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Test Code : 12 Listening Section In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part. Part I Questions 1 to 4 Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English. The dialogue will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question. You will hear: Man : How is the meal? Woman : It’s really great. I’ve never thought you can do it. Man : During weekend I help my mother to cook. Woman : I am ashamed not to do that. You will also hear: Narrator: What does the woman admire? Sample answer You will read in your test book: Page 1 of 19

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Page 1: Web viewThe underlined word refers to ... (1976), jazz clarinettist and bandleader Benny Goodman (1982), ... Arthus Rubenstein was very good in playing piano

Test Code : 12

Listening Section In this section of the test, you will have the chance to show how well you understand spoken

English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for each part.

Part IQuestions 1 to 4

Directions:In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues spoken in English. The dialogue will be

spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so you must listen carefully to

understand what the speakers are saying.

After you hear a dialogue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and

decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a

sample question.

You will hear:

Man : How is the meal?

Woman : It’s really great. I’ve never thought you can do it.

Man : During weekend I help my mother to cook.

Woman : I am ashamed not to do that.

You will also hear:

Narrator: What does the woman admire? Sample answer

You will read in your test book:

A B C D E

A. The man’s cooking

B. The man’s mother’s meal

C. The man’s diligence to cook

D. The way how the man cooks

E. How the man spend his weekend

The best answer to the question ‘What does the woman admire? is choice (A), ‘The man’s

cooking’. Therefore, you should answer choice (A).

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1. A. He is a lucky man

B. He goes to the world

C. He studies in Harvard University

D. He graduates from Harvard University

E. He gets scholarship to study in Harvard University

2. A. Colllecting the homework

B. Doing the homework on time

C. Finishing the homework on time

D. Discussing the homework together

E. Asking help to finish the homework

3. A. The woman is a lab. coordinator

B. The woman has only one job at school

C. The principal doesn’t give a job to the woman

D. The principal usually gives a lot of jobs to the woman

E. The principal gives the woman two jobs at school

4. A. He is a lecturer

B. He is a student

C. He is a typewriter

D. He is a jobless

E. He is nothing to do

Part IIQuestions: 5 to 8Directions:In this part of the test, you will hear several questions or statements spoken in English

followed by four responses, also spoken in English. The questions and responses will be

spoken twice. They will not be printed in your test sheet, so you must listen carefully to

understand what the speakers are saying. You have to choose the best response to each

question or statement.

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Now listen to a sample question:

You will hear:

Woman : I’m sorry I wasn’t able to attend the meeting Sample answer

Man : Why?

Woman : My aunt passed away.

A B C D

You will also hear:

A. I’m sorry to hear that.

B. You must come at the next meeting.

C. I’m sorry I didn’t go there.

D. I passed the exam.

The best response to the statement ‘My aunt passed away’ is choice (A), ‘I’m sorry to hear that.’ Therefore, you should choose answer (A)

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet.

PART IIIQuestion: 8 to 11.Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear some dialogues and a monologue spoken in English.

The dialogues and monologues will be spoken twice. They will not be printed in your text

book, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. After you

listen to a dialogue or monologue, look at the five pictures provided in your test book, and

decide which one would be most suitable with the dialogue or monologue you have heard.

8.

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9.

10.

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11.

Part IVQuestion 12 to 15.Directions:In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be spoken

twice. They will not be printed in your text book, so you must listen carefully to understand

what the speakers are saying.

After you hear the monologue and the question about it, read the five possible answers and

decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

12. A. The opening times of Eiffel Tower.

B. The holidays’ times of Eiffel Tower.

C. The activities held in Eiffel Tower.

D. The description of Eiffel Tower.

E. The location of Eiffel Tower.

13. A. From 11.30 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.

B. From 10.30 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.

C. From 9.30 a.m. to 11.00 p.m.

D. From 09.00 a.m. to midnight

E. From 09.00 a.m. to evening.

14. A. The winner of the competition

B. The Archery competition

C. The Princes’ fell in love

D. The princess Mandalika

E. The king in LombokPage 5 of 19

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15. A. She is very beatiful

B. She is a king’s daughter

C. She is a kind and smart girl

D. She is from a rich family

E. She likes those men

The text is for questions 16 and 17.

Ms. Helen January 17, 2014

Jorua Ltd. 224 Duke Street

Cranley, Dorset, England

Dear Ms. Helen,

I wanted to take this opportunity to thank you for the excellent job you did in arranging

financing for our project. We appreciate the fact that you made yourself available for

discussion seven days a week. We were impressed by your through knowledge of

financing and investment banking.

We have been dealing with our new financial institution for about a week now. The

advantages of association with this institution are already apparent. I feel though we have

taken a quantum leap forward in progress.

I would not hesitate to retain your services again and to recommend your firm to any

company seeking the best representation.

Sincerely yours,

CelineGeneral Manager

16. What is the letter about?

A. An opportunity of a new job

B. A report of financial project

C. The advantages of association

D. A gratitude for an excellent job

E. A recommendation to other companies

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17. From the letter above we can conclude that Ms. Helen is…

A. A careless employee

B. A beautiful employee

C. A lazy employee

D. A smart employee

E. An arrogant

The text is for questions 18 and 19.

CHARMING HOTELAddrdress : Pelabuhan II Street, KM 20 Sukabumi, West Java Post. 43211Come and enjoy your time in Charming Hotel. It has many standard international

facilities:

106 Ocean Drive

Enjoy the privacy of a small family-style hotel

Only 15 minutes from the airport and right next to the beach

Only 40 rooms (TV; air-conditioning; bath)

Outdoor restaurant beside the pool. Room from Rp. 240,000 – Rp. 550,000

Our restaurant also serves catering. For further information, please contact us in

0266-321632, or see at : www.charminghotel.com

18. According to the text, the restaurant also serves…

A. Facilities

B. Catering

C. Rooms

D. The privacy

E. Outdoor restaurant

19. “It has many standard international facilities.”

The underlined word refers to …

A. Your time

B. Charming Hotel

C. Jln. Pelabuhan II KM 20

D. A small family-style hotel

E. The airport

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The text is for questions 20 to 22.

Jakarta: Indonesia dancer-choreographer Sardono W. Kusumo has been awarded the

Distinguished Artist Award by the International Society for the Performing Arts (ISPA).

The Sardono Seni Dance studio in Surakarta, Central Java, where the artists is based,

said the award would be presented during a ceremony on June 20, as part of the society’s

17th International Congress at Esplanade in Singapore. The congress is taking place

between June 18 and June 12.

The ISPA Distinguished Artist award, first awarded in 1975, is presented to performing

artists who have made an outstanding contribution of talent, artistry, dedication and service

to the world of performing arts.

Past recipients include pianist Arthur Rubenstein (1976), jazz clarinettist and bandleader

Benny Goodman (1982), opera, theatre, and film director Peter Sellers (1990), mime Marcel

Marceau (1992), Broadway composer Stephen Sondheim (1994), and Soprano Dame Joan

Sutherland (1994).

20. Which one from the following sentences is not TRUE according to the text?

A. Sardono W. Kusumo never got award from ISPA

B. The ISPA Distinguished Artis Award started in 1975

C. The ISPA Distinguished Artis Award was given to artists

D. Arthus Rubenstein was very good in playing piano

E. The award had been given in Singapore

21. “… the award would be presented during a ceremony…” (Paragraph 2)

The underlined word refers to …

A. International Congress

B. The world of performing arts

C. The Sardono Seni dance studio

D. Indonesian dancer-choreographer

E. The Distinguished Artist Award

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22. An artist will be awarded ISPA if they have performed a very remarkable performance of

the following, except…

A. Artistry

B. Talent

C. Humor

D. Service

E. Dedication

The text is for questions 23 to 25.

On the River

I paddled for about five miles and then I was tired. I stopped on Jackson’s island, hid

the canoe behind some trees and went to sleep.

I woke up when I heard a boom. It came from somewhere up the river. Then another

boom came louder.

I saw the white smoke. They were shooting a big gun from a steamboat into the water

because they wanted to find my dead body. They wanted it to come up to the top of the

water.

I hid in the tall grass when the steamboat came near the island. I could see Tom

Sawyer, Tom’s aunt Polly, the Widow Douglas, Judge Thatcher, even Pap was there.

Everybody was talking about me. They all thought I was dead. They shot the big gun again.

BOOM!. That one was really loud. It made my ears ring, but I didn’t move from the tall grass.

23. Where did the writer hide the canoe?

A. The river

B. A steamboat

C. In the tall grass

D. On Jackson’s island

E. Behind some trees

24. .....That one was really loud. (Paragraph 4)

What does ‘one’ in the sentence refers to?

A. Everybody

B. The big one

C. Boom

D. My ear

E. The tall grass

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25. “…I said quietly while tapping his shoulder.”

What is the closest meaning of the underlined word?

A. touching

B. hitting

C. kicking

D. pushing

E. knocking

This text is for questions 26 to 28.When a ray of light passes from one transparent substance to another, such as from

air into glass, it is refraction, happens because light moves at different speeds in different

substances-and makes things appear in different places.

You may have noticed that a swimming pool looks as if it is not as deep as it really is

and fish in a lake or a river appear to be nearer the surface than they really are.. the reason

for the illusion is that light rays travelling from underwater object do not move in the same

direction when they emerge through the surface and into the air.

Similar effects occurs when light rays and the normal (a line a right angles to the

surface) is called the angle of incident. Below the water surface, the angle between the light

ray and the normal is called the angle of refraction. When light enters a denser medium, as

when it travels from air into water or into glass, the angle of refraction is less than the angle

of incident-the ray is refracted toward the normal. When light travels from one medium into a

less dense medium, as from glass into air, the angle of refraction is greater than the angle of

incident-the ray is refracted away from the normal.

Refraction can have some strange effects, for example, a drinking straw placed in a

glass of water. The straw appears to bend below the surface. That is because light rays

travelling from straw and leaving the surf are refracted away from the normal. Another

example is the setting Sun, when the air near the surface is denser than that above it. Light

rays from the sun are refracted as they pass through this denser air. Again, looking back

along the refracted rays, we see the Sun in a different position. As result, we appear to be

able to see the Sun even when it has dropped below the horizon.

26. Where is the angle refraction?

A. Above the water surface, between the light ray and the normal,

B. Above the water surface, between the incident ray and the normal

C. Below the water surface, between the light ray and the incident ray

D. Below the water surface, between the incident ray and the normal

E. Below the water surface, between the light ray and the normal

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27. When is the angle of refraction greater than the angle of incidence?

A. When light enters a denser medium

B. When light travels from the same dense of medium

C. When light travels from one medium into a less dense medium

D. When light fails to enter a denser medium because there is an obstacle

E. When light travels from the same dense of medium because there is an obstacle.

28. ….they emerge through the surface and into the air.

The underlined word means….

A. shine

B. appear

C. travel

D. drop

E. occur

This text is for questions 29 to 32Each society has its own beliefs, attitudes, customs, behaviors, and social habits. These

give people a sense of who they are, how they should behave, and what they should or

should not do. These ‘rules’ reflect the ‘culture’ of a country.

 People become conscious of such rules when they meet people from different cultures.

For example, in some cultures, being on time can mean turning up several hours late for an

appointment, even for a business meeting; in others, 3 p.m. means 3 p.m. Also, the rules

about when to eat vary from culture to culture. Many North Americans and Europeans are

used to having three mealtimes a day and organizing their timetable around them. In some

countries, on the other hand, people often do not have strict rules like this - people eat when

they want to and every family has its own time table.

When people visit or live in a country for the first time, they are often surprised at the

differences that exist between their own culture and that in the other country. The most

common way of comparing two cultures is in terms of their differences - not their similarities.

29. What is the main idea of paragraph 2?

A. Being time for an appointment

B. The rule of having meal is various

C. Coming on time from culture to culture

D. Organizing timetable for people in different culture

E. People’s awareness of rule due to seeing different culture

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30. Which statement is TRUE according to the text?

A. There are no people, becoming conscious of a new culture.

B. There are no countries having strict rules of mealtimes.

C. There are no strict rules of mealtimes in some countries.

D. There are no problems for people who visit a country for the first time.

E. There are no similarities between a culture is one country and that in another.

31. "Being on time can mean turning up several hours late ..." (Paragraph 2)

The underlined words mean....

A. arriving

B. exposing

C. emerging

D. displaying

E. appearing

32. In some cultures people may....for a business meeting.

A. come late

B. eat strictly

C. be surprised

D. behave differently

E. use their own table

This text is for questions 33 to 35

Although Gone With The Wind was a sort of second choice with the New York Film

Critics, its presentation was accorded more space in newspapers than any motion picture

has ever been given. After buying the rights to the novel, David Selznick had attracted

attention by his suggestions for the part of Scarlett O’Hara.

The picture was first presented publicly in Atlanta and some of the newspapers,

including The New York Times, sent staff writers to attend that opening. The accounts were

printed on the first pages of some editions of the afternoon newspapers in large cities all

over the country.

Gone with the Wind was launched in two theaters in New York the Astor and the

Capitol. In The New York Times, the review was spread over four columns with a two-

column cut and an added account of the celebrities present. The critic referred to it as ‘a

handsome, scrupulous, unstinting version of the 1,037-page novel’.

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33. What does the text tell about?

A. The review about “Gone with the Wind” film

B. The famous novel “Gone with the Wind”

C. The story of Gone with the Wind

D. The part of Scarlet O’Hara

E. An interesting movie

34. Where was the film ‘Gone With The Wind’ fiirst presented publicly?

A. in Atlanta

B. In New York

C. in New York Times

D. in large cities of the country.

E. on the first page of newspaper.

35. “The accounts were printed on the first pages of some editions of the afternoon

newspapers in large cities all over the country.”

What is the apposite meaning of the underlined word?

A. Big

B. Little

C. Small

D. Narrow

E. Wide

This text is for questions 36 to 41.

Video games become a controversial issue for parents and educators. Those who

are in favor of video games believe that video games have some benefits. However, people

who are against video games consider these games have several negative effects.

In the proponents’ point of view, video game functions as a form of light

entertainment. As a part of a balanced entertainment, games can provide stress relief for

kids, help with aspects of coordination and concentration on visual details, and help kids

relate to one another in some forms of healthy competition.

On the contrary, the opponents of video games think that video games have some

disadvantages. Video game players are prone to aggressive thoughts, attitudes, and actions.

Violent video games cause children to be less sensitive to the pain and suffering of others.

Study also shows that these children are more fearful of the world around them. In addition,

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video games make the players addicted. Furthermore, too much time on any video

entertainment takes away time spent on school work. As a result, the games cause children

to weaken their school achievement.

In conclusion, parents should limit their children on playing video games. Children

can play video games at their leisure but parents should think about how well balanced it is.

Violent video games also can be thought as treats.

(Taken from http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Video_game_controversies)

36. Which of the following statements is the benefit of video games?

A. Video games cause stress to children.

B. Video games can’t help kids to compete fairly.

C. Video games can coordinate the kids’ cooperation.

D. Video games do not function as a form of light amusement.

E. Video games can improve children’s coordination and concentration.

37. The main idea of paragraph three is . . . .

A. the benefits of video games

B. the advantages of video games

C. the amusement of video games

D. the disadvantages of video games

E. the advantages and disadvantages of video games

38. We imply that parents …

A. should bound their kids’ time on video games.

B. shouldn’t limit their children’s time to play video games.

C. cannot control their children’s leisure time on video games.

D. have to play games with their children because it is helpful.

E. mustn’t control their children in spending their time on video games.

39. .....“In addition, video games make the players addicted.” (Paragraph 3)

The underlined word is closest in meaning to ….

A. diligent

B. creative

C. dependent

D. intelligent

E. industrious

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40. “Those who are in favor of video games believe that video games have some benefits.”

(paragraph 1)

What does the word ‘Those’ refer to?

A. Parents

B. Educators

C. Video games

D. Controversial issue

E. Parents and educators

41. The type of the text above is....

A. Explanation

B. Discussion

C. Exposition

D. Description

E. Report

Read the following text and answer questions 42 to 44.

Nelson Rohilahla Mandela was born in Transkei, South Africa on July 18, 1918. His

father was Hendry Mphakanyiswa of the Tembu Tribe. Mandela himself was educated at

University College of Fort Hare and the University of Witwatersrand where he studied law.

He joined the African National Congress in 1944 and was engaged in resistance against the

ruling National Party’s apartheid policies after 1948. He went on trial for treason in 1956-

1961 and was acquitted in 1961.

After the banning of the ANC in 1960, Nelson Mandela argued for the setting up of a

military wing within the ANC. In June 1961, the ANC executive considered his proposal on

the use of violent tactics and agreed that those members who wished to involve themselves

in Mandela’s campaign would not be stopped from doing so by the ANC. This led to the

formation of Umkhonto we Sizwe.

Mandela was arrested in 1962 and sentenced to five year’s imprisonment with hard

labor. In 1963, when many fellow leaders of the ANC and the Umkhonto we Sizwe were

arrested, Mandela was brought to stand trial with them for plotting to overthrow the

government by violence. His statement from the dock received considerable international

publicity. On June 12, 1964, eight of the accused, including Mandela, were sentenced to life

imprisonment. From 1964 to 1982, he was incarcerated at Robben Island Prison, off Cape

Town; thereafter, he was at Pollsmor Prison, nearby on the mainland.

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During his years in prison, Nelson Mandela’s reputation grew steadily. He was widely

accepted as the most significant black leader in South Africa and became a potent symbol of

resistance as the anti-apartheid movement gathered strength. He consistently refused to

compromise his political position to obtain his freedom.

Nelson Mandela was released on February 11, 1990. After his release, he plunged

himself wholeheartedly into his life’s work, striving to attain the goals he and others had set

out almost four decades earlier.

42. How long was Mandela incarcerated at Robben Island Prison?

A. 16 years

B. 17 years

C. 18 years

D. 19 years

E. 20 years

43. What is the main idea of third paragraph?

A. Nelson Mandela was sent to prison.

B. Nelson Mandela was released from prison.

C. Nelson Mandela formed Umkhonto we Sizwe.

D. The African National Congress executive was Mandela.

E. Nelson Mandela joined National Party’s apartheid policies.

44. Why was Mandela brought to stand trial with many fellow leaders of the ANC and

the Umkhonto we Sizwe?

A. Nelson Mandela’s reputation grew steadily.

B. They were plotting to overthrow the government by violence.

C. His statement from the dock received considerable international publicity.

D. He was arrested and sentenced to five year’s imprisonment with hard labor.

E. He consistently refused to compromise his political position to obtain freedom.

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Read the following text and answer questions 45 to 46.

Hi, Guys! Our neighborhood will hold a Fund Raising Activity next month. It is intended to

help victims of the landslide which happened yesterday. Everyone who is interested in this

activity, please join us. You are also invited to donate your used clothes. If you have any

questions, please feel free to contact Ms. Cathy as chief program coordinator at her house

from 07.00 a.m. – 03.00 p.m. Monday to Friday.

Committee

45. What is the announcement about?

A. Neighborhood's activity

B. Used clothes donation

C. Victims of a landslide

D. Fund raising activity

E. Ms. Cathy's program

46. Where can Ms.Cathy accept her neighbors' questions?

A. At her house

B. At her office

C. At the neighborhood

D. At the landslide area

E. At the committee office

For question 47, rearrange the following sentences into the correct and meaningful paragraph!

(1) When inserting the SIM Card to cellphone, make sure that the cellphone has been

switched off and follow the direction bellow:

(2) Don't forget to switch on the cellphone. Wait until it is ready to use.

(3) First of all, press the locking catch and slide the cover then lift it off the phone.

(4) Cellphone is a modern communication device which connects one to the others by

voice, written message and data. However this device can not work until the SIM card is

inserted.

(5) After that, push two catches in the opposite directions and remove the battery.

(6) Then, put the battery and align it until snaps into its place.

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(7) Next, slide the SIM card carefully into the slot and make sure that the golden connect

arson are facing to the connector of the phone.

(8) Finally, insert the two catches of the back cover corresponding slot in the phone and

slide the cover forward button of the phone until locks into place.

47. A. 4 - 1 – 5 – 3 – 6 – 7 – 8 – 2

B. 4 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 7 – 6 – 2 – 8

C. 4 – 1 – 3 – 6 – 7 – 5 – 8 – 2

D. 4 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 7 – 6 – 2 – 8

E. 4 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 7 – 6 – 8 – 2

For questions 48 to 50, complete the following text with the correct words provided!The Ambarawa Train Museum houses 21 antique locomotives plus two more, which

are stored in the depot. These locomotives are no longer produced; even the factories that

(48) … them no longer exist. The main building of this museum is the defunct Ambarawa

railway station which was built in 1873. the station covers 127,500 m2.

The oldest in this museum is a locomotive made by Hartman Chemnitz. This

locomotive, with a length of 8.58 m and a width of 2.45 m, began its ( 49 )… in 1891. Using

wood as fuel, the steam locomotive could run 50 km/h – its maximum speed.

A special part of a visit to this museum is a trip by train from the Ambarawa Train

Museum to the defunct Bedono train station. This package tour is called Railway Mountain

Tour. Why is the trip so special? Because the participants will board an antique train and the

train will (50) … on a 4.9 kilometer-cog railway, which is the only one in the world.

48. A. set

B. made

C. stored

D. brought

E. programmed

49. A. action

B. creation

C. invention

D. operation

E. production

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50. A. get

B. open

C. travel

D. move

E. connect

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Test Code : 12

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