Tests. Module 1. Biological peculiarities of human vital functions1. __________ endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes attached to its outer membrane.

A. Smooth B. Spiked C. * Rough D. Cytoskeletal E. Both B and C

2. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts. Based on this information, it could not be

A. a cell from a pine tree. B. a grasshopper cell. C. a yeast (fungus) cell. D. * a bacterium. E. actually, it could be any of the above.

3. A molecule that has both polar and nonpolar regions is called ___________. A. Hydrophobic B. Hydrophilic C. * Amphipathic D. Hydrated E. Dehydrated

4. A phospholipid molecule has a head and 2 tails. The tails are found: A. At the surfaces of the membrane. B. * In the interior of the membrane. C. Both at the surfaces and the interior of the membrane. D. Spanning the membrane. E. In the cytoplasm.

5. A(n) __________ is composed of tetrameric protofilaments. A. microtubule B. extracellular matrix C. microfilament D. bacteriophage E. * intermediate filament

6. Active transport A. Requires a protein carrier. B. Moves a molecule against its concentration gradient. C. Requires a supply of energy. D. Requires ATP. E. * All of these.

7. Aerobic refers to what property of chemotrophs? A. Heat losses occur in the presence of oxygen. B. Chemotrophs remove carbon dioxide from the air. C. * Chemotrophs require oxygen to produce energy. D. Chemotrophs use, but do NOT require oxygen. E. Fermentation releases great amounts of gas, but only in chemotrophs.

8. All of the following statements concerning plasma membrane components are true, EXCEPT

A. G proteins are composed of three subunits. B. * The glycocalyx is usually composed of phospholipids. C. Channel proteins are not energy-dependent. D. Ankyrin binds to integrins of the red blood cell plasma membrane E. Glycocalyx is the sugar coat.

9. All transport through the cell membrane can be classified as either:

A. diffusion or osmosis B. pinocytosis or phagocytosis C. * active or passive D. all of the above E. none of the above

10. An erythrocyte is a: A. * Red blood cell B. White blood cell C. Platelet D. Neutrophil E. Plasma cell

11. An organelle differs from an organ in that an organelle A. * is a substructure of a cell B. contains one specific type of tissue C. is larger than an organ D. cannot be stained E. is more complicated than an organ

12. Approximately 95 percent of the energy needed to keep a cell alive is generated by the activity of the:

A. nucleus B. ribosomes C. * mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus E. none of the above

13. Bacteria do not have organelles. How are they able to carry out photosynthesis? A. * They use their cell membrane to carry out photosynthesis. B. 70S ribosomes function as a photosystem. C. They are parasites of plants that do have organelles. D. They interact in a symbiotic relationship with eukaryotic plants. E. DNA in the nucleoid captures solar energy.

14. Bacteria which are harmful to man are classed as: A. Toxins B. Antigens C. * Pathogens D. Commensals E. Antibodies

15. Bacterial cell are prokaryotic; in comparison to a typical eukaryotic cell they would A. * be smaller. B. have a smaller nucleus. C. lack a plasma membrane. D. have fewer internal membranous compartments. E. have a greater variety of organelles.

16. Carbon dioxide generally enters the plant through pores called A. mesophyll. B. the cuticle. C. connexons. D. bacteriochlorophylls. E. * stomata.

17. Cell fractionation is the most appropriate procedure for preparing ____ for study. A. isolated cells which are normally found tightly attached to neighbouring cells B. cells without a functional cytoskeleton C. * isolated organelles

D. the basic macromolecules E. bone and other similar cells which are situated within a mineral framework

18. Cell-cell communication in plants takes place via specialized structures called A. gap junctions. B. plasmodesmata. C. desmids. D. cell wall pores. E. none of the above

19. Cholesterol A. destabilizes the cell membrane. B. intercalates between the fatty acid chain within the bilayer. C. is found in abundance in prokaryotic cell membranes. D. increases permeability for small cations. E. all of the above

20. Cholesterol functions in the plasmalemma to A. Increase fluidity of the lipid bilayer B. * . Decrease fluidity of the lipid bilayer. C. Facilitate the diffusion of ions through the lipid bilayer. D. Assist in the transport of hormones across the lipid bilayer. E. All of these.

21. Collectively, what is the cytoplasm and nucleus called? A. Plasmalemma B. Glycocalyx C. * Protoplasm D. Cristae E. Ground substance

22. During the first phase of glycolysis, ATP is used to form what type of bond with glucose? A. dehydrogenation B. hydrogenation C. phosphoanhydride D. substrate-level phosphorylation E. * phosphoester

23. Dye injected into a plant cell might be able to enter an adjacent cell through a A. tight junction. B. microtubule. C. desmosome. D. * plasmodesma. E. gap junction.

24. Electron micrographs following freeze-fracture of the plasma membrane indicate that A. The membrane is a phospholipid bilayer B. * Some proteins span the membrane C. Protein is found only on the surfaces of the membrane. D. Glycolipids are antigenic. E. Glycoproteins are antigenic.

25. Energy is important to life forms because A. it is required to do work. B. it is required to make specific alterations in the cell. C. all life forms require a continuous supply of it. D. both A and B E. * choices A, B, and C

26. Energy is required for A. * Active transport.

B. Diffusion. C. Facilitated transport. D. Osmosis. E. All of these.

27. In addition to being found free in the cytoplasm, ribosomes are found on the outer surface of the: A. * Nucleus. B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondrion. D. Plasma membrane. E. Chloroplast.

28. In addition to being found free in the cytoplasm, ribosomes are found on the outer surface of the: A. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum. B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Mitochondrion. D. Chloroplast. E. Plasma membrane.

29. Locomotive structures found in some protists include A. muscles B. * flagella C. tentacles D. contractile vacuoles E. microtubules

30. Membrane proteins that mediate active transport are generally __________. A. Lipid-bound proteins B. Ionophores C. Channel proteins D. * Carrier proteins E. None of the above

31. Membrane transport that occurs without the input of extra energy can be classified as what type of transport?

A. * Passive B. Active C. Catalytic D. Inhibitory E. Sodium-potassium pump

32. Membrane transport that requires the input of additional energy is called _________. A. Passive B. Catalytic C. * Active D. Inhibitory E. Diffusion

33. Mitochondria and chloroplasts share several common features, for example, A. both are capable of semiautonomous growth and reproduction. B. are covered by 2 membranes. C. each contains a small amount of DNA D. each organelle synthesises some of its own protein. E. * all of the above

34. Mitochondria and chloroplasts share several common features, for example, A. both are capable of semiautonomous growth and reproduction. B. neither are components of the endomembrane system. C. each contains a small amount of DNA D. each organelle synthesises some of its own protein. E. * all of the above

35. Mitochondria are also called _____. A. suicide bags B. digestive bags C. protein synthesizers D. * power house of the cell E. none of these

36. Mitosis refers to the: A. method by which sex cells divide B. none of the above C. * four-stage process in which the somatic cells divide D. abnormal cell growth E. all of the above

37. Molecules done being processed in the ER are often transported to which structure? A. Peroxisomes B. Mitochondria C. * Golgi apparatus D. Vacuoles E. Cytoskeleton

38. Molecules that are too large to pass through the pores of a cell membrane may enter the cell by a process known as

A. hydrolysis B. * pinocytosis C. cyclosis D. synthesis E. diffusion

39. Most cell membranes are composed principally of A. DNA and ATP B. * proteins and lipids C. chitin and starch D. nucleotides and amino acids E. nucleotides and DNA

40. Name an organelle of a cell, which form the mitotic spindle: A. Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. * Centrosome.

41. Name an organelle of a cell, which temporary store of substances: A. Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. * Vacuole.

42. Name an organelle of a cell, in which there is ATP synthesis occurs: A. * Mitochondria B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Centrosome.

43. Name an organelle of a cell, in which there is degradation of intracellular debris: A. Mitochondrion. B. * Lysosome.

C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Centrosome.

44. Name an organelle of a cell, in which there is lipid synthesis occurs: A. Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. * Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Centrosome.

45. Name an organelle of a cell, in which there is noncytosolic protein synthesis occur: A. Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. * . Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Vacuole.

46. Name an organelle of a cell, in which there is photosynthesis occurs: A. Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. Ribosome. D. * Chloroplast. E. Centrosome.

47. Name an organelle of a cell, in which there is protein synthesis occurs: A. . Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. * Ribosome. D. Chloroplast. E. Centrosome.

48. Name double-membrane organelle of a cell: A. * Mitochondrion. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Vacuole.

49. Name non-membrane organelle of a cell: A. * Centrosome. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Vacuole.

50. Name non-membrane organelle of a cell: A. * Ribosome. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. Mitochondrion.

51. Name two-membrane organelle of a cell: A. * Chloroplast. B. Lysosome. C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Vacuole.

52. Name a prokaryotic organism from the list below:

A. * . Bacteria. B. Phages C. Viruses D. Animals. E. Plants

53. Name a prokaryotic organism from the list below: A. Animals B. Phages. C. Viruses. D. * Blue-green algae. E. Plants.

54. Name a prokaryotic organism from the list below: A. Animals. B. Fungi C. Viruses. D. * Blue-green algae. E. Plants.

55. Name one-membrane organelle of a cell A. Centrosome. B. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum. C. Ribosome. D. Chloroplast. E. Mitochondrion.

56. Name one-membrane organelle of a cell: A. Centrosome. B. * Lysosome. C. Ribosome. D. Chloroplast. E. Mitochondrion.

57. Name one-membrane organelle of a cell: A. Centrosome B. * Golgy apparatus. C. Ribosome. D. Chloroplast. E. Mitochondrion.

58. Name one-membrane organelle of a cell: A. Centrosome. B. * Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome. D. . Chloroplast. E. Mitochondrion.

59. Name the membrane valves that open and close for potassium efflux and sodium influx. A. * ion channels B. vacuoles C. capillaries D. plasmadesmae E. ciliae

60. New proteins are made on the: A. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosomes D. Golgi apparatus

E. Vacuole 61. Nucleoli are nuclear organelles that:

A. control nuclear operations B. are responsible for producing DNA C. * synthesize the components of ribosomes D. all of the above E. none of the above

62. Of the following organelles, which group is involved in manufacturing substances needed by the cell?

A. lysosome, vacuole, ribosome B. * ribosome, rough ER, smooth ER C. vacuole, rough ER, smooth ER D. smooth ER, ribosome, vacuole E. rough ER, lysosome, vacuole

63. Organelle not present in animal cells is _____. A. * plastid B. centrosome C. nucleus D. mitochondria E. ribosome

64. Organic matters which are carrying out in a cell functions of enzymes: A. * Proteins. B. Carbohydrates. C. Lipids. D. Nucleic acids. E. Phospholipids.

65. Oxidation in biological systems is accompanied by A. hydrogenation. B. resonance stabilization. C. repulsion. D. * dehydrogenation. E. all of the above

66. Photosynthesis is an important process that A. is performed by heterotrophs. B. is performed by organisms living near deep-ocean thermal vents. C. * uses water and carbon dioxide as reactants. D. produces oxidized products. E. none of the above

67. Plant cells A. Always have a secondary cell wall, and the primary one may disappear. B. * Have channels between cells that allow strands of cytoplasm to pass from cell to

cell. C. Develop turgor pressure when water enters the nucleus. D. Do not have cell-to-cell junctions like animal cells. E. Have not chloroplasts.

68. Receptor-mediated endocytosis: A. Is no different from phagocytosis. B. * Brings specific nutrients into the cell. C. Helps to concentrate proteins in vesicles. D. Is no different from exocytosis. E. All of these.

69. Ribosomal proteins and RNA are produced primarily in the:

A. * nucleolus B. nucleus C. cytoplasm D. all of the above E. none of the above

70. Ribosomes that do not anchor on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum during translation most probably

A. have a defect in ribosomal proteins that allow attachment to the surface. B. * are synthesizing cytoplasmic proteins. C. do not make the appropriate anchor protein. D. have a signal peptidase error. E. all of the above

71. Scanning electron microscopy (SEM) is especially suited A. * to creating a sense of depth. B. to examining internal cellular structure. C. to observing living specimens. D. both A and C E. choices A, B, and C

72. Specify the component of prokaryotic cell is: A. Nucleus. B. * Nucleoid. C. Mitochondrion. D. Vacuole. E. Lysosome.

73. The 'Scavengers' or 'Digestive bags' of a cell are ____. A. chromosomes B. centrosomes C. * lysosomes D. ribosomes E. mitochondrion

74. The animal cell centriole is a ring of how many groups of microtubules? A. * 9 B. 12 C. 36 D. 48 E. 24

75. The approximate number of cells in a normal human body is ____. A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. 100000 E. * 100000000000000

76. The basic structural unit of a human organism is: A. Tissue. B. Carbohydrates. C. Membrane. D. Nucleic acids E. * Cell.

77. The cell membrane can be characterized most accurately as A. * permeable to some molecules and impermeable to others. B. permeable to only larger molecules. C. impermeable to all polar molecules.

D. permeable to all molecules. E. permeable to most small molecules, but impermeable to larger ones.

78. The cell nucleus is not found in direct contact with which of the following cellular structures?

A. Cytosol B. Cytoskeleton C. ER D. * Mitochondria E. None of the above

79. The continuity of life is provided due to function of a cell: A. Metabolism and energies. B. Responsivness C. * Body height and breeding of cells. D. Biosyntesis of organic compounds. E. Biosynthesis of proteins.

80. The cytoskeleton is primarily responsible for __________. A. * Cell shape B. Cellular energy C. Cellular respiration D. Cell density E. Cell permeability

81. The cytosol is best described as the A. internal contents of organelles. B. area of the cell not occupied by the nucleus. C. * semifluid substance in which organelles are suspended. D. three dimensional array of interconnected filaments. E. fluid within the nucleus.

82. The electron microscope has been particularly useful in studying bacteria, because A. electrons can penetrate tough bacterial cell walls. B. * bacteria are so small. C. bacteria move so quickly they are hard to photograph. D. with few organelles present, bacteria are distinguished by differences in

individual macromolecules. E. their organelles are small and tightly packed together

83. The ER plays a major role in the processing of which of the following biological molecules?

A. Carbohydrates B. * Proteins C. Adenosine triphosphate D. DNA E. RNA

84. The function of mitochondria is to: A. Excrect waste products of the cell B. * Generate energy for the cell C. Carry cell characteristics to the daughter cells D. Break down proteins E. Initiate cell division

85. The function of rough endoplasmic reticulum is: A. * Protein synthesis B. Carbohydrate synthesis C. Lipid synthesis D. Synthesis of DNA

E. Synthesis of RNA 86. The function of the cytoskeleton is most similar to the function of what other cellular

structure? A. Peroxisome B. Lipid bilayer C. * Cytoplasm D. Mitochondria E. Lysosome

87. The functions of the Golgi apparatus include: A. isolation, protection, sensitivity, organization B. neutralization, absorption, assimilation, secretion C. * synthesis, storage, alteration, packaging D. all of the above E. none of the above

88. The lipid bilayer is composed primarily of what two biological molecules? A. Sugars and fats B. Carbohydrates and proteins C. * Proteins and fats D. Sugars and proteins E. Cholesterol and sugars

89. The maximum size of a cell is limited by A. * its need for enough surface area for exchange with its environment. B. the number of organelles that can be packed inside. C. the materials needed to build it. D. the amount of flexibility it needs to be able to move. E. the amount of food it needs to survive.

90. The most abundant class of lipids found in the lipid bilayer are the ___________. A. * Phospholipids B. Glycolipids C. Sphingolipids D. Liposomes E. Both C and D

91. The network of endoplasmic reticulum is present in the ____. A. nucleus B. chromosome C. * cytoplasm D. Golgi apparatus E. vacuole

92.A. nucleus B. chromosome C. * cytoplasm D. Golgi apparatus E. vacuole

93. The nuclear membrane functions as a A. means of localization of the chromosomes within the cell. B. selective barrier, allowing certain substances in or out. C. means of sequestering many of the mRNA processing activities from the cytosol. D. means of separating nuclear and cytoplasmic constituents. E. * all of the above

94. The organelle of prokaryotic cell is: A. Nucleus.

B. * Ribosome. C. Mitochondrion. D. Vacuole. E. Lysosome.

95. The organic matters from inorganic are formed in process of: A. * Photosynthesis. B. Syntesis of protein. C. Synthesis ATP D. Syntesis of phospholipids E. Synthesis RNA.

96. ?The outer boundary of the intracellular material is called the: A. extracellular fluid B. cytosol C. * cell membrane D. all of the above E. none of the above

97. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of A. DNA. B. lipids. C. polysaccharides. D. proteins. E. all of the above

98. The specific movement of a molecule from one side of a cell to another side of the same cell is known as

A. cellular transport. B. intracellular transport. C. * transcellular transport. D. facilitated transport. E. passive transport.

99. The sugar coat located on the outer surface of the outer leaflet of the plasmalemma is: A. Nucleus. B. * Glycocalyx. C. Mitochondrion. D. Vacuole. E. Lysosome.

100. The term hydrophilic means which of the following? A. Repelled by water B. Insoluble in water C. Non-water containing D. * Attracted to water E. Non of the above

101. The three major functions of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) are: A. detoxification, packaging, modification B. hydrolysis, diffusion, osmosis C. * synthesis, storage, transport D. all of the above E. none of the above

102. This organelle controls entry into the cell. A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. * Plasmalemma D. Golgi apparatus

E. Vacuole 103. This organelle creates turgor pressure.

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. * Vacuole

104. ?To enter or leave a cell, substances must pass through A. a microtubule. B. the Golgi apparatus. C. a ribosome. D. the nucleus. E. * the plasma membrane.

105. Viruses are exceptions to the cell theory, but they have some characteristics of living things. What is one of these characteristics?

A. They are made up of many cells. B. * They contain genetic material. C. They reproduce by mitosis. D. They contain chlorophyll. E. Cells are specialized

106. ?What are the folds on the inner mitochodrial membrane called? A. Plasmalemma B. Glycocalyx C. Protoplasm D. * Cristae E. Ground substance

107. What chemical composition of a plasma membrane: A. Two layers of carbohydrates between two in layers of proteins B. Layer of lipids between two in layers of proteins C. * Proteins and two layers of lipids D. Two layers of carbohydrates and one layer of lipids. E. One layer of carbohydrates and two layers of proteins

108. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of? A. Objective. B. Ocular. C. * Tube object D. Diaphragm. E. Condenser.

109. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of? A. Objective. B. Ocular. C. Condenser. D. Refractor. E. * Turret.

110. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of? A. Objective. B. Ocular. C. Condenser. D. Refractor. E. * Condenser screw.

111. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of? A. . Objective.

B. Ocular C. Condenser. D. Refractor E. * Stand.

112. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of? A. Objective. B. Ocular. C. Condenser. D. Refractor. E. * Base plate.

113. What does an illuminative part of the light microscope consist of? A. Objective. B. Ocular. C. Tube object D. * Condenser. E. Turret.

114. What does an illuminative part of the light microscope consist of? A. Objective. B. Ocular. C. Tube object D. * Diaphragm. E. Macrometer screw

115. What does an optical part of the light microscope consist of? A. * Objective. B. Object stage C. Condenser. D. Refractor. E. Base plate.

116. What does an optical part of the light microscope consist of? A. Base plate. B. * Ocular. C. Condenser. D. Refractor. E. Object stage.

117. What is an objective for large magnification in the light microscope? A. x7 B. x8 C. * x40 D. x15 E. x90

118. What is an objective for small magnification in the light microscope? A. x7. B. x15. C. * x8. D. x40 E. x90

119. What is the general term for the material which can be divided into the cytosol, organelles, and inclusions?

A. pinocytosis B. * cytoplasm C. Golgi apparatus D. all of the above

E. none of the above 120. What is the limiting membrane of a cell?

A. * Plasmalemma B. Glycocalyx C. Protoplasm D. Cristae E. Ground substance

121. What is the main function of the mitochondria? A. Molecular digestion B. DNA storage C. Space-filler D. * Energy-producer E. Water storage

122. What is the name of the carbohydrate coat found on the outside of the lipid bilayer of higher- order cells cells?

A. Glycosylation B. * Glycocalyx C. Glycogen D. Glutamine E. Glutamate

123. What is the name of the inner-most space in a mitochondrial cell? A. * Matrix B. Intermembrane space C. Cytosol D. Chlorophyll E. Both D and C

124. What is the name of the organelle that helps mediate endocytosis and exocytosis? A. * Vacuole B. Peroxisome C. Lysosome D. Endosome E. Both B and C

125. What is the term for the general process that cells us to bring things into the cell? A. * Endocytosis B. Exocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Phagocytosis E. Active transport

126. What is the term for the general process that cells us to bring things from the cell? A. Endocytosis B. * Exocytosis C. Pinocytosis D. Phagocytosis E. Active transport

127. What organelle is responsible for carrying out photosynthesis? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Vacuole D. * Chloroplasts E. lysosome

128. What structure in plants replaces the function that the mitochondria performs in animal cells?

A. Vacuole B. Cytoskeleton C. * Chloroplast D. Nucleus E. ER

129. What structure is at the base of cilia?A. Ribosomes B. Peroxisome C. * Microfilaments D. Centrioles E. Nucleoli

130. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution: A. Solute exits the cell to equalize the concentration on both sides of the membrane B. Water exits the cell toward the area of lower concentration. C. * Water enters the cell toward the area of higher solute concentration D. Solute exits and water enters the cell. E. Water enters the cell toward the area of lower solute concentration

131. Where are ribosomes constructed? A. Cytoskeleton B. Peroxisome C. Microfilaments D. Centrioles E. * Nucleoli

132. Which are the four most abundant elements in living cells? A. carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur B. * carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen C. carbon, oxygen, sulfur, phosphorus D. carbon, sulfur, hydrogen, magnesium E. carbon, sulfur, hydrogen, oxygen

133. Which cytoskeletal filament is responsible for forming the nuclear lamina? A. Actin B. * Intermediate filaments C. Primary filaments D. Microtubules E. Microbodies

134. Which cytoskeletal protein filaments line the cell membrane? A. * Actin B. Intermediate filaments C. Primary filaments D. Microtubules E. None of the above

135. Which of the following is an organelle? A. Pigment B. Glycogen C. Lipid D. Secretory granules E. * Mitochondria

136. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle? A. * Microtubules B. Lysosomes C. Peroxisomes D. Mitochondria

E. Endoplasmic reticulum 137. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?

A. Lysosomes B. Peroxisomes C. Mitochondria D. * Ribosomes E. Endoplasmic reticulum

138. Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?A. Lysosomes B. * Filaments C. Peroxisomes D. Mitochondria E. Endoplasmic reticulum

139. Which of the following is NOT considered an inclusion? A. Pigment B. Glycogen C. Lipid D. Secretory granules E. * Mitochondria

140. Which organelle contains detoxifying enzymes? A. Ribosomes B. * Peroxisome C. Microfilaments D. Centrioles E. Nucleoli

141. Which organelle contains digestive enzymes?A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. * Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. Mitochondria

142. Which organelle is involved in lipid metabolism? A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. * Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. Mitochondria

143. Which organelle produces protein for export? A. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. Mitochondria

144. Which organelle sorts and packages proteins within a cell?A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. * Golgi apparatus E. Mitochondria

145. ____________ occurs when the chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate of the cell:

A. * Metaphase

B. Prophase C. Interphase D. Telophase E. Anaphase

146. A bivalent (tetrad) is: A. Nonhomologous chromosomes. B. * The paried homologous chromosomes. C. A duplicated chromosome composed of sister chromatids. D. The 2 daughter cells after meiosis 1. E. The 2 daughter cells after meiosis 2.

147. A complete turn of the double helix of DNA is_________ A. 0.34 B. * 3.4 nm C. 34 nm D. 100 nm E. 2 nm

148. A DNA is a chain of nucleotides, where deoxyribose sugars linked together by _______ bonds:

A. * Phosphodiester B. Hydrogen C. Covalent D. Peptide E. None of above

149. A duplicated chromosome has: A. One chromatid. B. * Two chromatids. C. Three chromatids. D. Four chromatids. E. Five chromatids.

150. A karyotype, which displays chromosomes arranged in pairs in descending size order, is:

A. Genom B. Genotype C. Gene pool D. * Ideogram E. Phenotype

151. ?A molecule of DNA is a polymer composed of A. Glucose B. Amino acids C. Fatty acids D. * Nucleotides E. All of them

152. A normal diploid human cell contains A. * 46 chromosomes B. 23 chromosomes C. 46 homologous pairs of chromosomes D. 23 chromosomes E. 23 pairs of autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

153. A pair of chromosomes that are similar in length, shape, and the traits they govern are called:

A. Diploid chromosomes B. Mitotic chromosomes

C. * Homologous chromosomes D. Germ chromosomes E. Karyotype.

154. A phase of interphase where DNA replication occurs, resulting in duplication of the chromosomes, when centrioles are self-duplicated is:

A. Metaphase B. Prophase C. G1 D. * S E. G2

155. A phase of meiosis after each daughter cell now contains 23 chromosomes (the haploid number – n), but has the diploid number – 2n of DNA, is:

A. Metaphase I B. Prophase II C. * Telophase I D. Anaphase I E. Metaphase II

156. A phase of meiosis where each chromosome consists of two chromatids that remain held together, involves migration of chromosomes to the poles, is:

A. Metaphase I B. Prophase I C. Telophase II D. * Anaphase I E. Metaphase II

157. A phase of meiosis where homologous chromosomes are on the equatorial platter of the meiotic spindle in a random arrangement, thus facilitating genetic mixing, is:

A. * Metaphase I B. Prophase I C. Telophase II D. Anaphase I E. Metaphase II

158. A phase of mitosis where chromosomes are aligned in a plane on the equator of cell, each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids, held together at a single point, the centromere is:

A. * Metaphase B. Prophase C. Telophase D. Anaphase E. Interphase

159. A phase of mitosis where kinetochores separate pulling sister chromatids apart, diploid set of daughter chromosomes move toward each opposite poles is:

A. Metaphase B. Prophase C. Telophase D. * Anaphase E. Interphase

160. A phase of mitosis where reformation of the nuclear envelope around the condensed chromosomes in the daughter cells, reappearance of nucleoli, which arise from specific nucleolar organizer regions on the chromosomes occurs, mitotic spindle dissolves is:

A. Metaphase B. Prophase

C. * Telophase D. Anaphase E. Interphase

161. A phase of mitosis where the chromosomes condense and become rodlike and distinct chromosomes suddenly appear under the light microscope, nucleoli and nuclear envelope disappear is:

A. Metaphase B. * Prophase C. Telophase D. Anaphase E. Interphase

162. A phase of prophase I of meiosis during which homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes pair and make physical contact (synapsis), forming a tetrad, is:

A. Leptotene B. * Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene E. Diakinesis

163. A phase of prophase I of meiosis during which the chromosomes continue to condense and chiasmata can be observed, is:

A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. * Diplotene E. Diakinesis

164. A phase of prophase I of meiosis during which the chromatin condenses into the visible chromosomes, each of which contain two chromatids joined at the centromere, is:

A. * Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene E. Diakinesis

165. A phase of prophase I of meiosis during which the nucleolus disappears, chromosomes are condensed maximally, and the nuclear envelope disappears, is:

A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. Pachytene D. Diplotene E. * Diakinesis

166. A phase of prophase I of meiosis during which the chiasmata are formed and crossing over occurs – an event that is crucial for increasing generic diversity, is:

A. Leptotene B. Zygotene C. * Pachytene D. Diplotene E. Diakinesis

167. A region of repetitive DNA at the end of a chromosome, which protects the end of the chromosome from deterioration, is:

A. Primary constriction B. Chromonema C. Secondary constriction site D. Satellite

E. * Telomere 168. A specific DNA sequence of about 220 nucleotides, to which is bound a disk of

protein called a kinetochore, is: A. * Centromere B. Chromonema C. Secondary constriction site D. Satellite E. Telomere

169. A specific DNA sequence of about 220 nucleotides, to which is bound a disk of protein called a kinetochore, is:

A. * Primary constriction B. Chromonema C. Secondary constriction site D. Satellite E. Telomere

170. All of the following are stages of mitosis except: A. Prophase. B. * Interphase. C. Metaphase. D. Anaphase. E. Telophase.

171.Anaphase begins during mitosis when A. chromosomes line up in the nuclear region of the cell B. * centromeres split and chromatids start to move apart C. synapsis occurs D. crossing over occurs E. prophase has been completed

172. Anaphase takes place during mitosis when A. chromosomes line up in the nuclear region of the cell B. * centromeres split and chromatids start to move apart C. synapsis occurs D. crossing over occurs E. prophase has been completed

173. Anticodon is located in: A. mRNA. B. rRNA. C. * tRNA. D. DNA. E. Protein.

174. Anticodon is located on: A. mRNA. B. rRNA. C. * tRNA. D. DNA. E. Protein.

175. At the equator during metaphase-1 of meiosis, there are: A. Singled chromosomes. B. Unpaired dublicated chromosomes. C. * Bivalents (tetrads). D. 23 chromosomes. E. 23 chromatids.

176.At the equator during metaphase-2 of meiosis in human cell, there are: A. Singled chromosome.

B. Unpaired dublicated chromosomes. C. Bivalents (tetrads). D. * Always 23 chromosomes. E. Always 46 chromosomes.

177. At the equator during metaphase-2 of meiosis, there are: A. Singled chromosome. B. Unpaired dublicated chromosomes. C. Bivalents (tetrads). D. * Always 23 chromosomes. E. Always 46 chromosomes.

178. At what kind of division of cells there is an irregular allocation of the inheritable information:

A. Mitosis. B. Meiosis. C. * Amitosis. D. Endomitosis. E. Phagocytosis.

179. Autosomes represent A. all chromosomes found in a normal human cell B. those chromosomes found only in egg or sperm cells C. * all chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes D. chromosome pairs with unlike members E. all homologous chromosomes

180. Base pairing in the DNA molecule follows which configuration? A. A—G, Т—С B. A—C, T—G C. A—U, C—G D. * A—T, C—G E. All of these.

181. Cells may be malignant with: A. * High euchromatin-heterochromatin ratio. B. Low euchromatin-heterochromatin ratio. C. High heterochromatin-euchromatin ratio. D. Without euchromatin. E. Without heterochromatin.

182. Centrioles are associated with: A. Digestion B. Respiration C. Reproduction D. * Cell division E. Crossing-onwer

183. Chargaff discovered that in DNA ________: A. * A = T B. A = G C. U = A D. G = T E. C = A

184. Chargaff discovered that in DNA ________: A. A = U B. A = G C. U = A D. * G = C

E. C = A 185. Chromatids are held together by a:

A. * Centromere. B. Centriole. C. Spindle. D. Aster. E. Telomere.

186. Chromatin comprises the most active portion of the genome within the cell nucleus, is:

A. Constitutive heterochromatin B. Sex chromatin C. Facultative heterochromatin D. Interphase chromatin E. * Euchromatin

187. Chromatin is the complex of ____ and protein found in the eukaryotic nucleus which packages chromosomes

A. * DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA E. pre-mRNA

188. Chromatin is the complex of DNA and _____ found in the eukaryotic nucleus which packages chromosomes

A. * protein B. mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA E. pre-mRNA

189. Chromatin participates in the active transcription of DNA to mRNA products, is: A. Constitutive heterochromatin B. Sex chromatin C. Facultative heterochromatin D. Interphase chromatin E. * Euchromatin

190. Chromatin that is “always turned on” is housekeeping genes, which codes for the proteins needed for basic functions of cell survival, is:

A. Constitutive heterochromatin B. Sex chromatin C. Facultative heterochromatin D. Interphase chromatin E. * Euchromatin

191. Chromatin that is corresponding to one of two X- chromosomes, is present in somatic cells of female mammals, is:

A. Constitutive heterochromatin B. * Sex chromatin C. Facultative heterochromatin D. Interphase chromatin E. Euchromatin

192. Chromatin, which consists of DNA that is active, e.g., expressed as protein, is: A. Constitutive heterochromatin B. Sex chromatin C. Facultative heterochromatin

D. Interphase chromatin E. * Euchromatin

193. Chromatin, which is never expressed and is located around the centromere and usually contains repetitive sequences, is:

A. * Constitutive heterochromatin B. Sex chromatin C. Facultative heterochromatin D. Interphase chromatin E. Euchromatin

194. Chromosomes become visible during the mitotic phase of A. metaphase B. anaphase C. * prophase D. synapsis E. none of above

195. Consist on two long chains of nucleotides that form a double helix: A. RNA. B. Nucleotide. C. * DNA. D. Amino acid. E. Protein.

196. Crossing over in meiosis: A. Alters the chromosome alignments at metaphase. B. Occurs between sperm DNA and egg DNA at fertilization. C. * Leads to genetic recombination D. Occurs only rarely. E. All of these.

197.Crossing-over in meiosis occurs between: A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosomes. B. 2 different bivalents C. * Nonsister chromatids of a bivalent. D. 2 daughter nuclei E. 2 daughter nucleoli

198. Crossing-over occurs between: A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosomes. B. 2 different bivalents C. * Nonsister chromatids of a bivalent. D. 2 daughter nuclei E. 2 daughter nucleoli

199. Crossing-over occurs during: A. Mitosis B. * Meiosis C. Amitosis D. Interphase E. None of the above

200. Cytokinesis is accomplished in animal cells by A. * a ring of actin filaments pinching the cell in two B. the formation of a cell plate C. the formation of a new cell wall D. the action of centrioles E. the reformation of the nuclear membrane

201.Cytokinesis is accomplished in animal cells by A. * a ring of actin filaments pinching the cell in two

B. the formation of a cell plate C. the formation of a new cell wall D. the action of centrioles E. the reformation of the nuclear membrane

202. Division of cytoplasm is known as: A. Karyokinesis B. Plasmolysis C. * Cytokinesis D. Anaphase E. None of the above

203. Division of nucleus is known as: A. * Karyokinesis B. Plasmolysis C. Cytokinesis D. Anaphase E. None of the above

204. DNA is duplicated in the cell cycle during the: A. G2 phase. B. * S phase. C. Мetaphase. D. G1 phase. E. G0 phase.

205. DNA molecule has the width ____: A. 0.34 B. 3.4 nm C. 34 nm D. 100 nm E. * 2 nm

206. During crossing over: A. chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate B. * homologous chromosomes exchange corresponding pieces of genetic

information C. chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cell D. the cell is in S phase E. the cell is undergoing mitosis

207. During G1, S, and G2 phases a cell is said to be in A. the process of mitosis B. the process of meiosis C. metaphase D. cytokinesis E. * interphase

208. During meiosis, a double-stranded chromosome is attached to a spindle fiber at the

A. centriole B. * centromere C. centrosome D. cell plate E. non of them

209. During mitosis, a double-stranded chromosome is attached to a spindle fiber at the A. centriole B. * centromere C. centrosome

D. cell plate E. non of them

210. During mitosis, sister chromatids begin their migration to opposite poles during: A. Telophase. B. Metaphase. C. * Anaphase. D. Prophase. E. G0 phase.

211. During which stage of meiosis do chromatids separate? A. Prophase-2. B. Telophase-2. C. Metaphase-1. D. * Anaphase-2. E. Telophase-1.

212. During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate? A. Prophase-2. B. Telophase-2. C. Metaphase-1. D. * Anaphase-1. E. Telophase-1.

213. During which stage of mitosis does chromatin coil into chromosomes? A. Metaphase B. Anaphase C. Telophase D. * Prophase E. Interphase

214. Gametes contain one of each kind of chromosome because: A. * The homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis. B. The chromatids never separate during meiosis. C. 2 replications of DNA occure during meiosis. D. Crossing-over occurs during prophase-1. E. Crossing-over occurs during prophase-2.

215.Gametes contain one of each kind of chromosome because: A. * The homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis. B. The chromatids never separate during meiosis. C. 2 replications of DNA occur during meiosis. D. Crossing-over occurs during prophase-1. E. Crossing-over occurs during prophase-2.

216. Haploid cells contain A. the diploid chromosome number B. * one copy of each chromosome C. two copies of the sex chromosomes D. twice the diploid chromosome number E. pairs of homologous chromosomes

217. How many autosomes are there in the human karyotype? A. 2. B. 22. C. 23. D. * 44. E. 46.

218. How many basic stages are in a mitosis? A. 3

B. * 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 2

219. How many chromosomes groups are there in the human karyotype? A. 4. B. 5. C. 6. D. * 7. E. 8.

220. How many heterochromosomes are there in the human germ cell? A. * 1. B. 2. C. 22. D. 23. E. 44.

221. How many heterochromosomes are there in the human karyotype? A. * 2. B. 22. C. 23. D. 44. E. 46.

222. In a DNA molecule, the A. Bases are covalently bonded to the sugars. B. Sugars are covalently bonded to the phosphates. C. Bases are hydrogen bonded to one another. D. A paired with T and C paired with G. E. * All of these.

223. In a DNA, the A. Bases are covalently bonded to the sugars. B. Sugars are covalently bonded to the phosphates. C. Bases are hydrogen bonded to one another. D. A paired with T and C paired with G. E. * All of these.

224. In human cells spindle formation is associated A. the nuclear membrane B. nucleosomes C. histone proteins D. * the centrioles E. chromosomes

225. In mammal cells spindle formation is associated A. the nuclear membrane B. nucleosomes C. histone proteins D. * the centrioles E. chromosomes

226. In meiosis, crossing-over occurs in: A. Metaphase I B. * Prophase I C. Metaphase II D. Prophase II E. Anaphase II

227. In meiosis, recombination occurs in: A. Metaphase I B. * Prophase I C. Metaphase II D. Prophase II E. Anaphase I

228. In meiosis, when do homologous chromosomes begin to pair? A. Metaphase II B. * Prophase I C. Telophase II D. Anaphase I E. Interphase I

229. In order for a cell to divide and for each new cell to live it must minimally have: A. Its own credit card and cell phone B. Cytoplasm and genes C. * A duplicate of the parents cell’s DNA and enough cytoplasmic machinery to

start up its own operation D. Only cytoplasm and mitochondria E. Half of the genes

230. In what does phase mitotic spindle disappear? A. Metaphase. B. * Prophase. C. Anaphase. D. Interphase. E. Telophase.

231. In which period of spermatogenesis does meiosis take place? A. Reproduction. B. Growing. C. Interphase. D. * Maturation. E. Formation.

232. In which stage of prophase I does crossing-over occur? A. Interphase. B. Leptotene. C. Zygotene. D. * Pachytene. E. Diplotene.

233. Interphase is the stage when: A. Nothing occurs B. A germ cell forms its spindle apparatus C. * A cell grows and duplicates its DNA D. Cytokinesis occurs. E. Mitosis occurs.

234. It consists of nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a molecule of deoxyribose: A. Ribose. B. Deoxyribose. C. Nitrogenous bases. D. Nitrogenous bases. E. * Nucleotide.

235. It is possible for 2 meters of DNA to fit into a human cell 5 micrometers in diameter because

A. DNA is broken into small fragments

B. * DNA is wound around histone protein C. DNA is wound around nonhistone protein D. chromosomes are composed of chromatids E. chromosomes are joined at the centromere

236. Many unicellular organisms reproduce by the process of A. * fission B. regeneration C. ovulation D. nondisjunction E. non of them

237. Meiosis differs from mitosis in that: A. The centrioles do not separate during the first meiotic division. B. Meiotic divisions or always asymmetric. C. * Meiosis generates cells with half as much DNA as the progeny of mitotic

division have. D. Movement of chromosomes toward the spindles is above. E. All of the above.

238. Meiosis results in A. no change in the chromosome number B. a doubling of the chromosome number C. * a reduction in the chromosome number D. two interphase cells E. four diploid cells

239. Meiotis divission results in A. no change in the chromosome number B. a doubling of the chromosome number C. * a reduction in the chromosome number D. two interphase cells E. four diploid cells

240. Members of a chromosome pair collectively make up: A. * a tetrad B. chromatin C. a homologous pair D. a chromatid E. a nucleosome

241. Mitosis consists of which of the following stages? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase E. * All of them

242. Mitosis proceeds in the order: A. Cytokinesis, prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase. B. * Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis. C. Prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis. D. Cytokinesis, anaphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase. E. Metaphase, cytokinesis, prophase, telophase, anaphase.

243. Mitotic cycle proceeds in the order: A. * Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis. B. Prophase, telophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis. C. Metaphase, cytokinesis, prophase, telophase, interphase, anaphase. D. Prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis.

E. Cytokinesis, interphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase. 244. mRNA:

A. Used to make ribosome. B. * Genetic code from DNA. C. Used in replication. D. To carry amino acids. E. Used in mitosis.

245. Nucleosome is the basic unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes, consisting of a segment of DNA wound around a ________ core

A. * Histone protein B. Chromonema C. Nitrogenous base D. Nucleotyde E. Nonhistone protein

246. Point mutations where code for a different amino acid, is: A. transitions B. transversions C. nonsense mutations D. * missense mutations E. silent mutations

247. Point mutations where code for a stop, which can truncate the protein, is: A. transitions B. transversions C. * nonsense mutations D. missense mutations E. silent mutations

248. Point mutations where code for the same or a different amino acid but without any functional change in the protein, is:

A. transitions B. transversions C. nonsense mutations D. missense mutations E. * silent mutations

249. Propase I of meiosis proceeds in the order: A. Leptotene, pachytene, diplotene, zygotene, diakinesis. B. Pachytene, leptotene, zygotene, diplotene, diakinesis. C. Diplotene, leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diakinesis. D. * Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis. E. Diakinesis, leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene.

250. Replacement of a purine base with another purine or replacement of a pyrimidine with another pyrimidine is:

A. * transitions B. transversions C. nonsense mutations D. missense mutations E. silent mutations

251. Replacement of a purine with a pyrimidine or vice versa is: A. transitions B. * transversions C. nonsense mutations D. missense mutations E. silent mutations

252. Sex cells contain A. the diploid chromosome number B. * one copy of each chromosome C. two copies of the sex chromosomes D. twice the diploid chromosome number E. pairs of homologous chromosomes

253. Sex chromatin of the second inactivated X chromosome in a female, is: A. Constitutive heterochromatin B. * Barr body C. Facultative heterochromatin D. Interphase chromatin E. Euchromatin

254. Sexual reproduction _______________________________. A. is also called meiosis B. is also called mitosis C. produces offspring identical to the parent D. produces 2 identical daughter cells E. * produces offspring from two parents

255. Sister chromatids pull apart to form single-stranded chromosomes during: A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. * Anaphase D. Telophase E. All of them

256. Somatic cells of multicelled organisms usually have number of chromosomes: A. 24 B. 23 C. 44 D. * 46 E. 2

257. ?Synapsis occurs during: A. Mitosis B. * Meiosis C. Amitosis D. Interphase E. None of the above

258. ?The _____ double helix consists of two complementary strands held together by hydrogen bonds between the base pairs:

A. * DNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA E. pre-mRNA

259. The anticodon sequence is found on which of the following? A. Messenger RNA. B. Ribosomal RNA. C. * Transfer RNA. D. Small nuclear RNA. E. Ribosome.

260. The basic unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotes, consisting of a segment of DNA wound around a histone protein core, is:

A. Primary constriction

B. Chromonema C. Nitrogenous base D. Nucleotyde E. * Nucleosome

261. The cell cycle is: A. * The events that occur in a cells life from when it is created to when it divides B. Mostly Interphase C. Mostly doubling of DNA D. Mostly cytokinesis E. Only occurs once in most tissues like the skin, brain and muscle Anaphase II

262. The completion of ____________ marks the end of cell division: A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. * Telophase E. All of them

263. The correct sequence of the stages of mitosis is: A. Metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase B. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase C. Telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase D. * Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase E. Interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

264. The DNA double helix consists of two complementary strands held together by ______ bonds between the base pairs:

A. phosphodiester B. * Hydrogen C. Covalent D. Peptide E. None of above

265. The DNA is polymere of smaller units called ________: A. * Nucleotides B. Amino acids C. Nitrogenous bases D. Ribose E. Uracil

266. The normal human chromosome diploid number is: A. 23 B. 22 C. 2 D. 44

267. The normal human chromosome haploid number is: A. * 23 B. 22 C. 2 D. 44

268. The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosome normally present in a human egg cell is

A. 44 + XY B. 44 + XX C. * 22 + X D. 22 + Y E. 46 + X

269. The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosome can be normally present in a human sperm cell is

A. 44 + XY B. 44 + XX C. * 22 + X D. 23 + Y E. 46 + X

270. The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosome can be normally present in a human sperm cell is

A. 44 + XY B. 44 + XX C. 23 + X D. * 22 + Y E. 46 + Y

271. The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosome normally present in a male somatic cell is

A. * 44 + XY B. 44 + XX C. 22 + X D. 23 + Y E. 46 + X

272. The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosome normally present in a female somatic cell is

A. 44 + XY B. * 44 + XX C. 22 + X D. 23 + Y E. 46 + X

273. The phase of mitosis during which chromosomes condense is: A. Metaphase B. * Prophase C. Telophase D. Anaphase E. Interphase

274. The point where crossing over of chromatids takes place is: A. * Chiasma B. Kinetochore C. Centromere D. Chromomere E. Telomere

275. The presence of DNA is important for cellular metabolic activities because DNA A. * directs the production of enzymes B. is a structural component of cell walls C. directly increases the solubility of nutrients D. is the major component of cytoplasm E. All of them

276. The process of meiotic cell division in a human female usually forms A. one diploid cell, only B. two diploid cells C. four diploid cells D. * one monoploid cell, only E. four monoploid cells

277. The process of meiotic cell division in a human male usually forms A. one diploid cell, only B. two diploid cells C. four diploid cells D. one monoploid cell, only E. * four monoploid cells

278. The resting or non-dividing stage between two successive mitotic divisions is called:

A. Metaphase B. Prophase C. * Interphase D. Telophase E. Anaphase

279. The two copies of DNA in duplicated chromosomes are connected at a constricted region called the:

A. Double helix B. * Centromere C. Centrosome D. Histone E. Telomere

280. They are made up of purines and pyrimidines: A. Ribose. B. Deoxyribose. C. * Nitrogenous bases. D. Phosphate. E. Enzymes.

281. Transformed cells become malignant because they A. Have a reduced amount of RNA polymerase. B. * Are unable to respond to regulatory signals in the cell cycle. C. Cease mitotic activity. D. Contain extra chromosomes. E. Contain transcriptionally inactive heterochromatin.

282. tRNA: A. Used to make ribosomes. B. Genetic code from DNA. C. Used in replication. D. * To carry amino acids. E. All of these.

283. What are special sites located at the centromere of each chromosome were spindle microtubules attach to chromosomes during mitosis?

A. Primary constrictions B. * kinetochores C. Secondary constriction sites D. Satellites E. Telomeres

284. What are special sites located at the centromere of each chromosome were spindle microtubules attach to chromosomes during meiosis?

A. Primary constrictions B. * kinetochores C. Secondary constriction sites D. Satellites E. Telomeres

285. What chromosome number is present in sex cells? A. * Haploid. B. Diploid. C. Tetraploid. D. Triploid. E. Pentaploid.

286. What is cytokinesis? A. Division of a nucleus. B. Division of chromosomes. C. One of phases of mitosis. D. * Division of cytoplasm. E. The period of an interphase.

287. What mean of division at somatic cells? A. Amitosis. B. * Mitosis. C. Meiosis. D. Schizogony. E. Budding.

288. What would most likely result if meiosis was not accompanied by cytoplasmic division?

A. two cells, each with one nucleus B. * two cells, each with two nuclei C. one cell with two identical nuclei D. one cell without a nucleus E. non of them

289. What would most likely result if meiosis? A. * four cells, each with one nucleus B. two cells, each without a nucleus C. one cell with two identical nuclei D. one cell without a nucleus E. non of them

290. What would most likely result if mitosis was not accompanied by cytoplasmic division?

A. two cells, each with one nucleus B. two cells, each without a nucleus C. * one cell with two identical nuclei D. one cell without a nucleus E. non of them

291. What would most likely result if mitosis? A. * two cells, each with one nucleus B. two cells, each without a nucleus C. one cell with two identical nuclei D. one cell without a nucleus E. non of them

292. Where is chromosomes situated in a metaphase? A. In a nucleolus. B. On poles of a cell. C. * On equator of a cell. D. In a microcentrum. E. In the mitochondria.

293. Which is one of the early steps in the formation of both egg and sperm cells? A. * chromosome pairing

B. polar body formation C. unequal division of cytoplasm D. yolk accumulation E. fertilisation

294. Which nitrogenous bases make up DNA nucleotides? A. * adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine B. adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine C. adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine D. adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil E. Non of them

295. Which of the following cell types would not be a possible source of DNA? A. * Red blood cells. B. Brain cells. C. Liver cells. D. Skin cells. E. Leicocytes.

296. Which of the following is NOT a component of the histone octomer in the nucleosome?

A. * H1 B. H2A C. H2B D. H4 E. H3

297. Which of the following statements regarding genomic imprinting is true? A. It is a characteristic of all genes. B. * It is associated with methylation of cytosine bases adjacent to guanosines. C. It occurs in females but not in males. D. It is reversible in somatic cells. E. It occurs in males but not in females.

298. Which one of the following enzymes is present during replication? A. * DNA – polymerase. B. RNA – polymerase. C. Reverse transcriptase. D. Ligase. E. Lipase.

299. Which one of the following enzymes is present during transcriprion? A. DNA – polymerase. B. * RNA – polymerase. C. Reverse transcriptase. D. Ligase. E. Peptidase.

300. Which one of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA? A. Thymine. B. Adenine. C. * Uracil. D. Cytosine. E. Guanine.

301. Which one of the following nucleotides is present only in DNA? A. * Thymine. B. Adenine. C. Uracil. D. Cytosine

E. Guanine. 302. Which one of the following nucleotides is present only in RNA?

A. Thymine. B. Adenine. C. * Uracil. D. Cytosine E. Guanine.

303. Which statement best describes the sperm cells of an animal that are produced from primary sex cells?

A. They are diploid as a result of mitotic division. B. They are genetically identical to the primary sex cells. C. * They contain the monoploid number of chromosomes. D. They are larger than egg cells. E. Non of them

304. Which structures are not involved in asexual reproduction? A. centromeres B. spindles C. chromosomes D. * setae E. non of them

305. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are: A. actin and troponin B. * actin and myosin C. troponin and tropomyosin D. myosin and tropomyosin E. actin and tropomyosin

306. 10 Which of the following promotes glucose and amino acid uptake by muscle? A. adrenaline B. * insulin C. glucagon D. cortisol E. glycogen

307. 12 Which of the following nucleotide bases is not found in RNA? A. * thymine B. adenine C. uracil D. guanine E. cytosine

308. 13 Which of the following nucleotide bases is not found in DNA? A. * uracil B. thymine C. adenine D. guanine E. cytosine

309. 14 Which of the following molecules does not form part of DNA? A. purine B. pyrimidine C. deoxyribose D. * amino acid E. phosphate

310. 15 The transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs: A. on the ribosomes

B. in the cytosol C. * in the nucleus D. only during cell division E. when amino acids are made available by transfer RNA

311. 16 Where hhe transcription of DNA to a molecule of messenger RNA occurs: A. on the ribosomes B. in the cytosol C. * in the nucleus D. only during cell division E. when amino acids are made available by transfer RNA

312. 17 The process of translation requires the presence of: A. * mRNA, tRNA and ribosomes B. mRNA, ribosomes and RNA polymerase C. DNA, mRNA and RNA polymerase D. chromatin, DNA and amino acids E. free nucleotide bases, amino acids and ribosomes

313. 18 Codons are composed of: A. triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in rRNA B. triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA C. triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains D. triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA E. * none of the above

314. 18 Codons are composed of: A. * triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA B. triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA C. triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains D. triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA E. none of the above

315. 20 Mutations are errors in DNA that: A. are always harmful B. only occur in the presence of carcinogens C. increase tumour growth D. * occur spontaneously at a low rate E. only occur on the X chromosome

316. 27. Which enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication: A. * DNA polymerase B. RNA polymerase C. Helicase D. Ligase E. Telomerase

317. 28. Which of the following is NOT a component of the histone octomer in the nucleosome?

A. * H1 B. H2A C. H2B D. H3 E. H4

318. 3 Which of the following is not an amino acid? A. glutamic acid B. aspartic acid C. glutamine D. * palmitic acid

E. leucine 319. 30. Component is NOT of the histone octomer in the nucleosome?

A. * H1 B. H2A C. H2B D. H3 E. H4

320. 31. The anticodon sequence is found on which of the following? A. Messenger RNA. B. Ribosomal RNA. C. * Transfer RNA. D. Small nuclear RNA. E. Big nuclear RNA.

321. 32. Which of the following is anticodon sequence found on? A. Messenger RNA. B. Ribosomal RNA C. * Transfer RNA. D. Small nuclear RNA. E. Big nuclear RNA.

322. 34. Which cell types would not be a possible source of DNA? A. * Red blood cells. B. Brain cells. C. Liver cells. D. Skin cells. E. Hear cells

323. 36. Operons A. are characteristic for eukaryotic genomes B. contain more than one promoter C. contain always similar genes D. contain one gene E. * contain almost no intergenic sequences

324. 37. Telomers are located A. at the ends of ribosomal RNA B. in centromers C. in the middle of chromosomes D. * at the ends of chromosomes E. in mitochondrial DNA

325. 38. Telomers are located A. at the ends of ribosomal RNA B. in centromers C. in the middle of chromosomes D. * in nuclear DNA E. in mitochondrial DNA

326. 39. Telomers are located A. at the ends of ribosomal RNA B. in centromers C. in the middle of chromosomes D. * in eukaryotes E. in mitochondrial DNA

327. 4 What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in a protein? A. * peptide bonds B. hydrogen bonds

C. ionic bonds D. glycosidic bonds E. ester bonds

328. 40. Telomers are located A. in prokaryotes B. in centromers C. in the middle of chromosomes D. * in eukaryotes E. in mitochondrial DNA

329. 41. Where are telomers located A. in prokaryotes B. in centromers C. in the middle of chromosomes D. * in eukaryotes E. in mitochondrial DNA

330. 42. Most genes are transcribed into A. t-RNAs B. * mRNAs C. ribosomal RNAs D. repeat elements E. small nuclear RNAs

331. 44. Which function of DNA polymerases A. join DNA fragments B. replicate RNA C. * replicate DNA D. require ATP E. synthesize DNA in 3’->5’ direction

332. 45. DNA polymerases A. join DNA fragments B. replicate RNA C. * synthesize DNA in 5’->3’ direction D. require ATP E. require nucleotides to function

333. 46. Which function of DNA polymerases A. join DNA fragments B. replicate RNA C. * synthesize DNA in 5’->3’ direction D. require ATP E. require nucleotides to function

334. 47. DNA polymerases A. join DNA fragments B. replicate RNA C. * require a primer to function D. require ATP E. require nucleotides to function

335. 48. Which function of DNA polymerases A. join DNA fragments B. replicate RNA C. * require a primer to function D. require ATP E. require nucleotides to function

336. 49. Genome markers

A. Must occur as multiple alleles B. * Must be repeat DNA sequences C. Can be any unique DNA sequence D. Are only used in genetic maps E. Are composed of foreign DNA

337. 5 Which of the following is an amino acid that is found in proteins? A. adenosine B. adenine C. * alanine D. linoleic acid E. creatine

338. 50. Which function of genome markers A. Must occur as multiple alleles B. * Must be repeat DNA sequences C. Can be any unique DNA sequence D. Are only used in genetic maps E. Are composed of foreign DNA

339. 51. There are __________ different amino acids present in most proteins. A. 1 B. 2 C. 16 D. * 20 E. 99

340. 52. How many amino acids present in most proteins. A. 1 B. 2 C. 16 D. * 20 E. 99

341. 53. Which of the following is not a biopolymer? A. protein B. polysaccharide C. * polyurethane D. RNA E. DNA

342. 54. Plasmids are molecules that A. are linear B. * *are supercoiled in vivo C. are present in all bacteria D. contain essential genes E. require nucleotides to function

343. 55. Plasmids are molecules that A. are linear B. * are circular C. are present in all bacteria D. contain essential genes E. require nucleotides to function

344. 56. Plasmids are molecules that A. are linear B. * replicate independently C. are present in all bacteria D. contain essential genes

E. require nucleotides to function 345. 7 Which of the following factors can affect enzyme activity?

A. temperature B. pH C. the presence of certain metal ions D. the addition or removal of phosphate E. * all of the above

346. 8 Anaerobic metabolism refers to the generation of ATP: A. without the involvement of ADP B. without the use of glycogen C. * without the use of oxygen D. in the absence of available oxygen E. by the conversion of pyruvate to lactate

347. 9 Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of: A. glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate B. glycogen or glucose to fructose C. * glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate D. glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or acetyl CoA E. glucose or fatty acids to pyruvate or acetyl CoA

348. A promotor gene defines the A. * Site for initial binding of RNA polymerase B. Direction of transcription C. Copying the strand D. carries instructions of structural genes E. All of the above

349. A segment of DNA has one strand with the following sequence of bases: T G C G C A T A G C A A. The complementary strand of DNA is

A. * C C G C G T A T C G TT B. T C G C C G A T C G T T C. T C G C G T A T C G T T D. T C G C A T T A C A U U E. T C G W R O N G A C U U

350. A segment of DNA has one strand with the following sequence of bases: G G C G C A T A G C A A. The complementary strand of DNA is

A. * C C G C G T A T C G TT B. T C G C C G A T C G T T C. T C G C G T A T C G T T D. T C G C A T T A C A U U E. T C G W R O N G A C U U

351. A segment of DNA has one strand with the following sequence of bases: ATA G C A T A G C A A. The complementary strand of DNA is

A. * TAT C G T A U C G U U B. T C G C C G A T C G T T C. T C G C G T A T C G T T D. T C G C A T T A C A U U E. T C G W R O N G A C U U

352. A segment of DNA has one strand with the following sequence of bases: ATA CAC T A G C A A. The complementary strand of DNA is

A. * TAT GUG A U C G U U B. T C G C C G A T C G T T C. T C G C G T A T C G T T D. T C G C A T T A C A U U

E. T C G W R O N G A C U U 353. An operon is the unit of _______

A. * Transcription B. Translation C. Gene expression; D. Gene repressions E. Gene action

354. codon is:A. * It is the basic unit of the genetic code. B. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does. C. It never codes for more than one amino acid. D. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule E. All of these

355. Codons are: A. * triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA B. triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNA C. triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chains D. triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNA E. none of the above

356. DNA is not present in A. * Lysosomes B. nucleus C. nucleolus D. Chloroplasts E. mitochondria

357. DNA is present in A. Lysosomes B. Golgy complex C. RER D. Ribosomes E. * Nucleus

358. DNA is present in A. Lysosomes B. * *Mitochondria C. Ribosomes D. SER E. Golgy complex

359. DNA is present in A. Lysosomes B. SER C. Ribosomes D. * Chloroplasts E. Golgy complex

360. DNA is replicated: A. conservatively B. distributively C. * semi-conservatively D. dispersively E. liberally

361. DNA polymerases A. join DNA fragments B. replicate RNA

C. * replicate DNA D. require ATP E. synthesize DNA in 3’->5’ direction

362. DNA replication is A. Continuous and conservative B. Discontinuous and semiconservative C. * Semidiscontinuous and semiconservative D. Conservative and semidiscontinuous E. Nonconservative

363. During translation, chain elongation continues until A. no amino acids are left B. all tRNAs are empty C. the polypeptide is long enough D. the ribosomes run off the end of mRNA E. * no correct answer

364. Gene expression includes A. * Transcription and translation B. Transcription and RNA Processing C. Translation and RNA Processing D. Only transcription E. Only translation

365. How is the protein, which is coded by the regulator gene, called? A. * Repressor B. Operator C. Corepressor D. Promoter E. Transfer RNA

366. How many nucleotides in one codon? A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. * none of these

367. How many nucleotides in one codon? A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. * 3

368. In a DNA molecule, the A. Bases are covalently bonded to the sugars B. Sugars are covalently bonded to the phosphates C. Bases are hydrogen bonded to one another D. * All of these E. Non of these

369. Initiation of polypeptide chain in protein synthesis is induced by A. * Methionine B. Glycine C. Leucine D. Lysine E. Proline

370. Name terminator codons

A. AUG and CUG B. * UAG , UGA, UAA C. UAA, AUG, CUG D. CUG and UAA E. UAG and AUG

371. Name the start codons A. * AUG and CUG B. UAG and UGA C. UAA and AUG D. CUG and UAA E. UAG and AUG

372. Nucleosomes (circle all that apply) A. bind to RNA pol II B. * package eukaryotic DNA C. are only present in prokaryotes D. are composed on an octamer of histones and ~150 bp of DNA E. metabolize lactose

373. Operons A. are characteristic for eukaryotic genomes B. * contain more than one gene C. contain more than one promoter D. contain always similar genes E. contain one gene

374. Protein-repressor is necessary for A. Operon functioning B. * Transcription regulation C. RNA replication regulation D. Amino acids transportation E. DNA replication regulation

375. Repressor molecules bind to the: A. promoter B. enhancer C. * operator D. alpha subunit E. reverse transcriptase

376. RNA is formed by the process of ____________. A. * transcription B. translation C. both transcription and translation D. recombination E. none of the answers are correct

377. RNA processing is A. The same as transcription B. * An event that occurs after RNA is transcribed C. The rejection of old, worn-out RNA D. The same as translation E. All of these

378. The 20 amino acids found in proteins are called for by: A. 59 codons. B. 60 codons. C. * 61 codons. D. 63 codons.

E. 64 codons. 379. The actual assembly of amino acids into protein occurs on the

A. endoplasmic reticulum B. * ribosomes C. tRNAs D. Golgi bodies E. none of these

380. The actual assembly of amino acids into protein occurs on the A. endoplasmic reticulum B. * ribosomes C. tRNAs D. Golgi bodies E. none of these

381. The basic unit of heredity is the _______________. A. * gene B. macromolecule C. trait D. nucleotide E. none of the answers are correct

382. The central dogma of molecular biology says that A. * mRNA directs the synthesis of a polypeptide B. mRNA is formed by transcription C. sequence of codons in mRNA directs the sequence of amino acids in a protein; D. Each old DNA strand of the parent molecule serves as a template for a new strand E. All of these

383. The coded information in a DNA molecule directly determines the formation of A. * polypeptides B. polysaccharides C. lipids D. glycerol E. monosaccharides

384. The coded information in a DNA molecule directly determines the formation of A. * polypeptides B. polysaccharides C. lipids D. glycerol E. monosaccharides

385. The DNA of all organisms replicates by A. dispersive replication B. reverse replication C. * semi-conservative replication D. conservative replication E. Liberal Democrat replication

386. The enzyme that attaches the amino acid to its rRNA is: A. Aminoacyl mRNA synthase. B. * Aminoacyl tRNA synthase. C. Amino acid attachment enzyme. D. Elongator factor. E. tRNA polymerase.

387. The enzyme that catalyzed the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids is:

A. Amino cid transferase.

B. Peptide joinase. C. * Peptidyl transferase. D. Peptide elongation factor. E. Puromycin.

388. The incorporation data for amino acids indicate that: A. each base triplet must code for a different amino acid B. some triplets can code for more than one amino acid C. * * some amino acids can be coded by more than one triplet D. each amino acid can be coded by two or more triplets E. E the copolymers must contain some noncoding triplets

389. The inrons are removed from the primary mRNA by a process called A. Transcription and translation B. Transcription C. Translation D. * RNA Processing E. Non of these

390. The monomer of DNA molecule is A. * Nucleotide B. Amino acid C. Carbohydrate D. Protein E. Lipid

391. The monomer of RNA molecule is A. * Nucleotide B. Amino acid C. Carbohydrate D. Protein E. Lipid

392. The monomer(s) found in nucleic acids is/are: A. Carbohydrate B. Amino acids C. fatty acid and glycerol D. * nucleotides E. none of the above

393. The mRNA molecule coded for by the original strand DNA: A G C G C A T A G C A A is:

A. T C G C G T A T C G T T B. * U C G C G U A U C G U U C. T C A C M R N A T C C C D. U A C A T T U C A G G G E. U C G G C A T T U G G C

394. The mRNA molecule coded for by the original strand DNA: A G C C C A T A G C A A is:

A. T C G C G T A T C G T T B. * U C G G G U A U C G U U C. T C A C M R N A T C C C D. U A C A T T U C A G G G E. U C G G C A T T U G G C

395. The mRNA molecule coded for by the original strand DNA: GA C C C A T A G C A A is:

A. T C G C G T A T C G T T B. * CU G G G U A U C G U U

C. T C A C M R N A T C C C D. U A C A T T U C A G G G E. U C G G C A T T U G G C

396. The process of synthesizing mRNA along a DNA template is called A. * transcription B. translation C. transformation D. translocation E. crossing ove

397. The process of synthesizing rRNA along a DNA template is called A. * transcription B. translation C. transformation D. translocation E. crossing ove

398. The process of synthesizing tRNA along a DNA template is called A. * transcription B. translation C. transformation D. translocation E. crossing ove

399. The total number of codons possible in the code system is: A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. 44 E. * none of these

400. The total number of codons possible in the code system is: A. 4 B. 16 C. 32 D. * 64 E. none of these

401. The two sides of the DNA molecule are held together at their bases by: A. covalent bonds B. peptide bonds C. James Bonds D. ionic charges E. * hydrogen bonds

402. which molecule does carries amino acids to the ribosomes? A. rRNA B. * tRNA C. DNA D. mRNA E. cccDNA

403. What carries amino acids to the ribosomes? A. rRNA B. * tRNA C. DNA D. mRNA E. cccDNA

404. What gene determines the structure of protein in a metabolic pathway?

A. Operator. B. Repressor. C. Regulator gene. D. Promoter. E. * Structural gene.

405. What is a codon? A. * It is the basic unit of the genetic code. B. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does. C. It never codes for more than one amino acid. D. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule E. All of these

406. what is the monomer of DNA molecule? A. * Nucleotide B. Amino acid C. Carbohydrate D. Protein E. Lipid

407. what is the monomer of RNA molecule? A. * Nucleotide B. Amino acid C. Carbohydrate D. Protein E. Lipid

408. The monomer of RNA molecule is A. * Nucleotide B. Amino acid C. Carbohydrate D. Protein E. Lipid

409. What part of operon controls the activity of the structural genes A. * Regulator gene B. Operator C. Structural gene D. Repressor E. Promoter

410. What part of operon directs the synthesis of a repressor protein genes A. * Regulator gene B. Operator C. Structural gene D. Inducer E. Promoter

411. What structure prevents RNA polymerase from attaching to the promoter? A. Operator. B. * Repressor. C. Regulator gene. D. Promoter. E. Structural gene.

412. What structures are located adjacent to the operator? A. Repressor and regulator gene. B. Repressor and structural gene. C. * Structural genes and promoter. D. Regulator gene and promoter.

E. All of these. 413. Which bonds held together two sides of the DNA?

A. covalent bonds B. peptide bonds C. James Bonds D. ionic charges E. * hydrogen bonds

414. Which does NOT represent a difference between RNA and DNA? A. RNA is single stranded. B. RNA contains the sugar ribose. C. RNA utilizes nucleotides in its structure. D. RNA substitutes thymine for uracil. E. * All of the above represent differences between DNA and RNA.

415. Which is found in RNA but not in DNA? A. adenine B. cytosine C. guanine D. * uracil E. phosphate groups

416. Which is represent a difference between RNA and DNA? A. RNA is single stranded. B. RNA contains the sugar ribose. C. RNA utilizes nucleotides in its structure. D. RNA substitutes thymine for uracil. E. * All of the above represent differences between DNA and RNA.

417. Which is true of a codon? A. * It consists of three nucleotides. B. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does. C. It never codes for more than one amino acid. D. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule E. All of these

418. Which is true of a codon? A. * It is the basic unit of the genetic code. B. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does. C. It never codes for more than one amino acid. D. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule E. All of these

419. Which is true of a codon? A. * It consists of three nucleotides. B. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon does. C. It never codes for more than one amino acid. D. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule E. All of these

420. ?Which molecule carries amino acids to the ribosomes? A. rRNA B. * tRNA C. DNA D. mRNA E. cccDNA

421. Which molecule make up the ribosomes? A. mRNA B. tRNA

C. * rRNA D. mRNA and rRNA E. All of these

422. Which molecule produce in the nucleus during translation? A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. all of these E. * none of these

423. Which molecule produce in the nucleus during translation? A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. * protein E. none of these

424. Which nitrogenous bases make up DNA nucleotides? A. * adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosin B. adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine C. adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine D. adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil E. deoxyribose and purines

425. Which nitrogenous bases make up RNA nucleotides? A. adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine B. * adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine C. adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine D. adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil E. ribose and purines

426. Which nucleotide is found in RNA but not in DNA? A. adenine B. cytosine C. guanine D. * uracil E. phosphate groups

427. Which of the following is a product of transcription? A. Amino acid B. protein C. A new strand of DNA D. * RNA E. None of the above

428. Which of the following is a product of transcription? A. Amino acid B. protein C. A new strand of DNA D. * mRNA E. None of the above

429. Which of the following is a product of transcription? A. Amino acid B. protein C. A new strand of DNA D. * tRNA E. None of the above

430. Which of the following is a product of transcription?

A. Amino acid B. protein C. A new strand of DNA D. * rRNA E. None of the above

431. Which of the following is an amino acid? A. adenosine B. adenine C. * aspartic acid D. linoleic acid E. creatine

432. Which of the following is an amino acid? A. adenosine B. adenine C. * leucine D. linoleic acid E. creatine

433. Which of the following is an amino acid? A. adenosine B. adenine C. * tyrosine D. linoleic acid E. creatine

434. Which of the following is called amber? A. AUG B. UAA C. * UAG D. UGA E. UAC

435. Which of the following is false about the E. coli Lac operon? A. It is polycistronic B. In is an example of negative control C. The presence of lactose acts as an inducer D. The repressor binds to the operator E. * The mRNA for the repressor binds to the operator

436. ?Which of the following is not a product of transcription? A. rRNA B. mRNA C. A new strand of DNA D. tRNA E. None of the above

437. Which of the following is not an amino acid? A. glutamic acid B. aspartic acid C. glutamine D. * glucose E. leucine

438. Which of the following is true of DNA? A. The sugar in DNA has one less oxygen molecule than that in RNA. B. DNA is a double stranded molecule. C. In DNA, the base uracil replaces thymine. D. DNA is a polymer made of nucleotide subunits.

E. * All of these. 439. Which of the following is true of rRNA?

A. It functions in carrying messenger RNA from the nucleus to the ribosomes. B. * It is constituent of rybosome. C. It consists of a single strand of nucleotides. D. It is necessary for transcription. E. it is the first 4 letters of the word ‘train’

440. Which of the following is true of tRNA? A. It functions in carrying messenger RNA from the nucleus to the ribosomes. B. * It is short-lived. C. It consists of a single strand of nucleotides. D. It is necessary for transcription. E. it is the first 4 letters of the word ‘train’

441. Which of the following statements concerning operator is true? A. A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is to

be transcribed. B. * A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA

polymerase from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription.

C. A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds to the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.

D. One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit. E. All of these.

442. Which of the following statements concerning promoter is true? A. * A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is

to be transcribed. B. A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA polymerase

from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription. C. A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds to

the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. D. One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit. E. All of these.

443. Which of the following statements concerning regulator gene is true? A. A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is to

be transcribed. B. A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA polymerase

from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription. C. * A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds

to the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter. D. One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit. E. All of these.

444. Which of the following statements concerning structural genes is true? A. A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is to

be transcribed. B. B A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA

polymerase from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription.

C. A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds to the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.

D. * D One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit. E. All of these.

445. Which of the following statements concerning transcription is false:

A. A gene is transcribed into on RNA molecule by RNA polymerase; B. Both exons and introns are transcribed; C. The DNA molecule unwinds at the end of transcription; D. * The codon always represents a single amino acid; E. The chain terminator on the DNA molecule stop the transcription process

446. Which one of the following nucleotides is not present in DNA: A. Thymine B. Adenine; C. * Uracil; D. Cytosine; E. Guanine.

447. Which one of the following nucleotides is not present in RNA: A. * Thymine B. Adenine; C. Uracil; D. Cytosine; E. Guanine.

448. Which process of gene expression leads to protein synthesis A. * Transcription and translation B. Transcription and RNA Processing C. Translation and RNA Processing D. Only transcription E. *Only translation

449. Which remains in the nucleus during transcription? A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. * all of these E. none of these

450. Which remains in the nucleus during translation? A. tRNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. all of these E. * none of these

451. Which represents a similarity between DNA and RNA? A. Double-stranded helical structure B. The presence of uracil C. The same number of oxygen atoms in each of their pentose sugars D. * Nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base E. They are both copied in mitosis

452. Which represents a similarity between DNA and RNA? A. Double-stranded helical structure B. The presence of uracil C. The same number of oxygen atoms in each of their pentose sugars D. * Nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base E. They are both copied in mitosis

453. Which RNA molecule carries genetic information to the ribosomes? A. * mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. mRNA and rRNA

E. All of these 454. Which RNA molecule make up the ribosomes.

A. mRNA B. tRNA C. * rRNA D. mRNA and rRNA E. All of these

455. Which RNA molecule transfer amino acids to the ribosomes. A. mRNA B. * tRNA C. rRNA D. mRNA and rRNA E. All of these

456. Which statement about DNA is false? A. The sugar in DNA has one less oxygen molecule than that in RNA. B. DNA is a double stranded molecule. C. In DNA, the base uracil replaces thymine. D. DNA is a polymer made of nucleotide subunits. E. * It stands for National Dyslexia Association.

457. Which type replication DNA of all organisms? A. dispersive replication B. reverse replication C. * semi-conservative replication D. conservative replication

Liberal Democrat replication

458. What is an objective for small magnification in the light microscope?A. Х7B. Х15.C. Х40.D. Х90E. *Х8.

459. What is an ocular for small magnification in the light microscope?A. Х25.B. Х8.C. Х40.D. Х90.E. Х7.ANSWER: E

460. What is an objective for large magnification in the light microscope?A. Х7B. Х15.C. Х8.D. Х90.E. *Х40.

461. What is an ocular for large magnification in the light microscope?A. Х25.B. Х8.C. Х40.

D. Х90.E. *Х7.

462. What is an objective for immersion in the light microscope?A. Х7.B. Х15C. Х8.D. Х40.E. *Х90.

463. What is an ocular for immersion in the light microscope?A. Х15.B. Х8.C. Х40.D. Х90.E. *Х7.

464. What does an illuminative part of the light microscope consist of?A. Ocular.B. Tube object.C. Objective.D. Turret.E. *Refractor.

465. What does an illuminative part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. OcularC. Tube object.D. TurretE. *Condenser.

466. What does an illuminative part of the light microscope consist of?A. ObjectiveB. OcularC. Tube object.D. TurretE. *Diaphragm

467. What does an mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. Diaphragm.D. Condenser.E. *Tube object.

468. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. Condenser.D. Refractor.E. *Turret.

469. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. OcularC. CondenserD. RefractorE. *Macrometer screw.

470. What does an optical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Object stage.B. CondenserC. RefractorD. Base plate.E. * Objective

471. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. CondenserD. RefractorE. * Micrometer screw.

472. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. Condenser.D. Refractor.E. * Condenser screw.

473. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. Condenser.D. Refractor.E. *Stand.

474. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. Condenser.D. Refractor.E.* Base plate.

475. What does a mechanical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Objective.B. Ocular.C. Condenser.D. Refractor.E. * Object stage.

476. What does an optical part of the light microscope consist of?A. Base plate.B. Condenser.

C. Refractor.D. Object stage.E. * Ocular.

477. The begining of working with microscope you start with a light magnification. What ocular do you need?

A. Х25.B. Х8.C. Х40.D. Х90.E. * Х7.

478. The begining of working with microscope you start with a light magnification. What objective do you need?

A. Х7.B. Х15.C. Х40.D. Х90.E. * Х8.

479. You are examining a specimen under the considerable magnification. What ocular are you need?

A. Х25.B. Х8.C. Х40.D. Х90.E. * Х7.

480. You are examining a specimen under the considerable magnification. What objective are you need?

A. Х7.B. Х15.C. Х8.D. Х90.E. *Х40.

481. Which of the following is not an amino acid?A. glutamic acidB. aspartic acidC. glutamineD. leucineE. *palmitic acid

482. What type of covalent bonds link the amino acids in a protein?A. ester bondsB. hydrogen bondsC. ionic bondsD. glycosidic bondsE. * peptide bonds

483. Which of the following is an amino acid that is found in proteins?A. adenosine

B. adenineC. creatineD. linoleic acidE. * alanine

484. Which of the following is an amino acid?A. adenosineB. adenineC. creatineD. linoleic acidE. *alanine

485. Which of the following molecules does not form part of DNA?A. purineB. pyrimidineC. deoxyriboseD. phosphateE. * amino acid

486. Codons are composed of:A. none of the aboveB. triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in DNAC. triplet sequences of amino acids in polypeptide chainsD. triplet sequences of deoxyribose sugars in DNAE. * triplet sequences of nucleotide bases in mRNA

487. The primary RNA transcript of the chicken ovalbumin gene is 7700 nucleotides long, but the mature mRNA that is translated on the ribosome is 1872 nucleotides long. This size difference occurs primarily as a result of:

A. CappingB. cleavage of polycistronic mRNAC. removal of poly A tailsD. reverse transcriptionE. *processing, splicing

488. The anticodon sequence is found on which of the following?A. Messenger RNA.B. Ribosomal RNA.C. Big nuclear RNA.D. Small nuclear RNA.E. * Transfer RNA.

489. Telomers are locatedA. at the ends of ribosomal RNAB. in centromersC. in the middle of chromosomesD. in mitochondrial DNAE. *at the ends of chromosomes

490. Least structural unit of a human organism is:A. Tissue.B. Carbohydrates.

C. Membrane.D. Nucleic acids.E. * Cell.

491. Organic matters which are carrying out in a cell functions of enzymes:A. Carbohydrates.B. Lipids.C. Nucleic acids.D. Phospholipids.E. * Proteins.

492. The continuity of life is provided due to function of a cell:A. Metabolism and energies.B. ResponsivnessC. Biosyntesis of organic compounds.D. Body height and breeding of cells.E. * Biosynthesis of proteins.

493. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is photosynthesis:A. Mitochondrion.B. Lysosome.C. Ribosome.D. Centrosome.E. *Chloroplast.

494. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is protein synthesis:A. Mitochondrion.B. Lysosome.C. Chloroplast.D. Centrosome.E. * Ribosome.

495. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is protein synthesis:A. MitochondrionB. LysosomeC. ChloroplastD. CentrosomeE. * Ribosome

496. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is lipid synthesis:A. Mitochondrion.B. LysosomeC. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. CentrosomeE. * Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

497. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is ATP synthesis:A. LysosomeB. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. CentrosomeE. * Mitochondrion

498. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is degradation of intracellular debris:A. MitochondrionB. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. CentrosomeE. * Lysosome

499. Choose organelle of a cell that forms mitotic spindle fibersA. MitochondrionB. LysosomeC. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.E. * Centrosome

500. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is temporary storage of substances:A. Mitochondrion.B. LysosomeC. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.E. * Vacuole

501. Choose organelle of a cell, in which there is noncytosolic protein synthesis:A. MitochondrionB. LysosomeC. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.D. VacuoleE. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

502. Choose two-membrane organelle of a cell:A. LysosomeB. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. VacuoleE. * Mitochondrion

503. Choose two-membrane organelle of a cell:A. LysosomeB. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. VacuoleE. * Chloroplast

504. Choose non-membrane organelle of a cell:A. LysosomeB. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. VacuoleE. * Centrosome

505. Choose non-membrane organelle of a cell:A. Lysosome

B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. MitochondrionE. * Ribosome

506. Choose one-membrane organelle of a cell:A. Centrosome.B. Ribosome.C. Chloroplast.D. Mitochondrion.E. *Golgy apparatus.

507. Choose one-membrane organelle of a cell:A. Centrosome.B. Ribosome.C. Chloroplast.D. Mitochondrion.E. *Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

508. Choose single-membrane organelle of a cell:A. Centrosome.B. Ribosome.C. Chloroplast.D. Mitochondrion.E. *Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

509. What mean of division at somatic cells?A. Amitosis.B. Meiosis.C. Schizogony.D. Budding.E. *Mitosis.

510. What mean of division at germ cells?A. Amitosis.B. Mitosis.C. Schizogony.D. Budding.E. *Meiosis.

511. To prokaryotic are the following:A. Phages.B. Viruses.C. Animals.D. Plants.E. * Bacteria.

512. To prokaryotic are the following:A. Bacteria.B. Phages.C. Viruses.D. Plants.

E. *Blue-green algae.

513. To prokaryotic are the following:A. AnimalsB. Fungi.C. Viruses.D. Plants.E. * Blue-green algae.

514. What organelle does contain DNA?A. Lysosome.B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. Vacuole.E. *Chloroplast.

515. What organelle does contain DNA?A. Lysosome.B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.D. Vacuole.E. * Mitochondrion.

516. The organic matters from inorganic are formed in process of:A. Syntesis of protein.B. Synthesis ATP.C. Syntesis of phospholipids.D. Synthesis RNA.E. * Photosynthesis.

517. Specify the component of prokaryotic cell:A. Nucleus.B. Mitochondrion.C. Vacuole.D. Lysosome.E. *Nucleoid.

518. Organelle of prokaryotic cell is:A. Nucleus.B. Mitochondrion.C. Vacuole.D. Lysosome.E. *Ribosome.

519. What chemical composition of a plasma membrane:A. Two layers of carbohydrates between two in layers of proteins.B. Layer of lipids between two in layers of proteins.C. Two layers of carbohydrates and one layer of lipids.D. One layer of carbohydrates and two layers of proteins.E. * Proteins and two layers of lipids.

520. Electron micrographs following freeze-fracture of the plasma membrane indicate that:

A. The membrane is a phospholipid bilayer.B. Protein is found only on the surfaces of the membrane.C. Glycolipids are antigenic.D. Glycoproteins are antigenic.E. * Some proteins span the membrane.

521. A phospholipid molecule has a head and 2 tails. The tails are found:A. At the surfaces of the membrane.B. Both at the surfaces and the interior of the membrane.C. Spanning the membrane.D. In the cytoplasm.E. *In the interior of the membrane.

522. Which one of the following transport processes requires energy?A. Facilitated diffusion.B. Passive transport.C. Simple diffusion.D. Osmosis.E. * Active transport.

523. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution:A. Solute exits the cell to equalize the concentration on both sides of the membrane.B. Water exits the cell toward the area of lower concentration.C. Solute exits and water enters the cell.D. Water enters the cell toward the area of lower solute concentration.E. *Water enters the cell toward the area of higher solute concentration.

524. Which one of the following substances is unable to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

A. 02.B. N2.C. None of the above.D. C02.E. *Na+

525. Active transportA. Requires a protein carrier.B. Moves a molecule against its concentration gradient.C. Requires a supply of energy.D. Requires ATP.E. * All of these.

526. One of the ways that cells communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as:

A. A receptor molecule.B. A spectrin tetramer.C. An integrin.D. An anticodon.E. * A signaling molecule.

527. Receptor-mediated endocytosis:A. Is no different from phagocytosis.B. Helps to concentrate proteins in vesicles.C. Is no different from exocytosis.D. All of these.E. * Brings specific nutrients into the cell.

528. All of the following statements concerning plasma membrane components are true, EXCEPT

A. G proteins are composed of three subunits.B. Channel proteins are not energy-dependent.C. Ankyrin binds to integrins of the red blood cell plasma membrane.D. Glycocalyx is the sugar coat.E. *The glycocalyx is usually composed of phospholipids.

529. The sugar coat located on the outer surface of the outer leaflet of the plasmalemma is:

A. NucleusB. MitochondrionC. VacuoleD. LysosomeE. *Glycocalyx

530. What is the functions of Cholesterol in plasmalemma?A. Decrease fluidity of the lipid bilayer.B. Facilitate the diffusion of ions through the lipid bilayer.C. Assist in the transport of hormones across the lipid bilayer.D. All of these.E. * Increase fluidity of the lipid bilayer.

531. The cell membrane consists of various components, including integral proteins. These integral proteins:

A. Are not attached to the outer leaflet.B. Are not attached to the inner leaflet.C. Function in the transport of cholesterol-based hormones.D. All of these.E. *Include transmembrane proteins.

532. Energy is required forA. DiffusionB. Facilitated transport.C. OsmosisD. All of these.E. *Active transport.

533. When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution,A. Water exits the cell toward the area of lower concentration.B. Water enters the cell toward the area of higher solute concentration.C. Solute exits and water enters the cell.D. All of these.E. *Water exits the cell to equalize the concentration on both sides of the membrane.

534. A protozoan's contractile vacuole is more likely to be activeA. In a hypertonic environment.B. In an isotonic environment.C. When endocytosis is occurring.D. All of these.E. *In a hypotonic environment.

535. Symport refers to the process of transportingA. A molecule into the cell.B. A molecule out of the cell.C. Two different molecules in the opposite direction.D. All of these.E. * Two different molecules in the same direction.

536. The sodium-potassium pumpA. Helps establish an electrochemical gradient across the membrane.B. Concentrates sodium on the outside of the membrane.C. Utilizes energy.D. Na+ ion requires carrier proteins for transport across the plasma membrane.E. *All of these.

537. Receptor-mediated endocytosisA. Is no different from phagocytosis.B. Helps to concentrate proteins in vesicles.C. Brings specific nutrients out the cell.D. All of these.E. * Brings specific nutrients into the cell.

538. The nuclear pore complex:A. Is bridged by a unit membrane.B. Is located only at specific nuclear pore sites.C. Permits passage of proteins via receptor-mediated transport.D. All of these.E. * Permits free communication between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

539. Which one of the following nucleotides is present only in RNA?A. ThymineB. AdenineC. Cytosine D. GuanineE. * Uracil

540. Which one of the following nitrogenous base is present only in DNA?A. AdenineB. UracilC. Cytosine D. GuanineE. *Thymine

541. Anticodons are located in:A. mRNAB. rRNA

C. DNAD. ProteinE. * tRNA

542. DNA is duplicated in the cell cycle during the:A. G2 phase.B. МetaphaseC. G1 phase.D. G0 phase.E. *S phase.

543. During mitosis, sister chromatids begin their migration to opposite poles during:A. TelophaseB. MetaphaseC. ProphaseD. G0 phase.E. *Anaphase

544. Transformed cells become malignant because theyA. Have a reduced amount of RNA polymerase.B. Cease mitotic activity.C. Contain extra chromosomes.D. Contain transcriptionally inactive hetero-chromatin.E. *Are unable to respond to regulatory signals in the cell cycle.

545. Microscopic observations of the proportions of the two types of chromatin in the nuclei of tissue sections can often be used to

A. Determine the karyotype.B. Identify the genome.C. Diagnose Turner syndrome.D. Identify DNA viruses.E. * Distinguish benign from malignant cells.

546. Cells may be malignant with:A. Low euchromatin-heterochromatin ratio.B. High heterochromatin-euchromatin ratio.C. Without euchromatin.D. Without heterochromatin.E. * High euchromatin-heterochromatin ratio.

547. What organelle is absent in a cell of the man, but contains in cells of green plants?A. MitochondrionB. RibosomeC. Cell center.D. ChromosomeE. *Chloroplast

548. What is the phagocytosis?A. Absorption of a fluid stuff.B. Absorption of mineral substances.C. Absorption of water.D. Type of cell division.

E. *Absorption of solid particles.

549. What the parts does cell center consists of?A. Two nucleoluses.B. Vacuoles of various size.C. Two chromosome.D. One nucleolus and two chromosome.E. *Two centrioles.

550. What is the basic function of lysosomes?A. Participation in a plastic exchange.B. Participation in synthesis of carbohydrates.C. Synthesis of lipids.D. Participation in a metabolism.E. * Participation in digestiones of various materials.

551. In what cells are most of all of mitochondrions contained?A. Where synthetic processes take place.B. In erythrocytes.C. Where the lipids are synthesized.D. Where the carbohydrates are synthesized.E. * Where the energy consumptions is greater.

552. Which from the organelles is belonging to the organelles for special prescription?A. LysosomesB. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.D. MitochondriaE. * Cilia

553. The lysosome membrane intact is break. What will happen to a cell?A. PhagocytosisB. EndocytosisC. MitosisD. PinocytosisE. *Lysis

554. What is an organelle to which proteins fold into their final forms?A. MitochondriaB. LysosomesC. RibosomesD. Cell center.E. *Golgi apparatus.

555. In what organelles contains rRNA?A. MitochondrionsB. Cellular center.C. Golgi apparatus.D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.E. *Ribosomes

556. The chromosome is acrocentric if:

A. A centromere divides it into two arms of approximately length.B. It pinches off only a small amount of material.C. A centromere establishes two long arms and one short arm.D. A centromere establishes one long arm and two short arms.E. * A centromere establishes one long arm and one short arm and present secondary

constriction.

557. How many chromosomes groups are there in the human karyotype?A. 4.B. 5C. 6D. 9E. *7

558. Which of the following statements concerning transcription is false?A. A gene is transcribed into on RNA molecule by RNA polymerase.B. DNA molecule unwinds at the end of transcription.C. The codon always represents a single amino acid.D. The gene terminator on the DNA molecule stop the transcription process.E. *Both exons and introns are transcribed.

559. Which one of the following enzymes is present during transcriprion?A. DNA - polymerase.B. Reverse transcriptase.C. LigaseD. PeptidaseE. * RNA - polymerase.

560. DNA is duplicated in the cell cycle during the:A. G1 phase.B. G2 phase.C. AmitosisD. CytokinesisE. *S phase.

561. What chromosome number is present in sex cells?A. DiploidB. TetraploidC. TriploidD. PentaploidE. *Haploid

562. In which period of spermatogenesis does meiosis take place?A. ReproductionB. GrowingC. FormationD. InterphaseE. *Maturation

563. In which stage of prophase I does crossing-over occur?A. InterphaseB. Leptotene

C. ZygoteneD. DiploteneE. * Pachytene

564. Which type of chromosome is characterised that the centromere divides it into two equal arms?

A. AcrocentricB. SubmetacentricC. TelocentricD. HeterochromosomeE. * Metacentric

565. Which type of chromosome characterised that the centromere establishes one very long arm and one very short arm?

A. SubmetacentricB. MetacentricC. TelocentricD. HeterochromosomeE. *Acrocentric

566. Chromatids are held together by a:A. CentrioleB. SpindleC. AsterD. TelomereE. *Centromere

567. How many autosomes are there in the human karyotype?A. 2.B. 22C. 23D. 46E. * 44

568. How many heterochrosomes are there in the human karyotype?A. 22B. 23C. 44D. 46E. * 2

569. How many sex chrosomes are there in the human karyotype?A. 22B. 23C. 44D. 46E. *2

570. How many autosomes are there in the human germ cell?A. 2B. 23C. 44

D. 46E. *22

571. How many heterochrosomes are there in the human germ cell?A. 2B. 22C. 23D. 46E. *1

572. How many sex chrosomes are there in the human sperm cell?A. 2B. 22C. 23D. 46E. *1

573. Consist on two long chains of nucleotides that form a double helix:A. RNAB. NucleotidC. Double helix.D. ProteinE. *DNA

574. Complementary codon to the codon of mRNA, found on the tRNA molecule:A. AUGB. UAGC. CodonD. Stop-codon.E. * Anticodon

575. Which molecule carries amino acids to the ribosomes?A. rRNAB. ProteinC. DNAD. mRNAE. *tRNA

576. Process by which DNA “unzips” and codes a stand of mRNA in the nucleus - one of the first stages in protein syntesis:

A. TranslationB. ReplicationC. Base pairing.D. ProcessingE. *Transcription

577. If 30% of an organism's DNA is thymine then:A. 70% is purines.B. 40% is guanine.C. 40% is cytosine D. 30% is uracil.E. *30% is adenine.

578. If one strand of DNA has the base sequence ATCGTA, what will the complementary strand have?

A. ATCGTAB. CAGTCTC. UAGAUAD. TACCATE. *TAGCAT

579. The process of synthesizing mRNA along a DNA template is called:A. .crossing ovB. .translatioC. .transformatioD. .translocatioE. . *transcription

580. Consists of nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a molecule of deoxyribose:A. RiboseB. DeoxyriboseC. ProteinD. PhosphateE. *Nucleotide

581. The two sides of the DNA molecule are held together at their bases by:A. covalent bondsB. peptide bondsC. James BondsD. ionic chargesE. *hydrogen bonds

582. The nucleotide chains that form DNA - the chains twist around themselves in the form of a spiral staircase:

A. mRNAB. NucleotideC. DNAD. tRNAE. *Double helix.

583. Complementary codon to the codon of DNA, found on the mRNA molecule:A. AUGB. UAGC. AnticodonD. Stop-codon.E. *Codon

584. Wath are functions of tRNA:A. Used to make ribosomes.B. Genetic code from DNA.C. Used in replication.D. All of these.E. *To carry amino acids.

585. The process by which DNA makes copies of itself duplication talked about during the S stage of interphase in the cell cycle:

A. TranslationB. TranscriptionC. Base pairing.D. ProcessingE. *Replication

586. If 30% of an organism's DNA is adenine then:A. 70% is purines.B. 70% is thymine.C. 30% is cytosine. D. 30% is guanineE. *20% is guanine.

587. They are made up of purines and pyrimidines:A. RiboseB. DeoxyriboseC. PhosphateD. EnzymesE. *Nitrogenous bases.

588. The total number of codons possible in the code system is:A. 3B. 16C. 32D. 56E. *64

589. Which one of the following enzymes is present during replication?A. RNA - polymerase.B. Reverse transcriptase.C. LigaseD. LipaseE. *DNA - polymerase.

590. The nucleic acid that carries out the instructions of DNA. Has only two differences from DNA - the carbohydrate ribose (instead to deoxyribose), and the nitrogenous base uracil (instead of thimine):

A. NucleotideB. DNAC. Double helix.D. ATPE. *RNA

591. Groups of 3 nucleotides. Each serves as a code word for one amino acid:A. AUGB. UAGC. AnticodonD. Stop-codon.E. *Codon

592. Anticodons are located in:A. mRNAB. rRNAC. DNAD. ProteinE. * tRNA

593. Which one of the following enzymes is present during transcription?A. DNA - polymerase.B. Reverse transcriptase.C. LigaseD. PeptidaseE. * RNA - polymerase.

594. Which of the following statements concerning regulator gene is true?A. A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is to

be transcribed.B. A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA polymerase

from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription.C. One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit.D. All of these.E. *A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds

to the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.

595. Which of the following statements concerning promoter is true?A. A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA polymerase

from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription.B. A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds to

the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.C. One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit.D. All of these.E. *A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is

to be transcribed.

596. Which of the following statements concerning operator is true?A. A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is to

be transcribed.B. A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds to

the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.C. One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit.D. All of these.E. *A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA

polymerase from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription.

597. Which of the following statements concerning structural genes is true?A. A short sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase first attaches when a gene is to

be transcribed.B. A short sequence of DNA where the repressor binds, preventing RNA polymerase

from attaching to the promoter. Often called the on/off switch of transcription.C. A gene that codes for a repressor protein or activator protein. A repressor binds to

the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter.D. All of these.

E. *One to several genes of a metabolic pathway that are transcribed as a unit.

598. When a gene is to be transcribed, RNA polymerase attaches to a special DNA sequence called a:

A. OperatorB. RepressorC. Regulator gene.D. Structural gene.E. *Promoter

599. What structures are located adjacent to the operator?A. Repressor and regulator gene.B. Repressor and structural gene.C. Regulator gene and promoter.D. All of these.E. * Structural genes and promoter.

600. What gene determines the structure of protein in a metabolic pathway?A. OperatorB. RepressorC. Regulator gene.D. PromoterE. *Structural gene.

601. What structure prevents RNA polymerase from attaching to the promoter?A. OperatorB. Regulator gene.C. PromoterD. Structural gene.E. * Repressor

602. Which of the following statements concerning tRNA is NOT true?A. tRNA molecules transfer amino acids to the ribosomesB. Structure of a tRNA molecule is generally drawn as a flat cloverleafC. There is at least one tRNA molecule for each of the 20 amino acids found in a

protein.D. tRNA has anticodonE. * tRNA molecule is a double-stranded nucleic acid that doubles back on itself to

give regions where complementary bases are hydrogen bonded to one another

603. During translation, chain elongation continues untilA. no amino acids are leftB. all tRNAs are emptyC. the polypeptide is long enoughD. the ribosomes run off the end of mRNAE. *chain terminator codons occur

604. Which represents a similarity between DNA and RNA?A. Double-stranded helical structureB. The presence of uracilC. The same number of oxygen atoms in each of their pentose sugarsD. They are both copied in mitosis

E. * Nucleotides consisting of a phosphate, sugar, and nitrogenous base

605. Which one of the following nitrogen base is not present in DNA?A. ThymineB. AdenineC. CytosineD. GuanineE. *Uracil

606. Migration of one pair of homologues chromosomes to the poles in a woman during oogenesis in meiosis was absent. How many chromosomes will be present in a mature ovum?

A. 21 or 22.B. 23 or 25.C. 45 or 47.D. 46 or 47.E. *22 or 24.

607. Human diploid number has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes migrate to each pole during meiosis I in anaphase?

A. 24.B. 22.C. 45.D. 46.E. *23.

608. Human diploid number has 46 chromosomes. How many chromatids migrate to each pole during meiosis II in anaphase?

A. 24.B. 22.C. 45.D. 46.E. *23.

609. How many chromosomes are present in a spermatogonium?A. 24.B. 22.C. 45.D. 23E. *46.

610. How many chromosomes are present in an oogonium?A. 24.B. 22.C. 45.D. 23.E. *46.

611. How many chromosomes are present in primary spermatocyte?A. 24.B. 22.C. 45

D. 23E. *46

612. How many chromosomes are present in primary oocyte?A. 24B. 22C. 45D. 23E. *46

613. How many chromosomes are present in secondary spermatocyte?A. 22B. 24C. 45D. 46E. *23

614. How many sperms do 400 spermatogonies produce?A. 100B. 400C. 2000D. 4000E. * 1600

615. How many ovums do 400 oogonies produce?A. 100B. 1600C. 2000D. 4000E. *400

616. Base pairing in the DNA molecule follows which configuration?A. A-G, Т-СB. A-C, T-GC. A-U, C-GD. All of these.E. *A-T, C-G

617. A single strand of DNA with the base sequence C-G-A-T-T-G would be complementary to the sequence:

A. C-G-A-T-T-GB. G-C-T-A-A-GC. T-A-G-C-C-TD. G-C-U-A-A-CE. * G-C-T-A-A-C.

618. DNA replication produces:A. Two double-stranded molecules, one with the old strands and one with newly

assembled strands.B. Three new double-stranded molecules, one with both strands completely new and

two that are discarded.C. None of the above.

D. All of these.E. *Two half-old, half-new double-stranded molecules

619. How many amino acids are coded for in this mRNA sequence: CGUUUACACCGUCAC?

A. ThreeB. SixC. SevenD. More than seven.E. * Five

620. A pair of chromosomes that are similar in length, shape, and the traits they govern are called:

A. Diploid chromosomesB. Mitotic chromosomesC. Germ chromosomesD. KaryotypeE. *Homologous chromosomes

621. Interphase is the stage when:A. Nothing occursB. A germ cell forms its spindle apparatusC. Cytokinesis occurs.D. Mitosis occurs.E. A cell grows and duplicates its DNA

622. All of the following are stages of mitosis except:A. ProphaseB. MetaphaseC. AnaphaseD. KaryokinesisE. * Interphase

623. A duplicated chromosome has:A. One chromatid.B. Three chromatids.C. Four chromatids.D. Five chromatids.E. Two chromatids.

624. Crossing over in meiosis:A. Alters the chromosome alignments at metaphase.B. Occurs between sperm DNA and egg DNA at fertilization.C. Occurs only rarely.D. All of these.E. * Leads to genetic recombination

625. Somatic cells of multicelled organisms usually have number of chromosomes:A. 24B. 22C. 45D. 23

E. * 46

626. How many chromatids will be present in the polithenic chromosome, which consists of two chromatids after 3 times it’s doubling?

A. 4B. 6C. 9D. 12E. * 8

627. During some disorders that were present during mitosis in the human cell daughter chromatids of one chromosome didn’t moved to opposite poles of the cell. They were present in the similar nucleus. How many chromosomes will be present in the nucleolus’s of the daughter cells?

A. 46 and 46.B. 23 and 23.C. 22 and 24.D. 44 and 47.E. * 45 and 47.

628. There was an elimination of one chromosome in the human cell during mitosis. How many chromosomes will be present in daughter cells?

A. 46 and 46.B. 45 and 47.C. 23 and 23.D. 22 and 24.E. * 45 and 45.

629. At what kind of division of cells there is an irregular allocation of the inheritable information:

A. MitosisB. MeiosisC. EndomitosisD. PhagocytosisE. *Amitosis

630. How many basic stages are in a mitotic cycle?A. 2B. 3C. 5D. 6E. * 4

631. What basic material is synthesized in the S-period of an interphase?A. LipaseB. PeptidesC. CarbohydratesD. ChromosomesE. *DNA

632. To list the basic structural components of a cell center is:A. Spindle of division.

B. Centrodesmosome.C. CentrosphereD. NucleolusE. * Centriole

633. Where is chromosomes situated in an anaphase?A. In a nucleus.B. On equator of a cell.C. In a microcentrum.D. In the mitochondria.E. *On poles of a cell.

634. Where is chromosomes situated in an metaphase?A. In a nucleus.B. On poles of a cell.C. In a microcentrum.D. In the mitochondria.E. *On equator of a cell.

635. In what phase of mitosis a spindle of division disappear?A. MetaphaseB. AnaphaseC. ProphaseD. InterphaseE. *Telephase

636. What is cytokinesis?A. Division of a nucleus.B. Division of chromosomes.C. One of 2 phases of a mitosis.D. The period of an interphase.E. * Division of cytoplasm.

637. A bivalent (tetrad) is:A. A homologous chromosome.B. A duplicated chromosome composed of sister chromatids.C. The 2 daughter cells after meiosis 1.D. The 2 daughter cells after meiosis 2.E. *The paried homologous chromosomes.

638. If a mother cell has 12 chromosomes, then the daughter cells following meiosis will have:

A. 12 chromosomes.B. 24 chromosomes.C. 8 chromosomes.D. Any one of these.E. *6 chromosomes.

639. At the equator during metaphase-1 of meiosis, there are:A. Singled chromosomes.B. Unpaired dublicated chromosomes.C. 23 chromosomes

D. 23 chromatids.E. * Bivalents (tetrads).

640. At the equator during metaphase-2 of meiosis, there are:A. Singled chromosomes.B. Unpaired dublicated chromosomes.C. Bivalents (tetrads).D. Always 46 chromosomes.E. *Always 23 chromosomes.

641. Gametes contain one of each kind of chromosome because:A. The chromatids never separate during meiosis.B. 2 replications of DNA occure during meiosis.C. Crossing-over occurs during prophase-1.D. Crossing-over occurs during prophase-2.E. * The homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis.

642. Crossing-over occurs between:A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosomes.B. 2 different bivalentsC. 2 daugher nulei.D. 3 daugher nulei.E. * Nonsister chromatids of a bivalent.

643. During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate?A. Prophase-2.B. Telophase-2.C. Metaphase-1.D. Telophase-1.E. *Anaphase-1.

644. During which stage of meiosis do chromatides separate?A. Prophase-2.B. Telophase-2.C. Metaphase-1.D. Telophase-1.E. * Anaphase-2.

645. Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes lack:A. A plasma membrane.B. DNA.C. Ribosomes.D. Molecular motors.E. * Nuclei.

646. Which of the following is a product of transcription? A. Amino acidB. protein C. A new strand of DNA D. lipidsE. * RNA

647. In bacterial and eukaryotic mRNAs, the normal start codon for protein syntesis is encoding:

A. leucine.B. histidine.C. proline.D. valine.E. *methionine.

648. The enzyme that attaches the amino acid to its rRNA is:A. Aminoacyl mRNA synthase.B. Amino acid attachment enzyme.C. Elongator factor.D. tRNA polymerase.E. * Aminoacyl tRNA synthase.

649. The enzyme that catalyzed the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids is:

A. Amino cid transferase.B. Peptide joinase.C. Peptide elongation factor.D. Puromycin.E. * Peptidyl transferase.

650. Which of the following are not components of the cytoskeleton?A. Actin filaments.B. Microtubules.C. Microfilaments.D. Intermediate filaments.E. * Collagen fibers.

651. The process of synthesizing rRNA along a DNA template is called:A. crossing overB. translationC. transformationD. translocationE. * transcription

652. In addition to being found free in the cytoplasm, ribosomes are found on the outer surface of the:

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.B. Mitochondrion.C. Chloroplast.D. Plasma membrane.E. * Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

653. The 20 amino acids found in proteins are coded by:A. 59 codons.B. 60 codons.C. 63 codons.D. 64 codons.E. *61 codons.

654. Methionine is coded by:A. Two different codons.B. Three different codons.C. Four different codons.D. Six different codons.E. *One codon only.

655. Which of the following steps is not past of translation?A. Charging of t RNA.B. Initiation of protein synthesis.C. Elongation of the polypeptide chain.D. Termination of protein synthesis.E. * Synthesis of mRNA.

656. Mitosis proceeds in the order:A. Cytokinesis, prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase.B. Prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis.C. Cytokinesis, anaphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase.D. Metaphase, cytokinesis, prophase, telophase, anaphase.E. * Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis.

657. Mitotic cycle proceeds in the order:A. Prophase, telophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis.B. Metaphase, cytokinesis, prophase, telophase, interphase, anaphase.C. Prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis.D. Cytokinesis, interphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase.E. *Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis.

658. Which bonds held together two sides of the DNA?A. covalent bondsB. peptide bondsC. James BondsD. ionic chargesE. * hydrogen bonds

659. Meiosis differs from mitosis in that:A. The centrioles do not separate during the first meiotic division.B. Meiotic divisions are always asymmetric.C. Movement of chromosomes toward the spindles is above.D. All of the above.E. * Meiosis generates cells with half as much DNA as the progeny of mitotic

division have.

Situational tasks. Module 1 . Biological peculiarities of human vital functions

1. A plant cell was grown in a test tube containing radioactive nucleotides, the parts from which DNA is built. Later examination of the cell showed the radioactivity to be concentrated in the

A. rough ER. B. peroxisome. C. smooth ER. D. central vacuole.

E. * nucleus 2. A plant cell was grown in a test tube containing radioactive nucleotides, the parts from

which DNA is built. Later examination of the cell showed the radioactivity to be concentrated in the

A. rough ER. B. peroxisome. C. smooth ER. D. central vacuole. E. * none of these

3. A researcher made an interesting observation about a protein made by the rough ER and eventually used to build a cell's plasma membrane. The protein in the membrane was actually slightly different from the protein made in the ER. The protein was probably changed in the

A. * Golgi apparatus. B. smooth ER. C. mitochondrion. D. nucleus. E. chloroplast.

4. Fireflies and certain types of bacteria have the ability to convert the energy stored in ATP into light. Which of the following types of work is performed by the firefly?

A. electrical B. bioluminescence C. mechanical and synthetic D. heat E. concentration

5. If diffusing from the mitochondrial matrix of one human cell to the interior of the Golgi apparatus of another cell in the same organism a molecule of CO2 would cross a minimum of:

A. Two membranes B. Three membranes C. Four membranes D. * Five membranes. E. Six membranes

6. Normally, in the process of osmosis, the net flow of water molecules into or out of the cell depends upon differences in the

A. * concentration of water molecules inside and outside the cell B. concentration of enzymes on either side of the cell membrane C. rate of molecular motion on either side of the cell membrane D. rate of movement of insoluble molecules inside the cell E. rate of movement of water molecules outside the cell

7. One of the ways that cells communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as:

A. A receptor molecule. B. * A signaling molecule C. A spectrin tetramer D. An integrin E. An anticodon.

8. One of the ways that cells communicate with each other is by secretion of various molecules. The secreted molecule is known as:

A. A receptor molecule. B. * None of these C. A spectrin tetramer D. An integrin E. An anticodon.

9. Sara would like to film the movement of chromosomes during cell division. Her best choice for a microscope would be a

A. light microscope, because of its resolving power. B. transmission electron microscope, because of its magnifying power. C. scanning electron microscope, because the specimen is alive. D. transmission electron microscope, because of its great resolving power. E. * light microscope, because the specimen is alive.

10. Sodium ions are "pumped" from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration in the nerve cells of humans. This process is an example of

A. diffusion B. passive transport C. osmosis D. * active transport E. simple diffusion

11. The cell membrane consists of various components, including integral proteins. These integral proteins:

A. Are not attached to the outer leaflet. B. Are not attached to the inner leaflet. C. * Include transmembrane proteins D. Function in the transport of cholesterol-based hormones. E. All of these.

12. The Latin phrase omnis cellula e cellula refers to a cellular principle. Which of the following statements is the best translation of this phrase?

A. * All cells arise only from preexisting cells. B. The cell is the basic unit of structure. C. Tissues are composed of similar cells. D. All organisms consist of one or more cells. E. Cells generally are found in clusters.

13. What is the name of the process by which molecules naturally flow from an area of higher concentration to one of lower concentration?

A. Respiration B. Transfusion C. Dialysis D. * Diffusion E. Transduction

14. Which is an organic compound found in most cells? A. * glucose B. water C. sodium chloride D. oxygen gas E. CO2

15. Which is SMALLEST of these five? A. * virus B. red blood cell C. bacterium D. lymphocyte E. nerve cell

16. Which of the cytoskeletal protein filaments has the largest diameter? A. Actin B. Intermediate filaments C. Primary filaments D. * Microtubules

E. Microbodies 17. Which of the following are involved in the synthesis and packaging of secretions,

renewal of the cell membrane, and the packaging of special enzymes? A. cilia B. * Golgi apparatus C. ribosomes D. all of the above E. none of the above

18. Which of the following are involved in the synthesis and packaging of secretions, renewal of the cell membrane, and the packaging of special enzymes?

A. cilia B. * none of these C. ribosomes D. all of the above E. none of the above

19. Which of the following are not components of the cytoskeleton? A. Actin filaments B. * Collagen fibers C. Microtubules. D. Microfilaments. E. Intermediate filaments.

20. Which of the following best describes the special "high-energy" bond of ATP? A. hydrogenation B. phosphoester C. ionic D. * phosphoanhydride E. hydrogen

21. Which of the following can only be viewed by electron microscopy? A. * viruses B. bacteria C. nuclei D. mitochondria E. frog eggs

22. Which of the following can only be viewed by electron microscopy? A. * none of these B. bacteria C. nuclei D. mitochondria E. frog eggs

23. Which of the following correctly matches an organelle with its function? A. mitochondrion - photosynthesis B. nucleus - cellular respiration C. ribosome - manufacture of lipids D. lysosome - movement E. * central vacuole - storage

24. Which of the following eukaryotic intracellular components are not organelles? A. Golgi apparatus B. * Cytoskeleton C. ER D. lysosomes E. Mitochondria

25. Which of the following eukaryotic organelles is primarily responsible for celluar digestion?

A. Nucleus B. * Lysosome C. Mitochondria D. Golgi apparatus E. RER

26. Which of the following is a network of intracellular membranes whose functions are synthesis, storage, and transport?

A. ribosomes B. * endoplasmic reticulum C. Golgi apparatus D. all of the above E. none of the above

27. Which of the following is a phototroph? A. a mushroom B. bacteria growing on decomposing matter C. an earthworm D. * a tree E. all of the above

28. Which of the following is an eukaryotic characteristic? A. cell fission B. little processing of RNA C. 70S ribosomes D. * membrane-bound nucleus E. none of the above

29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of active transport? A. * exclusively move one molecule at a time in a unidirectional manner B. sensitive to metabolic poisons C. can be coupled with passive transport to generate the energy necessary for active

transport D. can work as symports or antiports E. all of the above

30. Which of the following is not a common destination of vesicles secreted from the golgi apparatus?

A. Lysosome B. Cell membrane C. RER D. * Mitochondria E. SER

31. Which of the following is NOT a function of membranes? A. delineation B. compartmentalization C. regulation of transport D. cell-cell communication E. information storage

32. Which of the following is not a normal function of plant cell vacuoles? A. Storage of toxic substances B. Space-filling C. * Energy production D. Storage of water E. None of the above

33. Which of the following is not a property of the lipid bilayer? A. * Fluidity B. Impermeability C. Polarity D. Permeability E. All of the above

34. Which of the following is not a specialized plant cellular structure? A. * Lysosome B. Cell wall C. Chloroplast D. Vacuole E. Both B and C

35. Which of the following is NOT true of a viroid? A. Cadang-cadang is a viroid disease of the coconut palm. B. Viroids affect mostly plants. C. Its RNA is circular. D. Viroids possess about 300-400 nucleotides. E. * Its capsid is quite small.

36. Which of the following is not true of electron microscopy (EM)? A. EM can be used to examine the movement of flagella. B. The limit of resolution for EM is about 0.1-0.2 nm. C. * EM came to be used extensively in the early 1950s. D. EM usues heavy metals as stains. E. Electrons replace light in the electron microscope.

37. Which of the following is the largest organelle in eukaryotic cells? A. ER B. Golgi apparatus C. Lysosome D. * Nucleus E. Mitochondria

38. Which of the following is the main component of the cytoplasm? A. * Cytosol B. Cytosine C. Ectoderm D. Chlorophyll E. Endoderm

39. Which of the following is true of a plant cell? A. Plant cells are often much larger than animal cells. B. Plant cells may contain chloroplasts. C. Only plant cells have a cell membrane. D. Chromosomes are found only in plant cells. E. The plant cell has no cell wall.

40. Which of the following is true of glycolipids? A. * Glycolipids are usually found on the exterior surface of the plasma membrane. B. Usually more than 10 sugar units are attached to the glycolipid. C. Fructose and sucrose are often part of glycolipids. D. Laurate is a glycolipid. E. Thudicum discovered glycolipids in the late sixteenth century.

41. ?Which of the following microscopic methods would have the greatest useful magnification?

A. single lens simple video microscopy B. phase-contrast microscopy

C. * scanning electron microscopy D. fluorescence microscopy E. dark field microscopy

42. Which of the following molecules would NOT readily cross an intact cell membrane by simple diffusion?

A. water B. nitrogen C. CO2 D. * glucose E. oxygen

43. Which of the following organelles do not contain a double-membrane? A. Nucleus B. * Lysosome C. Mitochondria D. Chloroplasts E. Both B and C

44. ?Which of the following organelles is most important in providing energy to the cell? A. * mitochondrion B. centrosome C. nucleus D. peroxisome E. lysosome

45. Which of the following phrases best matches the definition of the term hydrophobic? A. * "water-hating" B. "water-loving" C. "water-impartial" D. "water-storing" E. Non of the above

46. Which of the following processes would be most likely to occur in the Golgi apparatus? A. detoxification of drugs B. production and packaging of lipids C. * glycosylation of proteins D. synthesis of steroids E. synthesis of DNA

47. Which of the following sequences correctly illustrates the hierarchical nature of cellular structures, from smallest to largest?

A. organic molecules, macromolecules, organelles, supramolecular structures, cells B. organelles, organic molecules, supramolecular structures, macromolecules, cells C. * organic molecules, macromolecules, supramolecular structures, organelles, cells D. macromolecules, organic molecules, supramolecular structures, organelles, cells E. organic molecules, supramolecular structures, macromolecules, organelles, cells

48. Which of the following units is used to measure energy? A. * joule B. mole C. watt D. meter E. both A and B

49. Which one of the following substances is able to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

A. * O2 B. Lactic acid C. Na

D. Glicerol E. Glycolipids

50. Which one of the following substances is unable to traverse the plasma membrane by simple diffusion?

A. 02 B. N2. C. * . Na+ D. Glycerol. E. C02.

51. Which one of the following transport processes requires energy? A. Facilitated diffusion B. Passive transport. C. * Active transport. D. Simple diffusion E. Osmosis.

52. Which organelle has only a single membrane around it? A. * peroxisome B. nucleus C. chloroplast D. ribosome E. mitochondrion

53. Which organelle has only a single membrane around it? A. * none of these B. nucleus C. chloroplast D. ribosome E. mitochondrion

54. Which organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell?A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. * Mitochondria

55. Which organelle is considered the powerhouse of the cell?A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C. Lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. * None of these

56. Which organelle is round and derives its name from the Latin word for "kernel"? A. * nucleus B. lysosome C. Golgi complex D. mitochondrion E. chloroplast

57. Which scientist is credited with coining the term "cell" from the Latin cellulae? A. * Robert Hooke B. Robert Brown C. Theodor Schwann D. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek E. Matthias Schleiden

58. ?Which structure includes all of the others?

A. nucleolus B. * nucleus C. chromosomes D. genes E. chromatine

59. Which structure is not usually present in animal cells? A. * vacuole B. ribosome C. nucleus D. lysosome E. mitochondrion

60. Which type of microscopy has the greatest resolving power? A. fluorescence B. phase-contrast C. * electron D. confocal scanning E. digital video

61. You would expect a cell with an extensive Golgi apparatus to A. make a lot of ATP. B. * secrete a lot of material. C. move actively. D. perform photosynthesis. E. store large quantities of food

62. 15-old patient has xeroderma pigmentosum. Which of the following types of DNA replication or repair systems is dysfunctional in individuals with this diseases?

A. Mismatch repair B. * Base excision repair C. Nucleotide excision repair D. DNA helicase E. RNA polymerase.

63. A cell has 14 chromosomes. After meiotic cell division the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell would be

A. 14 B. * 7 C. 28 D. 56 E. 2

64. A cell has 14 chromosomes. After mitotic cell division the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell would be

A. * 14 B. 7 C. 28 D. 56 E. 2

65. ?A cell has 4 chromosomes. After mitotic cell division the number of chromosomes in the daughter cell would be

A. * 4 B. 2 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32

66. A human oogonium has 46 chromosomes. After mitosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 72; 2 B. 46; 4 C. 23; 4 D. 23; 2 E. * 46; 2

67. A human primary oocyte has 46 chromosomes. After meiosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 72; 2 B. 46; 4 C. * 23; 4 D. 23; 2 E. 46; 2

68. A human primary spermatocyte has 46 chromosomes. After meiosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ spermatides

A. 72; 2 B. 46; 4 C. * 23; 4 D. 23; 2 E. 46; 2

69. A human spermatogonium has 46 chromosomes. After mitosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 72; 2 B. 46; 4 C. 23; 4 D. 23; 2 E. * 46; 2

70. A single strand of DNA with the base sequence C-G-A-T-T-G would be complementary to the sequence:

A. C-G-A-T-T-G B. G-C-T-A-A-G C. T-A-G-C-C-T D. * G-C-T-A-A-C. E. All of these.

71. A somatic cell of an organism has 16 chromosomes. After mitosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 8; 2 B. 16; 4 C. 8; 4 D. 32; 2 E. * 16; 2

72. A somatic cell of an organism has 16 chromosomes. After meiosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 8; 2 B. 16; 4 C. * 8; 4 D. 32; 2 E. 16; 2

73. A somatic human cell has 46 chromosomes. After meiosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 72; 2

B. 46; 4 C. * 23; 4 D. 23; 2 E. 46; 2

74. A somatic human cell has 46 chromosomes. After mitosis, there will be ___ chromosomes in each of ___ daughter cells

A. 72; 2 B. 46; 4 C. 23; 4 D. 23; 2 E. * 46; 2

75. How many amino acids are coded for in this mRNA sequence: CGUUUACACCGUCAC?

A. 2. B. 4. C. * 5. D. 6. E. 15.

76. How many autosomes are there in the human germ cell? A. 1. B. 2. C. 23. D. * 22. E. 44.

77. How many chromatids will be present in the polithenic chromosome, which consists of two chromatids after 3 times it’s doubling?

A. 2 B. 4 C. * 8 D. 16 E. 64

78. Human diploid number has 46 chromosomes. How many chromatids migrate to each pole during meiosis II in anaphase?

A. * 23. B. 22. C. 46. D. 92. E. 44.

79. Human diploid number has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes migrate to each pole during meiosis I in anaphase?

A. 22. B. * 23. C. 2. D. 44. E. 46.

80. If 30% of an organism's DNA is thymine then: A. 70% is purines. B. 20% is guanine. C. 30% is adenine. D. * Both b and c. E. All of these.

81. If a mother cell has 12 chromosomes, then the daughter cells following meiosis will have:

A. 12 chromosomes. B. * 6 chromosomes. C. 24 chromosomes. D. 46 chromosomes. E. 23 chromosomes.

82. If one starts a polymerase chain reaction with a single copy of a DNA sequence, approximately how many copies will be present after 10 cycles of amplification?

A. 10 B. 100 C. * 10,000 D. 100,000 E. 1000,000

83. If one strand of DNA has the base sequence ATCGTA, what will the complementary strand have?

A. * TAGCAT B. ATCGTA C. CAGTCT D. UAGAU. E. All of these.

84. Microscopic observations of the proportions of the two types of chromatin in the nuclei of tissue sections can often be used to

A. Determine the karyotype. B. Identify the genome. C. Diagnose Turner syndrome. D. Identify DNA viruses. E. * Distinguish benign from malignant cells.

85. Migration of one pair of homologues chromosomes to the poles in a woman during oogenesis in meiosis was absent. How many chromosomes will be present in a mature ovum?

A. 23 or 24. B. 22 or 25. C. * 22 or 24. D. 46 or 47. E. 45 or 47.

86. nucleic acid that carries out the instructions of DNA. It has only two differences from DNA – the carbohydrate ribose (instead to deoxyribose), and the nitrogenous base uracil (instead of thimine):

A. * RNA. B. Nucleotide. C. DNA. D. Double helix. E. ATP.

87. Process by which DNA “unzips” and codes a stand of mRNA in the nucleus – one of the first stages in protein synthesis:

A. Translation. B. * Transcription. C. Replication. D. Base pairing. E. Processing.

88. Ssickle-cell disease is caused by ____________ in the beta-hemoglobin gene that converts a GAG codon into GTG, which encodes the amino acid valine rather than glutamic acid:

A. transitions B. transversions C. nonsense mutations D. * missense mutations E. silent mutations

89. The association of a DNA molecule, histones, and nonhistone proteins is known as a A. * nucleosome B. chromosome C. chromatin D. karyotype E. chromatid

90. The chromosome is acrocentric if: A. A centromere divides it into two arms of approximately length. B. * A centromere establishes one long arm and one short arm. C. It pinches off only a small amount of material. D. A centromere establishes two long arms and one short arm. E. A centromere establishes one long arm and two short arms.

91. The enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication is: A. DNA polymerase B. RNA polymerase C. * Helicase D. Ligase E. Restrictase

92. The process by which DNA makes copies of itself duplication talked about during the S stage of interphase in the cell cycle:

A. Translation. B. Transcription. C. * Replication. D. Base pairing. E. Processing.

93. The two daughter strands of a duplicated chromosome are each known as (a) A. synapse pair B. centromere C. * chromatid D. chiasmata E. homologous chromosomes

94. There was an elimination of one chromosome in the human cell during mitosis. How many chromosomes will be present in daughter cells?

A. 46 and 46. B. * 45 and 45. C. 23 and 23. D. 22 and 22. E. 22 and 24.

95. What basic material is synthesized in the S-periods of an interphase? A. Lipase. B. Peptides. C. Carbohydrates. D. Chromosomes. E. * DNA.

96. Which of the following distinguishes DNA from RNA? A. Presence of 3' deoxyribose in DNA, ribose in RNA. B. * Presence of uracil in RNA in place of thymidine in DNA.

C. Occurrence of base pairing in DNA but not RNA. D. Presence of 5' phosphate in DNA but not RNA. E. Presence of 5' ribose in DNA, deoxyribose in RNA.

97. Which of the following statements concerning the degeneracy of genetic code is true? A. Most amino acids have more than one codon; leucine, serine, and arginine have 6

different codons. B. Each triplet (codon) has only one meaning. C. The code has "start" and "stop" signals. There is only one start signal but 3 stop

signals. D. The triplet genetic code is made of 64 3-base code words called codons. E. * All of these.

98. Which of the following statements concerning transcription is false? A. A gene is transcribed into on RNA molecule by RNA polymerase. B. * Both exons and introns are transcribed. C. DNA molecule unwinds at the end of transcription. D. The codon always represents a single amino acid. E. The gene terminator on the DNA molecule stop the transcription process.

99. Which of the following statements concerning transcription is false? A. A gene is transcribed into on RNA molecule by RNA polymerase. B. * Both exons and introns are transcribed. C. DNA molecule unwinds at the end of transcription. D. The codon always represents a single amino acid. E. The gene terminator on the DNA molecule stop the transcription process.

100. Which of the following statements concerning tRNA is not true? A. tRNA molecules transfer amino acids to the ribosomes B. * tRNA molecule is a double-stranded nucleic acid that doubles back on itself to

give regions where complementary bases are hydrogen bonded to one another C. Structure of a tRNA molecule is generally drawn as a flat cloverleaf D. There is at least one tRNA molecule for each of the 20 amino acids found in a

protein. E. All of these.

101. Which of the following statements regarding the lagging strand during DNA replication is NOT true?

A. * It is synthesized by DNA polymerase ?. B. It is synthesized in Okazaki fragments. C. Its synthesis involves RNA polymerase. D. Its synthesis involves the enzyme telomerase. E. Its synthesis involves the enzyme ligase.

102. Which of the following statements regarding the lagging strand during DNA replication is false?

A. * It is synthesized by DNA polymerase ?. B. It is synthesized in Okazaki fragments. C. Its synthesis involves RNA polymerase. D. Its synthesis involves the enzyme telomerase. E. Its synthesis involves the enzyme helicase.

103. Which type of chromosome characterised that the centromere divides it into two equal arms?

A. Acrocentric. B. Submetacentric. C. * Metacentric. D. Telocentric. E. Heterochromosome.

104. Which type of chromosome characterised that the centromere establishes one very long arm and one very short arm?

A. * Acrocentric. B. Submetacentric. C. Metacentric. D. Telocentric. E. Sex chromosome.

105. You are working in a scientists laboratory, and she gives you a cell. It contains 23 chromosomes. She asks you why that is so you would give the following answer.

A. Yuck this is a cell form a dead person? B. Yuck this is a leikocyte? C. * This cell has undergone Meiosis and now contains half the number of human

chromosomes D. This cell has undergone Mitosis and now contains half the number of human

chromosomes E. This cell has undergone Meiosis and contains double the number of human

chromosomes. 106. You have learned a number of facts about chromosomes in this class. Which of

the following is false? A. Chromosomes contain your genes B. Humans have 46 chromosomes, a set of 23 maternal and 23 paternal

chromosomes C. Chromosomes are physically made up of DNA and associated proteins D. During most of the life of a typical cell, the chromosomes are unwound and

diffuse within the nucleus and called chromatin E. * Only females have chromosomes

107. 11 In a double stranded molecule of DNA, the ratio of purines : pyrimidines is: A. variable B. determined by the base sequence in RNA C. genetically determined D. * always 1:1 E. determined by the number of purines in the sense strand of the DNA

108. 2 Which principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle: A. actin and troponin B. * actin and myosin C. troponin and tropomyosin D. myosin and tropomyosin E. actin and tropomyosin

109. 21 The primary RNA transcript of the chicken ovalbumin gene is 7700 nucleotides long, but the mature mRNA that is translated on the ribosome is 1872 nucleotides long. This size difference occurs primarily as a result of:

A. Capping B. cleavage of polycistronic mRNA C. removal of poly A tails D. reverse transcription E. * splicing

110. 22 The regions of DNA in a eukaryotic gene that encode a polypeptide product are called:

A. hnRNAs B. exons C. enhancers D. leader sequences

E. * tRNAs 111. 23 mRNA will form hybrids only with the coding strand of DNA because:

A. DNA will not reanneal at high temperatures B. the salt concentration will affect DNA reannealing C. DNA will not reanneal at low temperatures D. * RNA:DNA hybridization follows the base-pairing rules E. denatured DNA will not reanneal after it is diluted

112. 24 Which of the following molecules functions to transfer information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

A. DNA B. * mRNA C. tRNA D. proteins E. lipids

113. 25 For the DNA strand 5'-TACGATCATAT-3' the correct complementary DNA strand is:

A. 3'-TACGAT CATAT-5' B. * 3'-ATGCT AGTATA-5' C. 3'-AUGC U AGUAUA-5' D. 3'-GCATAT ACGCG-5 ' E. 3'-TAT ACT AGC AT-5'

114. 26 The enzyme responsible for unwinding DNA during replication is: A. * DNA polymerase B. RNA polymerase C. Helicase D. Ligase E. Telomerase

115. 33. Which of the following cell types would not be a possible source of DNA? A. * Red blood cells. B. Brain cells. C. Liver cells. D. Skin cells. E. Hear cells

116. A CAT triplet codes an amino acid. Which anticodon has this amino acid tRNA A. GTA B. GUA C. TAC D. ATC E. * CAU

117. A chromosome is in its most extended (least condense(d) form during A. interphase B. * prophase C. anaphase D. telophase E. metaphase

118. A fragment of DNA consist of the following codons: AAT-TAC-GTC-CAG. What mRNA codons are complementary to the above-listed DNA nucleotude seguence?

A. AAU-UTG-CUG-GTC B. * UUA-AUG-CAG-GUC C. TAC- AUG-CAG-GUC D. UUT- UTG-CUG-GTC E. TTG- AUG-CAG-GUC

119. 4. A fragment of mRNA consist of the following codons: AAU-CCG-AGU-UGG-GAC. What tRNA codons are complementary to the above-listed DNA nucleotude seguence?

A. * UUA-GGC-UCA-ACC-CUG B. TTA-GGC-TCA-ACC-CTG C. UUT-GGC-UCT-TCC-CUG D. UUA-GGU-UCA-ACC-CUG E. * AAU-GGC-UCA-ACC-CUG

120. A gene has a GAT triplet. Determine the structure of the triplet, which will be formed during the transcription process.

A. CTC B. * CUA C. CAU D. GTU E. CTA

121. A gene has a TAT triplet. Find out the composition of the anticodon of tRNA, which transports the amino acid.

A. CTC B. AUA C. * UAU D. UTU E. GTG

122. A messenger RNA nucleotide triplet seguence corresponds to the amino acid seguence in the polypeptide chain. 3 triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) code no amino acids, but are able to terminate translation. What do we call them?

A. * Stop codons B. Introns C. Anticodons D. Exons E. Replicons

123. ?A molecule of DNA is a polymer composed of A. glucose B. amino acids C. fatty acids D. * nucleotides E. Carbohydrate

124. A segment of DNA has one strand with the following sequence of bases: A G C G C A T A G C A A. The complementary strand of DNA is

A. * U C G C G U A U C G U U B. T C G C C G A T C G T T C. T C G C G T A T C G T T D. T C G C A T T A C A U U E. T C G W R O N G A C U U

125. All codons of genetic code for amino acid except A. * *Stop codon B. Start codon C. Stop codon and start codon D. Non of these E. All of these

126. By estimating the relative quantity of adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine in the DNA of various cells, Chargaff played an important role in clarifying the:

A. genetic code

B. structure of DNA C. mechanism of translation D. chemistry of RNA E. * principle of base-pairing

127. Calculate the quantity of amino acid remains in the four proteins coded in four genes, if 1200 nucleotides are required for this DNA part replication

A. 1200 B. 600 C. * 200 D. 300 E. 3600

128. Different chemical factors can provoke disturbances in the DNA molecule structure. There are special mechanisms for their correction in the cell. What do we call this process?

A. * Reparation B. Translation C. Transcription D. Replication E. Termination

129. Different enzymes participate in nucleic acids synthesis in a cell. Which of the below mentioned enzymes realizes transcription?

A. Aminoacyl-tRNA-synthetase B. DNA- dependent-DNA-polymerase C. * DNA- dependent-RNA-polymerase D. RNA- dependent-DNA-polymerase E. Endonuclease

130. DNA ligase does which of the following A. * joins Okazaki fragments to the high molecular weight DNA chain on the

lagging strand B. catalyzes DNA replication C. enhances transcription D. requires dCTP E. methylates DNA

131. DNA nucleotide differences between organisms A. indicate how closely related organisms are B. * indicate that evolution occurs C. explain why there are phenotypic differences D. indicate how closely related organisms are and explain why there are phenotypic

differences E. all of these

132. During protein synthesis, an anticodon on tRNA pairs with A. DNA nucleotide bases B. rRNA nucleotides bases C. * mRNA nucleotide D. other tRNA nucleotide bases E. All of these

133. During translation, chain elongation continues until A. no amino acids are left B. all tRNAs are empty C. the polypeptide is long enough D. the ribosomes run off the end of mRNA E. * chain terminator codons occur

134. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I is specialized to transcribe which of the following? A. * mRNA B. tRNA C. ribosomal RNA D. mitochrondrial RNA E. none of the above

135. How are the genes, responsible for the production of polypeptides making up an enzyme or a group of enzymes, called

A. Operator genes B. * Structural genes C. Regulator genes D. Promoter E. Transfer RNA

136. How is the gene, which regulates structural genes by switching them on or off, called?

A. Operator gene B. Structural gene C. * Regulator gene D. Promoter E. Repressor

137. How many hydrogen bonds form between C and G in a Watson-Crick base pair interactions?

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. * 3 E. 4

138. How many hydrogen bonds form between T and A in a Watson-Crick base pair interactions?

A. 0 B. 1 C. * 2 D. 3 E. 4

139. How many hydrogen bonds form between U and A in a Watson-Crick base pair interactions?

A. * 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4

140. If 20% of an organisms DNA is guanine then A. * 50% is purines B. 30% is cytosine C. 10% is adenine D. 40% is adenine E. 70% is pyramidines

141. If 30% of an organisms DNA is Cytosine then A. 70% is purines B. * 30% is guanine C. 10% is adenine D. 30% is adenine and 10% is guanine

E. 70% is pyramidines 142. If 30% of an organisms DNA is thymine then

A. 70% is purines B. 10% is guanine C. * 30% is adenine D. 30% is adenine and 10% is guanine E. 70% is pyramidines

143. If 40% of an organisms DNA is guanine then A. 70% is purines B. 30% is cytosine C. * 10% is adenine D. 30% is adenine E. 70% is pyramidines

144. In bacteria a gene-regulator has been released from the repressor; after that transcription was detected in the cell. What is the chemical nature of the repressor?

A. Carbohydrate B. * Protein C. Lipid D. Nucleic acid E. Amino acid

145. In bacterial and eukaryotic mRNAs, the normal start codon for protein syntesis is: A. GUU. B. UGA. C. * AUG. D. AGU. E. UAG.

146. In transcription process, the enzyme DNA- dependent-RNA-polymerase reached the specific DNA molecule site; as result transcription finished. What do we call this site?

A. Stop codon B. Regulator C. Terminator D. * Repressor E. Operator

147. Ribosome subunits formation was blocked in the cell with the help of some drugs. It will lead to disturbances in this cell in the synthesis of

A. DNA B. RNA C. Carbohydrates D. Lipids E. * Proteins

148. Some physical agents can disturb the structure of a DNA molecule. In particular, ultraviolet irradiation provokes pyrimidine dimmers formation in DNA. What nitrogenous bases are involved in this process?

A. Adenine and thymine B. Guanine and cytosine C. Adenine and guanine D. * Thymine and cytosine E. Guanine and thymine

149. Some physical agents can disturb the structure of a DNA molecule. Some of them provokes purines dimmers formation in DNA. What nitrogenous bases are involved in this process?

A. Adenine and thymine

B. Guanine and cytosine C. Adenine and guanine D. * Thymine and cytosine E. Guanine and thymine

150. Some physical factors provoke disturbances in the DNA molecule structure, but by means of specific enzymes the structure can be renewed. What do we call this process?

A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. * Reparation E. Elongation

151. The hypothesis of lactose operon (Jakob, Mono, 1961) predicted that lactose penetration into cells can induce the formation of enzymes, which decompose it. In which cell was this process described first

A. Fibroblast B. Neuron C. Hepatocyte D. Spermatozoon E. * Bacteria Escherichia coli

152. The information about amino acid sequence in a polypeptide is written as nucleotide sequence in the DNA molecule. What do we call the unit of genetic code?

A. * Codon B. Muton C. Trancripton D. Replicons E. Anticodon

153. The information about polypeptide chain is localized in the gene consisting of 6 introns and 7 exons. In the process of this polypeptide chain synthesis in the cell participates mRNA, which consists of nucleotides complementary to

A. 6 introns and 7 exons B. 6 introns C. * 7 exons D. 1 intron E. 1 exon

154. The mRNA molecule coded for by the original strand DNA: A G C G C A T A G C A A is:

A. T C G C G T A T C G T T B. * U C G C G U A U C G U U C. T C A C M R N A T C C C D. U A C A T T U C A G G G E. U C G G C A T T U G G C

155. The posttranscriptional modification of messenger RNA takes place in the eukaryotic cell nucleus. In particular, splicing of the primary RNA transcript occurs in order to excise the nucleotide seguences corresponding to introns. What do we call the informative parts of the primary RNA transcript?

A. Replicons B. Introns C. Anticodons D. * Exons E. Stop codons

156. The presence of DNA is important for cellular metabolic activities because DNA

A. * directs the production of enzymes B. is a structural component of cell walls C. directly increases the solubility of nutrients D. is the major component of cytoplasm E. is a structural component of cell membrane

157. The process by which a gene produces a product, usually a protein is called A. Transcription B. Translation C. * Gene expression; D. Gene regulation E. Gene action

158. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain corresponds to the sequence of nucleotide bases in the gene those codes for it. This statement belongs to which fundamental characteristics of genetic code?

A. Universality B. Degeneracy C. * Colinearity D. Triplet nature E. No Punctuation

159. There are 99 amino acids in the polypeptide synthesized on a ribosome in a liver cell. What is the number of codons in the messenger RNA molecule, which were used as a matrix during polypeptide synthesis?

A. 33 B. 66 C. * 99 D. 132 E. 165

160. There are 99 amino acids in the polypeptide synthesized on a ribosome in a liver cell. What is the number of nucleotides in the messenger RNA molecule, which were used as a matrix during polypeptide synthesis?

A. 33 B. * 297 C. 99 D. 132 E. 165

161. There are 99 nucleotides in the mRNA molecule. What is the number of amino acids in the polypeptide chain?

A. * 33 B. 297 C. 99 D. 132 E. 165

162. There are molecules, which consist of approximately 80 nucleotides. These molecules are localized in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. What do we call such molecules?

A. DNA B. One DNA chain C. Messenger RNA D. Ribosomal RNA E. * Transfer RNA

163. To read the genetic code, the bases of DNA or RNA are placed in groups of A. 1

B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. * 3

164. To read the genetic code, the bases of DNA or RNA are placed in groups of A. 1 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 E. * none of these

165. When a gene is to be transcribed, RNA polymerase attaches to a special DNA sequence called a:

A. Operator. B. Repressor. C. Regulator gene. D. * Promoter. E. Structural gene.

166. When DNA is extracted from cells of E. coli and analyzed for base composition, it is found that 38 percent of the bases are cytosine. What percentage of the bases are tymine?

A. * 12% B. 24% C. 38% D. 62% E. 76%

167. When DNA is extracted from cells of E. coli and analyzed for base composition, it is found that 38 percent of the bases are cytosine. What percentage of the bases are adenine?

A. * 12% B. 24% C. 38% D. 62% E. 76%

168. When DNA replicates semiconservatively, which of the following is true of each daughter DNA molecule?

A. Both strands are newly synthesized. B. * One strand is newly synthesized, whereas the other is a strand from the parent

DNA molecule. C. Both strands are the original strands of the parent molecule. D. One strand has more AT-rich regions than the other strand has. E. The newly synthesized strands are more susceptible to melting and renaturation

than the parental DNA strands are. 169. You received your genetic information from your parents in the form of DNA.

This DNA carried the instructions for making A. Carbohydrates as glycogen B. Fatty acids C. Phospholipids for making the membranes of your cells D. * Proteins E. all of the above

Tests for figures. Module 1. Biological peculiarities of human vital functions

1. How many chromosome groups are there in the human karyotype according the Denver’s classification on Fig. 1

A. 2.

B. *7.

C. 23.

D. 44.

E. 46.

2. How many sex chromosomes are there in the human karyotype (Fig. 1)?

A. *2.

B. 22.

C. 23.

D. 44.

E. 46.

3. Which type of chromosomes are the pair №21 chromosomes in the human karyotype on the Fig.1?

A. *Acrocentric.

B. Submetacentric.

C. Metacentric.

D. Telocentric.

E. Heterochromosome.

4. Chromosomes 1, 3, 19 and 20 on the Fig. 1 are:

A. *Metacentric

B. Submetacentric

C. Acrocentric

D. Telocentric

E. Sex-chromosomes

5. What number is the acrosome marked on the Fig. 2?

A. *№ 1

B. № 2

C. № 3

D. № 4

E. № 5

6. What number is the tail marked on the Fig. 2?

A. 1

B. № 2

C. *№ 9

D. № 4

E. № 5

7. What number is the mitochondria marked on the Fig. 2?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. № 3

D. № 4

E. *№ 6

8. What number is the centromere marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. *№ 3

D. № 4

E. № 5

9. What number is the secondary constriction marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. № 3

D. *№ 4

E. № 5

10. What number is the satellite marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. № 3

D. № 4

E. *№ 5

11. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see under № 4 on the micrograph (Fig. 4)?

A. Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. *Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. Interphase

12. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see under № 3 on the micrograph (Fig. 4)?

A. Telophase.

B. *Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. Interphase

13. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see under № 5 on the micrograph (Fig. 4)?

A. *Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. Interphase

14. What number is the chromosome marked on the Fig. 5?

A. 1

B. № 2

C. *№ 3

D. № 4

E. № 5

15. What number is the mitotic spindle marked on the Fig. 5?

A. А.1

B. *№ 2

C. № 3

D. № 4

E. № 5

16. What number is the centriole marked on the Fig. 5?

A. *№ 1

B. № 2

C. № 3

D. № 4

E. № 5

17. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see under № 2 on the Fig. 6?

A. Telophase.

B. *Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. Interphase

18. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see under № 1 on the Fig. 6?

A. Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. *Interphase

19. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see on the Fig. 7?

A. Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. G1.

E. *G2.

20. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see on the Fig. 8?

A. Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. G1.

E. *G2.

21. Which stage of mitotic cycle can you see on the Fig. 9?

A. Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. *Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. Interphase.

22.What is the number of the chromosome long arm on the Fig. 10?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 6

E. *7

23.What is the number is DNA on the Fig. 11?

A. 1

B. *2

C. 3

D. 6

E. 7

24.Which type of chromosomes can you see under № 1 on the Fig. 12?

A. Acrocentric.

B. Submetacentric.

C. *Metacentric.

D. Telocentric.

E. Heterochromosome.

25.Which type of chromosomes can you see under № 2 on the Fig. 12?

A. Acrocentric.

B. *Submetacentric.

C. Metacentric.

D. Telocentric.

E. Heterochromosome.

26.Which type of cells can you see under № 1 on the Fig. 13?

A. Spermatogonia.

B. *Primary spermatocytes.

C. Secondary spermatocytes.

D. Spermatids.

E. Spermatozoa.

27.How many chromosomes are present in the human male cell under № 3 on the Fig. 13?

A. 24.

B. 22.

C. 46.

D. 45.

E. *23.

28.Which type of cells can you see under № 4 on the Fig. 13?

A. Spermatogonia.

B. Primary spermatocytes.

C. Secondary spermatocytes.

D. *Spermatids.

E. Spermatozoa.

29.How many autosomes are present in the human cell on the Fig. 14?

A. 24.

B. *22.

C. 46.

D. 45.

E. 23.

30.Which type of cells can you see on the micrograph (Fig. 15)?

A. Spermatozoa.

B. *Ovum.

C. Erythrocyte.

D. Leukocyte.

E. Neuron.

31.What process can you see on the micrograph (Fig. 16)?

A. Spermatogenesis.

B. Oogenesis.

C. Mitosis.

D. Meiosis.

E. *Fertilisation.

32.How many heterochromosomes are present in the human cell on the Fig. 17?

A. *1.

B. 22.

C. 46.

D. 2.

E. 23.

33.How many autosomes are there in the male karyotype (Fig. 18)?

A. 2.

B. 22.

C. 23.

D. *44.

E. 46.

34.Which type of karyotype can you see on the Fig. 19?

A. Normal male.

B. *Normal female.

C. Female with Down syndrome.

D. Male with Klinefelter syndrome.

E. Female with Turner syndrome.

35.What stage of mitotic cycle can you see on the Fig. 20?

A. *Telophase.

B. Metaphase.

C. Anaphase.

D. Prophase.

E. Interphase.

36.What number is mitochondrion marked on the Fig. 21?

A. 1

B. № 4

C. № 8

D. *№ 10

E. № 12

37.What number is Golgi apparatus marked on the Fig. 21?

A. № 1

B. № 4

C. № 8

D. № 10

E. *№ 11

38.What number is centrosome marked on the Fig. 21?

A. № 1

B. * № 6

C. № 8

D. № 10

E. № 12

39.What organelle is on the Fig. 22?

A. *Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Ribosome.

E. Centriole.

40.What cell structure is on the Fig. 23?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Ribosome.

E. *Plasma membrane.

41.What cell structure is marked № 1on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Ribosome.

E. *Nucleolus.

42.What cell structure is marked № 9 on the Fig. 24?

A. *Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Ribosome.

E. Nucleolus.

43.What cell structure is marked № 6 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. *Golgi apparatus.

D. Ribosome.

E. Nucleolus.

44.What cell structure is marked № 5 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

C. *Golgi apparatus.

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

E. Nucleolus.

45.What cell structure is marked № 8 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. *Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

E. Nucleolus.

46.What organelle is on the Fig. 25?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi complex.

D. Ribosome.

E. *Centriole.

47.What organelle is on the Fig. 26?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. *Golgi complex.

D. Ribosome.

E. Centriole.

48.What is the function of cell structure on the Fig. 27?

A. Scaffold for protein synthesis.

B. Degradation of intracellular debris.

C. Contains the genetic apparatus.

D. *Cellular respiration.

E. Forms the poles of mitotic spindle

49.What is the function of cell structure on the Fig. 28?

A. Scaffold for protein synthesis.

B. Degradation of intracellular debris.

C. *Contains the genetic apparatus.

D. Cellular respiration.

E. Forms the poles of mitotic spindle

50.What karyotype is shown on this picture (Fig. 1)?

A. Down syndrome.

B. Normal female.

C. Turner syndrome.

D. Triplo-X syndrome.

E. *Normal male.

51.How many autosomes are there in the human karyotype (Fig. 1)?

A. 22.

B. 23.

C. 46.

D. 2.

E. *44.

52.What number is the head marked on the Fig. 2?

A. № 6

B. № 9

C. № 4

D. № 5

E. *№ 3

53.What number is the neck marked on the Fig. 2?

A. № 1

B. № 9

C. № 4

D. № 5

E. *№ 6

54.What number is the flagellum marked on the Fig. 2?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. № 4

D. № 5

E. *№ 9

55.What number is the nucleus marked on the Fig. 2?

A. № 1

B. № 7

C. № 4

D. № 5

E. *№ 2

56.What number is the primary constriction marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. № 4

D. № 5

E. *№ 3

57.What number is the short arm marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 1

B. № 6

C. № 3

D. № 5

E. *№ 2

58.What number is the long arm marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 4

B. № 2

C. № 3

D. № 5

E. *№ 1

59.What number is the telomere marked on the Fig. 3?

A. № 1

B. № 2

C. *№ 3

D. № 4

E. № 5

60.What cell structure is marked by № 2 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Ribosome.

E. *Nucleus.

61.What number is nucleus marked on the Fig. 24 by?

A. № 1.

B. № 3.

C. № 4.

D. № 5.

E. *№ 2.

62.What cell structure is marked by № 3 on the Fig. 24?

A. Lysosome.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Ribosome.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *RER.

63.What number is rough endoplasmic reticulum marked on the Fig. 24 by?

A. № 1.

B. № 2.

C. № 4.

D. № 8.

E. *№ 5.

64.What cell structure is marked by № 4 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Ribosome.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *Lysosome.

65.What number is lysosome marked on the Fig. 24 by?

A. № 1.

B. № 2.

C. № 3.

D. № 5.

E. *№ 4.

66.What cell structure is marked № 13 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

C. Golgi apparatus.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *Cell centre.

67.What number is cell centre marked on the Fig. 24 by?

A. № 9.

B. № 2.

C. № 11.

D. № 5.

E. *№ 13.

68.What cell structure is marked by № 13 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *Centrosome.

69.What cell structure is marked by № 13 on the Fig. 24?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *Centrioles.

70.What number is centriole marked on the Fig. 24 by?

A. № 9.

B. № 2.

C. № 11.

D. № 5.

E. *№ 13.

71.What number is centrosome marked on the Fig. 24 by?

A. № 9.

B. № 2.

C. № 11.

D. № 5.

E. *№ 13.

72.What cell structure is marked by № 9 on the Fig. 24?

A. Centrioles.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *Mitochondrion.

73.What cell structure is marked by № 1 on the Fig. 24?

A. Centrioles.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

D. Nucleolus.

E. *Nucleus.

74.What cell structure is marked by № 1 on the Fig. 24?

A. Centrioles.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

D. Mitochondrion.

E. *Nucleolus.

75.What cell structure is marked by № 13 on the Fig. 24?

A. Centrioles.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Nucleolus.

D. Mitochondrion.

E. *Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

76.What cell structure is marked by № 13 on the Fig. 24?

A. Centrioles.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. Nucleolus.

D. Mitochondrion.

E. *Endoplasmic reticulum.

77.What cell structure is marked by № 13 on the Fig. 24?

A. Centrioles.

B. Golgi apparatus.

C. *Nucleolus.

D. Mitochondrion.

E. RER.

78.What organelle is on the Fig. 25?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi complex.

D. Ribosome.

E. *Centrosome.

79.What organelle is on the Fig. 25?

A. Mitochondria.

B. Lysosome.

C. Golgi complex.

D. Ribosome.

E. *Cell centre.

80.How many sex chromosomes are present in the human cell on the Fig. 15?

A. 22.

B. 46.

C. 4.

D. 23.

E. *1.

81.What is the number of chromosomes and chromatids in the cell during mitosis (Fig. 5)?

A. 1n 1c.

B. 2n 1c.

C. 4n 4c.

D. 2n 2c.

E. *2n 4c.