Vpm Classes - Solved Mock Paper _new Pattern_ Csir Ugc Net Life Sciences 2011

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CSIR UGC NET-2011 Life Sciences (NEW PATTERN)

VPM CLASSES MOCK TEST PAPER

This paper contains 45 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (part A 15, part B 35 and part C 25). Each question in Part ‘A’ carries 2 marks, Part ‘B’ 2 marks and Part ‘C’ 4 marks respectively. There will be negative marking @ 25% for each wrong answer.

PART A (1-15) 1. At what time between 4 and 6 will the hands of a watch coincide?

(A) 92111

Minutes past 4 (B) 92211

minutes past 6

(C) 92011

Minutes past 4 (D) 82111

minutes past 4

2. A brick measures 20 cm by 10 cm by 7½ cm. How many bricks will be required for a wall 25m long, 2 m high and ¾ m thick?

(A) 26000 (B) 25000 (C) 30000 (D) 27000

3. If c1x + c2x–1 is the general solution of the differential equation 2

22

d y dyx kx – y 0,dxdx

x > 0 then k

equals (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) –1 (D) 1 4. 1, 5, 14, 30... 91 (A) 45 (B) 55 (C) 46 (D) 60 5. V—I graph for a conductor (Platinum wire) at temperatures T1 and T2 is as shown. in Fig. T2 – T1 is

proportional to (PH)



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(A) Cos 2 (B) sin 2 (C) cot 2 (D) tan 2

6. How many paving stones, each measuring 2½ meters by 2 meters, are required to pave a rectangular courtyard 30 meters long and 16½ meters broad?

(A) 98 (B) 99 (C) 97 (D) 96

7. If cost price of 15 articles is equal to selling price of 12 articles, what is P% or L%?

(A) 25% (B) 30% (C) 10% (D) 32%

8. A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude 1 cm along the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The mean position of oscillation is at 20 cm from the lens. Find the amplitude of oscillation of the image of the particle.

(A) 2·25 cm (B) 4·5 cm (C) 2 cm (D) 4 cm 9. If a dice is thrown twice, the probability of occurrence of 4 at least once is

(A) 1136

(B) 712

(C) 3536

(D) None of these

10. The distance between the planes 2x – 2y + z + 3 = 0 and 4x – 4y + 2z + 5 = 0 is–

(A) 13

(B) 12

(C) 16

(D) 15

11. (+)-Mandelic acid has a specific rotation of +1580. Which composition has the observed specific rotation + 79º

(A) 25% (-)-mandelic acid and 75% (+)-mandelic acid (B) 50% (-)-mandelic acid and 50% (+)-mandelic acid (C) 75% (-)-mandelic acid and 25% (+)-mandelic acid



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(D) All of these 12. Oxidation is defined as: (A) Loss of electrons (B) Gain of electrons (C) Gain of protons (D) Loss of protons 13. Which of the following factors will favour the reverse reaction in a chemical equilibrium? (A) Increase in concentration of one of the reactants (B) Increase in concentration of one of the products (C) Removal of one of the products regularly (D) None of these 14. Mineral activator of enzyme aconitase is (BT) (A) Mn (B) Mg (C) Fe (D) Cu 15. Which specie cause Red tide? (A) Gonyaulax (B) Rhodophycae (C) Euglenoids (D) Cyanobacteria

PART B (16-50) 16. The equilibrium constant, K and change in free energy, G are indicated by the reaction (A) G = RT InK (B) G = RT log10 K

(C) G = –RT In K (D) G = R InKT

17. In most experimental model systems the amino acid. Show greatest tendency to form helices ? (A) Alanine (B) Serine (C) Threonine (D) Cysteine

18. The Z-DNA helix (A) Has fewer base pairs per turn than the B-DNA (B) Is favored by an alternating GC sequence (C) Tends to be found at the 3’-end of genes (D) Is inhibited by methylation of the bases

19. Choose the mismatch (A) D–glucose and D–fructose : anomer (B) D–glucose and D-mannose : epimer (C) – D–glucose and –D–glucose : anomer (D) D–glucose and L–glucose : enantiomer

20. An essential building block of phosphatidic acid and phosphatidycholine (A) Glycerol (B) lysine (C) Cholesterol (D) glucose

21. Lyases, a class of enzyme catalyses (A) Hydrolysis reaction (B) group transfer reaction (C) Oxidation and reduction reaction (D) addition of groups to double bond and vise verse

22. Ionophores are (A) The gating mechanisms associated with the transport of ions (B) Intrinsic proteins that passively transport ions



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(C) Chemicals that form pores in the plasma membrane and allow ions to cross (D) Intrinsic proteins that actively transport ions

23. The decline of MPF (M phase promoting factor or M Phase kinase) at the end of mitosis I caused by (A) The destruction of protein cyclin dependent kinase (B) Decrease synthesis of cyclin (C) The enzymatic destruction (D) Synthesis of DNA

24. The shine-Dalgrano sequence is responsible for (A) Binding of RNA polymerase to gene during transcription (B) Binding of DNA polymerase to origin of replication during DNA replication (C) Binding of riosomes to mRNA during initiation of translation (D) Binding of snurps during splicing

25. Which of the following is least likely to lead to autoimmunity? (A) Loss of suppressor T cells (B) Release of sequestered self antigen (C) Genetic predisposition (D) Increased clearance of immune complexes

26. A 12 year old boy develops a disorder also present in his father. No one else in the family is known to be affected. Which of the following modes of inheritance is least likely?

(A) Autosomal recessive (B) autosomal dominant (C) X - linked recessive (D) Y-linked

27. Lipid rafts are membrane micro domains that are enriched with ? (1) Phosphatidylcholine (2) Chloesterol (3) glycosphingolipids (4) Cardiolipin (A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 4 (C) 1, 4 (D) 2, 3

28. Which of the following disease is caused by spirochotes? (A) Syphilis (B) Relapsing fever (C) lyme disease (D) all the above

29. A differential medium is one in which (A) Fungi and viruses grow differently (B) Two different bacteria can be distinguished (C) A particular nutrient is used differently by two different bacteria (D) Two different temperatures are utilized in the incubation period.

30. High frequency recombination cells arise when (A) They have multiple F plasmids (B) F plasmid has been incorporated into the bacterial chromosome (C) Conjugation and transformation happen at the same time (D) Bacterial chromosomes do not break during conjugation

31. The difference between transfection and transductions (A) in transfection, the transgene is inserted in a plasmid, while in transduction, the transgen is

inserted in a viral genome (B) Tranfection involves the transfer of naked DNA into the cell while transduction involves packaging

the DNA into a virus particle, which then infects the cell



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(C) There is no difference - the terms are synonymous (D) None

32. Consider the following statements: Tissue culture is recommended for, 1. Multiplication of elite genotypes of useful trees. 2. Developing virus-free plants. 3. Production of secondary metabolites. 4. Induction of polyploidy. of these statements : (A) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (B) 1, 2, and 3 are correct (C) 1, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

33. Which of the following partial amino acid sequence from a protein whose gene you wish to clone would be most useful in designing an oligonucleotide probe to screen a cDNA library?

(A) Met – Leu – Arg – Leu (B) Met – Trp Cys – Trp (C) Met – Arg – Arg – Val (D) Met – Leu – Gly – Leu

34. The coefficient of correlation r satisfies (A) 0 < r < 1 (B) | r | > 1 (C) | r | 1 (D) – 1 < r < 0

35. In Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM), to form an image of the specimen (A) Electron should pass through the specimen (B) Electrons are scattered from the surface of the specimen (C) A thin film of heavy metal is evaporated (D) Specimens are stained

36. Sephadex has an exclusion limit of 80, 000 molecular weight for globular proteins. When this material was used to separate alcohol dehydrogenase (MW 150, 000) fromamylase (MW 200, 000) the result will be?

(A) Alcohol dehydrogenase elutes first (B) amylase elutes first (C) amylase will not elute (D) no separation.

37. An enzyme is discovered that catalyzes the chemical reaction. A B� � ��

Researchers find that the Kcat is 400 S–1 If [ Et] = 300 nm and concentration of substrate A = 400 m, the reaction velocity is 8.0 m s–1 calculate the Km for substrate A ?

(A) 10 m (B) 0.20 m (C) 20 m (D) 0.10 m

38. PROSITE is a database used for? (A) Nucleotide sequencing (B) Protein sequencing (C) 2-D electrophoresis (D) Sequence Tagged site

39. Match the following

(P) flippase (1) move any membrane phospholipids a cross the bilayer down its concentration gradient

(Q) Floppase (2) transport glycrophospholipid from the outer monolayer to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane.

(R) Scramblase (3) move plasma membrane phospholipids from cytosolic to the extracellular leaf P Q R



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(A) 2 3 1 (B) 1 2 3 (C) 3 2 1 (D) 1 3 2

40. Vincristin and Vinblastin, the chemical substances that can cure leukemia, are obtained from (A) Rauwolfia serpentina (B) Catharanthus roseus (C) Withania somnifera (D) Strychnos nux-vomica

41. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? P. 2,4-dinitrophenol – Uncoupling agent in oxidative phosphorylation Q. Oligomycin – Inhibitor of ATP formation in oxidative phosphorylation R. Valinomycin – Ionophore carries potassium through the mitochondrial menbrane S. Iodoacetate – Separates the phosphorylating F1-ATPase from the inner

mitochondrial menbrane Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes: (A) P,Q and S (B) P, R and S (C) Q, R and S (D) P, Q and R

42. Which of the following plant hormones is incorrectly paired with its function? (A) Auxins –– responsible for apical dominance (B) Abscisic acid –– regulates the rate of transpiration (C) Cytokinins –– delays senescence (aging and decay) (D) Gibberellins –– promotes bud and seed dormancy

43. I place a cell in a solution. Over a period of time, I notice that the cell shrinks, as if it is losing water. Which of the following seems likely ?

(A) The solution is a strong buffer (B) The solution is an acid (C) The solution has more dissolved solutes than the cell does (D) The solution has fewer dissolved solutes than the cell does

44. Which of the following plants show resistance to heavy metal? (A) Viola calaminaria (B) Thlaspi alpestre (C) Minuartia verna (D) all the above 45. Chemotropic movement of pollen tubes towards the micropylar end of the ovules in many cases has

been attributed to the presence of : ? (A) Mucilaginous substances on stigmatic papillae (B) Auxins gradient through stylar tissue (C) Gibberellin gradient through sitigmatic and stylar tissue upto embryo sac (D) Calcium gradient through stylar tissue upto embryo sac

46. Formation of cartillage bones involves deposition of bony material? (A) By osteoclast & reabsorption by osteoblast (B) By osteoblast and reabsorption by osteoclast



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(C) By osteoblast only (D) by osteoclast only

47. A coronary sulcus is found? (A) Upon surface of liver between right and left liver lobes (B) Upon heart surface between right and left auricles (C) Upon heart surface between ventricle and atrium (D) Upon heart surface between right and left ventricles.

48. Mechanism by which Antidiuretic hormone increases water reabosorption in kidneys is ? (A) By directly acting on luminal membrane (B) It acts on reticular structures in cytoplasm (C) It activates enzyme guanyl cyclase (D) It activates enzyme adenyl cyclase

49. In which of the following combination is name of hormone, its chemical type & its tissue of origin correctly matched?

(A) Aldosterone Peptide Pancreas (B) Glucagon peptide cortec Adrenal (C) ACTH peptide adrenal cortex (D) Vasopressin Peptide posterior pituitary.

50. The “Master Regulatory Gene” is located on which chromosomes in humans? (A) x chromosome (B) Y chromosome

(C) Both X, Y chromosome (D) Autosomes PART – C (51-75) 51. If a given gene in a randomly mating population has three alleles a, b, c in the ratio of 0.6, 0.3, 0.1

respectively, what is the expected frequency of genotypes ab and bc in the population at equilibrium? (A) 0.18 , 0.03 (B) 0.36, 0.01 (C) 0.36, 0.01 (D) 0.36, 0.06 52. Gene for an enzyme which catalysis synthesis of a secondary metabolite in an angiosperm was

transferred to a bacterial expression vector. But it was found that transgene was expressed but a functional enzyme was not synthesized which could be the best possible explanation?

(A) Plant enzyme was not stable in bacteria (B) Post translational modification did not occur (C) The promoter used were not appropriate (D) Both B and C

53. Amino acid residues present in silk fibroin, permitting a close packing of sheets and an interlocking arrangement of R groups ?

(A) Gly, Val (B) Leu, Arg (C) Ala, Gly (D) Gly, His

54. Choose the mismatch.



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(A) Rotenone –– inhibits the transfer of electron the NADH–CoQ reductare (B) Piericidin A –– Compete with Cyt (a.a3). (C) Antimycin A –– block electron transport at the level of complex III.

(D) Cyanide –– binds with cytochrome oxidase complex.

55. A radiolabelled Co2 will release in which of the following case (A) When acetyl Co-A entering Kreb cycle has radio labelled (B) Glycine entering glycine decarboxylase system has radiolabelled C (C) Glycine entering glycine decorboxylase system has radiolabelled C at the coo-group (D) When r’ (gamma) c of acetoacetate is radiolabelled during formation of ketone bodies 56. The given figure corresponds to a normal electrocardiogram. The ELCG of a patient with bundle

branch block of Purkinje system will have (A) Increased height of Twave (B) Increased width of QRS complex (C) Decreased “ “ “ “ (D) “Ventricular dipolarigation 57. Match the following products with the microbes which produce then on large scale and find the

correct combination Product Microbe (P) Lysine — Brevibacterium spp. (Q) Glutamic acid — Corynebacterium glutamicum (R) Gibbellic acid — Fusarium mohiliforme (S) Riboflavin — Eremothecium ashbyi (A) Q, R (B) P, Q (C) R, S (D) R, S 58.

The pattern of inheritance of the trait will be (A) Autosomal dominant (B) Recessive (C) Mitochondrial inheritance (D) X-linked recessive 59. In which of the following molecular markers, gel electrophoresis is not required (A) VNTR (B) RAPD (C) SNP (D) None 60. Which of the following period corresponds to temperature fall and a cold and dry climate on easth for

the first time? (A) Ordorician period (B) Silurian period (C) Carboniferous period (D) Devonian period 61. The only poisonous lizard, Heloderma belong to which order

(A) Lepospondyli (B) Squamata

(C) Rhyncoephalia (D) Ophiocephaliformes



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62. A population is exhibiting sigmoidal growth pattern. The rate of increase in number of organisoms is

represented by which of the following If N is the number of cells at any given time ‘t’ , r is the growth

rate content and k is the upper asymptate of the curve

(A) dN K NrNdt N

(B) dN K NrN

dt K

(C) dN N KrNdt K

(D) dN K NrN

dt K

63. Which of the following is false for photorespiration?

(A) It gives an idea about evolution of plants

(B) It cannot occur in very low O2 concentration

(C) It occurs in green cell of petunia

(D) Release of CO2 occurs from C1 of glycolate

64. Which of the following statements are true regarding (Agrobacterium)?

(1) All is genes are not transcribed during vegetative growth

(2) Some chromosomal genes contribute to virulence

(3) T DNA region contains a 25 bpconcersed region only in case of Ti plasmids.

(4) Octapine catabolism is controlled by noc loci

65. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Aminoglycoside antibodies –– inhibitors of protein synthesis in bacteria

(B) Penicillin –– inhibit the enzymes catalyzing the transpeptidation reaction

(C) Sulfonamides –– inhibit protein synthesis

(D) All are correctly matched.

66. Which of the following is not a chemotropic nitrogen fixing bacteria? (A) Chromatium venous

(B) Bacillus macerans

(C) Xanthobacter autotrophicus

(D) Enterobacter aerogenes

67. Given following information regarding kidney pressure in afferent arteriole = 60 mmHg Glomerular

capillary colloid asmotic Pressure = 32 mm Hg

Capsular hydrostatic pressure = 18 mm Hg

Net filteration pressure in this case will be

(A) 46 mm Hg (B) 10 mm Hg

(C) 28 mm Hg (D) 18 mm Hg



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68. In prokaryotes, each subunit 8 DNA polymerase III has different function which of the following gene

transcribes a subunit which interacts with the SSB in (E.coli)

(A) hol C (B) pol C

(C) dna X (D) mut D

69. Which of the following contributes to cell signaling in bacteria, plants and mammals?

(A) Phosphatidylinositol kinases (B) Trimesic G proteins

(C) 2 component His kinases (D) None

70. Lectins are used as probe to purify specific biomolecules of Jacalin is used in an experiment, which of

the following suggests the interaction occurring and the corresponding antibody which can be purified

(A) Protein – protein interaction, gG

(B) Protein – mannose interaction, gA

(C) Protein – glucose interaction, gG

(D) Protein – galactose interaction, gA

71. Choose the mismatch of the cell line and its origin

(A) Pt k1 – rat kangaroo – epithelial cell

(B) COS – monkey – kidney

(C) SP2 – mouse – plasma cell

(D) L6 - fibroblast – rat

72. An aliquot of a solution containing a light absorbing substance at a concentration of 5 gdm–3 was

placed in a 2 an light path cuvette. The cuvette was placed in a spectrophotometer and a beam of

light of wave length was pursed through the cuvette containing the solution. If the absorbance of the

solution is 0.0969 then calculate the molar extinction coefficient in (mol dm–3) am–1 . (molecular

weight of substance is 580).

(A) 9.7 × 10-3 (B) 5.62

(C) 1.6 × 10-5 (D) None

73. Which of the following is true for RecA Proteins?

(P) Ability to polymerize single strands

(Q) Ability to incorporate DNA into filaments

(R) The product of RecA sponsored reaction of a circular DNA molecule will be a chi (x) structure

(S) 51GCT GG TGG3’ sequence stimulates recombination in its vicinity



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(A) Q, R (B) R, S

(C) P, Q, R (D) P, Q, R, S

74. During electrophoresis, ethidium bromide is used as a stain to visualize DNA. Which of the following

is doesn’t occur when it binds to the DNA

(A) It unwinds the DNA

(B) t increases the normal rotation per bp in DNA

(C) it increases the helical pitch

(D) Its fluorescence increases after intercalation

75. Which of the following is not true about the embryogenesis of drosophila?

(A) A cell signaling molecule controls nuclear transport of the dossal protein

(B) Loss of Hox gene causes the appearance of a normal appendage at an inappropriate body

position

(C) Bicoid mRNA is located on the posterior pole and nanos mRNA is located on the anterior pole

during fertilization

(D) Nanos are RNA binding proteins

ANSWER KEY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Answer A B D B C B A A A C A A B C B

Question 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30Answer C A B A A D C C C B C D D B B

Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45Answer B B B C B D C B A B D D C D D

Question 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60Answer B C D D B A B C B C B C B C D

Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75Answer B D B B C A B A C D D B D B C



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HINTS & SOLUTIONS ARE PROVIDED from PAGE 12-20. For CSIR UGC NET 2011 VPM CLASSES is offering several courses. Details provided at the beginning of this Mock paper. More information can be found at: http://www.vpmclasses.com/csir-ugc-net.html

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

PART A (1-15)

1.(A) At 4’0 clock the minute hand is 20 minutes spaces apart from the hour hand. So it must gain 20 min

spaces. 55 min are gained in 60 min. Therefore 20 min are gained in 1192120

5560

minutes

Therefore hands are coincident at 11921 minutes past 4.

2.(B) The no. of bricks = Vol. of wallvol. of brick

=

325 243.20 .104

= 2500 200 1020 10

= 25000

3.(D) if Let y = c1 x + c2x+ is general solution of the differential equation



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2

22

d y dyx Kx – y 0dxdx

Then 21 2

cdy c –dx x

2

22 3

2cd ydx x

So on substituting these values

we get

2 2 2 21 13 2

2c kc x cx kxc – – c x – 0xx x

2 12 K 1c – – c x k – 1 0x x x

On comparing LHS by RHS

We conclude k 1

4.(B) We have terms of sequence in following manner

2 2 2 2 22 3 4 5 61 5 14 30 55 91

So missing terms is 55

5.(C) R1 = tan = R0 (1 + T1)s And R2 = cot= R0(1 + T2) cot – tan = R0(1 + T2) – R0(1 + T1) = R0 (T2 – T1)

or T2 – T1 = 0

1 (cot – tan )aR

= 0

1 cos sin 2 cos 2–aR sin cos R sin 2

= 2 cot 2R

6.(B) The no. of stones =

130 162

12 22

= 30 33 22 5 2

= 99

7.(A) Since Let x be the cost prise and p be the profit percent



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So according to question.

cp of 15 articles = sp of 12 articles

15×x = px12 x –100

5 p1–4 100

p 1–100 4

P = –25%

Loss % = 25%

8.(A) 1 1 1u f

or 2 2

dv du– – 0v u

or dv = 2

2

v–duu

….(1)

From 1 1 1 we havev u f '

1 1 1v 20 12 or v = 30

From equation (1)

dv = 1230 9 cm

20 4

= 2.25 cm.

Thus the amplitude with which the image oscillates is 2.25 cm.

9.(A) The probability of getting 4 = 16

Probability of getting 4 at least one = 1– ( probability of not getting 4)

= 5 51– .6 6

= 36 – 2536

= 1136

10.(C) distance between 2x – 2y + z + 3 = 0 and 4x – 4y + 2z + 5 = 0



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is =

5 – 32

4 4 1

=

129

= 16

11(A) Optical purity = observed specific rotationspecific rotation of the pure enantionmer

= o

o

79 0.50 50%158

50% of the mixture is excess (+) Mandelic acid and 50% is racemic mix here so 75% of mixture is (+) mandelic acid and 25% (-) Mandelic acid

12.(A) Oxidation is defined as loss of electrons

13.(B) Increase in concentration of one of the products will favaur the reverse reaction in a chemical equilibrium

14.(C) Mineral activator of enzyme aconitase is Fe

15.(B) Rhodophycae is the red algae which cause red tides. It is red in colour due to the presence of pigment phycoerythrin

PART B (16-50) 16.(C) The equilibrium constant k, and change in free energy are indicated by the reaction G = – RT lnk.

17.(A) Alanine shows the greatest tendency to form helices in most experimental model system. The bulk

and shape of ser, Thr, cys residues can destabilizes an helix if they are close together.

18.(B) The Z-DNA helix is favoured by an alternating GC sequence. Z-DNA can form in regions of

alternating purine - pyrimidine sequence; (GC)n sequences form Z-DNA most easily. (AT)n sequences

generally does not form Z-DNA since it easily forms cruciforms.



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19.(A) D-glucose and D-fructose are not anomers. Isomeric forms of monosaccharides that differ only in

their configuration about the hemiacetal or hemiketal carbon atom are called anomers.

20.(A) An essential buiding block of phosphatidic acid and phosphatidylcholine is glycerol. Phosphatidic acid

and phosphatidyl choline are phosphoglycerides that contain glycerol, fatty acid, phosphate, and an

alcohol.

21.(D) Lyases, a class of enzyme catalyzes addition of groups to double bonds or formation of double bonds

by removed of groups.

22.(C) Ionophores are chemicals that form pores in the plasma membrane and allow ion to cross. In other words, Ionophores are small hydrophobic molecules that dissolve in lipid bilayers and increase their permeability to specific inorganic ions.

23.(C) The decline of MPF at the end of mitosis I is caused by enzymatic distauction of mitotic cyclin. Anaphase - promoting complex (APC) directs ubiquitin mediated proteasomal degradation of mitotic cyclin (proteolytic degradation).

24.(C) Shine - Dalgarno sequence is responsible for binding of ribosome to mRNA during initiation of translation. It is a short polypurine sequence centered about 10bp upstream of the initiation codon. The shine-dalgarno sequence is complementary to a region at the 3’ end of the 16S rRNA, and it is thought that base-paring between the two is involved in the attachment of the small subunit of the mRNA.

25.(B) Release of sequestered self antigen is least likely which lead to auto-immunity.

26.(C) Because only boy and father develops the disorder then X-linked recessive inheritance is least likely.

27.(D) Lipid rafts are membrane micro domains that are enriched with cholesterol and glycosphingolipids.

28.(D) Syphilis (caused by Treponema pallidum), lyme disease (caused by Borelia burgdorferi) and relapsing fever are caused by spirochetes.

29.(B) A differential medium is one which allows the investigator to distinguinsh between different types of bacteria based on some observable trait in their pattern of growth on the medium. Thus, two different bacteria can be distinguished.

30.(B) High frequency recombination cells arise when F plasmid has been incorporated into the bacterial chromosome. Because donor strains with integrated F-factor can transfer chromosomal genes to recipients with high efficiency they are called Hfr (High frequency recombination) strains.

31.(B) Transfection involves the transfer of naked DNA into the cell while transduction, involves packaging the DNA into a virus particle, which then infects the cell.

32.(B) Tissue culture is recommended for - multiplication of elite genotype of useful trees, developing virus-free plants and production of secondary metabolites but not for induction of polyploidy.

34.(C) If we write E(x) = x and E(Y) = y, then

2

yx

x y

yXE 0



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22

x yyx

x y x y

E x yyxE E 0

1+1 2r (x, y) 0

– r(x,y) 1 or |r| 1 Hence, correlation coefficient cannot exceed unity Numerically. It always lies between – 1 and +1.

35.(B) In scanning electron microscope (SEM), to form an image of the specimen electrons are scattered from the surface of the specimen. In SEM the specimen is subjected to a narrow electrons beam which repidly moves over (scans) the surface of the specimen.

36.(D) No separation occurs because in size exclusion chromatography small molecules can enter the pores in the beads where as larger molecules can not. So, larger molecules move faster and elute first. But in this case, exclusion limit of sephadex is 80,000 molecular weight and molecular weight of both alcohol dehydrogenase and amylase is higher than sephadex. Thus, both are elute simultaneously without entering in the beads.

37.(C) Vo =

max

m

V SK S

As we know maxcat

t

VKE

cat t0

m

K E SV

K S

11

m

400 s 0.030 m 40 m8.0 ms

K 40 m

Km = 20 m.

38.(B) PROSITE is a database used for protein sequencing. 39.(A) Flippase – transport glycerophospholipid from outer monolayer to the cytoplasmic surface of the

plasma membrane. Floppase – move plasma membrane phospholipids from cytosolic to extracellular leaflet. Scramblase – move any phospholipid across the bilayer down its concentration gradient.

40.(B) Vincristin and Vinblastin, the chemical substances that can cure leukemia are obtained from catharanthus roseus.

41.(D) Corretly matched (P) 2, 4 dinitrophenol –– uncoupling agent in oxidative phosphorylation. (Q) Oligomycin –– Inhibitor of ATP formation in oxidative phosphorylation. It completely blocks ATP

synthesis by blocking the flow of protons through Fo of ATP synthase. (R) Valinomycin –– Ionophore carries potassium through the mitochondrid membrane. (S) Iodoacetate –– is not involved in separation of F1 - ATPase rather it is a potent inhibitor of

glyceraldehyde – 3 phosphate dehydrogenase (glycolytic enzyme).

42.(D) Gibberellin causes seed germination by promoting the synthesis of variety of hydrolytic enzymes that are involved in the solubilization of endosperm reserves. It breaks dormany of seeds and buds.

43.(C) If the cell shrinks that means the solution has more dissolved solutes than the cell does. If a cell kept in a solution of higher concentration water diffuse out of the cell. This is called exosmosis.



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44.(D) Viola calaminaria, Thlaspi alpestre and Minuartia verna-show resistance to heavy metal.

45.(D) Chemotropic movement of pollen tubes toward the micropylar end of the ovules in many cases has calcium gradient through stylar tissue upto embryo sac. A growing pollen tube shows a tip-focused gradient of free Ca+2 ions. Conditions which inhibit pollen tube growth block influx of Ca+2 , reducing the intracellular Ca+2 gradient at the tip.

46.(B) Formation of cartilage bones involves deposition of bony material by osteoblast and reabsorption by osteoclast.

47.(C) Coronary sulcus is found upon heart surface between vertricle and atrium. It is also known as atrioventricular sulcus.

48.(D) Antidiuretic hormone is a protein hormone which cannot diffuse through the lipid layer of plasma membran. Receptor proteins of these hormone is large transmembrane integral proteins of the plasma membrane of target cell. As the molecule of a receptor protein binds with the hormone, it gets stimulated. In turn it stimulates a molecule of enzyme adenyl cyclase.

49.(D) Vasopressin also known as anti-diuretic hormone is a peptide hormone which is secreted from posterior pituitary.

50.(A) The “master Regulatory gene “ is located on Y chromosome in humans, Sex determining region, Y (SRY) gene is the only gene on Y chromosome that is necessary to initiate testies development.

PART – C (51-75)

51.(A) allele frequency of a = 0.6, b = 0.3, c = 0.1 Equilibrium frequency of genotype ab = 0.6 × .3 = 0.18. bc = 0.3 × .1 = 0.03.

52.(B) Transegene was expressed but a functional enzyme was not synthesized which means post translational modification did not occur in the products encoded by transcend.

53.(C) Silk fibrion is rich in Ala and Gly residues, permitting a close packing of sheets and an interlocking arrangements of R groups.

54.(B) Piericidin A competes with Q (ubiquinone) and blocks the transfer of electrons at the NADH-CoQ reductase complex.

55.(C) A radiolabelled CO2 will release if glycine has radiolabelled C at the – COO¯ group enter into glycine decarboxylase system because during decarboxylation CO2 is released from carboxylic group of glycine.

56.(B) QRS wave occur immediately before the beginning of contraction of the ventricles. Impulse - conducting fibres which relay the contraction impulses from A-V node into the walls of ventricles are called purkinje fibres. Therefore in a patient with bundle branch block of purkinje system width of QRS wave will increase.

57.(C) Correct combination Glutamic acid –– Corynebacterium glutamicum. Riboflavin –– Eremothecium ashbyi.

58.(B) The pattern of inheritance of the trait will recessive because in autosomal recessive inheritance traits often skips generations and an equal number of affected males and females.



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59.(C) SNP are described as the third generation molecular marker. In RAPD, VNTR gel-based assay are necessary that are time consuming. Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) represent sites, where DNA sequences differs by a single base. Several non-gel based methods are available for SNP detection.

60.(D) Temperature fall and a cold and dry climate on earth for the first time corresponds to devonian period.

61.(B) Order squamata includes lizards and snakes. The only poisonous lizard. Heloderma belong to order squamata.

62.(D) A population is exhibiting sigmoidal growth pattern. The rate of increase in number of organisms is represented by

dN K NrNdt K

Where, N = no. of cells, at any time ‘t’ r = intrinsic rate of natural increase k = carrying capacity/ upper asymptate of the curve.

63.(B) The statement which is false for photorespiration is that it cannot occur in very low O2 concentration.

64.(B) No chromosomal gene contribute to virulance in Agrobacterium. The gene system necessary for T-DNA transfer encoded by the Ti plasmid.

65.(C) Sulfonamides competes with P- aminobenzoic acid for the active site. Result in decrease in folate

concentration. Decline of folic acid is detrimental to the bacterium because folic acid is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines.

66.(A) Chromatium venous is not a chemotropic nitrogen fixing bacteria.

67.(B) Net filtration pressure = GP – GCP – CP. Where GP = glomerular pressure or pressure in afferent arteriole = 60 mm Hg. GCP = Glomerular colloid osmotic pressure = 32 mm Hg CP = Capsular hydrostatic pressure = 18 mm Hg Net filtration pressure = 60 – 32 – 18 = 60 – 50 = 10 mm Hg.

68.(A) In prokaryotes, gene holC transcribe the X subunit of DNA polymerase III which interacts with SSB.

69.(C) Two-component His kinases are signaling component present in mammals, plants and bacteria.

70.(D) Lectins are glycoproteins, which bind specific carbohydrate such as galactose or fucose. Thus, if lectins are used as probe to purify specific biomolecules, then IgA is purified.

71.(D) L6 cells skeletal cells mouse.

72.(B) From Bear – Lambert law

A = cl

Where A = absorbance

= extinction coefficient

c = concentration of absorbing material in sample

l = path length (cm).



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0.969 = × 5 g dm–3 xg–1dm3 cm = 9.69 g–1 dm3 cm–1

molar extinction coefficient is obtained by multiplying the relative molecular mass.

Hence, s × 580 =

= 9.69 × 10–3 × 580 = 5.62 (mol dm–3)–1 cm–1

73.(D) RecA proteins have the ability to polymerize single strands, ability to incorporate DNA into filaments. The product of RecA sponsored reaction of a circular DNA molecule will be a chi structure. Sequence 5’ – GCTGGTGG – 3’ stimulate frequency of recombination about 5 to 10 fold.

74.(B) During electrophoresis, ethidium bromide unwinds the DNA and increase the normal rotation per bp in DNA but it does not increase the helical pitch. One molecule of ethidium bromide creates about 27° of unwinding affecting the hydrodynamic properties of circular DNA..

75.(C) Bicoid gene product is a major anterior morphogen and the nanos gene product is major posterior morphogen.

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