter, a firm can gain a competitive advantage:A. If it offers a similar product or service at a lower priceB. If it offers a product or service that is perceived as being of a higher qualityC. Neither a. nor b.D. Both a. and b.

20. According to Porter’s competitive strategies, a strategy based on offering superior products or services to a narrow segment or market scope would be referred to as:

A. Cost leadershipB. Cost focusC. DifferentiationD. Differentiation focus

23. How is Porter's value chain analysis used in strategic planning?A. To examine the sequence of activities a firm performs to deliver something

of value.B. To select items for a restaurant chain’s value menus.C. To decide whether to franchise a store in a new market after it has has been

profitable in an initial market.D. To identify the value of the weakest link in a chain of stores.

24. Which of the following is NOT a component of Porter's value chain analysis?A. Franchising activities such as training.B. Primary activities such as service.C. Support activities such as procurement.D. Value-creating activities such as outbound logistics.

25. Which of the following undermines the sustainability of a distinctive competence?

A. ImitationB. Elasticity

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C. inflationD. Economies of learning

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Learning Goal 3: Students will develop effective communication skills.

Learning Objective 3.1: Students will demonstrate an ability to communicate effectively in writing.Where measured:

Taught by: Procedure: ReceivedResults

MGT 3110

Back Papers will be collect electronically in classes and forward to the Assistant Dean who will have them assessed by the English Department Faculty using the following rubric:

ASSESSING WRITTEN COMMUNICATION RUBRIC – INDIVIDUAL PAPERSMGT 3110

Term/YearPaper #

TraitsProcess Performance Levels

3 (Very Good) 2 (Satisfactory) 1 (Unsatisfactory)1. Demonstrates

conceptual knowledge of topical issue

Addresses key literature on topical issue with a minimum of two references in opening paragraph

Addresses key literature on topical issue with less than two references in opening paragraph

Either does not address key literature on topical issue or provides no references in the opening paragraph

2. Organizes content in a logical, structured manner and provides transitional statements

All content is well organized, flows logically, and is structurally easy to follow; all transitional statements provided

Most but not all of the content is well organized, flows logically, and is structurally easy to follow; some transitional statements provided

Content is poorly organized, does not flow well, and is structurally hard to follow; transitional statements not provided

3. Uses acceptable style, grammar and word choice

No or very minimal spelling, grammar, sentence structure, and paragraphing errors; very good word choice

Few spelling errors, generally appropriate grammar, sentence structure, and paragraphing; satisfactory word choice

Numerous spelling errors; inappropriate grammar, sentence structure, and paragraphing throughout the document; poor word choice

4. Demonstrates effective

Uses multiple professional research sources and

Uses more than one professional research source

No literature or use of inappropriate web-based

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professional research skills

makes effective use of current and reliable information; sources are authoritative or come from the professional literature; includes current, relevant professional sources

but demonstrates no attempt to incorporate current information; most sources are authoritative or come from professional literature; sources are generally current , relevant and professional

sources; sources are not authoritative or do not come from professional literature; sources are not current, relevant and/or professional

5. Documents sources effectively

Includes adequate and appropriate citations within the document and lists references that include full bibliographic information for each citation in the document; citations and references are consistent throughout the document

Includes some appropriate citations within the document and lists references at the end of the document; references are usable but may not contain the full bibliographic information; citations and references are partially consistent throughout the document

Inadequate or inconsistent documentation of references in the document and/or in the bibliography

TraitsContent Performance Levels

6 (Very Good) 3 (Satisfactory) 1(Unsatisfactory)6. Documents depth

of understanding by means of concrete examples and reasoned analysis

Regularly provides concrete examples and reasoned analysis as evidence for claims

Occasionally provides concrete examples and reasoned analysis as evidence for claims

Does not provide concrete examples and reasoned analysis as evidence for claims

Points: Grade:1. Very Good: 16 – 21 points2.3. Satisfactory: 9 – 15 points4.5. Unsatisfactory: 8 or below6. TOTAL:

Learning Objective 3.2: Students will demonstrate an ability to communicate effectively in oral form.Where Taught by: Procedure: Received

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measured:

Results

FIN 2050 Wood Presentations will be videotaped in classes and forwarded to the Assistant Dean who will have them assessed by faculty in the Communications Department using the following rubric:

Number of Speaker/Team _________________ Presentation Evaluation

Advanced(Exemplary)

Developing(Average)

Emerging(Low

performance)EACH CATEGORY IS WORTH UP TO 5 POINTS EACH

5-4 3-2 0-1

ORGANIZATION_____ Attention-getting introduction_____Clear preview of purpose/main points_____Main ideas are well organized and logically developed_____Excellent transitions_____Satisfying and well developed conclusion

TOPIC KNOWLEDGE (CONTENT)_____ Full understanding of information_____ Unobtrusive use of notes_____ Answered questions accurately

SUPPORT_____ Strong supporting evidence_____ Citations were accurate and strengthened

argument

VERBAL & VOCAL EFFECTIVENESS_____ Language is appropriate for the

audience/setting/content_____ Speaker is eloquent but concise_____ Minimal use of disfluencies (“umm,” “uh,” etc.)_____ Masterful volume & variety_____ Excellent vocalics-- (articulation,

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inflection, pace, pauses, etc.)

PHYSICAL DELIVERY_____ Appeared confident and poised_____ Reinforcing facial expressions_____ Appropriate eye contact – enough? balanced?_____ Meaningful gestures & body movement

TEAM SKILLS_____ Evidence of team collaboration_____ Seamless transitions between team members_____ Information supported each others’ research

VISUAL AID_____ Professional looking_____ Complements narrative_____ Used effectively_____ Appropriate amount of information per slide_____ Error free

Total Score _____________

_____ VERY GOOD: 28-35_____ SATISFACTORY: 22-27_____ UNSATISFACTORY: 21 OR BELOW

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MGT 3100

Petrick Presentations will be videotaped in classes and forwarded to the Assistant Dean who will have them assessed by faculty in the Communications Department using the following rubric:


Advanced(Exemplary)

Developing(Average)

Emerging(Low


5-4 3-2 0-1




argumentVERBAL & VOCAL EFFECTIVENESS

_____ Language is appropriate for the audience/setting/content

_____ Speaker is eloquent but concise_____ Minimal use of disfluencies (“umm,” “uh,” etc.)_____ Masterful volume & variety_____ Excellent vocalics-- (articulation, inflection, pace, pauses, etc.)

HenryEvans

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TEAM SKILLS_____ Evidence of team collaboration_____ Seamless transitions between team members_____ Information supported each others’ research




FIN 4270 Wood Students will present a comprehensive financial plan to the class.

Presentations will be videotaped in classes and forwarded to the Assistant Dean who will have them assessed by faculty in the Communications Department using the following rubric:


Advanced(Exemplary)

Developing(Average)

Emerging(Low

44


5-4 3-2 0-1




argumentVERBAL & VOCAL EFFECTIVENESS

_____ Language is appropriate for the audience/setting/content

_____ Speaker is eloquent but concise_____ Minimal use of disfluencies (“umm,” “uh,” etc.)_____ Masterful volume & variety_____ Excellent vocalics-- (articulation, inflection, pace, pauses, etc.)


TEAM SKILLS_____ Evidence of team collaboration_____ Seamless transitions between team

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members_____ Information supported each others’ research




Learning Objective 3.3: Students will demonstrate knowledge of effective communication skills in a digital environment.Where measured:


MKT 2500

Gulas 16. A system of on-line applications that use software to build on-line communities of people who share interests and activities is known as a _________________.

A. Consumer CultureB. Flash mobC. Social NetworkD. Team PurchaseE. Wisdom of Crowds

17. Video on demand (VOD), iPods, and DVRs present which of the following problems for advertisers?

A. Consumers are watching less television.


46

B. Consumers have difficulty attending to specific advertising messages due to advertising clutter.C. Audiences are less interested in media consumption.D. Consumers have more choices about what to watch or not watch.

E. Television advertising is becoming more expensive

MGT 3100

PetrickHenryEvans

Email communication is the richest form of communication.TrueFalse

Only some things that you post in a social networking environment is potentially accessible to your employers or other professionals.

TrueFalse

You are working on a team that is facing a very difficult decision. There is a strong diversity of opinions among team members, and emotions are high. What is the best form of communication for making a final decision in this situation?

A. textB. emailC. phone conferenceD. face-to-face meeting

MIS 3000 Lumpkin The confusion created by ________ makes it difficult for companies to create customer relationship management, supply chain management, or enterprise systems that integrate data from different sources.

A. data independenceB. data redundancyC. batch processingD. online processing

A computerized system that performs and records the daily dealings necessary to conduct business is classified as a(n):

A. executive-level system

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B. transaction-level systemC. decision-level systemD. management-level system

A field identified in a table as holding the unique identifier of the table's records is called the:

A. primary keyB. unique IDC. foreign keyD. primary field

What can effective and efficient supply chain management systems enable an organization to accomplish?

A. Increase the power of its buyers.B. Increase its supplier power.C. Increase switching costs to increase the threat of substitute products and

services.D. All of the above.

The most prominent data manipulation language today is:A. Access.B. Crystal Reports.C. SQL.D. DB2.

Executive support systems are information systems that support the:A. Decision-making and administrative activities of middle managers.B. Day-to-day processes of production.C. Long-range planning activities of senior management.D. Knowledge and data workers in an organization.

Customer relationship management applications dealing with the analysis of customer data to provide information for improving business performance best describes:

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A. Analytical customer relationship management applications.B. Supply chain management applications.C. Operational customer relationship management applications.D. Generic customer relationship management applications.

Assume you work for a package delivery service in a major metropolitan area, and that the business has been losing customers for several years. You have been asked to find a solution to this problem, perhaps one which uses modern information technologies. What is the correct way to proceed:

A. Look for solutions, evaluate the solutions, identify the problem more clearly, and then implement the solution.

B. Design solutions, evaluate and identify the problems, choose the best solution, and then implement the solution.

C. Think about what solutions can be implemented, look for solution designs, evaluate the designs, and then implement the solution.

D. Identify the problem, design alternative solutions, choose the best solution, and then implement the solution.

You have been hired by a non-profit agency to implement a system to handle their donations. Event fund-raisers need to be able to quickly access a donor's information for updates. The marketing department wants to evaluate the effectiveness of past campaigns for goal-seeking analysis. What system(s) will best meet these needs?

A. EISB. TPS with DSSC. TPSD. DSS

A(n) ________ contains data from various key business processes and stores the data in a single comprehensive data repository, usable by other parts of the business.

A. enterprise resource planning systemB. automatic reporting systemC. transaction systemD. management information system

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Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a relational database?A. Reduced redundancy.B. Increased security.C. Reduced flexibility.D. Increased quality.

Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between entities and attributes?A. The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute ADDRESSB. The entity PRODUCT with the attribute PURCHASEC. The entity PRODUCT with the attribute CITYD. The entity CUSTOMER with the attribute PRODUCT

A data warehouse is a _________ collection of information, gathered from many different _____________ databases, that supports business analysis and decision-making tasks.

A. Logical, operationalB. Logical, transactionalC. Physical, operationalD. Physical, transactional

FIN 3110 Ingraham Students must complete a set of financial statements (Income Statement, Balance Sheet, and Statement of Cash Flows) using incomplete financial data. Students will also create common-size income statements and balance sheets. In addition, each student will create formulas in each of the yellow boxes on the spreadsheet that will produce the correct result for any values of the inputs.

Students will be graded based on their completion on a five point scale for each of the following:

1. Complete an Income Statement2. Complete a Balance Sheet3. Complete a Statement of Cash Flows4. Formating

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Learning Goal 4: Students will cultivate a capacity for leadership and develop the competencies associated with ethics and an understanding of social responsibility.

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Learning Objective 4.1: Students will be able to recognize, analyze and resolve ethical and social responsibility issues.Where measured:


EC 2040 Endres Which of the following illustrates the concept of a negative externality?A. A college professor plays a vigorous game of racquet ball with the racquet

she recently purchased.B. A flood wipes out a farmer’s entire corn crop.C. A college student plays his new stereo system at 2:00 a.m and wakes up his

neighbors.D. A janitor eats a burger during his lunch break.


EC 2050 Herrick When the government engages in an expansionary fiscal policy, it ___________. Everything else constant, aggregate demand___________.

A. increases interest rates; increasesB. increases exports; decreasesC. increases government expenditure and/or decreases taxes; increasesD. expands government regulations; decreases

DaoudOlsonFreire-SolórzanoDungCavanaugh

MKT 2500

Gulas 18. The American Marketing Association Code of Ethics includes which of the following?

A. General NormsB. Ethical ValuesC. Implementation of the codeD. All the above.

19. The _______________________ maintains that marketers must satisfy customers’ needs in ways that also benefit society and are profitable to the firm.

A. value propositionB. customer relationship managementC. social marketing conceptD. sales orientationE. value chain management

Gupta

Munch

Ramsey

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20. _________________ are messages that champion an issue or promote not-for-profit organizations that serve society in some way.

A. Advocacy advertisementsB. Product advertisementsC. Public service advertisementsD. Institutional advertisementsE. Brand advertisements

Wamwara-Mbugua

MGT 3110

Back 13. Deontological ethical theories, from the Greek word deos, meaning "ends" or "purposes," try to answer questions about right and wrong by focusing on whether a person's conduct will produce desirable consequences.

TrueFalse

The deontological perspective focuses on the actions of the leader and his or her moral obligations and responsibilities to do the right thing.

TrueFalse

15. In the workplace, altruistic service behavior can be observed in activities such as ________________ .

A. mentoringB. empowerment behaviorsC. team buildingD. citizenship behaviorsE. All of the above

16. Identify the principle of ethical leadership.A. Respect

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B. ServiceC. JusticeD. HonestyE. All of the above

Did the issues that Deborah Shank and her family face, after her automobile accident, reflect ethical and social responsibility issues for Wal-Mart? Your response must include an analysis and resolution that reflects your position.

Grading rubric (there are two ways to answer this question) -

1. Wal-Mart was correct when it recovered the approximately $470,000 in medical costs.

The following items must be included to be a complete answer:

Approximately $470,000 in medical costs Primary function or purpose of organization Stockholder perspective Role morality Friedman (profits, free and open competition without deception or fraud, not

recovering the $470,000 is taxation without representation [e.g., theft; and makes the assumption that “stockholders do not want corporations to engage in philanthropy or help solve social problems {Sage, 119}.”])

Friedman/Sustainability Debate (Sage, 120)” “Ethical management requires that when an individual interest is sacrificed

for the organizational good, the individual must be treated with respect (p. 123).”

Respect for persons is fundamental moral principle for managing orgs (p. 123)

2. Wal-Mart was not correct when it recovered the approximately $470,000 in medical costs.

54

The following items must be included to be a complete answer:

Approximately $470,000 in medical costs Primary function or purpose of organization Stakeholder perspective Role morality Stakeholder Theory Sustainable management (this includes being socially responsible) Friedman/Sustainability Debate (Sage, 120)” “Ethical management requires that when an individual interest is sacrificed

for the organizational good, the individual must be treated with respect (p. 123).”

Respect for persons is fundamental moral principle for managing orgs (p. 123)

“Vulnerable consumers ethically require more help … (127).” “Despite the view of the Friedmanites, some form of corporate social

responsibility is accepted as an obligation (p. 129).

Exceptional Strong Average Weak Very Weak

Content

Readability

EC 3010 Endres 1. The existence of FDIC (deposit) insurance can increase the likelihood that depositors will need deposit protection, as banks with deposit insurance

A. are likely to take on greater risks than they otherwise would.B. are likely to be too conservative, reducing the probability of turning a profit.C. are likely to regard deposits as an unattractive source of funds due to

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55

depositorsʹ demandsD. for safety.E. are placed at a competitive disadvantage in acquiring funds.

Learning Objective 4.2: Students will know how to develop and promote an ethical and socially responsible organizational culture.Where measured:


EC 2040 Endres Which of the following reason may be used to justify the governmentproviding a good?

A. The good is excludable.B. The good is associated with negative externalities.C. The good is under provided, if left to the market.D. The good is excludable and rival in consumption.


EC 2050 Herrick As a measure of macroeconomic activity, GDP per capita:A. Provides a measure of income distribution among the population in the

economy.B. Does not account for home-based output that was produced for household

consumption.C. Does not count the sale of newly produced and sold final goods; it only

counts newly produced intermediary goods and services.D. Excludes the population’s expenditures associated with crime, pollution, and

hospitalization, because it is a measure of growth and well-being.

DaoudOlsonFreire-SolórzanoDungCavanaugh

FIN 2210 Ingram Finance will use one of the following three questions for assessment of this learning objective:


12. Which of the following actions is consistent with social responsibility but is necessarily inconsistent with stockholder wealth maximization?

AkhbariPauleHull

56

A. Investing in a smokestack "scrubber" to reduce the firm's air pollution as mandated by law.

B. Voluntarily installing expensive machinery to treat effluent discharge which currently is being dumped into a river where it is ruining the drinking water of the community where the plant is located.

C. Investing in a smokestack filter to reduce sulphur-dioxide emissions in order to reduce the current tax being levied on the firm by the state for its pollution.

D. Making a large corporate donation to the local community in order to fund a recreation complex that will be used by the community and the firm's employees.

E. Each of the above actions is consistent with social responsibility and none are necessarily inconsistent with stockholder wealth maximization.

FIN 2210 Questions Assessment B:

12. Which of the following statements concerning a firm's quest to maximize wealth is correct?

A. In extremely competitive industries, we would expect firms would voluntarily engage in many socially beneficial projects to try to maximize their stocks' values.

B. Actions that maximize a firm's stock price are inconsistent with maximizing social welfare.

C. The concepts of social responsibility and ethical responsibility on the part of corporations are completely different and neither is relevant in maximizing stock price.

D. In a competitive market, if a group of firms does not spend resources making social welfare improvements, but another group does, in general, this will not affect the second group's ability to attract funds.

E. If government did not mandate socially responsible corporate actions, such as those relating to product safety and fair hiring practices, most firms in competitive markets probably would not pursue such policies voluntarily.

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12. Which of the following is an example of an area of business where use of "questionable" ethics is considered a necessity?A. Attracting and sustaining new customers.B. Hiring and keeping skilled employees.C. Keeping up with competition.D. Dealing with firms who use "questionable" ethics.E. None of the above.

MGT 3110

Back 13. Deontological ethical theories, from the Greek word deos, meaning "ends" or "purposes," try to answer questions about right and wrong by focusing on whether a person's conduct will produce desirable consequences.

TrueFalse

14. The deontological perspective focuses on the actions of the leader and his or her moral obligations and responsibilities to do the right thing.

TrueFalse

15. In the workplace, altruistic service behavior can be observed in activities such as ________________ .

A. mentoringB. empowerment behaviorsC. team buildingD. citizenship behaviorsE. All of the above

16. Identify the principle of ethical leadership.A. RespectB. ServiceC. Justice

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D. HonestyE. All of the above

MIS 3000 Lumpkin Where do organizations typically place firewalls?A. Between a personal computer and the serverB. Between a personal computer and a printerC. Between the server and the content filtering softwareD. Between the server and the Internet

What is a method for confirming users' identities?A. AuthenticationB. PreventionC. DetectionD. Response

What is encryption?A. Occurs when an organization uses software that filters content to prevent the

transmission of unauthorized information.B. Scrambles information into an alternative form that requires a key or

password to decrypt the information.C. Hardware and/or software that guards a private network by analyzing the

information leaving and entering the network.D. A form of unsolicited email.

What is the recommended way to implement information security lines of defense?A. People first, technology secondB. Technology first, people secondC. None of the aboveD. All of the above

What is the identification of a user based on a physical characteristic, such as a fingerprint, iris, face, voice, or handwriting?

A. Smart cardB. Token

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C. BiometricsD. Content filtering

What is social engineering?A. Using one’s social skills to trick people into revealing access credentials or

other information valuable to the attackerB. Legitimate users who purposely or accidentally misuse their access to the

environment and cause some kind of business-affecting incidentC. Small electronic devices that change user passwords automaticallyD. A method for confirming user’s identities

What is the first step you should take in managing data for a firm?A. Cleanse the data before importing it to any databaseB. Audit your data qualityC. Normalize the data before importing to a databaseD. Identify the data needed to run the business

Which of the following is NOT one of the top 10 questions managers should ask regarding information security?

A. Is there clear accountability for information security in our organization?B. How much is spent on information security and what is it being spent on?C. What is the impact on the organization of a serious security incident?D. How do we identify potential insiders?

EC 3010 Endres 1. If the incentive to take advantage of a conflict of interest is highA. removing the economies of scope that created the conflict may induce higher

costs because of the decrease in the flow of reliable information.B. then the government must step in to remove the conflict.C. the costs of non-action in removing the conflict will always be higher than the

cost ofremoving the conflict.

D. firms will always step in and work to remove the conflict.

Jenkins

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Learning Objective 4.3: Students will know how to effectively lead and collaborate with others.Where measured:


MGT 3100

Petrick One of the members of your work group, Joshua, is constantly goofing off and interrupting you with his wisecracks. His behavior is impeding your group's ability to get work done. Which of the following statements is least likely to make Joshua feel defensive?

A. “Joshua, your wise-cracks are really annoying. I wish you’d stop saying things like that.”

B. “Joshua, I wish you’d take the jokes someplace else.”C. “Joshua, you make me so frustrated. Please stop interrupting me when I'm

speaking.”D. “Joshua, when you goof off and interrupt me during our group meetings, I

get off track and it takes me time to get refocused, which makes me feel very frustrated.”

James is your manager. He observes you and Brenda having a conversation. You are an experienced co-worker. You often help others. Some things have happened to make James question Brenda's ability, and now Brenda appears to be distracted from her work. He reprimands Brenda. She tries to explain that she was asking you for help, but James suggests that she spend more time working and less time talking. James is demonstrating which of the following communication problems?

A. poor listeningB. defensivenessC. cultureD. personal space issues

Studies suggest that perhaps 80 to 90 percent of information transmitted during a conversation is nonverbal.

TrueFalse

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You are president of a small company. Kim is one of your vice presidents and you have had many opportunities to observe her behavior in a variety of situations. In one case you saw her control her anger when a different person probably would have lashed out. In a second case you saw her “read between the lines” and ask insightful questions about one of her subordinate’s feelings when that person made a negative comment about a co-worker. In a third case you saw her express concern about a subordinate who was involved in a car accident. These examples suggest that Kim has a high degree of:

A. emotional intelligenceB. personalityC. predictabilityD. task ethics

Jeanette is a front-line manager who strives to empower her workers. One day, David approaches her with a problem that is similar to an issue she has solved on in the past. She wants to help him to solve the problem himself, but she also realizes she could do it herself in half the time. Which of the following actions is MOST likely to empower David in this situation?

A. Take over the project and just get it done.B. Send David to her boss to ask for the information he needs.C. Coach him about how she has solved a similar problem, but let him do the

work.D. Tell him to just do it and stop asking questions.

A leader who sets challenging goals for others would be described as using the __________________ leadership style.

A. AutocraticB. Achievement orientedC. TransformationalD. Directive

Leadership is defined as the ability to influence others toward the achievement of goals.True

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False

You have been named CEO of a global corporation based in New York with offices in five countries. Sales are down and there is a high level of dissatisfaction among senior leaders and their subordinates. From a transformational leadership perspective, where your intent is to empower other leaders, which of these actions would be most effective for changing this condition?

A. sending your best management team from New York to run the international offices

B. having executives in all offices report directly to youC. making all major corporate decisions yourself until the company's

performance improvesD. giving executives more freedom to make decisions

It is impossible to have power without also having authority.TrueFalse

Employees tend to use a broader range of influence tactics with their supervisors when trying to secure personal benefits than when trying to achieve organizational goals.

TrueFalse

The Vice President of your company assembles a team of people from different levels of the organization (e.g., Directors, Managers, Supervisors, Operatives) and who represent different functions (e.g., Marketing, Production, Finance) in order to have them recommend a decision rather than making the decision herself. She knows that when compared to individual decision-making:

A. group decisions are fasterB. group decisions have clearer accountabilityC. group decisions convey consistent valuesD. group decisions are more likely to be accepted in an organization

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As Vice President of Human Resources in a high-tech sales organization, Bob assembles a team of people. He assigns them the task of developing a new total compensation system. He wants them to be a self-managed team. This means:

A. he will manage them himselfB. they will have members from different functions in the organizationC. they will regulate their own behaviorD. they will act collectively as if they are the Vice President

A manager assigns a team project to his work group. Which of the following actions is likely to be effective in reducing social loafing within the team?

A. assigning the same performance evaluation to all members of the teamB. increasing the size of team to reduce the workload for individual membersC. completing the assignmentD. having team members evaluate each other's contribution to the teamE. using personality similarities in assigning coworkers to teams

Defining the team's assignment involves specifying the team's purpose, responsibilities, and needs.

TrueFalse

MGT 3110

Back 7. A team is a specific type of group.TrueFalse

8. Research on the effectiveness of organizational teams has suggested that the use of teams has led to ___________________ .

A. greater productivityB. a more effective use of resourcesC. better decisions and problem solvingD. better-quality product and servicesE. All of the above

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9. Which of the following is NOT a task leadership function.A. getting the job doneB. solving problemsC. adapting to changesD. solving interpersonal problemsE. making plans

10. A common mistake in forming teams is to assume that people who have all the technical skills necessary to solve a problem also have the interpersonal skills necessary to collaborate effectively.

TrueFalse

SCM 3070 Polak The SCM Curriculum Committee will qualitatively assess this objective in the context of an experiential game and discuss the results in committee at the end of the semester.Johnson

KellarHamisterWeinstein

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