Ecology/Populations

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 2-1

1. Referring to Figure 2-1, the coyotes would be considered ____.A. herbivores C. second-level consumersB. third-level consumers D. decomposers

Figure 2-2

2. The group of animals in Figure 2-2 is an example of what?F. community H. populationG. ecosystem J. biosphere

3. What type of succession is most likely to happen in Figure 3-2?

Figure 3-2A. primary C. tertiaryB. secondary D. climax

4. At which stage in Figure 3-3 are the most pioneer species found?

Figure 3-3F. A H. CG. B J. D

5. If the global warming trend continues and permafrost under the tundra melts, what biome would you predict would replace it?A. boreal forest C. temperate grasslandB. temperate forest D. desert

A team of ecologists measured the salinity of the water in an estuary at various distances from the river mouth. They also sampled populations of two species of clam worm, Nereis occidentalis and Neanthes succinea, at each point. The results are tabulated below.

Table 3-1

6. Which of the following hypotheses is most valuable in explaining the trends seen in the data?F. Nereis occidentalis outcompetes Neanthes succinea at salinities under 14‰.G. Neanthes succinea reproduces most rapidly in areas at least 20 meters from the river

mouth.H. Both Neanthes succinea and Nereis occidentalis can survive at any salinity.J. Nereis occidentalis is more resistant to salinity than Neanthes succinea.

7. If the ecologists were to take a population sample of Neanthes succinea in an area 65 meters from the river mouth with 30‰ salinity, what do you infer that they would find?A. 40–50 individualsB. 10–20 individualsC. fewer than 5 individualsD. more than 50 individuals

8. Which of these species might be classified as a pioneer species?F. ponderosa pine H. aspenG. choke cherry J. lichen

9. Compare primary and secondary succession. What is the distinction between them?A. Primary succession is the sequence of species that become established early in a newly

colonized area, and secondary succession is the sequence of species that move in later.B. Primary succession is the establishment of a community in an area with no soil, while

secondary succession is the establishment of a new community in an existing ecosystem that was disturbed.

C. Primary succession is the establishment of a new community in an existing ecosystem that was disturbed, while secondary succession is the establishment of a community in an area

with no soil.D. Primary succession is the sequence of plants that colonize a new area, while secondary

succession is the sequence of animals that move in later.

10. On ten acres of native forest there are eight white-tailed deer, seven coyotes, 45 armadillos, and 231 loblolly pine trees. Which population has the highest density?F. white-tailed deer H. armadillosG. coyotes J. loblolly pine trees

11. A flowering plant has seeds that are carried by the wind. Infer the most likely dispersion pattern of the plants that grow from these seeds.A. uniform C. randomB. clumped groups D. spatial

12. Young adult male chimpanzees look for mates outside their own population. The males then take the females back to their group. Which of the following occurs in females’ original population?F. emigration H. mortalityG. immigration J. natality

13. A breeding pair of rabbits escaped from their cage behind a farmer’s barn. The farmer observed the rabbits and kept data on their population size for ten years. During this time, the rabbits reproduced and their offspring reproduced many times. The fenced, undisturbed two acres where the rabbits live support populations of predators, such as hawks and snakes, as well as a limited supply of grass and water. At the end of the ten years, the farmer graphed the data he collected. Which of the following best describes his graph?A. The graph is generally J shaped showing exponential growth.B. The graph is generally S shaped showing logistic growth.C. The graph is a horizontal line showing the effects of predation.D. The graph angles up in a straight line at 45° showing the effects of ample resources.

14. A fruit fly that has a short life span and produces many offspring can be classified into which reproductive strategy?F. r-strategist H. a carrying-capacity strategistG. k-strategist J. a logistic strategist

15. Which characteristic is typical of a k-strategist?A. short life spanB. generally a small organismC. produces many offspringD. lengthy parental care

16. Which country would most likely have a declining birthrate?F. a primarily agricultural countryG. an industrially developed countryH. a country changing from an agricultural economy to an industrial economyJ. economy does not affect birthrate

17. Which event is correlated with the beginning of exponential growth in human population?A. the start of the Industrial RevolutionB. the invention of agriculture

C. the bubonic plague epidemicD. the end of the Second World War

18. A demographer is investigating various populations to find out how they use resources. She wants to select the population that uses most resources per individual. Which population should she choose for her study?F. the population of a industrially developed countryG. the population of a South American indigenous peopleH. the population of a developing country with a high birthrateJ. the population of an agricultural society with a low death rate

19. Which kind of organism obtains energy only from producers?A. decomposers C. omnivoresB. herbivores D. All of the above

20. What kind of natural disaster helps some forest communities by allowing some trees to release their seeds, by clearing away deadwood, and by encouraging new growth?F. fire H. windstormG. flood J. drought

21. Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?A. breaking down of bare rock by fungi and mossesB. pioneer plants begin to grow after glacial meltingC. growth of plants after a forest is destroyed by fireD. appearance of weeds in cracks in a concrete surface

22. Which organism is likely to be in the bottom trophic level of a food chain?F. leopard seal H. krillG. algae J. killer whale

23. What term is used to refer to the many feeding relationships that are possible in an ecosystem?A. food web C. energy pyramidB. food chain D. energy transfer

24. What type of vegetation would you expect to find on an abandoned farm that has remained undisturbed for 150 years?F. short grasses H. young pine treesG. shrubs J. tall, mature oak trees

25. If you visited a savanna, you would likely seeA. large herds of grazing animals, such as rhinos, gazelles, and giraffes.B. a dense forest.C. snow and ice.D. a coastal ecosystem.

26. Which of the following best describes a tropical rain forest?F. dense, thick soil that supports a dense layer of plants on the forest floorG. species of animals with specialized ways of surviving in order to avoid competitionH. very few species of trees, due to poor soil quality

J. plants and animals that are very similar due to year-round warmth and moisture

27. The tundraA. has a layer of soil that is permanently frozen beneath the top soil.B. is too cold to support insect life.C. is resistant to environmental damage because it is usually frozen.D. All of the above

28. Which of the following is not true about temperate deciduous forests?F. Trees grow lush green leaves in the spring, but lose their leaves in late summer.G. The soil is rich, and plants cover much of the forest floor.H. Animals such as squirrels, bears, and deer find food in the form of nuts, berries, and

leaves.J. Both (a) and (b)

29. As you travel from the North Pole toward the equator, you would expect to seeA. tropical rain forests, then deserts, then taiga.B. temperate deciduous forests, then taiga, then tropical rain forests.C. tundra, then grasslands, then tropical rain forests.D. taiga, then desert, then tundra.

30. Adaptations of desert animals that help them survive in the hot, dry desert often includeF. searching for water at midday.G. thin skin that readily absorbs water.H. large, bulky size to retain body heat on cold nights.J. searching for food at night.

31. An example of a population isA. all trees in a forest. C. all plants in a forest.B. all maple trees in a forest. D. all animals in a forest.

32. The density of a population isF. the number of individuals born every year.G. the proportion of males and females.H. the number of individuals living in cities.J. the number of individuals per unit area.

33. Which of the following organisms has the highest reproductive potential?A. dogs C. bacteriaB. elephants D. humans

34. A species of plant has exponential growth after it is introduced into an area where it has never lived. Which statement best describes exponential growth?F. Each individual plant grows much larger than usual.G. The population immediately decreases.H. Within a few years the population increases dramatically.J. The species’ reproductive potential declines.

35. Which of the following statements is correct?A. An organism’s niche is only the part of its habitat that it eats.B. An organism’s habitat is a location.C. Habitat and niche are the same thing.D. An organism’s niche is outside its habitat.

Ecology/PopulationsAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. B2. H3. B4. F5. A6. J7. C8. J9. B

10. J11. C12. F13. B14. F15. D16. G17. A18. F19. B20. F21. C22. G23. A24. J25. A26. G27. A28. F29. C30. J31. B32. J33. C34. H35. B

Biomolecules

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. How does an enzyme influence a biological reaction?a. It increases the net energy difference between reactants and products.b. It decreases the activation energy necessary to initiate the chemical change.c. It increases the kinetic energy of reactants, thereby increasing their tendency to collide.d. It decreases the kinetic energy of reactants, enabling them to undergo chemical change

more easily.

____ 2. A student set up four test tubes containing starch solution in which to perform starch digestion. Supplies included amylase (enzyme that digests starch) and an incubator. In which tube listed would starch digestion proceed most quickly?a. Tube 1: No amylase, room temperature (25°C)b. Tube 2: No amylase, body temperature (37°C)c. Tube 3: Amylase present, room temperature (25°C)d. Tube 4: Amylase present, body temperature (37°C)

____ 3. ____ represents a formula for a chemical compound.a. H c. Pb. C d. H2O

____ 4. The total number of atoms in a molecule of sucrose, C12H22O11, is ____.a. 11 c. 22b. 12 d. 45

Figure 6-3

____ 5. Consider the energy diagram for a chemical reaction in Figure 6-3. Overall, is energy released or absorbed?a. absorbed, because the energy level increases during the reactionb. absorbed, because the energy level of the products is greater than that of the reactantsc. released, because the reaction is initiated by the addition of heat

d. released because the energy level of the reactants is greater than that of the products

____ 6. Which is the best description of activation energy?a. Heat added to initiate a reaction.b. Heat released as the reaction proceedsc. Heat stored within the reactant molecules.d. Heat stored within the product molecules.

____ 7. A hydrogen bond can form between a hydrogen atom of one molecule and which atom of another molecule?a. carbon c. oxygenb. hydrogen d. sodium

____ 8. A single carbon atom can form a maximum of how many single covalent bonds?a. 2 c. 6b. 4 d. 8

____ 9. Which element is found in proteins but not carbohydrates or lipids?a. C c. Nb. H d. O

____ 10. In humans and other multicelluar organisms, which substance plays a central role as an energy source?a. carbohydrate c. proteinb. fat d. water

____ 11. Glycogen, used to store energy in the liver and muscle tissue, is an example of which type of molecule?a. carbohydrate c. saturated fatty acidb. protein d. steroid

____ 12. Amino acids are the building blocks of which macromolecule?a. carbohydrate c. lipidb. DNA d. protein

____ 13. An organism’s genetic information is stored in which type of macromolecule?a. DNA c. lipidb. carbohydrate d. protein

BiomoleculesAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. B2. D3. D4. D5. D6. A7. C8. B

9. C10. A11. A12. D13. A

Cells

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Figure 7-4

1. Where are you least likely to find water in the structure shown in Figure 7-4?a. A c. Cb. B d. E

2. Which of the following pictures in Figure 7-5 most likely approximate the motion phospholipids make in a plasma membrane?

Figure 7-5

f. A h. Cg. B j. D

3. Which statement is a fundamental principle of the cell theory?a. All cells have a plasma membrane.b. Eukaryotic cells are larger than prokaryotic cells.c. Living organisms are composed of cells.d. The genetic material in cells is DNA.

4. Which statement is true about bacterial cells?f. The cells are very large. h. They are eukaryotes.g. The cells have no nucleus. j. They have organelles.

5. Which is present only in eukaryotic cells?a. cell membrane c. DNAb. chromosomes d. nucleus

6. Cholesterol is repelled by water and can be found between the layers of the phospholipids in the plasma membrane. What can be concluded from this information?f. A high cholesterol diet should be avoided.g. Cholesterol is nonpolar.h. Cholesterol is polar.j. Cholesterol is repelled by the polar tails.

7. Which organelle converts sugars into energy?a. lysosome c. nucleusb. mitochondrion d. ribosome

8. A scientist at the polar ice cap was studying an ice sample from hundred of meters below the surface. While examining the ice, the scientist found some cells from many years ago. Using an electron microscope, the scientist identified these cell structures: a cytoskeleton, mitochondrion, nucleus, cell wall, and ribosomes. What kind of organism did the scientist find?f. animal h. plantg. bacteria j. He did not have enough information.

9. Chloroplasts are organelles that convert light energy to sugars. These organelles are found only in plants. Which organelles are found only in animals?a. golgi apparatus c. mitochondriab. lysosomes d. ribosomes

10. At what point in the process of diffusion is dynamic equilibrium reached?f. when the movement of the molecules stops being randomg. when the molecules are mixed and stop movingh. when the rate of change in the solution slows by one halfj. when there is continuous movement but no change

11. What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport?a. Active transport moves substances against the concentration gradient.b. Active transport uses proteins in the process.c. Facilitated diffusion moves molecules through the plasma membrane.d. Facilitated diffusion requires large amounts of energy.

12. A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell?f. It will swell. h. It will stay the same.g. It will shrink. j. It will wilt.

13. Algal cells are placed in an isotonic solution. Additional amounts of solutes are slowly added to the solution. What happens to the cells?a. They will begin to swell. c. They will stay the same.b. They will burst. d. They will shrink.

14. Which of the following is an example of passive transport?f. endocytosis h. facilitated diffusiong. exocytosis j. Na+/K+ ATPase pump

15. Which of the following is the primary role of the lysosome?

a. ATP synthesis c. Lipid transportb. Intracellular digestion d. Carbohydrate storage

16. Which of the following are characteristic of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

f. Cytoplasm and a well-defined nucleussurrounded by a membrane

h. Cell wall, several chromosomes, and cytoplasm

g. Membranous sites of ATP synthesis, Golgi complex, and ribosomes

j. Cell membrane, ribosomes, DNA, and RNA

17. The function of which of the following organelles directly requires oxygen?a. Ribosome c. Nucleusb. Mitochondrion d. Centriole

18. Which organelles help provide cells with energy?f. mitochondria and chloroplasts h. rough endoplasmic reticulumg. Golgi apparatus and ribosome j. smooth endoplasmic reticulum

19. One of the most pronounced differences between animal and plant cells is thata. plant cells alone have relatively thick,

rigid cell wallc. animal cells alone have their nuclear

chromatin attached to the spindle fibers during mitosis

b. plant cells alone have rough endoplasmic reticulum

d. B) animal cells alone have a nucleolus

20. In cells, which of the following can function to give shape, enable movement, and anchor organelles?f. Golgi apparatus and associated vesicles in

the cytoplasmah. Microtubules, microfilaments,

intermediate fibers, and microtrabeculaeg. The interconnected networks of the

endoplasmic reticulumj. Vacuoles filled with water and surrounded

by a single membrane21. If a potato slice were placed in a beaker of distilled water, which of the

following would be true of the potato slice?

a. It would gain mass. c. It would absorb solutes from the surrounding liquid.

b. It would neither gain or lose mass. d. It would lose water until water potential of the solutions were equal.

22. The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels and pumps made of?f. carbohydrates h. bilipidsg. lipids j. proteins

23. Which substance on the plasma membrane helps identify chemical signals from outside the cell?a. carbohydrate chain c. membrane protein

b. cholesterol d. transport protein24. An organelle found in the nucleus is a

f. nucleolus. h. basal bodyg. microvillus. j. vacuole

CellsAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. D2. H3. C4. G5. D6. G7. B8. H9. B

10. J11. A12. F13. D14. H15. B16. J17. B18. F19. A20. H21. D22. J23. A24. F

Cell Cycle and Mitosis

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. By the end of prophase, each of the following has occurred except ____.a. tighter coiling of the chromosomes b. breaking down of the nuclear envelope c. disappearing of the nucleolus d. lining up of chromosomes in the cell

2. The chromosomes shown in Figure 9-1 are in which state of mitosis?

Figure 9-1

a. prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophase

3. Why is the synthesis stage called this?a. because protein synthesis is taking place b. because DNA synthesis is taking place c. because it combines several smaller stages into one d. because the chromosomes come together

4. Which of these has occurred by the end of prophase?a. Sister chromatids are separated. b. The spindle is beginning to form. c. The cell membrane has begun to pinch inward. d. The nuclear membrane has disappeared.

Figure 9-4

5. Figure 9-4 illustrates which stage of mitosis?a. anaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. telophase

6. How is the alignment of chromosomes, shown in Figure 9-4, on the equatorial plate of the cell maintained?

a. They are always located there, since that is where the nucleus was. b. Tension between opposite spindle fibers pulls them there. c. The pressure of the cytoplasm moves them there. d. The chromosomes are attracted to each other and meet there.

7. Which of the following occurs in telophase?a. chromosomes condense b. chromosomes line up c. chromosomes move to opposite poles d. chromosomes relax

8. A cell has 12 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have?a. 4 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24

9. A cell that is undergoing mitosis is examined with a light microscope. An observation that would allow for identification of the cell as an animal cell rather than a plant cell would be a. the centrioles migrating. b. the chromosome pairs separating from each other. c. the chromosomes twisting about each other. d. the nucleoli disappearing.

10. The cell cycle is regulated bya. cyclins b. enzymes c. hormones d. sugars

11. Prokaryotes divide by binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction in whicha. the nucleus divides into two nuclei. b. the number of chromosomes in the cell is reduced. c. a cell divides into two cells with identical genetic information. d. spindle fibers attach to the poles of the cell.

Figure 9-5

12. The cell in Figure 9-5 is undergoing mitosis. Which stage of mitosis will follow this one?a. anaphase b. metaphase c. prophase d. telophase

13. Which checkpoint has this cell just passed?a. near the end of gap 1, monitoring DNA damage b. during the S stage c. during the gap 2 stage d. during mitosis, monitoring spindle formation

14. DNA replication occurs duringa. anaphase. b. interphase. c. metaphase. d. prophase.

15. Which of the phases of mitosis has the shortest duration?a. anaphase b. cytokinesis c. metaphase d. prophase

16. A cell that undergoes repeated mitosis without cytokinesis would havea. many daughter cells. b. fewer chromosomes. c. many nuclei. d. cancerous properties.

17. Why is it important for the chromosomes to condense during mitosis?a. to facilitate DNA replication b. to facilitate chromosome movement c. to facilitate cytokinesis d. to facilitate spindle formation

18. The typical growth period of a cell occurs during which stage of the cell cycle?a. Gap 1 b. Gap 2 c. synthesis d. mitosis

19. The order of the phases in mitosis is:a. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase b. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase c. anaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase d. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, teleophase

20. When plant cells divide, a. their cells cleave like animal cells b. a cell membrane called the cell plate forms c. the cell wall forms from existing wall d. the cell wall splits

Cell Cycle and MitosisAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. D2. C3. B4. D5. B6. B7. D8. C9. A

10. A11. C12. B13. C14. B15. C16. C17. B18. A19. D20. B

Biodiversity

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Table 5-1 shows the population sizes for 6 different species in four different areas.

Area Species U Species V Species W Species X Species Y Species Z

A 3 7 2 2 2 4

B 0 6 8 0 6 6

C 0 0 2 0 0 2

D 4 3 11 1 6 0

Table 5-1

____ 1. From Table 5-1, which species has the highest average population size?a. Species W c. Species Yb. Species X d. Species Z

____ 2. If the four areas in Table 5-1 were the only places in the world to find these organisms, which species most likely faces the greatest chance of extinction?a. Species U c. Species Yb. Species X d. Species Z

____ 3. Which area in Table 5-1 has the greatest biodiversity?a. Area A c. Area Cb. Area B d. Area D

____ 4. If all four areas in Table 5-1 had identical climate and geology, which one would probably have the smallest area?a. Area A c. Area Cb. Area B d. Area D

For many years orchid collectors searched Exotic Islands for the beautiful Kimmarie Orchid, which is found no place else in the world. After they found the orchid, they brought it back to their homes. In the last couple of years the Kimmarie Orchid has not been found on the island. As a result, hobbyists are now sending the Kimmarie Orchid to be replanted on the islands.

____ 5. The Kimmarie Orchid became extinct in the wild due to ____.a. habitat loss c. habitat degradationb. exotics d. overcollection

____ 6. The hobbyists are trying to correct the Kimmarie Orchid problem they caused by using ____.a. exotic species c. habitat corridorsb. a reintroduction program d. habitat fragments

____ 7. Island A has an area of 30 square kilometers. Island B has an area of 400 square kilometers. The islands are near each other. Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?a. Island A has greater biodiversity and a higher percentage of edge effect than Island B.b. Island A has less biodiversity and a higher percentage of edge effect than Island B.c. Island A has greater biodiversity and a lower percentage of edge effect than Island B.d. Island A has less biodiversity and a lower percentage of edge effect than Island B.

____ 8. Consider the following pairs of organisms: large predators and small predators; large herbivores and small herbivores; and migratory animals and non-migratory animals. The two animals most likely to suffer the most from habitat fragmentation are the ____.a. large predators and migratory animalsb. large herbivores and large predatorsc. non-migratory animals and small herbivoresd. migratory animals and large herbivores

____ 9. If the communities in Figure 5-4 were put in order of least to most biological diversity, they would be ____.

Figure 5-1

a. ABCD c. DBCAb. CADB d. BDAC

Figure 5-2

____ 10. What does the graph in Figure 5-2 tell you?

a. the farther from land, the more biodiversityb. the larger the islet, the more biodiversityc. islet size and biodiversity are not relatedd. biodiversity decreases with islet size

____ 11. Using the graph in Figure 5-2, extrapolate what would happen to biodiversity on a large island or continent.a. biodiversity would increase greatlyb. biodiversity would decrease greatlyc. biodiversity would first increase, then decreased. biodiversity would first decrease, then increase

____ 12. Using the information from the graph in Figure 5-2, predict what would happen to biodiversity if the ocean level increased.a. it would increase c. it would decreaseb. it would remain the same d. it would disappear

Figure 5-3

____ 13. What effect did the loss of species B have on species A and D in Figure 5-3?a. it caused the populations of A and D to decreaseb. it caused the populations of A and D to increasec. it caused the populations of A and D to become extinctd. it had no effect on the populations of A and D

____ 14. Examine the graph in Figure 5-3. Which species were not affected by the loss of species B?a. species A, C, and E c. species C onlyb. species C and E d. species E only

____ 15. Which of the following actions would most likely restore the ecosystem represented in Figure 5-3?a. Introduce a predator for species A.b. Remove species A and E from the ecosystem.c. Reintroduce species B and D to the ecosystem.d. Start a bioremediation program in the ecosystem.

Island Area (km2) Initial No.of Species

Extinctions

A 850,000 175 25B 300,000 140 35C 90,000 80 50

Table 5-2

____ 16. According to the data in Table 5-2, which factor has the greatest impact on species loss?a. the original number of speciesb. the distance from the mainlandc. the area of the islandd. the climate

____ 17. Which of the following resources can be considered renewable?a. natural gas c. uraniumb. quartz d. wood

____ 18. The cheetah population was around 100,000 in 1900. Today, fewer than 12,000 cheetahs remain. What type of natural resource are cheetahs considered to be?a. nonrenewable c. reusableb. renewable d. sustainable

____ 19. Which of the following is a direct benefit of biodiversity?a. faster erosion ratesb. greater amounts of rainfallc. improved soil fertilityd. decreased carbon dioxide emissions

Figure 5-4

____ 20. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. What would most likely happen to the organisms in this food web if the robin began to disappear?a. The hawk would be forced to start eating the dragonfly.b. Most of the organisms in the ecosystem would starve and die.c. The terrestrial organisms would starve, but the aquatic organisms would survive.d. There would be an overpopulation of caterpillars, which would kill many elm trees.

____ 21. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. What would most likely happen to the organisms in this ecosystem if the algae began to disappear?a. The bass population would increase.b. All of the aquatic organisms would become overpopulated.c. The dragonfly population would likewise begin to disappear.d. The fox would begin to starve and be forced to emigrate to another area.

____ 22. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. Suppose an herbicide is used to kill some of the algae in this ecosystem. The herbicide does not break down in the environment. Inside the cells of which organism would you expect to find the highest amount of herbicide?a. algae c. elm treeb. cougar d. minnow

____ 23. Examine the food web shown in Figure 5-4. The disappearance of which of the following pair of species would result in the total collapse of the food web?a. algae and dragonflies c. dragonflies and foxesb. algae and elm trees d. elm trees and bass

____ 24. Which of the following practices can help conserve an area’s biodiversity?a. biological magnification c. species introduction

b. habitat fragmentation d. sustainable usage____ 25. The extinction rate of terrestrial and freshwater species is currently higher than the extinction rate of marine

species. What is the most likely reason for this?a. Human activities have a greater impact on terrestrial and freshwater ecosystems.b. There are no economic incentives for humans to use ocean resources.c. Marine organisms have had a longer time to adapt to their environment.d. The oceans have a greater area than land and freshwater ecosystems combined.

____ 26. A biologist is searching for a new plant-based antibiotic. In which of the following types of ecosystems would the biologist have the best chance of finding new kinds of plants to use in her research?a. highland desert c. temperate deciduous forestb. polar tundra d. tropical rain forest

____ 27. If a disturbance were to occur in an ecosystem, which of the following ecosystems would be most vulnerable to extinctions? a. continental ecosystems c. marine ecosystemsb. island ecosystems d. tropical ecosystems

____ 28. Why is sandstone classified as a nonrenewable resource?a. Sandstone takes many thousands of years to form.b. Sandstone is not composed of natural rock materials.c. Sandstone is not a very useful resource to humans.d. Sandstone is no longer being formed on Earth.

____ 29. Which of the following groups of animals has suffered the largest percentage of known extinctions in the last 400 years?a. amphibians c. invertebratesb. birds d. mammals

BiodiversityAnswer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A2. B3. A4. C5. D6. B7. B8. A9. D

10. B11. A12. C13. A14. C15. C16. C17. D18. A19. C20. D21. C22. B23. B24. D25. A26. D27. B28. A29. D