· Web view9 7 Percentage with high cholesterol 11 10 11 11 Percentage with family history of heart disease 12 12 12 12 Mean percentage of fat in diet 34 33 32 30 Number of cases

BiologyKS4 Infection

Homework BookletHomework Task Due

DateTeacher Signiture

In01 PathogensIn02 Culturing Microorganisms Required Practical [BIO ONLY]In03 Culturing Microorganisms RP Analysis [BIO ONLY]In04 Types of DiseaseIn05 Human DefenceIn06 VaccinationIn07 Antibiotics and PainkillersIn08 Plant Diseases and Defences [BIO ONLY]In09 Discovering and Developing DrugsIn10 TumoursIn11 Non-Communicable DiseaseIn12 Factors Affecting Health Part 1In13 Factors Affecting Health Part 2In14 Making Monoclonal Antibodies [BIO ONLY]In15 Uses of Monoclonal Antibodies [BIO ONLY]

In 0

1

Pathogens R A G

What pathogens are.

How pathogens cause disease.

How pathogens spread disease.

How the spread of disease can be reduced or prevented.

In01 Pathogens Exam Question Practise

Read the In01 sections on your knowledge organisers before you begin.

A protein marker on the surface of cells that can trigger an immune response.

A single-celled prokaryotic organism that may produce toxins to damage tissues.

A plant or animal that can cause infectious disease.

A microorganism that cannot reproduce outside of a living cell. They can burst out of

host cells and cause cell damage.

A microorganism that may infect animals or plants to cause infectious disease (e.g. protists).

Virus

Bacteria

Pathogen

Comprehension Task 1. Match the keyword to the best definition.

2. Complete the sentences: It is difficult to develop drugs to treat viral infections because

Bacterial infections can be easy to treat with antibiotics but

Q1.

Describe how pathogens cause infections. Ensure you include the correct key terms.

(4)

Q2.

Lungworm is an infection. Lungworm can kill dogs. It is caused by a small worm.

The diagram below shows the lifecycle of the lungworm.

(a) Suggest how the spread of the lungworm disease can be prevented.

(3)

(b) Malaria is a disease spread by mosquitoes.

Describe two ways to control the spread of malaria.

1.

2.

(2)

In 0

2

Biol

ogy

Culturing Microorganisms Required Practical R A G

How to prepare an uncontaminated culture using aseptic technique.

What bacteria cultures are required for.

Why bacteria are cultured at lower temperatures in schools than in industry.


Comprehension Task 1. When preparing an uncontaminated culture, explain why you need to:

a. Pass the inoculating loop through a flame.

b.

c. Partially seal the lid of the petri dish with tape.

d. Incubate at maximum temperature 25°C.

2. Highlight the odd one out and give a reason for your choice.

Antibiotic Antigen Antiseptic

Reason

Contaminated Sterilised Aseptic

Reason

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3 Bi

olog

y

Culturing Microorganisms Required Practical Analysis R A G

The effect of disinfectants and antibiotics on bacterial growth.

How to calculate cross-sectional areas of bacteria colonies or zones of inhibition using πr2.

That bacteria multiply by simple cell division (binary fission).

That in the right conditions, bacteria can multiply every 20 minutes.

How to calculate the number of bacteria in a population ([H] express answer in standard form).

Comprehension Task

Bacteria such as Escherichia coli undergo cell division.

The figure shows a growth curve for E. coli grown in a nutrient broth.

2. Which statement best describes what is happening at Q?

a. There is not enough space in the nutrient broth therefore the rate of cell division remains constant.

b. There are not enough nutrients therefore the cells begin to die at the same rate as the cell division.

c. There is not enough oxygen therefore the cells stop dividing and the population remains constant.


1. What type of cell division is causing the increase of E. coli cells at P? Highlight your answer.

Meiosis

Mitosis

Binary fission

Reason for choice:

In02&03 Culturing Microorganisms RP Exam Question Practise

Q1. Scientists grow microorganisms in industrial conditions at a higher temperature than is used in school laboratories.

(a) (i) What is the maximum temperature the incubator should be set at in the school?

Highlight your answer.

10°C 25°C 50°C(1)

(ii) Highlight the correct answer to complete the sentence.

The incubator should not be set at a higher temperature because the higher

pathogens.

temperature might help the growth of toxins.

viruses.

(1)

(b) (i) Which temperature would be most suitable for growing bacteria in industrial conditions?

Highlight the correct answer.

25 °C 40 °C 100 °C

(1)

(ii) What is the advantage of using the temperature you gave in part (c)(i)?

(1) (Total 4 marks)

Comprehension Task

Bacteria such as Escherichia coli undergo cell division.

The figure shows a growth curve for E. coli grown in a nutrient broth.

2. Which statement best describes what is happening at Q?

a. There is not enough space in the nutrient broth therefore the rate of cell division remains constant.

b. There are not enough nutrients therefore the cells begin to die at the same rate as the cell division.

c. There is not enough oxygen therefore the cells stop dividing and the population remains constant.

Q2. A student is given a tube of a liquid nutrient medium, The medium contains one type of bacterium. The student is told to grow some of the bacteria on agar jelly in a Petri dish.

(a) Describe how the student should prepare an uncontaminated culture of the bacterium in the Petri dish.

You should explain the reasons for each of the steps you describe.

(6)

After the culture had been prepared, the student added one drop of each of four antibiotics, A, B, C, and D, onto the culture.

Figure 1 below shows the appearance of the petri dish 3 days later.

Position of drop of antibiotic

Area where bacteria is growing

(b) Explain why there are areas around some of the paper discs where no bacteria

are growing.(2)

(c) Which was the most effective antibiotic?

For this antibiotic, calculate the area in which bacteria did not grow. Show your working.

Most effective disc

Area mm

(2)

The student then decided to investigate how the concentration of the antibiotic affected the growth of a culture of bacteria in a petri dish. The results are shown in the table below.

Disc Concentration of the antibiotic in units

Diameter of circle where no bacteria are growing, in

mm

A 0 0

B 2 8

C 4 14

D 6 26

E 10 26

(d) What effect does an increase in the concentration of the antibiotic have on the growth of the bacteria?

(2)

(Total 12 marks)

Comprehension Task

In 0

4Types of Disease R A G

Examples of diseases caused by viruses including measles, HIV and TMV.

Examples of diseases caused by bacteria including Salmonella food poisoning and gonorrhoea.

Example of diseases caused by protists: malaria.

Example of diseases caused by fungi: rose black spot.

1. Compare the following two diseases in terms of their organisms they affect, their causes, symptoms and the methods used to treat and control the disease.

2. Find and fix the errors in the passages below:

Salmonella is a disease caused by a fungus that grows on food that has not been washed correctly. The abdominal cramps, sickness and diarrhoea that follow can lead to dehydration so fluids should be taken to prevent this.

Measles is a viral disease that is passed on by direct contact with an infected person displaying the red skin rash associated with the disease. Most children are vaccinated against measles to prevent them contracting this disease which can be fatal if complications arise.

Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) with symptoms of a thick yellow or green discharge from the vagina or penis and pain on urinating. It is caused by a virus therefore not easily treated as antibiotics do not treat viral infections.

Rose black spot is a fungal disease where purple or black spots develop on roots. It affects the growth of the plant as fewer mineral ions are absorbed. It is spread in the environment by water or


HIVTobacco Mosaic Virus

wind. Rose black spot can be treated by using fungicides and/or removing and destroying the affected roots.

In04 Types of Disease Exam Question Practise

Q1. Microorganisms can cause disease.

(a) Draw one line from each disease to the correct description.

(3)

(b) Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease. A bacterium causes gonorrhoea.

What are the symptoms of gonorrhoea? Tick two boxes.

Headache Vomiting

Pain when urinating Yellow discharge

Rash

(2)

(c) Gonorrhoea is treated with an antibiotic. HIV is another sexually transmitted disease.

Explain why prescribing an antibiotic will not cure HIV.

(2)

(d) A person with AIDS may take longer than a healthy person to recover from a Salmonella infection.

Explain why.

(2) (Total 9 marks)

Q2. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is a disease affecting plants.

Plants with TMV have yellow patches on their leaves where TMV has destroyed the chloroplasts.

(a) All tools should be washed in disinfectant after using them on plants infected with TMV. Suggest why.

(1)

(b) TMV can cause plants to produce less chlorophyll.

This causes leaf discoloration.

Explain why plants with TMV have stunted growth.

(4)(Total 5 marks)

Comprehension Task 1. The first line of defence against infection stops the pathogens from entering your body.

These first lines are general defences and are not specific to fight against certain types of pathogen. They are called non-specific, and they can be physical or chemical barriers.

Colour in all the examples of non-specific human defences.

2.

In 0

5Human Defence R A G

How the human body stops pathogens getting in.

How white blood cells defend against pathogens.

Statement True or False?

Reason

Phagocytosis is the process by which a lymphocyte eats a pathogen.

White blood cells release antitoxins to neutralise toxins produced by pathogens.

White blood cells produce antigens to attach onto the antibodies on the surface of the pathogen.


Skin to prevent pathogens entering

the body.

Chemicals in tears to kill pathogens.

Release of antitoxins to neutralise toxins

produced by bacteria.

Cilia to sweep mucus and trap pathogens.

Stomach acid destroying pathogens entering the

digestive system.

Antibodies attaching to antigens, causing

pathogens to clump together.

In05 Human Defences Exam Question Practise

Q1. Some parts of the human body have adaptations to reduce the entry of live pathogens.

Explain how the trachea is adapted to reduce the entry of live pathogens.

(Total 4 marks)

Q2. Explain, as fully as you can, how white blood cells protect us from disease.

(Total 5 marks)

Comprehension Task 1. Use the word wheel to help you explain how a vaccination makes a person immune to a

disease.

In 0

6

Vaccination R A G

How vaccination prevents illness in an individual.

How the spread of disease can be reduced by immunising a large proportion of the population.


Pathogen

Lymphocytes

Antibodies

Re-infection

In06 Vaccination Exam Question Practise

Q1. (a) Vaccination can protect us from the diseases pathogens cause.

(i) A doctor vaccinates a child against the measles virus.

What does the doctor inject into the child to make the child immune to measles?

(2)

(ii) A few weeks after the vaccination, the child becomes infected with measles viruses from another person.

The graph shows the number of measles antibodies in the child’s blood from before the vaccination until after the infection.

More measles antibodies are produced after the infection than after the vaccination.

Describe other differences in antibody production after infection compared with after vaccination.

(3)

(iii) Vaccination against the measles virus will not protect the child against the rubella virus. Why?

(1)

(b) What is the advantage of vaccinating a large proportion of the population against measles?

(1)(Total 7 marks)

Q2. All vaccinations involve some risk.

The table shows the risk of developing harmful effects:

• from the disease if a child is not given the MMR vaccine

• if a child is given the MMR vaccine.

Harmful effectRisk of developing the harmful effect from the disease if not given the MMR

vaccine

Risk of developing the harmful effect if given the

MMR vaccine

Convulsions 1 in 200 1 in 1000

Meningitis 1 in 3000 Less than 1 in 1 000 000

Brain damage 1 in 8000 0

A mother is considering if she should have her child vaccinated with the MMR vaccine.

Use information from the table to persuade the mother that she should have her child vaccinated.

(Total 2 marks)

Comprehension Task

In 0

7

Antibiotics and Painkillers R A G

What antibiotics are and how they treat disease.

That painkillers are used to treat symptoms of disease but do not kill pathogens.

That antibiotics cannot kill viruses and why developing drugs to treat viral diseases is difficult.

Read the keywords sections on your Infection knowledge organisers before you begin.

Definition Diseases they can cure

Examples Non-examples

Antibiotics

Definition Diseases they can cure

Examples Non-examples

Painkillers

In07 Antibiotics and Painkillers Exam Question Practise

Q1. Antibiotics were developed in the 1940s to treat infectious diseases.

(a) Which illness could be treated with an antibiotic?

Tick one box.

AIDS Salmonella

Measles Type 2 diabetes

(1)

(b) Why could you not use a painkiller like paracetamol to cure this illness?

(1)

(c) (i) Which one of the following is an antibiotic?

Highlight the correct answer.

cholesterol penicillin thalidomide(1)

(ii) The use of antibiotics has not reduced the death rate due to all diseases to zero.

Suggest two reasons why.

1.

2.

(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q2. Drug manufacturers are spending less on research into new antibiotics.

One reason why is because new antibiotics are rarely prescribed.

Some people think that governments should pay drug manufacturers to develop new antibiotics. Suggest why.

(Total 3 marks)

Q3. Some diseases can be cured by using antibiotics or prevented by vaccination.

(a) (i) Explain fully why antibiotics cannot be used to cure viral diseases.

(2)

(ii) There has been a large increase in the populations of many antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria in recent years.

Explain why.

(2) (Total 4 marks)

Comprehension Task1. Colour in the examples of physical defences in blue, chemical responses in yellow and

mechanical adaptations in red.

2. Identify which of these plants are diseased and give a reason for your choice.

A = YES/NO B = YES/NO C = YES/NO

In 0

8 B

iolo

gy

Plant Diseases and Defences R A G

The effect of mineral deficiencies on plant health.

How to detect and identify plant disease.

Examples of physical and chemical plant defence responses.


Leaves of the rhubarb plant cause sickness if

eaten.

Some species of nettle will cause pain when

touched.

Passionflowers make fake butterfly eggs on their leaves to prevent insects laying real eggs.

Walnuts have hard, thick outer shells to

protect the seed inside from animal predation.

Some plants secrete a substance to attract

parasitic wasps which lay eggs in caterpillars feeding on the plant.

The mimosa plant, also known as the shy plant, folds inwards to protect itself from harm and can re-open a few minutes

later.

Reason: Reason: Reason:

A CB

In08 Plant Diseases and Defences [BIO ONLY] Exam Question Practise

Q1. A gardener is looking at the plants in his greenhouse. Some of the plants have a disease.

(a) Give two ways the gardener could identify the pathogen infecting the plants.

1.

2.

(2)

(b) Plants can become unhealthy if they do not have essential mineral ions.

Describe the appearance of plants with:

• nitrate deficiency • magnesium deficiency.

Nitrate deficiency

Magnesium deficiency

(2)

(c) Explain how a deficiency of magnesium could impact upon the growth of the plant.

(5)(Total 9 marks)

Q2. Plants have adaptations to help defend themselves and to help them survive.

Figure 1 to the right shows a nettle plant.

(a) Explain how the nettle is adapted for defence and protection.

(3)

(b) The leaves of some plants release oils onto their surface.

Suggest how this may protect the plant from insect pests like aphids.

(1)(Total 4 marks)

Q3.

Explain how different types of organism defend themselves against microorganisms.

(Total 6 marks)

Comprehension Task1. Finish the following sentences:

Plants and microorganisms play an important role in the development of new drugs because...

Plants and microorganisms play an important role in the development of new drugs but...

Plants and microorganisms play an important role in the development of new drugs so...

2. Which statement best describes Preclinical testing?

Preclinical testing occurs in a laboratory using healthy volunteers to check that a drug is not dangerous to humans before it is given to people who are already sick.

Preclinical testing occurs in a laboratory using cells, tissues and live animals to establish if a drug is likely to be toxic to humans if they take it.

Preclinical testing occurs in a laboratory where patients are given small doses of the drug to see if there is any positive impact on their condition.

3. Which statement best describes clinical trials?

Clinical trials take place in a laboratory using cells, tissues and live animals to establish if a drug is likely to be toxic to humans if they take it.

Clinical trials use a mixture of healthy volunteers and patients. At first, trials are used to find out if the drug is safe and then the correct dosage that improves the condition of patients.

Clinical trials are carried out with patients suffering from the illness. At first, trials are used to find out if the drug works and then to find out the correct dosage that is not toxic to humans.

In 0

9

Discovering and Developing Drugs R A G

Some of the drugs traditionally extracted from plants and microorganisms, including digitalis, aspirin, and penicillin.

How scientists look for new drugs.

The stages involved in testing and trialling new drugs.

Why testing new drugs is important.


In09 Discovering and Developing Drugs Exam Question Practise

Q1. (a) Drugs must be trialled before they can be used on patients.

Give three reasons why.

(3)

The graph below shows how much time the different stages of testing took for a new drug.

(b) (i) How much more time did the clinical trials take than the laboratory testing?

years

(1)

(ii) Apart from the time taken, what other difference is there between laboratory testing and clinical trials?

(1)

(c) (i) During Phase 1 clinical trials, the drug is tested on healthy volunteers using low doses.

Suggest why only healthy volunteers and only low doses are used at this stage of drug testing.

(2)

(ii) In Phase 2 and Phase 3 clinical trials, a double blind trial is usually done.

Explain what a double blind trial is and why a double blind trial is good practice.

(3)(Total 10 marks)

Q2. (a) Some drugs were originally extracted from living organisms.

Draw one line from each drug to the organism it was originally extracted from.

(2)

Alexander Fleming discovered the antibiotic penicillin when he noticed that one of his petri dishes containing bacteria had become contaminated with a fungus.

(b) Read the information about the discovery of penicillin.

Draw one line from each piece of information to its description. (4)

Information Description

Conclusion

Fleming noticed that there were only a few bacterial colonies growing near the fungus.

Hypothesis

Fleming thought the fungus must have produced a chemical (penicillin) that killed the bacteria around it.

Investigation

He injected 8 mice with bacteria and gave 4 of these mice an injection of penicillin.

Observation

The 4 mice injected with penicillin survived. The 4 mice not given penicillin died.

Result

(c) Give two reasons why Fleming’s discovery was important.

1.

2.

(2)

Comprehension Task1. Compare benign and malignant tumours.

2. Match the type of cancer with the risk factor/s.

In 1

0

Tumours R A G

That cancer is the result of changes in cells that lead to uncontrollable growth and division.

The difference between benign and malignant tumours.

Examples of risk factors for various types of cancers.


Malignant tumourBenign tumour

UV radiation

Infection

Obesity

Ionising radiation

Excessive alcohol consumption

Smoking

Liver cancer

Skin cancer

Lung cancer

Comprehension Task1. Compare benign and malignant tumours.

2. Match the type of cancer with the risk factor/s.

In10 Tumours Exam Question Practise

Q1. The number of people in the UK with tumours is increasing.

(a) (i) Describe how tumours form.

(1)

(ii) Tumours can be malignant or benign.

What is the difference between a malignant tumour and a benign tumour?

(1)

(b) Describe how some tumours may spread to other parts of the body.

(1)

(c) Give one factor which increases the risk of developing a cancerous tumour.

(1)(Total 4 marks)

Q2. Survival rates for people with cancer have improved a lot.

The figure below shows data for people diagnosed with cancer in 1961 and 2001.

(a) Look at the data in the figure above for skin cancer.

Calculate the percentage increase in the survival rate of people diagnosed with skin cancer in 1961 compared to 2001.

Give your answer to three significant figures.

(2)

(b) Look at the data in the figure above for bowel and prostate cancer.

Compare the survival rates for bowel and prostate cancer.

Suggest reasons for the comparisons you have made.

(4)(Total 6 marks)

Non-Communicable Disease R A G

Survival rate increase = _______________ %

Comprehension Task

1. Which statement best describes an individual who could be considered “healthy”?

a) Someone who lacks any physical disease or impairment.

b) Someone who eats a balanced diet, gets regular exercise and makes sensible lifestyle choices.

c) Someone who is well in both body and mind.

2. Highlight the odd one out and give a reason for your choice.

Coronary heart disease Cancer Malaria

Reason

Asthma Measles Eczema (skin rashes)

Reason

Depression Anxiety disorder HIV

Reason

In11 Non-Communicable Disease Exam Question Practise

Q1. Obesity is a factor that affects Coronary Heart Disease (CHD).


(a) What is meant by obesity?

(1)

(b) Other than heart disease, name two conditions which are linked to obesity.

(2)

(c) The graph shows how the percentages of obese men and women in the UK changed between 1994 and 2004.

(i) Describe how the percentage of obese women changed between 1994 and 2004.

(2)

(ii) The percentage of obese men changed between 1994 and 2004.

Suggest two reasons for this change.

1.

2.

1.

2.

(2)

(d) The chart below is published by the British Heart Foundation. It shows how death from CHD is related to a number of different factors.

copyright National Heart Forum

Each factor is represented by a circle.

The bigger the circle, the more people are affected by the factor.

(i) What is the main factor causing death from CHD?

(1)

(ii) Estimate the percentage of deaths from CHD related to high blood pressure.

(1)

(iii) The data are shown as overlapping circles instead of a bar chart. The percentages of deaths related to the different factors add up to more than 100%.

What does this tell you about some of the people who died from CHD?

(1)(Total 10 marks)

Q2. Diet and exercise affect health.

The graph shows the number of deaths from heart disease each year in the UK.

%

The pattern for deaths from heart disease in men is different from the pattern in women.

(a) Give two differences between the patterns for men and women.

(2)

(b) Suggest two reasons for the difference in the number of deaths from heart disease in men and women between the ages of 40 and 60.

(2) (Total 4 marks)

In 1

2&13

Factors Affecting Health R A G

The human and financial costs of non-communicable diseases to an individual, community, nation or globally.

Examples of how lifestyle factors, including diet, alcohol and smoking, affect the risk of developing diseases.

1.

2.

1.

2.

1. Which statement best describes a causal mechanism?

a. A relationship between two variables, such that when one variable changes you

would expect the other to change as well as a result.

b. A scientific explanation for an apparent link between two variables.

c. A factor that is linked to an increased rate of a disease.

2. Use the following graphs to answer the true or false table on the next page.

Comprehension Task

What is meant by a risk factor.

What a casual mechanism is and examples of proven casual mechanisms.

How to identify a correlation between two risk factors on a scatter diagram.

Read the In12&13 sections on your knowledge organisers before you begin.

of lung cancer

Comprehension Task

In12&13 Factors Affecting Health Exam Question Practise

Q1. Scientists investigated the effect of different factors on health.

(a) People who are not active may have health problems.

The graph shows the percentage of 16-year-olds in some countries who are not active.

(i) What percentage of 16-year-olds in the UK are not active?

(1)

(ii) What percentage of 16-year-olds in the UK are active?

(1)

(iii) A newspaper headline states:

Information in Figure 1 does not support the newspaper headline.

Suggest one reason why the newspaper headline may be wrong.

(1)

(b) Doctors gave a percentage rating to the health of 16-year-olds.100% is perfect health.

The table shows the amount of exercise 16-year-olds do and their health rating.

%

%

Amount of exercise done in minutes every week Health rating as %

Less than 30 72

90 76

180 82

300 92

What conclusion can be made about the effect of exercise on health?

Use information from the table.

(1)(Total 4 marks)

Q2. In a scientific investigation over 44 000 men were monitored for 12 years.

The men were divided into four groups based on their number of hours of physical activity they did per week.

The results are shown in the table. Group W X Y Z

Mean number of hours of physical activity per week 1 5 12 24

Percentage who are smokers 14 11 9 7

Percentage with high cholesterol 11 10 11 11

Percentage with family history of heart disease 12 12 12 12

Mean percentage of fat in diet 34 33 32 30

Number of cases of heart disease 423 370 336 294

(a) Give two other factors which may affect the risk of heart disease.

You should not refer to the factors shown in the table.

(2)

(b) Evaluate whether the data shows that increased hours of physical activity

1.

2.

Comprehension Task1. Match up the keyword with the correct definition.

reduces the risk of heart disease.(6)

(Total 14 marks)

Q3. Coronary heart disease (CHD) can be caused by many factors.

The table below shows data related to CHD for five countries.

Country

Number of deaths from CHD

per 100 000 population per

year

Percentage of the population who smoke tobacco

Percentage of the population who

drink alcohol heavily

Amount of fruit and vegetables eaten in kg per

person peryear

A 285 36 19 180

B 251 63 34 404

C 186 47 36 251

D 149 23 34 218

E 128 27 12 222

(a) Name one risk factor for CHD that is not shown in the table above.

(1)

(b) A student concludes that the main cause of CHD is not eating enough fruit and vegetables.

Give three reasons why the student’s conclusion is not correct. Use information from the table above.

(3) (Total 4 marks)

In 1

4

Biol

ogy Making Monoclonal Antibodies R A G

The process of producing monoclonal antibodies.


Comprehension Task1. Match up the keyword with the correct definition.

In 1

5

Biol

ogy

Uses of Monoclonal Antibodies R A G

Uses of monoclonal antibodies.

Advantages and disadvantages of using monoclonal antibodies.


Lymphocyte

Hybridoma

Tumour cellA protein produced in response to pathogens

and counteracting a specific antigen.

A hybrid cell with a combination of DNA from two different species (e.g. human and mouse).

A type of white blood cell to help the body fight infection with specific immune responses.

A cell used as the basis for the production of specific antibodies in large amounts for

diagnostic or therapeutic use.

An abnormal cell which rapidly undergoes uncontrollable cell division.

Comprehension Task1. Finish the following sentences:

There is potential to use monoclonal antibodies to treat many diseases because..

There is potential to use monoclonal antibodies to treat many diseases, for example..

There is potential to use monoclonal antibodies to treat many diseases but..

In14&15 Monoclonal Antibodies Exam Question Practise

Q1. A virus called RSV causes severe respiratory disease.

(a) One treatment for RSV uses monoclonal antibodies which can be injected into the patient. Scientists can produce monoclonal antibodies using mice.The first step is to inject the virus into a mouse.

Describe the remaining steps in the procedure to produce monoclonal antibodies.

(3)

(b) Describe how injecting monoclonal antibodies help to treat a patient with RSV.

(2) (Total 5 marks)

Q2. Monoclonal antibodies are used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood.

Pregnant women produce the hormone HCG. HCG is excreted in urine.

Figure 1 shows four pregnancy test strips.

(a) Which test strip shows a negative test result? Tick one box.

A B C D

(1)

(b) Monoclonal antibodies are used for pregnancy testing.

Give one other use of monoclonal antibodies.(1)

(c) Figure 2 shows the parts of a pregnancy test strip.

The pregnancy test strip will show a positive test result when a woman is pregnant.

Explain how the pregnancy test strip works to show a positive result.

(6) (Total 8 marks)

Documents

· Web view9 7 Percentage with high cholesterol 11 10 11 11 Percentage with family history of heart disease 12 12 12 12 Mean percentage of fat in diet 34 33 32 30 Number of cases