Unit Number Unit Name Person Responsible1).pdfInstructors will assign the muscle physiology PhysioEx simulated lab on muscle tissue and/or show video of muscle contraction physiology

2/18/2015 Southern Union State CC Unit Planning

http://www.nwsccmoodledemo.com/unitplanning_su/printplans.php 1/7

Unit Number Unit Name Person Responsible017030 Biology (BIO) Dianne Harrelson

OutcomeNumber: 1

Year: 20142015OutcomeType: Student Learning Outcome

Outcome: Students will classify tissue histologically and functionally at a minimum 70% accuracy.InstitutionalGoal:

Goal 2 Assist students in overcoming deficiences and acquiring skills fundamental tofurther academic and career achievement.

InitialAssessment:

On the post test administered to all students in Anatomy and Physiology I, studentsidentified components of connective tissue and the main function and location of elasticcartilage (a type of connective tissue)at less than 60% accuracy.

ScheduledCompletionDate:

20142015

BudgetAmount: N/A

Action Plan:Instructors will have students color code diagrams identifying the location of the threetypes of cartilage (a connective tissue). Students will also identify the three majorcomponents of connective tissue on a diagram.

OutcomeMeasure: Multiple choice exam.

OVERALL RESULTSResults:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:DISTANCE EDUCATION RESULTS(if applicable to outcome)Results:



Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:Supporting File AttachmentBIO 1415 BIO 202 Assessment PrePost Test 20132014.zip

OutcomeNumber: 2


Outcome: Students will identify the characteristics of muscle tissue at 70% accuracy.

InstitutionalGoal:

Goal 1 Provide students comprehensive and accessible instructional opportunitiesthrough community based education, dual enrollment, academic transfer, technicaleducation, health science, and work force development programs.

InitialAssessment:

Students identified major characteristics of muscle tissue on the 20132014 post test atonly 50% accuracy.


20142015

BudgetAmount: NA

Action Plan:

Instructors will assign the muscle physiology PhysioEx simulated lab on muscle tissueand/or show video of muscle contraction physiology. Unlabeled diagrams of musclecomponents (sarcomere with actin, myosin, z lines, etc.) may also be utilized forreinforcement.

OutcomeMeasure: Multiple Choice Exam.

OVERALL RESULTSResults:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:DISTANCE EDUCATION RESULTS(if applicable to outcome)Results:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:

http://www.nwsccmoodledemo.com/unitplanning_su/download.php?id=394



Supporting File AttachmentBIO 1415 BIO 202 Assessment PrePost Test 20132014.zip

OutcomeNumber: 3


Outcome: Students will use a microscope to identify specimens on a slide at 85% accuracy.

InstitutionalGoal:


InitialAssessment:

Students are required to identify various microscopic specimens in their biology courses.As assessed through lab tests and instructor observation, the accuracy of this task wasonly 72%(see attached assessment data with each courses student learning outcomes).


summer 2015

BudgetAmount: $6,000

Action Plan:Replacement of microscope slides for biology courses. Each instructor will use the digitalmicroscope camera to show differentiating characteristics of each specimen, or showmicrographs (imported from internet sites) differentiating these characteristics.

OutcomeMeasure: Multiple choice lab test and faculty observation

OVERALL RESULTSResults:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:DISTANCE EDUCATION RESULTS(if applicable to outcome)Results:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:Supporting File AttachmentBIO 1415 BIO 103 Assessment..PrePost Test.zip





OutcomeNumber:

4


Outcome: Students will identify the most important risk factors for developing skin cancer at a 90%accuracy level.

InstitutionalGoal:


InitialAssessment:

Students identified important risk factors for skin cancer at 76 accuracy as measured bya departmental exam.


Summer 2015

BudgetAmount: NA

Action Plan:Instructors may include shocking visual examples of consequences experieced by skincancer victims as they teach the risk factors. Video clips related to SPF ratings ofsunscreen products and other skin cancer preventative measures may also be beneficial.

OutcomeMeasure: Outcome will be measured by a results on departmental exam.

OVERALL RESULTSResults:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:DISTANCE EDUCATION RESULTS(if applicable to outcome)Results:Use ofResults:ProgramImprovement:NoSupportingFile

OutcomeNumber: 5

Year: 20142015Outcome Program Operational Outcome



Type:

Outcome:Provide technological equipment in the form of seven lap top computers at the Valleycampus to enable increased student understanding of the physiology of the human bodysystems.

InstitutionalGoal:


InitialAssessment:

Students need additional practice to understand the physiology of selected bodysystems. For instance, only 26% of students correctly described the mechanism ofcarbon dioxide transport in the circulatory system, and only 57% of students correctlydescribed the function of angiotensin II in relation to the renal system.


20142015

BudgetAmount: $7,000

Action Plan: Purchase seven laptop computers for Valley campus biology lab. Instructors will assignPhysioEx simulated lab exercises to be completed using the laptop computers.

OutcomeMeasure: Purchase and installation of lap tops in the biology lab.


OutcomeNumber: 6


Seventyfive percent of the students will demonstrate an understanding of the principles



Outcome: and practices of scientific nomenclature and classification.

InstitutionalGoal:


InitialAssessment:

Sixtyseven percent of students responded correctly to assessment items regarding theprinciples and practices of nomenclature and classification.to


Summer 2015

BudgetAmount: No

Action Plan:Students will be provided opportunities to: 1) view examples of biologic specimen withcorrectly labeled classification taxa and 2) classify specimen using a taxonomic(dichotomous) key.

OutcomeMeasure: Departmental multiple choice exam


OutcomeNumber: 7


Outcome: 100% of students will be able to identify the diversity and behavior of indigenous fishspecies of Alabama at 70% accuracy.

InstitutionalGoal 1 Provide students comprehensive and accessible instructional opportunitiesthrough community based education, dual enrollment, academic transfer, technical



Goal: education, health science, and work force development programs.

InitialAssessment:

Fifty percent of students were able to identify the diversity and behavior of indigenous fishof Alabama at 70% accuracy as evaluated using selected questions from lab activities.


Summer 2015

BudgetAmount: $700

Action Plan:

The Faculty will purchase and set up a freshwater aquarium set with indigenous fishspecies. The faculty will develop a lab activity focused on the diversity and behavior ofAlabama fish species. The faculty will assign students to use of the Encyclopedia ofAlabama and Alabama Department of Natural Resources websites for an onlinereference.

OutcomeMeasure: Short answer and Multiple choice questions from Lab activities


Save to PDF

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BIO 201 Pre/Post Test Assessment

BIO 201

STUDENT LEARNING OUTCOMES: Pre/Post Test Questions The student will demonstrate an understanding of select systems of the human body by:

1. Classifying tissue histologically and functionally. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

2. Distinguishing between layers of the integumentary system. 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12

3. Identifying the bones, markings, structure of bone, and joint types associated with 15, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25 the skeletal system.

4. Identifying the functions and the homeostasis of the skeletal system 13, 14, 16, 17, 18

5. Explaining the structure and functions of the muscular system. 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33

6. Comprehending the structure of the nervous system by identifying 34, 35, 36, 40, 42, 44 major parts of the human brain, neuron, and specialized receptors.

7. Relating the functions of the nervous system. 1, 37, 38, 39, 41, 43,

8. Relating the functions of the special senses to the identification of sensations. 45, 46, 17, 18, 49, 50

Each spring and fall semester, a pre-test is administered to all BIO 201 students present on the first day of class and an identical

post-test is administered to those same students present on the last day of class. This is done as a means to assess student understanding

and comprehension of biological concepts. Following the pre/post-test assessment below, there is a plan (p. 18) to address those areas

where less than 50% of students scored accurately on a concept. Faculty will discuss the results and areas of weakness and will develop

additional or alternative teaching strategies.

Question Fall 2013 (% correct)

Spring 2014 (%correct)

Summer 2014 (%correct)

Fall 2014 (%correct)

Spring 2015 (%correct)

Pre Post Diff. Pre Post Diff Pre Post Diff Pre Post Diff Pre Post Diff

Biology 201 Assessment Pre/Post Test

Question 2013 -2014 (% correct)

2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


1. Which one of the following systems responds fastest to environmental stimuli? A) immune B) lymphatic C) nervous D) muscular

53 66 +3

2. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium ciliated variety ________. A) is not an epithelial classification . B) possesses no goblet cells C) aids in digestion D) lines most of the respiratory tract

53 71 +18

3. Which of the following is a single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes? A) simple cuboidal B) pseudostratified columnar C) simple squamous D) simple columnar

50 65 +15

4. The shape of the external ear is maintained by __________. A) hyaline cartilage B) adipose tissue C) elastic cartilage D) fibrocartilage

29 43 +14



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


5. What are the three main components of connective tissue? A) collagen, elastin, and reticular B) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts C) fibers ground substance, fibers, and cells D) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells

9 12 +3

6. Which is true concerning muscle tissue? A) highly cellular and well vascularized B) contains contractile units made of collagen C) is a single-celled tissue D) cuboidal shape enhances function

41 45 +4

7. A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum B) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum C) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

24 60 +36

8. Acne is a disorder associated with ________. A) sebaceous glands B) ceruminous glands C) Meibomian glands D) sweat glands

47 62 +15



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


9. The single most important risk factor for skin cancer is_______. A) use of farm chemicals. B) race. C) overexposure to UV radiation. D) genetics.

82 76 - 6

10. The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? A) stratum corneum B) stratum lucidum C) stratum basale D) stratum granulosum

26 34 +8

11. The dermis has two major layers. Which layer constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? A) the papillary layer B) the subcutaneous layer C) the reticular layer D) the hypodermal layer

14 21 +7

12. The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called: A) ceruminous glands. B) hair follicles. C) dermal papillae. D) reticular papillae.

38 49 +11



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


13. The cell responsible for secreting the matrix of bone is the ________. A) osteocyte B) osteoblast C) chondrocyte D) osteoclast

29 26 - 3

14. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A) production of blood cells (hematopoiesis) B) storage of minerals C) support D) communication

58 57 - 1

15. What is the structural unit of compact bone? A) the osteon B) lamellar bone C) osseous matrix D) spongy bone

27 50 +23

16. Which hormone increases osteoclast activity to release more calcium ions into the bloodstream? A) parathyroid hormone B) estrogen C) thyroxine D) calcitonin

16 28 +12



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


17. In the epiphyseal plate, cartilage grows ________. A) by pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis by B) pulling the diaphysis toward the epiphysis C) from the edges inward D) in a circular fashion

37 43 +6

18. Osteogenesis is the process of ________. A) bone formation B) making collagen fibers for calcified cartilage C) bone destruction to liberate calcium D) making a cartilage model of the fetal bone

62 68 +4

19. Which of the following is a bone marking name that indictes an arm-like bar of bone? A) ramus B) meatus C) fossa D) foramen E) epicondyle

19 31 +12

20. A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket joint is called a ______ joint. A) gomphosis B) suture. C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis

14 48 +34



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


21. Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ______. A) diarthroses B) synarthroses C) synovial joints D) amphiarthroses

22 42 +20

22. Synarthrotic joints ______.

A) are found only in adults B) have large joint cavities C) permit essentially no movement D) are cartilaginous joints

33 42 +9

23. The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ______.

A) hands B) feet C) hands and feet D) arms

21 40 +19

24. The hip joint is a good example of a(n) _______ joint. A) multiaxial B) nonaxial C) biaxial D) uniaxial

48 67 +19

25. Pointing the toes is an example of

A) circumduction B) Plantar flexion C) protraction D) pronation

63 58 - 5



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


26. What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell? A) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum C) the arrangement of myofilaments D) the T tubules

44 48 +4

27. The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________. A) regulate intracellular calcium concentration B) make and store phosphocreatine C) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments D) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process

13 34 +21

28. During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? A) thick filaments B) myosin filaments C) actin filaments D) Z discs

56 58 +2

29. Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell? A) perimysium B) fascicle C) epimysium D) endomysium

22 25 +3



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


30. The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________. A) mitochondria B) T tubules C) myofibrils D) microtubules

38 52 +14

31. Which of the following statements is true? A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei. B) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels. C) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules. D) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.

18 33 +15

32. The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping B) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other C) rhe shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments

38 38 0

33. Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position? A) all of the hamstrings B) the quadriceps femoris C) the gastrocnemius D) the sartorius

9 32 +23



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


34. Bipolar neurons are commonly ________. A) called neuroglial cells B) motor neurons C) found in ganglia D) found in the retina of the eye

17 13 - 4

35. The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________. A) neurolemma B) dendrite C) axon D) Schwann cell

41 41 +0

36. The term central nervous system refers to the ________. A) brain and spinal cord B) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves C) peripheral nerves and spinal nerves D) spinal cord and spinal nerves

44 72 +28

37. The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________. A) biogenic amine B) neurotransmitter C) cholinesterase D) ion

66 61 - 5

38. Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open? A) calcium B) chloride C) sodium D) potassium

36 36 +0



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


39. Which of the following neurotransmitters inhibits pain and is mimicked by morphine, heroine, and methadone? A) serotonin B) nitric oxide C) acetylcholine D) endorphin

49 42 - 7

40. The brain stem consists of the ________. A) midbrain only B) midbrain, medulla, and pons C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain D) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla

24

35

+9

41. Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement? A) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible. B) Damage to the visual association area can result in blindness. C) Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and refexes. D) Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.

35 23 - 12



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


42. The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________. A) crossed-extensor reflex B) extensor thrust reflex C) stretch reflex D) stress reflex

9 5 - 4

43. Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________. A) cerebrum B) somatic nervous system C) parasympathetic nervous system D) sympathetic nervous system

47 53 +6

44. Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________. A) cerebellum B) hypothalamus C) medulla D) thalamus

48 67 +19

45. Receptors for hearing are located in the ________. A) vestibule B) cochlea C) semicircular canals D) tympanic membrane

48 43 - 5



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


46. What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye? A) cornea B) iris C) lens D) aqueous humor

43 38 - 5

47. What is the main function of the rods in the eye? A) accommodation for near vision B) vision in dim light C) depth perception D) color vision

21 23 +2

48. Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life? A) retinal bipolar cells B) retinal ganglion cells C) olfactory receptor cells D) auditory outer and inner hair cells

35 28 - 7

49. Bitter taste is elicited by ___. A) acids B) hydrogen ions C) metal ions

D) alkaloids

32 37 +5

50. Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?

A) external acoustic meatus B) tympanic membrane C) pinna D) pharyngotympanic tube

31 33 +4



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


Course Average 18 22 +4

2013-2014 On the following questions, less than 50% of students scored correctly: 4, 5, 6, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 16, 17, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 26, 27, 29, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50. Plan of action For questions instructors will be made aware of these weaknesses (this report) and will make sure to cover thoroughly in lecture and in the appropriate labs. Question 18: I think by drawing students attention to the word “water” by underlining in the test question will increase the accuracy. Question 19: make sure that instructors use the words, hypotonic and hyposmotic, interchangeably. Furthermore, instructors can make sure to review/discuss the portion of lab 4 that covers this (potato in distilled water and salt water). Question 32: make sure completely covered in lecture and in lab 8. Underline the word “cytoplasm” to draw their attention and increase accuracy. **Because of student apathy toward the post test, all instructors will now include the post test score as part of the student’s final course grade.



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


BIO 202 Pre/Post Test Assessment

BIO 202

STUDENT LEARNING OUTCOMES: Pre/Post Test Questions The student will develop an understanding of:

1. The major components of the blood and their functions, hemostasis, the 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,

organization and function of the Cardiovascular system, including the control 12,13,14,15

of blood pressure. Fetal and hepatic portal circulation.

2. The function and components of the lymphatic system 16,17

3. The anatomical structures and physiological function of the Respiratory 18,19,20,21,22,23,24

System, which include the gas laws, regulation and measuring of pulmonary ventilation

4. The anatomical structures and physiological function of the Digestive 25,26,27,28,29,30,31,32,33,

System, which include the chemical and mechanical process of the digestion of 34,35,36

organic food nutrients, vitamins and absorption.

5 The anatomical structures of the Urinary System, including urine formation 37,38,39,40

and role of hormones in urine formation.

6. The major fluid compartments in the body, water, electrolyte and acid-base 41,42,43,44

balance in the body. The chemical buffer systems in blood.

7. The anatomical structure and physiological function of the Reproductive 45.46.47.48.49.50

System, which include hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.

8. The Endocrine System and its function. 26,48,49



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


1. What is the average normal pH

range of blood? a)7.75-7.85 b) 8.35-

8.45 c) 4.65 – 4.75 d) 7.35-7.45

55

92

+37

2. Platelets ______________ a)

have multiple nuclei b) have a life

span of about 120 days c) stick to

the damaged area of a blood vessel

and help seal the break d) are the

precursors of leukocytes.

70

86

+16

3. The plasma protein that is the

major contributor to osmotic pressure

is a) gamma globulin b) fibrinogen

c)albumin d) alpha globulins

34

65

+31

4. Which of the following is NOT a

functional characteristic of WBC’s?

a) positive chemotaxis b) ameboid

motion c) diapedesis d) granulosis

21

16

-5

5. Normal heart sounds are caused

by which of the following events? a)

excitation of the SA node b) opening

and closing of the heart valves c)

friction of blood against the chamber

walls d) closure of the heart valves.

7

14

+7



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


6. The left ventricular wall of the

heart is thicker than the right wall in

order to a) expand the thoracic

cage during diastole b) pump blood

with greater pressure c)

accommodate a greater volume of

blood d) pump blood through a

smaller valve.

60

73

+13

7. The P wave of a normal

electrocardiogram indicates a) atrial

repolarization b) atrial

depolarization c) ventricular

depolarization d) ventricular

repolarization

23

37

+14

8. Damage to the________ is

referred to as heart block a) AV

valves b) AV bundle c) AV node d)

SA node

19

32

+13

9. Blood within the pulmonary veins

returns to the _________. a) right

atrium b)left ventricle c) right

ventricle d) left atrium

23

49

+26

10. Which of the following factors

does NOT influence heart rate? a)

skin color b) age c) body

temperature d) gender

95

94

-1



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


11. Permitting the exchange of

nutrients and gases between the

blood and tissue cells is the primary

function of _________________. a)

capillaries b) arteries c)veins d)

arterioles.

51

86

+35

12. Which of the following is the

most significant source of blood flow

resistance? a) blood vessel diameter

b) total blood vessel length c) blood

viscosity d) blood vessels type

39

55

+16

13. The term ductus venosus refers

to _______________. a) a special

fetal vessel that allows umbilical

blood to bypass the liver b) a

condition of the aged in which the

arteries lose elasticity c) a fetal

shunt that bypasses the lungs d)

damage to the valves in the veins,

leading to varicose veins

23

41

+18

14. Which of the following blood

pressure readings would be

indicative of hypertension? a)

170/96 in a 50 year old man b )

120/80 in a 30 year old man c)

110/60 in a 20 year old woman d)

140/90 in a 70 year old woman

73

79

+6

15. Which of the following statements

regarding the hepatic portal system is

false? a) Its major vessels are the

superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric

23

19

-4



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


and splenic veins. b) It consist of a vein

connecting two capillary beds together.

c) It carries nutrients, toxins and

microorganisms to the liver for

processing. d) It branches off of the

inferior vena cava


function of the lymphatic system? a)

draining excess interstitial fluid b)

transporting respiratory gases c)

transporting dietary fats d) carrying

out immune responses

41

59

+18

17. Which of the following would

NOT be classified as a lymphatic

structure? a) pancreas b)Peyer’s

patches of the intestine c) tonsils d)

spleen

9

25

+16

18. The main site of gas exchange is

the_____________. a) respiratory

bronchiole b) alveoli c) alveolar

sacs d) alveolar duct

27

49

+22

19. Complete the following

statement using the choices below.

Air moves out of the lungs when the

pressure inside the lungs is _______.

a) greater than the intra-alveolar

pressure b) greater than the pressure

in the atmosphere c) equal to the

pressure in the atmosphere d)less

than the pressure in the atmosphere

50

72

+22



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


20. Surfactant helps to prevent the

alveoli from collapsing by _______.

a) interfering with the cohesiveness

of water molecules, thereby

reducing the surface tension of

alveolar fluid b) warming the air

before it enters c) humidifying the

air before it enters d) protecting the

surface of alveoli from dehydration

and other environmental variations

27

55

+28

21. Tidal volume is air __________.

a) forcibly expelled after normal

expiration b) inhaled after normal

inspiration c) remaining in the lungs

after forced expiration d) exchanged

during normal breathing

15

41

+26

22. Respiratory control centers are

located in the ________. a) pons and

midbrain b) midbrain and medulla

c)upper spinal cord and medulla d)

medulla and pons

34

66

+32

23. Which of the following

incorrectly describes mechanisms of

carbon dioxide transport? a) 20% of

carbon dioxide is carried in the form

of carbaminohemoglobin b) as

bicarbonate ion in plasma c) 7-10%

of carbon dioxide is dissolved

directly into the plasma d) attached

to the heme part of hemoglobin

31

26

-5



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


24. Most inspired particles such as

dust fail to reach the lungs because

of the ________. a) ciliated mucous

lining in the nose b) action of the

epiglottis c) porous structure of

turbinate bones d) abundant blood

supply to nasal mucosa

86

95

+9

25. When we ingest large molecules

such as lipids, carbohydrates, and

proteins, they must undergo catabolic

reactions whereby enzymes split

these molecules. This series of

reactions is called_________.

a)absorption b)mechanical digestion

c) chemical digestion d) secretion

64

91

+27

26. Which hormone causes an

increased output of enzyme rich

pancreatic juice and stimulates

gallbladder contraction to release

bile? a) secretin b) gastric inhibitor

peptide c) gastrin d)

cholecystokinin

15

22

+7

27. The absorptive effectiveness of

the small intestine is enhanced by

increasing the surface area of the

mucosal lining. Which of the

following accomplish this task? a)

Brunner’s glands and Peyer’s

patches b) the vast array of digestive

enzymes c) the rugae and haustra

d) plicae circulares, villi and

microvilli

41

51

+10



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


28. Which of the following is true

concerning the number and type of

permanent teeth? a) the number of

permanent teeth is always equal to

the number of primary teeth b) there

are 27 permanent teeth, and the first

molars are usually the last to emerge

c) there are 32 permanent teeth, and

the wisdom teeth are the last to

emerge d) the number of upper

permanent teeth is not equal to the

number of lower permanent teeth

86

96

+10

29. In addition to storage and

mechanical breakdown of food, the

stomach ______. a) is the first site

where chemical digestion of starch

takes place b) initiates protein

digestion and denatures proteins c)

is the only place where fats are

completely digested d) is the first

site where absorption takes place

27

45

+18

30. You have just eaten a meal high

in complex carbohydrates. Which of

the following enzymes will help to

digest the meal? a) gastrin b)

amylase c) trypsin d)

cholecystokinin

53

74

+21

31. Which vitamin requires intrinsic

factor in order to be absorbed? a) A

b) K c) C d)B12

34

52

+18



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32. Digestion of which of the

following would be affected the most

if the liver were severely damaged?

a) carbohydrates b) lipids c)

proteins d) starches

43

54

+11

33. Which of the following is an

essential role played by large

intestine bacteria? a) absorb

bilirubin c) produce gas c)

synthesize vitamins C and D d)

synthesize vitamin K and B-complex

vitamins

27

48

+21

34. What stomach secretion is

necessary for normal hemoglobin

production in RBC’s? a)gastric

lipase b) intrinsic factor c)HCl

d)pepsinogen

20

29

+9

35. Which of the choices below

describes the pathway of cellular

respiration (the complete oxidation

of glucose)? a) gluconeogenesis,

Krebs, lipolysis b) glycogenesis,

lipogenesis, electron transport chain

c) glycolysis, Krebs, electron

transport chain, oxidative

phosphorylation d) lipolysis,

glycogenesis, beta oxidation

71

68

-3

36. Which of the following is not an

important function of the liver? a)

carbohydrate and lipid metabolism

27

31

+4



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b) synthesis of vitamin K c)

synthesis of bile salts d) protein

metabolism

37. The renal corpuscle is made up

of________. a) the renal papilla b)

the descending nephron loop c)

Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus

d) the renal pyramid

31

80

+49

38. The functional and structural unit

of the kidneys is the ________. a)

nephron loop b) capsular space c)

glomerular capsule d) nephron

41

80

+39

39. The function of angiotensin II is

to_________. a) constrict arterioles

and increase blood pressure b)

decrease water absorption c)

decrease arterial blood pressure d)

decrease the production of

aldosterone

25

57

+32

40. The chief force pushing water

and solutes out of the blood across

the filtration membrane is

_________. a) the size of the pores

in the basement membrane of the

capillaries b) the ionic

electrochemical gradient c) protein-

regulated diffusion d) glomerular

hydrostatic pressure

28

86

+58



2014-2015 (%correct)

2015-2016 (%correct)

2016-2017 (%correct)

2017-2018 (%correct)


41. The body’s water volume is

closely tied to the level of which of

the following ions? a) calcium ions

b) sodium ions c) potassium ions d)

hydrogen ions

42

69

+27

42. Respiratory acidosis can occur

when_____________. a) a runner

has completed a very long marathon

b) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions

c) a person’s breathing is shallow

due to obstruction d) a person

consumes excessive amounts of

antacids

37

60

+23

43. Which of the following describes

the distribution of sodium and

potassium between cells and body

fluids? a) little of either in the cells,

but large amounts of each in the

body fluids b) potassium mainly in

the cells, sodium in the body fluids

c) equal amounts of each ion in the

cells and body fluids d) sodium

mainly in the cells, potassium in the

body fluids

63

69

+6


chemical buffer system? a)

bicarbonate b) nucleic acid c)

phosphate d) protein

21

35

+14



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45. Which of the following glands

are responsible for 70% of the

synthesis of semen? a) the

bulbouretheral glands b) the

pituitary gland c) the prostate gland

d) the seminal vesicles

25

45

+20

46. The primary function of the

uterus is to _______________. a)

regulate the ovarian and menstrual

cycles b) receive, retain, and nourish

a fertilized ovum c) protect the

ovaries d) synthesize female

hormones

53

81

+28

47. Fertilization generally occurs in

the___________. a) uterus b)

ovary c) fallopian tubes d) vagina

43

73

+30

48. Which of the choices below is

NOT a function of testosterone? a)

contributes to male sexual behavior

and spermatogenesis b) stimulates

the male pattern of development c)

stimulates protein synthesis d)

stimulates mammary gland

development

56

66

+10

49. Select the correct statement

about the uterine cycle. a) If

fertilization occurs, the corpus

luteum is maintained by a hormone

secreted by the developing embryo.

b) The menstrual phase of the cycle

23

41

+18



2014-2015 (%correct)

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2013-2014 On the following questions, less than 50% of students scored correctly: 6, 14, 18, 19, 21,

is normal from day 1-8. c) During

the proliferative phase, levels of

progesterone rise as the follicle

begins to produce more hormone. d)

During the secretory phase, estrogen

levels are at their highest.

50. The basic difference between

spermatogenesis and oogenesis is

that _______________. a) in

oogenesis, one mature ovum is

produced, and in spermatogenesis

four mature sperm are produced from

the parental cell b) the mature ovum

is n, while the sperm is 2n c)

spermatogenesis involves mitosis

and meiosis, but oogenesis involves

meiosis only d) during

spermatogenesis two more polar

bodies are produced

37

55

+18

Course Average

39 58 +19



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32, 33, 45, 46, 49. Plan of action On questions 6, 14, 21, 33, 45, 46, 49 instructors will be made aware of these weaknesses (this report) and will make sure to cover thoroughly in lecture and in the appropriate labs. Questi



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on 18: I think drawing students attention to the word “water” by underlining in the test question will increase the accuracy. Question 19: make sure that instructors use the words hypotonic and hypoosmotic



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interchangeably. Furthermore, instructors can make sure to review/discuss the portion of lab 4 that covers this (potato in distilled water and salt water). Question 32: make sure completely covered in lecture



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and in lab 8. Underline the word “cytoplasm” to draw their attention and increase accuracy. **Because of student apathy toward the post test, all instructors will now include the post test score



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as part of the student’s final course grade.

Documents

Unit Number Unit Name Person Responsible1).pdfInstructors will assign the muscle physiology PhysioEx simulated lab on muscle tissue and/or show video of muscle contraction physiology