TYBMS SEMESTER V TWO - S.M. Shetty Collegesmshettycollege.edu.in/upload/sample-questions... · Each question carries TWO marks each RISK MANAGEMENT 1) Risk identification is_____

BUNTS SANGHA’S

S.M. SHETTY COLLEGE OF SCIENCE, COMMERCE AND MANAGEMENT STUDIES

BACHELORS OF MANAGEMENT STUDIES

TYBMS SEMESTER V

SAMPLE QUESTION FOR ONLINE ATKT EXMINATIONS IN SEPTEMBER 2020

All questions are multiple choice questions.

Select ONE correct answer from the four options given with each question.

Each question carries TWO marks each

RISK MANAGEMENT

1) Risk identification is_________ a. a deliberate and systematic effort to identify and document the Institution's key risks. b. review of the risks associated with a particular event or action c. the process of selecting and implementing of measures to modify risk. d. Threaded throughout all steps of the risk assessment process

2)______is not to be done in determining an investment strategy

a. Determine the risk appetite b. Make an investment plan c. Diversify the portfolio d. Default in loan payments

3) Which statement is not correct about Quantitative Risk Measurement

a. It is a simple mathematical formula b. Difficult to use without appropriate software c. No standard unit available which is accepted internationally d. Different tools or method give different results leading to further complication

4) Which of these are not Technique's of Quantitative Risk Measurement?

a. Delphi technique. b. Expected monetary value analysis c. Monte Carlo Analysis d. Carbon Mapping

5) β is a measure of

a. Systematic Risk b. Unsystematic risk c. Total risk d. Degree of Profit

6)_______ are Derivatives not traded on exchange in India

a. Forwards b. Futures c. Currency options

d. Options

7)_______ occurs when one company acquires another company. There is price

discrepancy between the deal price given by acquirer and market price of the target

company.

a. International Arbitrage b. Convertible Arbitrage c. Risk Arbitrage d. Carry Trade

8)Standardized contracts traded over a recognized Exchange are _______

a. Swaps and Forwards b. Futures and Swaps c. Options and Swaps d. Options and Futures

9)Which of these items are not a part of ERM Process?

a. Dumping b. Communication c. Monitoring d. Risk Identification

10)The three security goals of any organization systems audit are____

a. integrity, availability and confidentiality b. security, management and timeliness c. security, protection and upgradation d. integrity, secularism and compatibility

11)__________Conceptualizes ERM proceeding across two dimensions risk type & risk

management process

a. COSO b. NSE & BSE c. RIMS d. CAS

12)___________It’s a service generally provided by independent professionals (eg. CPA’s,

CA etc) in order to provide complete, timely and vital information to decision makers in

order assist them to perform effectively

a. Risk Assurance b. Risk Insurance c. Risk Governance d. Risk Communication

13)Sources of Risk Governance in ______ line of defence includes functions that own and

manage risk.

a. Fourth b. Second c. First d. Third

14)Reports for Risk Assurance does not contain_______

a. Probable impact of risk b. Overall approach towards Risk Management c. Risk Description d. List of shareholders

15)Challenges of Risk Assurance do not include_______

a. Issuing shares to the employees as stock options b. Lack of decision-making Structure c. Lack of an Open, Risk-Ware Culture d. Lack of meaningful risk assessment process

16)_______ aims to Attract and retain employees, Helps face all kinds of risks and

challenges, Improve economic efficiency (reduce wastage, TQM, JIT) and Long term

growth and stability

a. Corporate merger b. Corporate buy-outs c. Corporate governance d. Corporate restructuring

17)From among the various stakeholders in an organisation ________ expect entity to be

profitable and to distribute that profit to them

a. Suppliers b. Government c. Customers d. Shareholders

18)The three major concerns of IRDA – insurance regulatory & development authority of

India do not include__________

a. Pave the way for a healthy growth of the insurance sector, where government and private parties play simultaneously

b. Protection of the interest of the consumers c. Ensure financial soundness of Insurance Industry d. Discourage people from taking insurance

19)Salient features of the IRDA Bill was FDI cap in insurance sector increased to

______(from earlier 26%)

a. 49% b. 100% c. 20% d. 60%

20)_________ is a type of life insurance that guarantees payment of a death benefit during

a specified time period.

a. Retirement insurance b. Whole life insurance c. Term life insurance d. Alternate insurance

21)________apart from covering the life of the insured, helps the policyholder save

regularly over a specific period of time so that he/she is able to get a lump sum amount on

the policy maturity in case he/she survives the policy term.

a. Medical Insurance b. Term life insurance c. Whole life insurance d. Endowment life insurance

22)Documents to be submitted for claiming fire insurance do not include________

a. Fire Brigade Report or FIR from police if possible b. Bank statement of the organisation c. Inventory of loss form d. Claim form, duly filled in & signed by the Insured.

23)A__________ is an insurance policy in which the benefit depends upon the performance

of investment portfolios

a. ULIP b. Reinsurance c. Securitisation d. Term Insurance

24)__________ can be defined as the transferring of underwriting risks to the capital.

markets through the creation and issuance of financial securities.

a. Reinsurance b. Bancauurance c. Insurance securitization d. Wealth Insurance

25)_________is the largest insurance company in India.

a. Bajaj Finance b. LIC c. ICICI lombard d. HDFC Life

WEALTH MANAGEMENT

1. The main types of market risk are ____________

a. Equity risk

b. Interest rate risk

c. Currency risk

d. All of the above

2. Equity risk applies to an investment in ____________

a. Bonds

b. Shares

c. Fixed deposits

d. Postal savings

3. The _______________ function of the insurance is to be provide protection against the

probable chance of loss.

a. Secondary

b. Main

c. Infinity

d. None of the above

4. The risk is ________________ , and therefore, the loss arising from the risk is also

uncertain

a. Uncertain

b. Certain

c. Profit


5. Basic principles of insurance are ______________

a. Principle of utmost good faith

b. Principle of insurable interest

c. Principle of indemnity

d. All of the above

6. ___________ yearly rate of return method is used to measure the yearly rate of return

on investment

a. Wealth

b. Fair

c. Margin

d. Belth

7. Characteristics of insurance are _________________

a. Sharing of risk

b. Co-operative device

c. Value of risk

d. All of the above

8. Repo rate also known as the __________

a. Purchase rate

b. Repurchase rate

c. Discount rate


9. The phases of investment life cycle are _____________

a. Accumulation phase

b. Consolidation phase

c. Spending phase

d. All of the above

10. The cash flow statement may also be referred to an ______________ , in case of

individual.

a. Balance sheet

b. Income statement

c. Bank statement

d. None of the abve

11. Code of ethics for wealth manager includes- ____________________

a. Professionalism

b. Compliance

c. Reporting suspected legal violations

d. All of the above

12. Wealth = ______________

a. Net assets + liabilities

b. Net assets – liabilities

c. Net assets + loans

d. Net assets- current assets

13. Components of wealth management includes ______________

a. Cash flow management

b. Investment management

c. Tax planning

d. All of the above

14. Wealth management needs & expectation of client includes ___________

a. Research and product knowledge

b. Transparency in changes

c. Ease of execution

d. All of the above

15. Which is not an sub component of fixed salary

a. Basic salary

b. Dearness allowance

c. House rent allowance

d. Drawings

16. Which of these is an sub component of reimbursement

a. Conveyance allowance


c. Vehicle hiring

d. Basic salary

17. Which of these is an sub component of retirement benefits

a. Conveyance allowance

b. Gratuity

c. Vehicle hiring

d. Meals

18. Which of these is an sub component of perks

a. Insurance premium

b. Gratuity

c. Meals

d. Drawings

19. Retirement planning involves

a. An analysis of various choices you can make today to help provide for your financial

future


c. House rent allowance

d. Drawings

20. Need for retirement planning does not include

a. Inflation

b. Basic salary

c. Life expectancy

d. Steady cash flow

21. Financial objective and retirement planning does not include

a. Gratuity

b. Growth

c. Income

d. Tax deduction

22. ____________ considers NAV on two dates – at the beginning and end of the holding

period

a. Absolute return

b. Total return

c. Internal rate of return

d. Holding period return

23. _____________ is the difference between the asset and the liability of an individual or a

company.

a. Financial ratio

b. Fixed assets

c. Net worth

d. Goodwill

24. _____________ is tax that causes rise in the price of goods and is ultimately borne by

the customer.

a. Direct tax

b. Income tax

c. Indirect tax

d. Sales tax

25. When two or more persons joins hands for common actions with common objectives are

called _____________.

a. Body of individual

b. Firms

c. Company

d. Association of person

CORPORATE COMMUNICATION AND PUBLIC RELATIONS

1. By communication being two-sided, it means:

a. Using two languages

b. Telling both positive and negative aspects

c. Communicating to two categories of stakeholders

d. Encouraging feedback

2. For anything (gesture or words) to become defamatory, it should be a statement. The

word STATEMENT here stands for

a. It should be true

b. It should be expressed

c. It should be printed

d. All of the above

3. Freedom of Mass Media is derived indirectly from

a. Copyright Act

b. The Factory Act

c. Article 21 (1)A of constitution of India

d. Article 19(1) A of Constitution of India

4. Which one of the following is NOT copyrightable

a. Literary work

b. Sound recording

c. Chemical formula of a medicine

d. Choreographic work

5. Paraphrasing is when

a. Simply the words are replaced by their synonyms

b. Content is read and rewritten in author's own words

c. Mixing paragraphs of various writers

d. Adding your own view with somebody else's views

6. RTI act was enacted in

a. 1948

b. 1995

c. 2005

d. 1948

7. Code of Athens is framed under

a. WHO

b. UNO

c. NABARD

d. SEBI

8. _____ invented printing press

a. Ivy Lee

b. Edward Bernay

c. Johannes Gutenberg

d. Walter Raleigh

9. ____ was advisor to John Rockeffeler

a. Ivy Lee

b. Edward Bernays

c. Johannes Gutenberg

d. Walter Raleigh

10. Factual and newsworthy information was disseminated to undefined audience during

____ of PR history.

a. Phase 1

b. Phase 2

c. Phase 3

d. Phase 4

11. According to Situational Theory, Latent public are the one

a. Who are facing problem and recognize it as a problem

b. Who are facing problem but fail to recognize it as a problem

c. Who are not facing problem but have recognized it as a problem

d. Who are neither facing problem and nor recognize it

12. For the following stages of diffusion, we require the use of mass media:

a. Awareness and Interest

b. Trial and Adoption

c. Evaluation and Trial

d. Evaluation and Adoption

13. Traces of PR activities can be seen in historic and prehistoric times in the form of 1.

Pyramids of Egypt 2. Spreading of pandemics 3. Propagation of Religion 4.

Historical Monuments 5. Natural Landscapes

a. In 1,2,3,4,5

b. In 1,2,5

c. In 1,3,4

d. None of the given ways

14. Boiler plate in a press release is

a. Spokesperson detail of the company

b. Contact detail of the company

c. Main Story to be shared

d. Few words describing your company to the audience

15. Off the record attribution means

a. The media cannot use either the information or the source's name.

b. The media can use the information, but not the source's name

c. The media can use both words and name of the source.

d. The media can use the name, but not the source's information

16. Media Relations means

a. Booking a space for advertisement

b. Negotiating for discounts for advertising

c. Develop relationship with media to maximize positive coverage in the mass media

without paying for it

d. Just promoting products in a media

17. Culture Communication means

a. Communication related to employee targets

b. Communication related to organisational performance

c. Communication related to rules and regulations for the organisation

d. Communication related to organizational strategies

18. The benefit of good employee communication is

a. More Engaged employees

b. Increased resistance from employees

c. Deteriorates quality of work life

d. Non-channelized behaviour of employees

19. The advantage of using modern technology in communication is

a. Expensive software and hardware configuration is required

b. Speeds up the process of sending information

c. Data security problems

d. Not appropriate for face to face communication

20. Podcasting is done to

a. Distribute information to many audience

b. Conduct meeting

c. Listening to music/ audio only

d. Real-time data updating by multiple users.

21. ____ allows a user to keep track of many different websites in a single news aggregator.

a. PIP

b. VoIP

c. RSS

d. RSVP

22. Which of the following is not the example of third party e-media are:

a. Corporate website

b. E-Zines

c. Online Journals

d. Informational Websites

23. The internal news-letter of the organization should not contain

a. New appointments

b. Training courses and staff training opportunities

c. Holiday time table

d. Personal detail of employees

24. Great user experience for online content is hindered by

a. Regular updating

b. Ease of navigation

c. Discourage or delete negative feedback

d. Invite and publish comments and testimonialsof visitors

25. By consistency in e-branding, it means

a. Do not change the online content

b. Visuals should comply with off-line branding

c. Blogs should be similar to that of the competitors

d. Each page of the website should have different tone and theme

***

CUSTOMER RELATIONSHIP MANAGEMENT

TYBMS – SEM V ATKT - CRM

Q.

No.

Questions

1. _______ is used to categorize customers into similar groups

a) Departmentation

b) Consumer Feedback

c) Customer Segmentation

d) Market Survey

2. In the Customer Pyramid _______ customers are least profitable and do not

provide the return

a) Iron

b) Lead

c) Gold

d) Platinum

3. _______ specializes in staff planning and optimization and several products are

specific to contact centre staffing

a) Cyber Agent

b) Workforce management

c) Data collection

d) Data warehouse

4. _______ is extremely volatile and time sensitive as well

a) Collaborative data

b) Master data

c) Transaction data

d) Reference data

5. _______ is all about managing relationships with customers by using

Information Technology

a) E-Customer Relationship Management

b) Internet

c) Mobile CRM

d) Personalized messaging system

6. _______ Software enables an organization to extract useful customer

information from the given database.

a) Business Simulation

b) Campaign Management

c) Data mining

d) Real time decision Engine

7. _______ proposed the idea of permission marketing.

a) Aweber

b) Seth Godin

c) P. Kavassalis

d) S. Krishnamurthy

8. The following features are associated with the concept of ______

Storage of Consumer Data in Central Database, High Cost of Management,

Attracting Potential Customer and Retaining Existing Ones, etc.

a) Workforce Management

b) Consumer Complaint Redressal

c) Customer Relationship Management

d) Receivables management

9. In ______ CRM used to Support front office activities & fulfill customer

requirements

a) STAGE II: Second Generation of CRM

b) STAGE I: First Generation of CRM

c) STAGE IV: Fourth Generation of CRM

d) STAGE III: Third Generation of CRM

10. Which of these is not an objective of CRM?

a) Providing better customer service

b) Acquiring new customers

c) Making call centres more efficient

d) Being unresponsive to Customer needs

11. _______ is a contract between a service provider (either internal or external)

and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service

provider.

a) Service Level Agreement

b) Sale

c) Permission marketing

d) Customer valuation

12. The concept of CRM came into existence in _______

a) 1980’s

b) 1990’s

c) 2000

d) 1970’s

13. Which of these is not part of a well documented Service Level Agreement

a) Scope and Objective

b) Service Level Matrix

c) Escalation Procedure

d) No clause/mention of compensation

14. _______, is the practice of tailoring communications directly to a customer

segment or, increasingly to and individual customer

a) Collaborative Filtering

b) Transaction

c) Personalisation

d) Reference

15. _______ refers to a marketing phenomenon where in too many promotional

messages are sent at once.

a) Brand positioning

b) Brand fatigue

c) Web-based self service

d) Event marketing

16. A _______ is a centralised office used for receiving or transmitting a large

volume of requests by telephone.

a) database

b) call centre

c) registered office

d) sales office

17. _______ describes the people, places, and things that are involved in an

organization’s business.

a) Reference Data

b) Transactional Data

c) Warehouse Data

d) Master Data

18. The _______ element of a customer value framework states that the

requirements related to quality are known to both organizations and customers

a) Unknown-Known

b) Known-Unknown

c) Unknown-Unknown

d) Known-Known

19. The following are the features of which type of customer Loyalty?

- Customers Tend to buy the first easy option available - The physiological, social, esteem needs of an individual compel an

individual to find option to satisfy themselves

a) Affect Loyalty

b) Situation-Specific Loyalty

c) Behavioural Loyalty

d) Latent Loyalty

20. Which of these is a post sales challenge for any organization?

a) After-sales service

b) Time and Location

c) Budget

d) Collaboration between sales and marketing

21. Which one of these statements is not true of Social CRM?

a) A business can follow conversations about its brand for real-time market data

and feedback

b) A customer cannot easily tell a company -- and everyone else -- about their

experiences with the company, whether those experiences are good or bad

c) A business can quickly get information out to users who are interested in the

company or its products

d) A customer can use social networking sites to offer ideas for future products or

tweaks to current ones

22. Which of these is an incorrect statement?

a) Platinum Tier Customers are Most Profitable to us over time, costs less to

maintain

b) Gold Tier Customers are Not as profitable, need discounts and are less loyal

c) Iron Tier Customers buy anything and everything offered to them

d) Lead Tier customers are those, who are costing the firm money. They demand

more attention than they are due

23. Identify the correct statement:

a) Results of traditional marketing are achieved in the short run

b) Traditional marketing focuses on acquiring new customers, whereas relationship

marketing focuses on making existing customers happy and satisfied

c) Relationship marketing reaches out to a larger audience

d) Integrated marketing communication is done in Relationship marketing

24. The service – gap model was developed by Parasuraman, Berry and

Zeithaml in _______

a) 1986

b) 1985

c) 1992

d) 2003

25. _______ provides end-to-end management of clients, contacts and prospects

and offers comprehensive contact history tracking.

a) Activity logging

b) Schedule and task management

c) Sales content management

d) Contact management

E-COMMERCE & DIGITAL MARKETING

1. _____________refers to the process of selling products and services directly between a business and consumers who are the end-users of its products or services.

a. Consumer to Consumer b. Business to Business c. Business to Consumer d. Consumer to Government

2. __________________ is an advantage of e-commerce. a. High costs b. Days taken for delivery c. Security issues d. 24 X 7 business operation

3. ________________ consists of commerce carried on with the use of electronic media, which is computer network.

a. M-commerce b. E-commerce c. Electronic Data Interchange d. Customer Relationship Management

4. Trends in e-commerce Tourism sector include______________________. a. Virtual field trips b. Green-friendly travel c. Automatic teller Machine (ATM)

5. Business to Administration e-commerce involves________________________. a. online transactions between websites and suppliers b. online transactions between consumer and Government c. online transactions between business and Government organizations d. online transactions between consumers

6. _________________ is a system which can be used to make bulk payments of a similar nature especially where each individual payment is of a repetitive nature and

of relatively smaller amount.

a. Electronic Clearing Service (ECS) b. Automatic teller Machine (ATM) c. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) d. Tele-banking

7. __________________ is a global computer network providing a variety of information and communication facilities, consisting of interconnected networks

using standardized communication protocols.

a. World wide web b. Internet c. Intranet d. Extranet

8. In launching an e-business, ______________________ phase is to synthesize the information gathered in the discovery phase into elements useful for site development

a. Marketing b. Fulfilment c. Design d. Planning and strategizing phase

9. ________________ is a collection of computer based information of resources and consumers that is critical to successful execution of enterprise initiatives.

a. Data mining b. Data warehousing c. Electronic data interchange d. E-business

10. The correct sequence of the intermediaries who are involved in the business transactions of Supply chain management is_______________________

a. supplier, wholesaler, retailer, manufacturer, consumer b. supplier, manufacturer, wholesaler, retailer, consumer c. manufacturer, supplier, wholesaler, retailer, consumer d. manufacturer, supplier, retailer, wholesaler, consumer

11. When a business has only physical presence in the market, it is known as _________business model.

a. Brick and click business model b. Online business model c. Pure online business model d. Brick and mortar business model

12. _______________ consists of online buying and selling of shares and other financial

instruments.

a. E-procurement

b. E-delivery

c. E-communication

d. E-trading

13. Acceptability, convertibility, scalability, reliability are features of _____________. a. Digital marketing b. Digital payment mechanism c. Digital sales d. Virtual PIN

14. A work on Electronic Funds Transfer can be categorized into _________ parts. a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

15. ______________ is not a feature of e-checks. a. Used for clearing micro payments

b. Utility for firm’s effectiveness c. Time delay and high costs d. No storage place required

16. ___________________ are paper checks containing all the information as in case of an ordinary check except that they are initiated electronically.

a. E-cash b. Google pay c. E-checks d. Credit card

17. _______________ is a plastic card that contains integrated circuit, non-volatile memory and microprocessor.

a. Smart card b. Debit card c. Credit card d. ATM card

18. A payment gateway is a service that _____________________. a. can store money, personal information, credit card information and bank account

information

b. gives merchants ability to perform real time credit card authorization from a website over the internet

c. is similar to a customer’s purse that stores customer’s sensitive information for making payments

d. is a plastic card that contains integrated circuit, non-volatile memory and microprocessor

19. In _________________ you can have other website owners and internet users advertise and promote your products and services and get paid a commission

whenever sales is made.

a. Social media marketing b. Content marketing c. Online affiliate marketing d. Online display ads

20. In intellectual property,______________ is a ownership of the original work created by an author on his books, articles, software programs, etc.

a. Copyright b. Trademark c. Trade name d. Domain name

21. __________________ have banners, contextual ads, above the folder and below the folder ads in digital marketing.

a. Social media marketing b. Online display ads c. Search engine marketing d. Mobile marketing

22. _______________ are specialized, optimized web pages that visitors are taken to upon clicking an ad.

a. Landing page b. Take off page c. Web page d. Home page

23. ____________________ is the amount of data sent and received by visitors to a web site, it has to be analysed, measured and controlled.

a. Web analytics b. Web page c. World wide web d. Web traffic

24. _________________ is a web site having content directed towards one or more subjects, illustrative of the expertise area or of the concerns of the person who is

posting it.

a. Blog b. Shopping cart c. Podcast d. Vodcast

25. __________________ Influencers get involved with their communities, political movements, charities and so on.

a. Activists b. Connected c. Impact d. Active minds

SALES AND DISTRIBUTION MANAGEMENT

Q1) Decide the correct series of steps in the Evolution of sales management: (1)

Production Orientation Period (2) Customer Orientation Period (3) Pre-Industrial

Revolution Period (4) Sales Orientation Period

A ( 4) – (1) – (3) – (2)

B (3) – (1) – (4) – (2)

C (2 ) – (4) – (1) – (3)

D (3) – (4) – (1) – ( 2)

Q2) Which of the following is the importance of distribution management

A Facilitates only small scale distribution of goods

B Distributing goods with delay

C Restricts the flow of Market information

D Creates time, place and ownership utility for the consumers

Q3) _____________ is run by a set of information technology. This technology provides

Easy access to data to everyone in company. Salespersons can easily see how

customers have been communicated with, what they’ve bought, when they last

purchased, what they paid, sales in pipeline, forecasting etc

A Customer Relationship Management (CRM)

B Internal marketing

C Professionalism in selling

D R& D

Q4) Which of the following is true in case of Internal marketing: (i) It is a promotion of

company’s objectives, and products to employees first.(ii) Its purpose is to align and

increase employee engagement with the company’s sales goals

A Only (i) is true

B Only (ii) is true

C Both (i) and (ii) are true

D Both (i) and (ii) are false

Q5) _________________ sales organization structure defines the area of responsibility

on the basis of various ‘customer’ groupings like B2B, B2C, B2G or international

customers.

A Product Based

B Market Based

C Territory Based

D Functional Based

Q6) Which of the following is the main disadvantage of Territory/Geographical Based

Sales Structure

A Territory sizing is challenging

B More coordination required

C Duplication of work

D Adapt business to serve local conditions

Q7) Under market analysis, which factor determines increase in sales and market

share within particular target market over a given period of time?

A Market Growth and profitability

B Market Competition

C New Trends and Development

D Customer Description

Q8) Main purpose of long term forecasting is:

A To reduce the cost of raw materials, machinery etc.

B To have proper control of inventory.

C To arrange the working capital requirements in advance to meet the demand

D To plan long-term financial requirements of the company

Q9) _______________are the sales goals set by the company for the sales

representatives for a certain duration of time

A Sales forecasting

B Market analysis

C Sales audit

D Sales quota

Q10) Basis of __________________ is that the cost to acquire new customers should be

less than the revenue generated from these new customers

A Unit sales volume quota

B Activity quota

C Gross margin quota

D Expense quota

Q11) Which of the following is a reason for unsuccessful sales close

A Ask for order

B Trial close

C Summary close

D Untimely close

Q12) Which of the following is not a theory of selling

A Verbal-Visual Imaging Thoery

B Stimulus Response Theory

C Product Orientation Theory

D Need Satisfaction Theory

Q13) Negotiation strategies include all except:

A Accommodating

B Collaborating

C Compromising

D Hard sell-soft sell

Q14) Following are the features of wholesalers except:

A They buy, stock and sell goods in small quantities

B They are not on contract with any company

C Their customer are other wholesalers, retailers and institutions

D They decide what products they will sell

Q15) Which of the following sales organization structure is more suitable for a small business

firm dealing in only one product

A Hybrid

B Functional Based

C Product Based

D Market Based

Q16) _________, Selective, Exclusive are 3 major type of distribution system

A Common

B General

C Intensive

D Excessive

Q17) When the distribution is effected through only a single dealer or distributor within a

particular market segment, it called ____________ distribution

A Selective

B Intensive

C Exclusive

D Limited

Q18) _________________ is a situation in which one channel member perceives another

channel member(s) to be engaged in a behavior that prevents it from achieving its

goals.

A Channel policy

B Channel conflict

C Channel design

D Channel evaluation

Q19) Low channel productivity, Stressful channel relationship, Poor customer relations,

Low customer satisfaction are the indicators of_____________

A Channel coordination

B Channel design

C Channel success

D Channel conflict

Q20) In _____________,a group consisting of top management, technical specialists,

customer service, production team member jointly works towards selling a

technically complex product to prospective customers.

A Sales force diversity

B Team selling approach

C Professionalism in selling

D CRM

Q21) Distribution strategy is a plan mainly for ___________________

A Creating a distinct image through product positioning

B Securing Large sales by capturing market share

C Increasing consumer demand in the market

D Making product quickly available to intermediaries and to final customers

Q22) ________________means maximizing output for giving input. Input being

inventory support or number of people involved and output being profitability.

A Channel effectiveness

B Channel equity

C Channel efficiency

D Channel coordination

Q23) Supplying false or exaggerated benefits/information about the product is an

unethical situation which can be faced by the salesperson in relation

with___________________

A the organization/company

B the customers

C the competitors

D the government

Q24) Sales Management Audit is a tool for analyzing, reviewing and controlling

_________

A Sales management process

B Channel members

C Production process

D Marketing process

Q25) ______________are those aspects of sales plan or strategy, in which a sales person

must excel to outperform competitors

A Key Result Areas

B Sales report

C Sales Territories

D Selling strategies

SERVICE MARKETING SEM V SAMPLE MCQs Sr.No Questions

1. Chimney Sweeps employs people to clean fireplaces and chimneys in homes and apartments. The

firm is primarily the marketer of which one of the following?

A. An image B. A service C. A good D. An idea

2 If a firm is practicing ____________________, the firm is training and effectively motivating its

customer-contact employees and all of the supporting service people to work as a team to provide

customer satisfaction.

A. double-up marketing B. interactive marketing C. service marketing D. internal marketing

3. What is the last stage of the consumer decision process?

A. problem recognition B. post purchase behavior C. alternative evaluation D. purchase

4. Listing alternatives that will solve the problem at hand and determining the characteristics of each

occurs during which stage of the final consumer’s decision process?

A. Information search B. Purchase C. Evaluation of alternatives D. Post purchase

5. The four unique elements to services include:

A. Independence, intangibility, inventory, and inception B. Independence, increase, inventory, and intangibility C. Intangibility, inconsistency, inseparability, and inventory D. Intangibility, independence, inseparability, and inventory

6 The promotion “P” of marketing is also known as ______

A. Product Differentiation B. Distribution C. Cost D. Marketing Communication

7 The extended Ps of service marketing mix are :

A. People, Product, Place B. Price Physical Evidence, Promotion C. Physical Environment, Process, People D. Product, Process, Physical Environment

8 Charging customers different prices for essentially the same service is called

A. Price discrimination

B. Supply and demand.

C. Complementary

D. Substitutes.

9 Focusing the firms marketing efforts toward the existing customer base is called

A. Excellent customer service

B. Conquest retention

C. Customer retention

D. Courteous retention

10 Service consumers tend to be more brand loyal than goods consumers because

A. More choices are available

B. Brand loyalty lowers the amount of perceived risk

C. Each service provider provides many brands

D. Location of the provider is the major driver in the consumer selection process

11 Minimizing the amount of role conflict and role ambiguity experienced by employees will help

reduce the size of this gap is known as ____________.

A. Knowledge gap.

B. Standards gap

C. Delivery gap.

D. Communications gap

12 Customers ultimately determine the services by……………..

A. The type of competitors.

B. The levels of marketing effectiveness and operational efficiency

C. The cycle of fluctuations

D. The price of the competitors

13 Which of the following is not a step in the construction process of a service blueprint?

A. Obtaining scripts from both customers and employees

B. Segmenting customers based on the content of the script.

C. Identify steps in the process where the system can go awry.

D. Calculating the time frame for the service execution.

14 A buyers perception of value is considered a trade-off between

A. Product value and psychic cost

B. Total customer value and total customer cost.

C. Image value and energy cost

D. Service value and monetary cost.

15 “Benchmark” means____________

A. Benches for customers to sit

B. Set standards

C. Benches for salesmen to sit

D. Products displayed on a bench

16 When developing servicescapes, firms recognize that their physical environment will affect

employees and customers. This is primarily due to

A. Reflect the quality at all spheres

B. Intangibility

C. Heterogeneity

D. Perishability

17 Ambient conditions will have the least effect on customer behaviour in which of the following

service scapes?

A. A bakery shop

B. An air-conditioned hotel.

C. An open five-story parking garage

D. Bookstore with an in-store coffee cart.

18 The world’s largest industry in the private sector and highest projected generator of jobs is______

A. The hospitality industry

B. Health services

C. Professional services.

D. Business services

19 Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Service purchases are perceived as riskier than goods purchases

B. The participation of the consumer in the service process increases the amount of perceived risk.

C. The variability in services increases the perceived risk associated with the Purchase

D. Consumers of services have less pre-purchase information versus goods

20 The service industry has several emerging trends that organisations need to be aware of. Which of

these should organisations keep a lookout for?

A. New competitors entering the marketplace

B. Advances in the internet

C. Heightened customer expectations

D. Advances in e-commerce.

21 Service firms often find themselves in a three-cornered fight between

A. Engineering, production, and accounting

B. Marketing, finance, and human resources

C. Operations, accounting, and marketing

D. Human resources, marketing and operations

22 Among many services, the demand for medical services tends to be __________.

A. Inelastic.

B. Elastic.

C. Substitute demand

D. Price cross elastic demand

23 In a(n) _______ environment, the service employees are physically present while customers are

involved in the service production process at an arm s length.

A. Self-service.

B. Vertical service

C. Remote service

D. Saleable service

24 The service industry has grown many folds due to _________

A. less growth in other sectors

B. more growth in all sectors

C. more affluence of customers

D. effective marketing strategies of service marketers

25 Growth in leisure and entertainment services due to ________

A. more surplus money left with customers

B. interest that people want to spend leisure time fruitfully

C. more support from the government to invest in such an industry.

D. growth of other sectors contributed to this growth

LOGISTICS AND SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT

1. Manufacturing Support Logistics commences as soon as a planned order is converted

into a _______ order

(a) Material, Production &Process

(b) cutting

(c) willing

(d) CRM

2. Company, Competitor and _______ are 3 C’s of Logistics.

(a) Customer

(b) Class

(c) Critical

(d) Comparison

3. The term Bull-Whip Effect was coined by _____

(a) Miachel Porter

(b) Martin Christopher

(c) Proctor and Gamble

(d) Bowersox

4. _____, is a set of organizations directly linked by one or more of the upstream and

downstream.

(a) Supply Chain Management

(b) Logistics Management

(c) CRM

(d) Only Dealing

5. _____ is not during-transaction element of a customer service.

(a) Product availability

(b) Correct order status information

(c) Installation / warrantee / repairs / service parts availability

(d) Consistency in order cycle

6. The _____ is not Time Series technique of forecasting

(a) Regression Analysis

(b) Simple Moving Average Method

(c) Weighted Moving Average Method

(d) Exponential Smoothing Method

7. Demand forecasting techniques can be applied to _____.

(a) Inventory Control, Investment Policy & Economic policy

(b) time series

(c) demand

(d) Delphi Method

8. Forecast of demand is always ____.

(a) Judgmental

(b) fixed

(c) zero

(d) 100% wrong

9. Logistics is the bridge between _____.

(a) Demand & Supply

(b) Supply

(c) zero

(d) consumption

10. Outbound Logistics is _____.

(a) the process related to the storage and movement of the final product and the related

information flows from the end of the production line to the end user

(b) customs clearance and services through to onward and final delivery

(c) lower inventory levels of both packaging and ingredients

(d) online cargo tracking and complete transparency of operations through the

integration of systems

11. Following is not type of Piggy – Back

(a) TOFC

(b) TTFC

(c) COFC

(d) LASH

12. _____ Inter modal transportation which combines air and Road

(a) Fishy Back

(b) Birdy Back

(c) Land Bridge

(d) Piggy Back

13. _____ is the most common type of Industrial Truck?

(a) Fork Lift

(b) Automated Guided Vehicle

(c) Hoist

(d) Bridge crane

14. Example for Pull type of Inventory System

(a) MRP-1

(b) JIT

(c) EOQ

(d) ABC

15. The _____ type of costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except

(a) Machining Cost

(b) Inventory Carrying cost

(c) Cost of stock-outs

(d) Ordering cost

16. _______ measures track historical logistics systems performance for reporting to

management

(a) Planning

(b) Monitoring

(c) Controlling

(d) Directing

17. RO-RO applies to _____ piggy-back type.

(a) Trailer on Flat Car

(b) Ride On-Ride Off

(c) Roll Off-Roll On

(d) Roll On-Ride Off

18. LASH stands for _____

(a) Lighter Aboard Ship

(b) Last Aboard Ship

(c) Lighter Aboard System

(d) Last Aboard System

19. Computer to Computer exchange of information is termed as _____

(a) EDI

(b) DID

(c) IDE

(d) IED

20. GIS is _______ Information System.

(a) Geographical

(b) Decision Analysis

(c) Enterprise Resource Planning

(d) Interaction software

21. The term Block Train is also used for _____

(a) Double Stack Containers

(b) Trainload

(c) Dedicated Freight Corridor

(d) Logistics Park

22. The following is not barrier to Logistics Outsourcing.

(a) Sufficient Information and communication

(b) Inadequate trust

(c) Loose commitment

(d) Fuzzy goals and changes

23. A network of highways connecting India’s four metropolitan cities.

(a) Golden Quadrilateral

(b) Logistics parks

(c) Deep water ports

(d) Airports

24. If Annual Demand for a particular component is 5000 units and order quantity is 500

units, then approximate order cycle Time is

(a) 5 weeks

(b) 5.2 weeks

(c) 5.5 weeks

(d) 6 weeks

25. ________ Automation is needed when a wide variety of products are going to be

handled or produced.

(a) Flexible

(b) Hard

(c) Mechanized

(d) Fixed