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INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
1
TYBMS_INTERNATIONAL FINANCE
SOLUTION FOR 2012-2013
1. Explain in brief:
2. Junk Bonds: Companies with very poor credit rating or entering into high risk business
ventures issue such bonds. These bonds carry coupon rates at-least 3 - 4% above the normal
rates. A characteristic feature of these bonds is the high turnover of investors. Such bonds are
used by corporate entities and individuals to make short term gains on temporary surplus
liquidity.
3. Participatory Notes : Participatory notes (PNs / P-Notes) are instruments used by investors or
hedge funds that are not registered with the SEBI (Securities & Exchange Board of India) to
invest in Indian securities. Participatory notes are instruments that derive their value from an
underlying financial instrument such as an equity share and, hence, also known as, 'derivative
instruments'.
Indian based brokerages buy Indian-based securities and then issue PNs to foreign investors.
Any dividends or capital gains collected from the underlying securities go back to the investors.
Participatory notes are instruments used for making investments in the stock markets.
However, they are not used within the country. They are used outside India for making
investments in shares listed in that country. That is why they are also called offshore derivative
instruments.
In the Indian context, foreign institutional investors (FIIs) and their sub-accounts mostly use
these instruments for facilitating the participation of their overseas clients, who are not
interested in participating directly in the Indian stock market. For example, Indian-based
brokerages buy India-based securities and then issue participatory notes to foreign investors.
Any dividends or capital gains collected from the underlying securities go back to the investors.
Any entity investing in participatory notes is not required to register with SEBI (Securities and
Exchange Board of India), whereas all FIIs have to compulsorily get registered. Trading through
participatory notes is easy because participatory notes are like contract notes transferable by
endorsement and delivery. Secondly, some of the entities route their investment through
participatory notes to take advantage of the tax laws of certain preferred countries. Thirdly,
participatory notes are popular because they provide a high degree of anonymity, which
enables large hedge funds to carry out their operations without disclosing their identity.
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
2
4. Arbitrage: Arbitrage can be defined as an operation which involves simultaneous purchase and
sale of equal quantity of asset or currency with the intention of deriving risk-free profit out of
imperfect quotations in one or more markets. An arbitrageur is an entity who identifies an
opportunity for arbitrage and derives profit from it. Arbitrageurs are not market makers and
therefore do not provide any quotations. They only utilize quotations made by others and profit
from them, Arbitrage operations help to equalize prices and remove imperfections. There are no
arbitrage possibilities in a perfect market. The volume and profit of arbitrage transactions is
market dependent. The arbitrageur does not use his/her assessment in this operation.
5. Holgate’s Principle:
This principle states that –
(1) Premium on base currency is always added whereas discount on base currency is always
subtracted from the spot rate to arrive at the corresponding forward rate.
(2) Premium on base currency implies discount on variable currency and discount on base
currency implies premium on variable currency.
6. Autonomous Transactions:
An autonomous transaction is a transaction undertaken in the normal course of business in
response to the given environment of price levels, exchange rates, interest rates etc. It does not
take into account the equilibrium aspect of the BOP. These transactions effectively represent
Current and Capital account transactions. These are classified as ‘Above the Line’ transactions.
These transactions are normally undertaken by market participants other than the Central Bank.
BOP is surplus if net balance of autonomous transactions is positive. BOP is deficit if net balance
of autonomous transactions is negative.
1.
Given:
CHF 1.3615 per USD spot (USD/CHF)
CHF 1.3595 per USD 6 month forward (USD/CHF)
CHF interest rate 2% p.a
USD interest rate 4% p.a
Identify and calculate interest rate arbitrage (Assume 1 million USD)
Ans:
Identification:
Factor I : (F-S)/S = (1.3595 – 1.3615) / 1.3615
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
3
= (0.0015)
Factor II : (Rv-Rb)/100 * n/12
= (2 – 4) /100 * 6/12
= (0.0100)
Factor 1 > Factor 2; we borrow Vc CHF to gain Arbitrage
But as it is mentioned in the question to solve assuming borrowing Bc USD
Assume borrowing Bc USD as 1 million.
Amount Payable:
P* (1 + R/100 * n/12)
1000000* (1 + 4/100 * 6/12)
= 1020000 USD
Amount Receivable:
Step A: Convert to CHF
= 1000000 * 1.3615
Step B: Invest in CHF
= 1000000 * 1.3615 * (1 + 2/100 * 6/12)
Step C: Reconvert to USD
= (1000000 * 1.3615 * (202/200)) / 1.3595
= 1011485 USD
Arbitrage = Amount Receivable – Amount Payable
= 1011485 – 1020000
= (8515)
If we borrow Bc USD, then there is no opportunity for Arbitrage.
Case Study:
1. Different exchange rate systems followed by different countries in the world:
FIXED SYSTEM: Provides for stable exchange rates. Exchange rates are officially controlled.
The system promoted trade and investments, Rates are artificially controlled and hence may
not reflect the correct state of the underlying economy. Subject to devaluation / revaluation by
the monetary authority. Devaluation / Revaluation are one time effects which cannot be
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
4
factored into trade negotiations since they are unpredictable. It provided for greater control
over inflation by the monetary authority,
FLEXIBLE SYSTEM: Provides for variable exchange rates. Exchange rates are market
determined. The system promoted transparency in price discovery. Market established rates
reflect the true state of the economic changes. Subject to depreciation / appreciation through
market demand / supply forces. Depreciation / Appreciation are gradual effects which can be
reasonably predicted and hence can be factored into trade negotiations. The monetary
authority has lesser control over inflation.
2. Explain the impact of appreciation of Yuan on Chinese economy
1. Appreciation would significantly cut China's trade surplus or the difference between
what it sells to, and what it buys from, its trading partners.
2. One positive effect that the appreciation of the yuan will have on the Chinese economy is
the reinforcement of domestic market targeted industries as appreciation will increase the
purchasing power of Chinese people.
3. The actual appreciation may lead to much more increase in stock prices later in the
future.
4. The yuan appreciation leads to an increase in Chinese export prices in dollars, which
leads to a decrease in U.S. imports from China. Evaluate the reactions of emerging
economies towards appreciation of Yuan
5. Appreciation represents increase in the value of the currency through market action. It is
a continuous process which can be anticipated and is associated with flexible exchange
rate system.
3. Evaluate the reactions of emerging economies towards appreciation of yuan
Ans. Many of the economies feel they have no choice but to intervene daily in forex markets to
prevent their respective currencies from appreciating faster than the yuan. The appreciation in the
Asian and Latin American currencies will keep pace with the yuan. This is a long term secular
trend for emerging market currencies especially in Asia.
2. Given:
USD/SGD 1.5423 – 1.5433
SGD/GBP 0.3323 – 0.3333
Calculate GBP/USD quotation
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
5
(GBP/USD)BID = (GBP/SGD)BID * (SGD/USD)BID
= (1/ 0.3333) * (1/ 1.5433)
= 1.9441
(GBP/USD)ASK = (GBP/SGD)ASK * (SGD/USD)ASK
= (1/0.3323) * (1/1.5423)
= 1.9512
The following quote is given in Mumbai
1 USD = Rs. 44.7250 – 44.7300
Is it a direct or indirect quote?
Find the mid rate, spread, and the spread percentage
SOLUTION
1. It’s a direct quote in India
2. Mid Rate = (Bid Rate + Ask Rate)/2
= (44.7250 + 44.7300) / 2
= 44.7275
Spread = (Ask rate – Bid rate)
= (44.7300 – 44.7250)
= 0.0050
%Spread = (Spread / Mean Rate) * 100
= (0.0050/ 44.7275) * 100
= 0.0112 %
1USD = Rs. 44.7250 – 44.7300
Inverse Quote;
100 INR/USD = (100 / 44.7300) - (100/44.7250)
100 INR/USD = 2.2356 - 2.2359
3.
Given:-
USD/CAD 1.1685 – 1.1695
USD/CHF 1.3785 – 1.3795
CAD/CHF 1.1885 – 1.1895
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
6
Identify and calculate Triangular
Derived USD/CAD
USD/CAD = (USD/CHF)BID * (CHF/CAD)BID
= 1.3785 * (1/1.1895)
= 1.1589
USD/CAD = (USD/CHF)ASK * (CHF/CAD)ASK
= 1.3795 * (1/1.1885)
= 1.1607
USD/CAD 1.1589 – 1.1607
Derived; USD/CAD 1.1685 – 1.1695
Bid 1.1685 > Ask 1.1607
Arbitrage exists
Assume borrowing USD as 1 million
Gain = (P*B/A) – P
= (1000000 * 1.1685/1.1607) - 1000000
= ((1000000 * 1.1685 * 1.1885) / 1.3795)) – 1000000
= USD 6714 per USD 1 million
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
7
Forward Rate Calculation
Spot GBP/USD 1.9845 – 1.9855
USD interest rate: 4.1250 – 4.3750 % p.a
GBP interest rate : 5.8750 – 6.1250 % p.a
Calculate Swap points (forward margins) for three months
SOLUTION
Swap Points
Fbid Fask
Spot bid Spot ask
Bc – Lending Bc – Deposit
Vc – Deposit Vc – Lending
F(Bid) = SR * (1 + Rv/100 * n/12)
(1 + Rb/100 * n /12)
= 1.9845 * (404.1250 / 406.1250)
= 1.9747
F(Ask)) = SR * (1 + Rv/100 * n/12)
(1 + Rb/100 * n /12)
= 1.9855 * (404.3750 / 405.8750)
= 1.9782
3 months forward GBP/USD 1.9747 – 1.9782
Bid Points = Fbid – Sbid
= 1.9747 – 1.9845
= (0.0098)
Ask Points = Fask – Sask
= 1.9782 – 1.9855
= (0.0073)
3 Months Swap Points = 98 – 73
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
8
4. (a) Distinguish between Gold Standard and Bretton Woods System
No Gold Standard Bretton Woods System
1. The Gold Standard promoted by the Bank of
England and introduced in 1870, was the first
universally Rate implemented Exchange
Determination system
The Bretton Woods system was introduced
by the IMF in 1946 and represented the first
semi-fixed exchange rate determination
system. (Adjustable Peg System)
2. Only gold was used as reserve asset In addition to gold, US Dollars were also
accepted as reserve asset.
3. The Central bank of each country was
required to announce an official price for
gold in terms of the domestic currency
Only Federal Reserve Bank of the US was
required to fix the price of gold in terms of
US Dollars
4. Each Central Bank gave an unconditional
guarantee to buy or sell unlimited quantity of
gold at the official price
The Federal Reserve Bank gave an
unconditional guarantee to buy or sell
unlimited quantity of gold at 1 ounce gold =
US Dollars 35
5. Every currency note carried an irrevocable
promise of redemption against specific
quantity of gold.
Every currency note carried an irrevocable
promise of redemption against specific
amount of US Dollars.
6. The system failed because it lacked flexibility
for changing the money supply
Oversupply of US Dollars reduced the
acceptability of the currency. Failure to fulfill
the gold convertibility clause resulted in the
failure of the system
7. Exchange rates varied between upper and
lower gold points
Exchange rates varied between support
points at (+/-) 1% on either side of parity
rates.
8. Each currency pair had unique gold points All currency pairs had a standardized
variation range
9. Central exchange rates were based on the
ratio of the official gold rates in the two
currencies
Parity rates were fixed against US Dollars by
the respective Central Bank
10. The system had an in-built mechanism for
achieving exchange rate stability
Protection of parity was to be achieved
through intervention
11. International settlements were done in terms International settlements were done in terms
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
9
of gold of US Dollars
12. Mechanism for calculating exchange rates
was ‘The Mint Par of Exchange’ system
Mechanism for calculating exchange rates
was ‘The Par Value’ mechanism
13. Rigid system in which liquidity adjustment
was difficult. It promoted Bilateral approach
More flexible with greater liquidity. It
promoted a Multilateral approach
14. In the gold standard the reserves did not earn
any interest
Under the Bretton Woods System, USD
reserves could be invested to get return on
reserves
15. There was no commitment mechanism in the
gold standard since there was no institutional
support to monitor the Mint Parities
In the Bretton Woods System the IMF
functioned as a supervisor of the Par Value
Mechanism
16. The Price Specie Adjustment Mechanism
helped in achieving trade equilibrium
Trade policy controls were necessarily to
achieve trade equilibrium
4. (b) What are FRNs? State its features?
A Floating Rate Note (FRN) is as its name implies, a bond with varying coupon. Periodically
(typically every six months), the interest rate payable for the next six months is set with reference
to a market index such as LIBOR. In some cases, a ceiling may be put on the interest rate
(capped FRNs), while in some cases there may be a ceiling and a floor (collared FRNs).
5. (a) Explain the term FDI. State its advantages and disadvantages
FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT (FDI):
Foreign Direct Investment can be described as investment made by a foreign entity in the equity of a
domestic company (Target Company) with the intention of participating in the management of the
enterprise. Alternatively it can be described as an investment transaction in which an investor from
one country (home country) seeks to obtain managerial interest in an entity in another country (host
country) for controlling and operating physical assets created through such investments.
ADVANTAGES OF FDI:
1. FDI inflows are long-term in nature and therefore do not lead to volatility either in foreign
exchange or capital markets
2. Since the investments are in physical assets it is not easy to instantly withdraw such investments
therefore there is no panic withdrawal during periods of economic crises
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
10
3. Very often foreign inflows by way of debt or loans get used to finance consumption leading to
debt repayment problems and increase in money supply. Such features are not seen in the case of
FDI because the funds translate into productive capacity.
4. FDI not only helps to achieve economic growth but also improves the technological knowhow
available to the country. This leads to sustainable development.
5. Access to international markets becomes easier and cost effective because the target company can
leverage the existing brand of the contributing foreign investor.
6. The single most important advantage of FDI is employment generation which develops
marketable skills in the local population and becomes the basis of sustainable economic growth. It
effectively helps to build human capital.
Disadvantages of FDI:
1. Repatriation, reinvestment and distribution of profits cannot be controlled by the host country.
2. Cultural differences between the foreign investor and the local management can lead to friction as
also have adverse social side effects therefore social regulations need to be in place before permitting
FDI.
3. Excessive dependence on the foreign entity may result in gradual loss of control over the business
entity.
5. (b) State about the role of ECB and its objectives
EUROPEAN CENTRAL BANK: (ECB)
BACKGROUND:
The Bretton Woods Agreement provided the US Dollar with the status of Universal Reserve Asset
and simultaneously reduced the importance of European currencies. The idea of a Monetary Union
arose out of the need to establish a currency to effectively compete with the US Dollar. The European
nations formed a club called the ‘European Union’ (EU) and achieved integration of trade and
convergence of economies. The intention was to create a single frontierless market with a common
currency and a common central bank. 16 of the 27 participating members have adopted a common
currency called ‘EURO’ (EUR).
During the course of these developments it was essential to create a common institution which would
monitor and implement a common monetary policy. The European Monetary Institute (EMI) was
established to handle transitional issues of countries adopting the EURO and to prepare for creation
of the European Central Bank and the European System of Central Banks (ESCB). In keeping with the
INTERNATIONAL FINANCE QUEST TUTORIALS______________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________QUEST TUTORIALS: A-201, 2nd floor, Rajdarshan society, Behind ICICI ATM, Dada Patil Wadi, near platform
no.1, THANE (W). Contact: 67120221 / 25394777. Website: www.questclasses.com Thane, Dadar & Kalyan
11
terms of the Amsterdam Treaty (2 October 1997) the ECB replaced the EMI effective 1 June 1998. The
bank assumed full powers effective 1 Jan 1999 when the EURO was introduced.
ROLE OF ECB:
The ECB has the mandate to administer the monetary policy of the 16 EU member countries who
have adopted the common currency EURO. These nations are collectively called ‘EUROZONE’.
OBJECTIVES OF ECB:
1. To ensure price stability within the Euro-zone through low inflation rates. (Ideally less than 2 %)
2. To define and implement a common monetary policy.
3. To take care of the foreign currency reserves of the ESCB.
4. To promote smooth operation of the financial markets.
5. To maintain an exclusive right over issuance of Euro-banknotes and coins. National Central Banks
of participating nations are permitted to mint coins under quantitative control of the ECB.
6. To maintain a stable financial system and monitor the banking sector.