UPSC Tutorials Test 2

PAPER-I

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CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT

write anything else on the Test Booklet.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the

Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission

Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has

concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away

with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a

wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that

question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the

given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty

for that question.

Try to solve all questions on your own referring to study material if necessary.If you

require any assistance regarding any particular question then feel free to mail us at : [email protected]

4. This Test Booklet contains 60 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item

comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you

consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 120

Brush up basic concepts from study material before attempting this test paper. A Score of 80/120 should be considered as a good score. Answer Key will be provided along with next test paper.

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UPSC TUTORIALS TEST SERIES # 2 GENERAL STUDIES

1) In this system (s) capital is owned and invested by individuals and private-owned institutions to earn profit. The fruit of the economic activity naturally goes to the individuals who invest their capital individually or correctively. The most fundamental feature of system (s) is the right of the individuals to own tangible and intangible private property.Which system corresponds to "s"

a) Market Socialism

b) Centrally Planned Socialism

c) Market Capitalism

d) Centrally Planned Capitalism.

2) Which of the following are correct about mixed economy in India.

1. Producers and consumer have sovereignty to choose what to produce and what to consume but production and consumption of harmful goods and services may be stopped by the government.

2. Social cost of business activities may be reduced by carrying out cost-benefit analysis by the government.

3. Monopolies may be existing but under close supervision of the government.

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 1,2 and 3 .

3) Which of the following is/are true about "Perfect Competition "

1. There are large numbers of buyers and sellers, and each buys or sells only a tiny fraction of the total quantity in the market.

2. Sellers offer a standardized product.

3. Sellers cannot easily enter into or exit from the market.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 .


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4) Which of the following is useful in measuring economic inequality for a country.

a) De Rham curve

b) Sierpiński curve

c) Nielsen's spiral

d) Lorenz curve.

5) Which of the following are official languages of WTO.

1. English2. Chinese3. Arabic4. Spanish5. French6. Japanese

a) 1,2,4 and 5

b) 1,2,4 and 5

c) 1,4 and 5

d) 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 .

6) Which of the following is not correctly matched.

1. Aisha De Sequeira - Morgan Stanley2. Zarin Daruwala - ICICI Bank3. Kalpana Morparia - JPMorgan Chase & Co.4. Arundhati Bhattacharya - United Bank of India

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4.


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7) Which of them is/are correct regarding WPI and CPI.

1. Wholesale price index measures inflation at each stage of production ,whereas Consumer price index measures inflation only at final stage of production.

2. Wholesale price index is the middle point of the sum of all the goods bought by the traders, whereas Consumer price index is the middle point of the sum of all the goods bought by consumers.

3. Wholesale Price Index (WPI), is based on the price prevailing in the wholesale markets or theprice at which bulk transactions are made , whereas The Consumer Price Index (CPI), is based on the final prices of goods at the retail level.

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3.

8) During the 1930s, a British economist developed a new theory on the role of government in a market system. He recommended active government involvement in times of economic turmoil. The Classical view that government should adopt a laissez faire attitude toward the economy was no longer working in the case of the Great Depression. The government could no longer afford to let the economy repair itself. He developed the expenditures model, the multiplier, and the propensity to consume. His basic premise for governmental influence is that short-run instability is caused by a lack of spending. It is the government's responsibility to stimulate demand through spending.

Who was this Economist ?

a) Edward Milliband

b) David Ricardo

c) John Keynes

d) David Forbes Hendry.


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9) Which of them is/are correct regarding Government Spending.

1. When demand-pull inflation occurs, the government implements expansionary fiscal policy, which means decreasing taxes and or increasing government spending.

2. When the government increases its spending, it uses tax revenue to increase aggregate demand. If the government's budget is balanced at the outset of spending, an increase in spending creates a deficit.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 .

10) Which of them is/are incorrectly matched

1. M0 - Money in Circulation2. M1 - M0+ Demand Deposits3. M2 - Broad Money

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 .

11) Consider the following statements about Budget Deficit.

1. The Revenue Deficit as a percentage of the Fiscal Deficit has been extremely high in the recent past.

2. When the government's Fiscal Deficit is large, it implies that the government has to borrow heavily.

3. Large Fiscal deficit causes interest rates to go down.

Which of them is/are correct.

a) 2 and 3 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1 and 3 only.


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12) Arrange the sources of Tax Revenue in decending order

1. Excise tax2. Service Tax 3. Personal Income Tax4. Corporate Tax 5. Customs

a) 3,4,1,2 and 5

b) 2,5,1,3 and 4

c) 4,3,1,2 and 5

d) 4,3,1,5 and 2.

13) Which of the following are subsidiaries of RBI

1. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC)2. National Housing Bank (NHB)3. Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL)4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

a) 1,2 and 3 only

b) 2,3 and 4 only

c) 1,2 and 4 only

d) 1,2,3 and 4 .

14) Which of them is/are true about open market operations of RBI

1. Open Market Operations in the form of outright purchase/sale of Government securities are an important tool of the Reserve Bank's monetary management.

2. The Bank carries out such operations in the secondary market on the electronic Negotiated Dealing System – Order Matching (NDS-OM) platform by placing bids and/or taking the offers for securities.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2



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15) Consider the following statements about Reserve Bank of India.

1. RBI publishes an annual Report on Foreign Exchange Reserves.2. RBI publishes a half yearly Report on Macroeconomic and Monetary Developments.3. RBI pubishes a monthly Report on Monetary and Credit Information Review.

Which of them is/are correct

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None.

16) Consider the following statements regarding one rupee currency note:

1. The new one rupee note will bear Ashoka Pillar symbol in the window with words 'Satyamev Jayate.'2. The note will carry bilingual signature of Finance Secretary.3. One rupee currency notes will be printed by the Government of India.

Which of the above statements are true?

a) Only 1

b) Only 1 & 2

c) Only 2 & 3

d) 1,2 and 3 .

17) Which of the following statements are incorrect about unstarred question?

1. It is distinguished by an asterisk mark.

2. Answer to such a question is given orally.3. Answer to such a question is not followed by supplementary questions.4. It does not carry an asterisk mark.5. Answer to such a question is given in a written form.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1,3,4 and 5

d) 1,2,3 and 5.


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18) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern

Answer the following questions by using the codes given below.(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.(c) A is true but R is false.(d) A is false but R is true.

Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same.

Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto.

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d.

19) Assertion: In democracy, the ultimate responsibility of administration is to the people.Reason: The democratic government is based on the principle of popular sovereignty.

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d.

20) Assertion: Budget is a secret document and should not be leaked out before being presented tothe Parliament.

Reason: India has adopted the parliamentary form of government.

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d.

21) Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India.Reason: The expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament.

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d.


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22) Assertion: No expenditure can be incurred without the approval of the Parliament.

Reason: Our democratic government, like that of Britain, is based on the concept of sovereigntyof the parliament.

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d.

23) Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has less powers in financial matters.

Reason: The Lok Sabha alone votes the demands for grants.

a) a

b) b

c) c

d) d.

24) Which of the following statements about President's ordinance-making power is not correct?

a) It is co-extensive with legislative power of Parliament.

b) Laid down in Article 123.

c) Shall cease to operate on expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of the Parliament.

d) Cannot be withdrawn at any time by the President..

25) Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

a) Constituted at the expiration of every fifth year.

b) Recommends the distribution of proceeds of taxes between Centre and states.

c) Consists of a Chairman and four other members.

d) Its advice is binding on the Government..


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26) Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?

1. He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.2. His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.3. He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.4. He can be removed by the President on his own.5. He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.

a) 1,2 and 3 only

b) 1,2,4 and 5

c) 1,3 and 5

d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 .

27) Which of the following are correct about Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission?

1. He is appointed by the Prime Minister.2. He enjoys the status of a Cabinet-rank minister.3. He is a member of the Union cabinet.4. He attends all Cabinet meetings.5. He is the de facto executive head of the Commission.

a) 1,2,4 and 5

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2,4 and 5 only

d) 1,2,4 and 5.

28) The features of Government of India Act of 1858 includes:

1. Replacement of Company rule by the Crown rule.2. Establishment of a Board of Control over the Court of Directors.

3. Reaffirmation of the system of open competition.4. Separating the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General.5. Creation of a new office of the Secretary of State for India.

a) 1,2 and 5

b) 1,3 and 5

c) 2,4 and 5

d) 1,2,3,4 and 5.


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29) Which of the follwing statements are correct with regard to the prohibition as to the holding of offices by members of Public Service Commissions on ceasing to be such members?

1. The Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.

2. The Chairman of a SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other memberof the UPSC or as Chairmanof any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.

3. A member other than Chairman of the UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman ofthe UPSC or as Chairmanof a SPSC, but not for any other employment, either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.

4. A member other than Chairman of the SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman orany other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of that or any other SPSC, but not for any otheremployment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1,3 and 4

c) 2 and only

d) 1,2,3 and 4 .

30) In the event of declaration of constitutional emergency in the state, the President can:

1. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government including the High Court.2. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of theGovernor.3. Assume to himself all the functions of the state government except the High Court.4. Declare that the powers of the state legislature shall be exercisable under the authority of theparliament.Of the above, the correct statements are:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) only 3.


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31) The recommendations of Balwantray Mehta Committee includes:

1. Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs.2. Genuine transfer of power and responsibility to the Panchayati Raj institutions.3. Constitutional protection for Panchayati Raj.4. District Collector should be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad.5. Panchayat Samiti to be the executive body.

a) 2,4 and 5

b) 1,3,4 and 5

c) 3,4 and 5

d) 1,2,3 and 5.

32) The correct statements regarding the difference between the pardoning powers of President and Governor are:

1. The Governor can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the President cannot.2. The President can pardon death sentence while Governor cannot.3. The Governor can pardon death sentence while the President cannot.4. The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial while the Governor cannot.

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1 and 4 only

d) 2 and 3 only.

33) In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?

1. If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his

office.2. If he is adjudged an insolvent.3. If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.4. If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the government of a state.

a) only 2

b) only 2 and 3

c) only 1 and 3

d) 1,2 and 3.


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34) Which of the following writs is not specifically provided in the Constitution of India?

a) Prohibition

b) Mandamus

c) Quo Warranto

d) Injunction.

35) Consider the following statements about fragile five

1. Fragile Five is a term coined in August of 2013 by a research analyst at Morgan Stanley.

2. It identifies Turkey, Brazil, India, South Africa and Indonesia as economies that have becometoo dependent on skittish foreign investment to finance their growth ambitions.


a) Only 1

b) Both 1 and 2

c) Only 2


36) Consider the following statements

1. A defaulter who deliberately stonewalls legitimate efforts is a non-cooperative borrower.

2. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently modified the definition of a non-cooperative borrower and also fixed the cut off limit for classifying borrowers as non-cooperative would be those borrowers having aggregate fund-based and non-fund based facilities of Rs.2 crore from the concerned bank/financial institution (FI).


a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2



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37) Consider the following statements about Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd.(MUDRA)

1. It is a wholly owned subsidiary of NABARD.2. MUDRA would primarily be responsible for laying down policy guidelines for micro enterprise financing business and registration of MFI entities

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2


38) Consider the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana.

1. The objective of this Scheme is to encourage skill development for minorities by providing monetary rewards for successful completion of approved training programs.2. Reward candidates undergoing skill training by authorized institutions at an average monetary reward of Rs. 15,000 (Rupees Fifteen Thousand) per candidate.


a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2


39) Which of them is not a product of National Payments Corporation of India

a) IMPS

b) RuPay

c) NEFT

d) Cheque Truncation System ( CTS ).


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40) Consider the following statements about Price Stabilisation Fund Scheme

1. To provide financial relief to the growers when prices of perishable agri-horticultural commodities fall below a specified level.2. Only adhoc interventions during crisis and not long-term support to growers.


a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2


41) 1. Nai roshni is an Initiative of Ministry of Minority Affairs.

2. It is for Leadership Development of Minority Women

3. The scheme may be implemented by Registered Societies/ Public Trusts; Universities/Institutions recognized by University Grants Commission (UGC); and Training institutes of Central and State Government/UT Administration including Panchayati Raj Traininginstitutes etc.


a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 .


1. Priority sector refers to those sectors of the economy which may not get timely and adequate credit in the absence of this special dispensation.2. Priority Sector includes Agriculture & Micro and Small Enterprises only


a) only 1

b) only 2

c) both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2 .


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43) Consider the following statements regarding Infrastructure Debt Fund

1. IDFs are investment vehicles which can be sponsored by commercial banks only.

2. A trust based IDF would normally be a Mutual Fund (MF), regulated by RBI, while a companybased IDF would normally be a NBFC regulated by the SEBI.

3. Recently The Reserve Bank of India has widened the scope of financing of infrastructure debt funds by permitting them to invest in public private partnership (PPP) and infrastructure projects which have completed at least one year of satisfactory commercial operation.


a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 .

44) Which of them is not a native of India

a) Pseudois nayaur

b) Liocichla bugunorum

c) Gypaetus barbatus

d) Lynx pardinus.

45) Which of them is / are not correctly matched

1. Nameri - Assam2. Pench - Karnataka3. Tadoba Andhari - Sikkim4. Bandipur - Rajasthan

a) only 4

b) 1,2 and 4

c) 2,3 and 4

d) 3 and 4 only .


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46) Consider the following statements about Project Mausam

1. Project 'Mausam' is a Ministry of Culture project with Archaeological Society of India (ASI)

2. At the macro level it aims to re-connect and re-establish communications between countries of the Indian Ocean world, which would lead to an enhanced understanding of cultural values and concerns; while at the micro level the focus is on understanding national cultures in their regional maritime milieu.

a) 2 only

b) Both 1 and 2

c) 1 only

d) none.

47) Consider the following statements about Fracking Technology

1. Fracking is also called as hydrofracturing2. It is technique in which rock is fractured by a hydraulically pressurized gas.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) both 1 and 2 are incorrect .

48) Which of them is/ are incorrect

1. Ashwika Kapur of Kolkata won the prestigious Panda Award.

2. She is the second Indian woman to win the coveted wildlife photography award for her film ona Kakapo parrot.

3. The Kakapo parrot, a nocturnal and flightless species of the parrot, is classified as a critically endangered species since 2012 on the IUCN Red List.

4. The bird, found in Portugal , is known to be one of the longest-living birds.

a) 1 only

b) 1,2 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 only .


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49) Which of them is not a member of Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change

a) Minister for Agriculture

b) Minister for Urban Development

c) Minister for Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation

d) Minister for Culture .


1. Earth Hour is an India wide grassroots movement creating awareness for energy conservation , and is organised by Government of India.2. Thane has been declared as the National Earth Hour Capital 2015.

Which of them is/ are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None .

51) Which of them is not correctly Matched

a) Tsukhenyie- Chakhesangs

b) Nyaknylum - Konyaks

c) Sekrenyi- Angamis

d) Yemshe - Pochurys .

52) Which of them is not a theme of UNESCO

a) Education for the 21st Century

b) Fostering Freedom of Expression

c) Building Knowledge Societies

d) Elimination of discrimination in respect of employment and occupation. .

53) Which of them is Not included in Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity from India

a) Chhau dance

b) Buddhist chanting of Ladakh

c) Hornbill Festival of Nagaland

d) Thatheras of Jandiala Guru.


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54) Consider the following statements regarding Ramsar Convention.

1. Ramsar is the oldest of the modern global intergovernmental environmental agreements.2. The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.3. The Contracting Parties commit to work towards the wise use of all their wetlands; designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (the "Ramsar List") and ensure their effective management; and to cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems and shared species.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3 .

55) Consider the following statements about The Montreux Record

1. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.2. There are 26 Sites in India included in Montreux Record3. Keoladeo National Park is included in the montreux record Which of them is/are correct

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 only .

56) Consider the following regarding Geo textiles

1. Geo textiles specifically refers to permeable fabric or synthetic material, woven or non-woven, which can be used with geotechnical engineering material.2. The principal functions performed by Geotextiles are confinement /separation, reinforcement,filtration and drainage, and protection.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None.


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57) Consider the following statements regarding kerala land bond

1. It is a secure monetary instrument issued by the government with assured returns and backed by State guarantee.2. The ownership of land would remain with the landowner till it was actually surrendered, or alternative accommodation provided, or the bond value was provided to the owner.3. The bond cannot be used to overcome opposition from landowners for projects such as four-laning of national highways.


a) 1 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only .


1. India is a Party to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)2. Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD) is an effort which goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation, and includes the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) none .

59) Consider the following statements regarding Planning Commission

1. Planning Commission was set up on the 15th of March, 1950 through an act of Parliament.2. Planning Commission was replaced recently by NITI Aayog by an act of parliament passed on 1st January 2015.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) both 1 and 2

d) none .


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60) Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct.

1. The model code of conduct is a set of norms established by Election Commission of India.2. Under the code, governments cannot do anything which may have the effect of influencing voters in favour of the party in power, and political parties and candidates are forbidden from indulging in any corrupt practices.3. The code asks the candidates to refrain from distributing liquor to voters.4. On the polling day, the code asks all party candidates to cooperate with the poll-duty officials at the voting booths for an orderly voting process. Candidate should not display their election symbols near and around the poll booths on the polling day. No one should enter the booths without valid pass from the Election Commission.


a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1,3 and 5 only

c) 2,3,4 and 5 only

d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 .


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