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Tips to Coaching a Veterinary Science
Team
By Elizabeth Ammon
Susanville FFA
Vet Science Coaching Guide.doc.doc 2
INTRODUCTION:
It has been fun to watch this contest grow from the smaller specialty animal contest it was years ago, to the largely competitive veterinary science contest that has become. A little history, this contest used to cover a bit of the same ID and knowledge but also used to have students judge rabbits! Although useful for those interested in rabbits the application towards the veterinary science field was not as strong as it could be. A few coaches saw the benefit of molding this contest to be more similar to the national veterinary science contest so when our state representatives went back to nationals they would be more prepared. Instead of learning almost all new curriculum, this mimics now a large portion of the contest. Our teachers agreed on this change and since then the contest has grown to match a lot of the national contest. The identification, general knowledge and testing as well as practicums are very similar to the national contest. There are some components our state does not include, as to not make this contest a two-day long event. This last round of curricular code changes included the addition of a math question bank to better prepare students for the math portion of the national contest. Even as this contest has changed to meet the demands of national finals prep, the dedication of our teachers and students has risen to the occasion. With this demand, it is important for you as a coach to know and understand all components of this contest to be best prepared to coach your students. There are great resources to help you, fellow teachers more than willing to share and workshops geared to better prepare coaches for this popular contest. No matter how perfect you think your study materials are, it is important to stay fresh, current, update, and create new materials to stay up to date on curricular code changes and industry changes. COACHING I am a firm believer that success breeds success. Show your kids, even at the smallest of contests, that they can be successful. There are many contests offered across the state so get your team out there and practice, practice, practice. Consistency in practicing and competing will best prepare them for state finals. At Susanville, we practice at least 3-4 hours a week, and I know many of schools who practice more. Students are also given tests to complete on their own, PowerPoints to create and present at practices, and each team member puts on a full fledge practice contest over a lunch and after school practice the weeks prior to state finals. I have found that by doing this, it forces them to read the fine lines of the curricular code and to have a better understanding of how much work it takes to put on a contest. They then understand how easy contestants can make mistakes, as well as contest sites. The appreciation they gain for a well put on contest and for those volunteering their time is invaluable. I also have my team members make goals after each contest before the next contest. They break down their placings by sub contest, evaluate areas for improvement, and make goals for sub contest and individual level for the next contest. Then, after the next contest, we re-evaluate. This engages them in really studying the components of the contest and focus on areas for growth. I start coaching with practicums. Why? Because they capture the interest of the kids. Lunches are dedicated to introducing a new practicum in which my advanced team members present. Then, by the next practice, they have to memorize and present the last week’s practicum. After schools are dedicated to ID, yet a lot of ID must be practiced at home based on the large study file I supply kids. Then, math. While math, in my opinion, can decide the winning team….it is a lot for some kids at the beginning. Start with chapter 1 from our textbook, hit those root words, prefixes, suffixes and medical terminology. Then, move into the medical questions. Use the resource I supply that breaks down these questions and then make sure they can complete these step by step. Knowing and understanding dimensional analysis is so important. A math conversion sheet should be supplied at each contest so save them the stress of memorizing that sheet. There are math supplemental books to help break these down more as well. Then, the text book. There is a ton of great information in this book. Start with chapter 1, and then have
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them read a new chapter or two each week and review with the test generated question bank. I assign 2 tests a week for homework, they come in one day before school and grade, and we simply review those questions they did not understand. This saves a lot of time when the year is winding down and there is so much left to cover. Remind your students to be advocates for themselves at the contest. If they cannot see the PowerPoint from their seat in the room or they do not have all their papers to compete their potion, they need to speak up. There is a lot going on and a lot people can do to help. Also know, that state finals is the only one that has to run perfectly to curricular code, and it does! Side note, find me at a contest and ask if you have any questions. I can walk through the math with you, review tools or basic questions. There are so many coaches in this contest willing to help others. You just need to ask! BREAKING DOWN THE CURRICULAR CODE This contest counts the scores of all 4 team members since nationals does as well. Each member will compete in each portion of the event individually. They will be in different rotations so that they are spread out from each other. This also means that they can place individually and as a team in sub contest as well as final placings. To be eligible to compete at the state finals contest, a team must compete in a minimum of three of the following field days: CSU Chico, Arbuckle, UC Davis, Modesto JC, Reedley CC, CSU Fresno, Lassen CC, Hemet Field Day, San Diego Section Field Day, Dinuba, Clovis, Norte Vista FFA, Arroyo Grande, Gridley, or Animal Care Clinic/SLO HS Contest. Only the top 24 teams, determined mathematically by a tabulations coordinator, will be eligible to compete at the state finals contest. The formula to calculate the 24 qualifying teams will be: Weighted Score = (51 – Ranking) + (# of teams – Rank)/2 Weighted score will be based on number of teams that complete in any portion of a contest. Many of these contests fill within minutes of the opening of registration. Register for these the minute these contests open to ensure your teams ability to compete. Even if you are high ranking towards the end of the year but are unable to get into a contest to compete in your third qualifier, you lose the ability to compete in state finals. Some of these contests also have prelims to compete in the entire contest. There will be a first portion which normally includes the ID and test and then there are cuts, where only the top 20 or so teams continue to perform practicums. This helps contests not be rushed to get through practicums and alleviate multiple sets of judges. There are other contest sites that see every team member in every component. Here there are usually multiple sets of judges for each practicum rotation. Be prepared for consistencies and lack of consistencies of these judges when there are multiple sets judging.
Let’s break down the contest!
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Classes
The contest will include:
Class
Individual Points Team Points
A. Identification Tests
1. Equipment and Materials 150 600
2. Parasites 50 200
3. Breed identification 100 400
B. Practicum #1 50 200
Practicum #2 50 200
Practicum #3 50 200
C. General Knowledge Test (50 questions) 100 400
TOTAL POINTS 550 2,200
Individual point totals: Identification = 300 points Practicums= 150 points Test= 100 points With identification being worth over half the points, it is imperative to make sure each team member gets these ‘easy’ points. Do not practice looking at the same picture of a border collie on quizlet, make sure they know what the dg looks like as a pup, adult, in each color option and if it’s a face shot or full body shot. There is also more than one way a piece of equipment can look. If you have live equipment ID, which most coaches practice with, it is important they realize there is more than one way each piece of equipment can look like. Some contests like to stretch these boundaries and use ID that may or may not be what the curricular code is asking, Regardless, if they know all possibilities then they can make strong educated guesses as to what unknown equipment could possibly be. Microscopic identification has been changed a lot in the last few years. It is now not only parasite ID but also microscopic ID as well. Use reliable resources, including the CDC website. Google pictures based on scientific name to ensure you are finding the right ID, and still from there go onto the sites and follow up on those references to make sure the sources are reliable. Practicums: they need to know these STEP BY STEP and MEMORIZED word for word. They receive half credit for reciting the practicum word for word, and half credit for properly performing them at the same time. Note that when they enter the room to perform a practicum there will be a “scenario” written on a piece of paper outlining what the student needs to perform. They need to read this, interpret what is asked, and properly perform the task. Make sure if it mentions the left eye or OS that they perform the task on the animal’s left eye. If the practicum has them filling a prescription and says to give Buddy 250mg Amoxicillin BID x 10d that students can interpret it is asking for 20 tabs to be placed in the container (BID= twice a day x 10 days= 20 tabs). If you do not know how to teach these practicums there are plenty online on youtube. Google veterinary science CDE and multiple sets of videos will appear for you to use as resources. Some are not perfect and you will have to adjust their presentations based on the and ordering of wording,
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Rules
I. Contestants in this contest will be divided into groups. Only one group will be allowed at one site at one time. Only one member of a team shall be allowed in a group.
II. All participants must wear either official FFA dress or team scrubs (solid color tops and bottoms) to compete at all qualifying contests. All members must wear official FFA dress at the state finals registration and awards ceremonies (changing into scrubs can happen after uniform check and before the regular start time of the contest).
III. All equipment and practicum materials needed by the contestants will be available at the judging sites. (This means no study resources, programable calculators, copies of practicum outlines, items for practicums, etc)
IV. All contestants must fill out the official score sheets and will be graded according to the points shown on the score card. (Please make sure students know how to fill in a scantron I know this seams like a no brainer but every year I have students at contests turn in scantrons NOT properly competed. They either place X’s on the bubble, over bubble or even bubble with too light a mark. Practice them doing ID, timed and with a scantron to get practice.
V. The contestants will be allowed 45 minutes at each test site to complete that section. Equipment/Materials, Parasites/Breed Identification, General Knowledge Test – three rotations.
VI. Three Practicums will be allowed 90 minutes for completion. (Some of this is done going from 1 pracitcum to the next, others have wait times between practicums)
VII. Identification Test (Time: Equipment/Materials = 45 minutes, Breed/Parasites = 45 minutes) PowerPoint slides will be set at 15 seconds per picture, the PowerPoint will be ran through twice and the slides will be numbered.
A. Equipment and Materials can be picked at random from the approved National Curricular Code list. Seventy-five items will be chosen for this contest. Two points for each correct answer.
B. Parasites are to be picked from the National Curricular Code list provided. The specie and location on the animal will be given. Twenty-five items will be used in the contest. Two points for each correct answer.
C. Students will identify 50 animals from the approved National Curricular Code list. Each correct answer will be worth two points.
VIII. Practicums (Time: 90 minutes) Practicums will consist of three from the list of current year practicums: Students will go in order from one practicum to the other until all contestants are finished in each group. The list of practicums will come from the list provided by the California FFA contest for Veterinary Science. There will be a three minute maximum time limit for each of the individual practicums. (Some contest sites do not time, some start time when the student walks in the room and goes to start reading the scenario and some start the time after the scenario has been read and once the individual begins speaking. If you have them memorize an enlarged version of the practicum and they run out of time, note that the points lost add up fast. It is important to say what needs to be said in time, efficiently, smoothly, with confidence and performing the steps correctly.) Practicums rotate annually so over the individual’s 4 years in high school they will not repeat a practicum. I have included some good videos and/or resources for each practicum.
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2018-2019 Practicum Administering Ophthalmic Medication- Clinical
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=urEC2eoBL4A&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSby&index=2
Applying a Gauze Dog Muzzle-Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=s_5-
o24qZo8&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSby&index=19 Prescription Filling- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JV2PWbrB6xQ&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=11 Fecal Flotation with Fecalyzers- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Pe7v-
xjiPww&list=PLx5J7hXrFrUrES7b8PAhiDyDODFc5DsYk&index=33 Haltering a Horse- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CL3bnTeYBXI&list=PLx5J7hXrFrUrES7b8PAhiDyDODFc5D
sYk&index=19 Removing a cat from a cage and placing it in a cat bag- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=E-
IOap4DxWA&list=PLx5J7hXrFrUrES7b8PAhiDyDODFc5DsYk&index=3 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=X96uyioMRxI&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=14 Restraint of the cat for Jugular Venipuncture- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SOE8-
0rZGdE&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSby&index=17 2019-2020 Practicum Administering an Intramuscular Injection- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l7qtXW9T1Z4&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=3 Administration Oral Tablet/Capsule- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=2ILfvvG8spg&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YS
by&index=13 Applying a Cat Muzzle- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zt1PTZE0ywg&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=15 Opening a Surgery Pack- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ChnV4xbgSBU&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=8
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Applying Elizabethan Collar- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=5PqentjqPlc&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YS
by&index=31 Removing a Dog from a Floor Level Cage to Restrain for Lateral Saphenous Venipuncture-
Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=puI76X_l-
gg&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSby&index=22 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ieR8Ek3sTGM&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=23 Snare Restraint of the Pig- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FFYpJDjjmA4&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=32 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ihmfMjkjwvo&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=33 2020-2021 Practicum Administering a Subcutaneous Injection- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AGL5yKj6GU8&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=4 Applying a Nylon Dog Muzzle- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=E3bTyoY1yn8&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=20 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=s_5-
o24qZo8&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSby&index=19 Placing a Tail Tie- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=g04Hq5rerpI&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YS
by&index=30 Preparing a Surgical Pack for Sterilization-Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XiCTYKjeqYs&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YS
by&index=9 Removal of Sutures- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ji4dMSYW3dY&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=12 Restraint of a Dog for Jugular Venipuncture- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mCBKI3qP-
4Y&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSby&index=25 Restraint of the Cat for Cephalic IV Catheter Placement- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0eICxfixT6g&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YSb
y&index=18
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2021-2022 Practicum Administering Aural Medication- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=qf9U5AeU04U&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=1 Bandage Removal- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=c2PQoZknvIk&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=5 Filling a Syringe for Injection- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=zI8Dh4nTOCw&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=6 Haltering Ruminants- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DdmxeU80d8o&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=28 Restraint of a Rabbit- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=DdmxeU80d8o&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=28 Restraint of a Dog for Cephalic Venipuncture- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cpdiGU5I8y0&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5YS
by&index=26 Restraint of the Cat in Lateral Recumbency for Femoral Venipuncture- Handling https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=e3GbluVxmg4&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5
YSby&index=16 Surgical Site Preparation- Clinical https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RlP_Gbxl5CA&list=PLHsYpPpBpU7EjdZIuxgoyxZpggya5Y
Sby&index=10
IX. General Knowledge and Medical Math Test (Time: 45 minutes)
A. The written exam will consist of 50 multiple choice questions. Ten of the 50 questions will be medical math questions. Questions will come from a set of approved texts, of no more than five, that will be selected by a committee made up of the top five coaches at State Finals of the revision year to be decided by the end of CATA Summer Conference. Veterinary Assisting: Fundamental and Applications. Vanhorn, Clark. ISBN:978-1-4354-5387-6
Definitely get the text book and the test generator for the book. Review, review, review! I have included the old test bank from when it was the specialty animal contest. This, by no means, should be the only thing you review but it is a good start or at least a smaller amount of material if you don’t want to overwhelm newbies and don’t have the text yet.
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Test Bank
1) When trying to remove a frightened cat from a kennel, which body postures are you least likely to see?
A) Tail carried upright C) Ears flattened against head
B) Pupils dilated D) Crouched position
Answer: A
2) Castration of a male dog will help to eliminate which type of aggressive behavior?
A) Territorial aggression C) Predatory aggression
B) Fear-induced aggression D) Redirected aggression
Answer: A
3) The most commonly encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is:
A) Canine dominance-aggression biting C) Female rabbit territorial-aggression biting
B) Equine dominance-aggression biting D) Canine fear biting
Answer: D
4) Which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapes its enclosure?
A) Bird C) Horse
B) Dog D) Cat
Answer: D
5) Horses display aggression by:
A) Biting C) Nickering
B) Head butting D) Snorting
Answer: A
6) Which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday?
A) Pain-induced aggression C) Territorial aggression
B) Predatory aggression D) Dominance aggression
Answer: B
7) The process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other
species is called:
A) Sensitization C) Integration
B) Socialization D) Anthropomorphism
Answer: B
8) An animal that growls or hisses, bares teeth, air-snaps, and/or lunges is exhibiting______ behavior.
A) Dominant C) Threating
B) Submissive D) Aggressive
Answer: C
9) Most cats prefer to be petted:
A) On the head
B) On their scent glands located on their cheeks and in front of their ears
C) On the belly
D) On the back
Answer: B
10) Reinforcement or punishment of emotionally induced behavior is referred to as________ conditioning.
A) Positive C) Operant
B) Negative D) Counter
Answer: C
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11) The study of animal behavior is called:
A) Homotoxicology C) Mircobiology
B) Ethology D) Physiology
Answer: B
12) Agonistic behavior deals with
A) Conflict C) Fear-induced
B) Territorial D) Dominance
Answer: A
13) Predatory aggression deals with
A) Intermale conflict C) Pain-induced
B) Suckling female D) Chasing and killing prey
Answer: D
14) Following a seizure which sign is Not a common behavior for an animal:
A) Animal appears blind C) Animal is disoriented
B) Animal cannot control bowels D) Elevated body temperature
Answer: B
15) Ears raised, mouth opened in a relaxed grin, lowered front half of body in a “bowing” posture, and tail
wagging is considered to be which type of canine visual communication?
A) Aggressive C) Submission
B) Play D) Relaxed
Answer: B
16) The feline’s first line of defense is:
A) Its teeth C) Its tail
B) Its claws D) Its hind legs
Answer: B
17) A good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is:
A) Apply the maximum amount of restraint possible to ensure the safety of all involved.
B) Apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe.
C) Always supply the same amount of restraint: that which is usually tolerated by a member of species being
handled.
D) Never use ropes when restraining animals
Answer: B
18) The most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the:
A) Dairy Bull C) Thoroughbred stallion
B) Adult male Rottweiler D) Adult female python
Answer: A
19) The best way to approach a horse is:
A) Quickly and directly from the front C) Quickly and from the front and the left side
B) Slowly and directly from the front D) Slowly and from the front and the left side
Answer D
20) The position of a chain lead attached to a halter that will control most horses without being too serve is:
A) Over the poll C) Over the nose
B) Under the jaw D) Under the upper lip against the gums
Answer: C
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21) The first step to take when attempting to handle a large, aggressive dog is:
A) Put on heavy leather gloves and grab the scruff of the neck
B) Place a muzzle
C) Catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot
D) Throw a towel over the dog’s head
Answer: C
22) If a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should:
A) Lift him like you would a medium-sized dog
B) Get help so two of you can lift him
C) Try to get him to jump up on the table
D) Lift his front quarters onto the table then lift hindquarters to meet his front quarter
Answer B
23) You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection
has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, “Okay”. He is most likely asking you to:
A) Let go of the dog’s foreleg
B) Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
C) Talk softly to the dog
D) Gently push down on the dog to encourage him to lie down
Answer: B
24) One of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is:
A) Gently grasp both front legs
B) Place one hand over its back and one hand under its belly
C) Grasp the scruff of the neck
D) Talk softly to the cat
Answer: C
25) Which of these is not a sign of warning from a cat?
A) Hissing C) Swiping at you with a paw
B) Ears lowered D) Looking the other way
Answer: D
26) As a restraint tool, a towel is used to
A) Wrap up an angry cat C) Let the cat hide under
B) Let the cat curl up and go to sleep D) Protect you from bites and scratches
Answer: A
27) The types of animal restraint are:
A) Physical, psychological, and hypnotic
B) Traumatic, chemical, and physical
C) Chemical, hypnotic, and psychological
D) Chemical, psychological, and physica
Answer: D
28) You are restraining a Basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. When the person performing the injection has
placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, “Okay.” He is most likely asking you to:
A) Verbally indicate that he has made contact with the vein
B) Lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
C) Release the animal from restraint
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D) Roll the vein in the opposite direction
Answer: B
29) Type of scissors with long handles used for cutting delicate tissue are
A) Littauer C) Mayo
B) Metzenbaum D) Lister
Answer: B
30) Forceps that are 20cm (9inches) with longitudinal grooves are:
A) Rochester-Pean C) Rochester- Carmalt
B) Kelly D) Crile
Answer: C
31) A needle holder combined with a scissor is called
A) Mathieu C) Mayo-Hegar
B) Rochester-Pean D) Olsen-Hegar
Answer: D
32) Self-retaining tissue forceps with multiple fine intermeshing teeth at the tips are called:
A) Allis C) Babcock
B) Adson D) Brown-Adson
Answer: A
33) When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, nonscrubbed surgical personnel may touch the
A) Autoclave tape C) Towel
B) Indicator D) Gown
Answer: A
34) Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissor?
A) Mayo C) Iris
B) Metzenbaum D) Lembert
Answer: D
35) Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold edges of the incision open?
A) Rat tooth C) Crile
B) Brown-Adson D) Allis tissue
Answer: C
36) Metzenbaum scissor are only used for
A) Cutting suture C) Ophthalmic surgery
B) Cutting paper drapes D) Cutting tissue
Answer: D
37) A Snook hook is typically used during
A) A castration C) A ovariohysterctomy
B) A diaphragmatic hernia repair D) Declawing
Answer: C
38) Emasculators are used
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A) In large animal castrations C) During surgical ovariectomies in heifers and mares
B) During enucleations in large dogs D) To perform ovariohysterectomy
Answer: A
39) Which of the following separates the blood?
A) Autoclave C) Carmalt
B) Centrifuge D) J tube
Answer: B
40) The rumen magnet is used in which of the following?
A) Dog C) Cow
B) Horse D) B & C
Answer: C
41) Which of the following tool is used to control a horse
A) Chain twitch C) Humane twitch
B) Halter D) All of the above
Answer: D
42) Which is not used to give shots:
A) Bulb syringe C) Leur lock syringe
B) Slip tip syringe D) Automatic syringe
Answer: A
43) Which statement is true regarding the use of a trocar:
A) Trocar is driven through the abdomen into the abomasum of a cow’s stomach
B) Trocar is a large, sharp probe with a metal sleeve around it and is never plastic
C) Once in the Rumen of the animal the probe is removed, leaving the metal sleeve in to drain gas
D) None of the above are true statements
ANSWER: C
44) Which of the following is not a common method of pill administration for a dog or cat?
A) Pill Push Method C) Food Method
B) Pill Crushed Method D) All are recognized methods of pill administration
ANSWER: D
45) To deliver a copper bolus to an animal, which of the following would be used?
A) Stomach pump C) Balling Gun
B) Dosing syringe D) Bulb syringe
ANSWER: C
46) When spaying a cat, which instrument would not be used?
A) Scalpel handle C) Needle holder
B) Standard splint D) Scalpel blade
ANSWER: B
47) Which instrument is best for determining if a canine has a scratched cornea?
A) Opthalmoscope C) Otoscope
B) Stethoscope D) Trocar
Answer: A
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48) Which tool simultaneously severs the spermatic cord and clamps in order to prevent hemorrhage?
A) Elastrator B) Adson tissue forceps
B) Babcock tissue forceps D) Emasculator
ANSWER: D
49) The following tool aids in the illumination and magnification of the ear:
A) Endoscope C) Ophthalmoscope
B) Stethoscope D) Otoscope
ANSWER: D
50) Which dehorner cauterizes as it removes the horn?
A) Barnes C) Electric
B) Tube D) Allis
ANSWER: C
51) Which of the following forceps where only the top jaw moves:
A) Alligator C) Crile
B) Kelly D) Brown-Adson
ANSWER: A
52) Which syringe is most efficient for vaccinating large jobs because of its ability to be adjusted and set to
doses the same amount each time?
A) Bulb C) Drench
B) Automatic D) Paste gun
ANSWER: B
53) Which is not a type of brush?
A) Dandy C) Slicker
B) Scotch D) Pin
ANSWER: B
54) Which is not a form of restraint or control of an animal?
A) Elizabethan collar C) Cat bag
B) Muzzle D) Cannula
ANSWER: D
55) Which of the following is used to permanently ID animals?
A) Identification Tag applicator C) Tattooing Instruments
B) Ear tag pliers D) None of the above
ANSWER: C
56) Which is used to cover the animal except the area that is surgically worked on:
A) Surgical gown C) Surgical tray
B) Surgical masks D) Surgical drapes
ANSWER: D
57) Which is not an instrument that is used on a horse:
A) Dental float C) Fingertip toothbrush
B) Chain Twitch D) Gag mouth speculum
ANSWER: C
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58) Which is not a tool that removes dead hair?
A) Flea comb C) Shedding blade
B) Curry comb D) Scotch comb
ANSWER: A
59) The tool best used to pull Foxtails out of a dogs ear:
A) Rat tooth Forceps C) Adson Tissue Forceps
B) Allis Tissue Forceps D) Alligator Forceps
ANSWER: D
60) The temperature that must be reached in an autoclave to destroy microorganisms is
A) 110 degree C C) 170 degree C
B) 121 degree C D) 240 degree C
ANSWER: B
61) The instrument specifically used for collecting a fecal sample directly from the animal’s
rectum is a
A) Fecal extractor C) Fecal Spoon
B) Fecalyzers D) Fecal loop
ANSWER: D
62) What does a change in color in autoclave tape indicate to a surgical nurse?
A) The surgical instruments in the pack have been adequate sterilized
B) During the autoclaving process, steam has reached the tape
C) Adequate temperature and pressures have been achieved
D) The pack has been exposed to adequate pressures
ANSWER: B
63) What type of scissors is best for removing suture material?
A) Bandage C) Mayo dissecting
B) Littauer D) Lister bandage
ANSWER: B
64) What is the tool that is not used to trim the hoofs of an animal?
A) Hoof trimmer C) Hoof rasp
B) Hoof nippers D) Hoof knife
ANSWER: C
65) The Stethoscope is used to listen to the digestive organs?
A) True B) False
ANSWER: A
66) The endotracheal tubes are used to open the air way of an animal?
A) True B) False
ANSWER: A
67) Which tool can be used to control arterial bleeding?
A) Kelly forceps C) Gavage needle
B) Suture materials D) Tourniquet
ANSWER: D
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68) Radiology P.P.E’s are used when using the Autoclave?
A) True B) False
ANSWER: B
69) The weight tape is used to figure the carcass weight of an animal?
A) True B) False
ANSWER: B
70) Obstetrical chain and handle helps in assisting in the birthing process?
A) True B) False
ANSWER: B
71) Which of the following cannot be used to help the handler not to get bite?
A) Basket Muzzle C) Commerical muzzle
B) Elizabethan collar D) Cat bag
ANSWER: D
72) A cat bag completely encloses the body of the cat.
A) True B) False
ANSWER: A
73) The Dental floats are used to file down the teeth of a horse.
A) True B) False
ANSWER: A
74) Which tool would you used to remove plaque from the teeth.
A) Dental scaler C) Dental floats
B) Dental retractor D) Dental radiography
ANSWER: A
75) This Gag mouth speculum would be used to open the mouth to work on the teeth.
A) True B) False
ANSWER: A
76) This machine is used to deliver inhalant anesthetics and oxygen.
A) Autoclave C) Centrifuge
B) Gravity feeder/ J tube D) Anesthetic machine
ANSWER: D
77) This tool is used to attach drapes to the patient.
A) Backhaus towel clamp C) Halstead mosquito hemostatic
B) Kelly forceps D) Tourniquet
ANSWER: A
78) This tool is used to help place an endotracheal tube.
A) Gag mouth speculum C) Ambubag
B) Laryngoscope D) Cannula
ANSWER: B
79) This tool provides an artificial ventilation
Vet Science Coaching Guide.doc.doc 17
A) Autoclave C) Ambubag
B) Cat bag D) Laryngoscope
ANSWER: C
80) What system is anatomically composed of the brain and Spinal cord?
A) Central nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system D) Sympathetic nervous system
Answer: A
81) The hormone produced by a developing ovarian follicle is
A) Estrogen C) Progesterone
B) Prolactin D) Oxytocin
Answer: A
82) Where are striated muscles located?
A) Stomach wall and the uterus
B) Urinary bladder and intestine
C) Ciliary body of the eye
D) Heart and skeletal muscle
Answer: D
83) The SA node is located in the wall of which chamber?
A) Left atrium C) Right atrium
B) Left ventricle D) Right ventricle
Answer: C
84) Smooth muscles can be found in the
A) Heart C) Stomach and reproductive tract
B) Pelvic limb D) Diaphragm
Answer: C
85) Giving birth is known as
A) Estrous C) Lactation
B) Parturition D) Gestation
Answer: B
86) A capillary refill time of 2 seconds would suggest
A) Shock C) A healthy animal
B) Anemia D) Dehydration
Answer: C
87) In the avian species the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the
A) Proventriculus C) Gizzard
B) Crop D) Duodenum
Answer: B
88) The portion of the cardiac muscle that separates the right and left ventricles is called the
A) Sternum C) Coronary sinus
B) Septum D) Myometrium
Answer: B
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89) Which of these is not a division of the small intestine?
A) Duodenum C) Ileum
B) Ilium D) Jejunum
Answer: B
90) The time period from the beginning of one cycle to the beginning of the next is called the
A) Estrus cycle C) Ovulation
B) Estrus cycle D) Mating cycle
Answer: A
91) The first cervical vertebrae, C1, is referred to as the
A) Axis C) Atlas
B) Arch D) Auricle
Answer: C
92) The cat has how many cervical vertebrae?
A) 13 C) 3
B) 10 D) 7
Answer: D
93) The breastbone is referred to as the
A) Septum C) Sternum
B) Hyoid D) Tubercle
Answer: C
94) The cardiovascular system has four components. Which of the following is not part of the system?
A) Lungs C) Heart
B) Blood circulation D) Blood vessels
Answer: A
95) Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae?
A) 7, 13, 6 C) 6, 13, 7
B) 7, 12, 7 D) 7, 13, 7
Answer: D
96) Which arteries carry deoxygenated blood?
A) Aorta C) Pulmonary arteries
B) Coronary arteries D) Vena cava
Answer: C
97) Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle?
A) Right atrium C) Right ventricle
B) Left atrium D) Left ventricle
Answer: D
98) Bile is produced in the
A) Spleen C) Pancreas
B) Liver D) Omasum
Answer: B
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99) Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates in the digestive tract?
A) Lipase C) Protease
B) Ileus D) Amylase
Answer: D
100) Where would you expect to find DNA within the cell?
A) Within the cell membrane C) Within the ribosomes
B) Within the cytoplasm D) Within the nucleus
Answer: D
101) What is the tissue type responsible for fat storage?
A) Adipose tissue C) Connective tissue
B) Neural tissue D) Glandular tissue
Answer: A
102) Which organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore?
A) Spleen C) Pancreas
B) Liver D) Kidney
Answer: B
103) The huge comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side
of the abdomen is the
A) Colon C) Rectum
B) Ileum D) Cecum
Answer: D
104) Which of the following lists the sections of the small intestine in order from anterior to posterior?
A) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum
B) Duodenum, colon, jejunum
C) Ileum, duodenum, cecum
D) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Answer: D
105) Which animals have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines?
A) Horse, cow C) Dog, sheep
B) Cow, goat D) Cat, horse
Answer: B
106) The scientific discipline that studies the functions of living things is
A) Anatomy C) Physomy
B) Systemic anatomy D) Physiology
Answer: D
107) The canine foreleg is composed of the following bones
A) Tibia, radius, ulna C) Humerus, radius, ulna
B) Humerus, radius, fibula D) Femur, tibia, fibula
Answer: C
108) The cardiovascular system is composed of:
A) heart and lungs C) heart and blood vessels
B) lungs and trachea D) heart, lungs, and kidneys
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Answer: C
109) What type of connective tissue connects muscles to bones?
A) Tendon C) Cartilage
B) Ligament D) Blood
Answer: A
110) Bone marrow produces:
A) Blood cells C) Calcium and Phosphorus
B) Periosteum D) Spongy Bone
Answer: A
111) What term is used to describe the motion when a body part is moved closer to the body?
A) Flexion C) Abduction
B) Extension D) Adduction
Answer: D
112) What arteries supply blood to the head?
A) Carotid arteries C) Mesenteric arteries
B) Renal arteries D) Iliac arteries
Answer: A
113) The term used to describe a heart rate that is faster than normal is:
A) Tachycardia C) Arrhythmia
B) Bradycardia D) Atrial fibrillation
Answer: A
114) When oxygen levels in the blood fall, the mucous membranes of a veterinary patient may appear:
A) Red C) Purple
B) Pink D) Blue
Answer: D
115) What compartment of the ruminant stomach is called the true stomach?
A) Rumen C) Omasum
B) Reticulum D) Abomasum
Answer: D
116) Ovariohysterectomy is the technical term for which procedure?
A) Removal of testicles C) Removal of uterus
B) Removal of ovaries and uterus D) Removal of fetus
Answer: B
117) What is the name of the condition when one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum?
A) Pyometra C) Urethrostomy
B) Hypothyroidism D) Cryptorchidism
Answer: D
118) When a vessel is said to constrict, what has it done?
A) Expanded in length C) Expanded in diameter
B) Decreased in length D) Decreased in diameter
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Answer: D
119) Having feed available at all time is called:
A) Restricted diet C) Supplemental diet
B) Free‐choice diet D) Total mixed diet
Answer: B
120) Which organ is most involved in the excretion of drugs?
A) Liver C) Kidney
B) Stomach D) Brain
Answer: A
121) The long bone in the forelimb of a horse between the scapula and the radius is the:
A) Femur C) Humerus
B) Ulna D) Tibia
Answer: C
122) Guinea pigs cannot synthesize which vitamin?
A) A C) C
B) B12 D) K
Answer: C
123) Cystocentesis is the sterile collection of:
A) Blood C) Abdominal fluid
B) Urine D) Cerebrospinal fluid
ANSWER: B
124) The most common cause of viral enteritis in the canine is:
A) Hepatitis virus C) Parvo virus
B) Rabies virus D) Herpes virus
Answer: C
125) Hematuria is the clinical term for finding what in the urine?
A) Pus C) Protein
B) Crystals D) Blood
ANSWER: D
126) Drugs that have the greatest potential for being abused or addictive are classified by the DEA as:
A) Schedule I C) Schedule III
B) Schedule II D) Schedule IV
Answer: A
127) Which medical term is used for inflammation of the sac around the heart?
A) Cephalitis C) Pericarditis
B) Arthritis D) Bradycardia
Answer: C
128) Strangles, a common, highly contagious bacterial respiratory disease in the horse is caused by:
A) Aspergillus fungus C) Streptococcus equi bacterium
B) Equine herpes virus D) Equine encephalitis virus
Answer: C
129) The correct medical term for neutering a male animal is:
A) Orchiotomy C) Orchiectomy
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B) Ovariohysterectomy D) Cystotomy
Answer: C
130) What is the function of the red blood cell (RBC)?
A) Transport oxygen throughout the body C) Hemostasis or clotting
B) Help to maintain pH and temperature D) Body defense
Answer: A
131) When evaluating the integumentary system of Rowdy, a Palomino, the CVA would evaluate all of the
following areas EXCEPT:
A) Skin and hide C) Hooves
B) Mucous membranes D) Hair
Answer: B
132) When an animal is presented with an abnormality cranial to a certain body structure, the word cranial
means:
A) Toward the head C) Toward the nose
B) Toward the tail D) Closest to the midline
Answer: A
133) What does the acronym AVMA stand for?
A) American Veterinary Medical Associates
B) Associates of Veterinary Medical Associations
C) American Veterinary Medical Associations
D) Association of Veterinary Medical Americans
Answer: C
134) The ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the:
A) Client
B) Veterinary
C) Veterinary technicians
D) Patients
Answer: B
135) Veterinary technicians can perform which of the following:
A) Diagnosing C) Prescribe medicine
B) Prognosing D) Surgical assisting
Answer: D
136) In a Medical Record the abbreviation SOAP means:
A) supply, open, apply, prepare
B) subjective, objective, assessment, plan
C) submit, observe, ask, prepare
D) scrub, open, assess, plan
Answer: B
137) In taking history of a veterinary patient, it is important to ask open‐ended questions so the client can
give you important information. Which question below is an open‐ended question?
A) Your pet eats a lot, doesn’t he?
B) Is your pet eating more than normal?
C) What are your pet’s normal eating habits?
D) Your pet ate a lot this morning, didn’t he?
Answer: C
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138) A kennel cough vaccination is recommended before a dog is admitted into a:
A) Veterinary hospital C) Boarding kennel
B) Nursing home D) Human hospital
Answer: C
139) Zoonotic diseases are:
A) Only contracted from a zoo animal
B) Only found in veterinary clinics that work with zoo animals
C) Shared between animals and plants
D) Shared between animals and humans
Answer: D
140) The identifying information for every veterinary patient presented for evaluation is called:
A) History C) Chief complaint
B) Signalment D) Vital signs
Answer: B
141) What blood test evaluates the red blood cell (RBC) count, the size of the RBC’s, amount of hemoglobin,
number of platelets, total while blood cell (WBC) count and a breakdown of the types of cells present?
a. packed cell volume
b. complete blood cell count
c. chemistry profile
d. serology
Answer: B
142) What is the most common clinical sign observed with salmonellosis?
A) Fever C) Muscle Spasms
B) Headache D) Diarrhea
Answer: D
143) What type of anesthesia requires oxygen?
A) Local anesthesia
B) Regional anesthesia
C) Inhalation anesthesia
D) Topical anesthesia
Answer: C
144) The medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is:
A) Cystitis C) Dystocia
B) Peritonitis D) Uremia
Answer: A
145) You are instructed to give a medication SQ. This abbreviation means you give the medication via:
A) intraperitoneal injection C) subcutaneous injection
B) intramuscular injection D) D) intravenous injection
Answer: C
146) A benefit of rehabilitation for veterinary patients is:
A) loss of all chronic pain C) weight gain
B) increased mobility D) loss of all acute pain
Answer: B
147) Which of the following terms is defined as “difficult birth”?
A) dyspnea C) dystocia
B) dysphagia D) dysphagia
Answer: C
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148) Sterilization is defined as the:
A) destruction of all organisms on an object
B) reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms on an object
C) reduction of the number of microorganisms on an object to an acceptable public health standard
D) removal of all visible signs of dirt
Answer: A
149) The decision to prescribe medications to a patient is the responsibility of the:
A) Veterinarian
B) Credentialed veterinary technician
C) Veterinary assistant
D) Owner
Answer: A
150) A flotation test to look for internal parasites is conducted on which of the following?
A) Urine C) Blood
B) Feces D) Saliva
Answer: B
151) Which nutrient is the most important for survival?
A) Water C) Carbohydrates
B) Protein D) Vitamins
Answer: A
152) Which disease is caused by a virus?
A) Salmonellosis C) Tetanus
B) Rabies D) Ringworm
Answer: B
153) Everyone who is in the surgery room should be wearing
A) Sterile gloves C) Scrubs
B) Sterile gown D) Protective eyewear
Answer: C
154) Which of the following needles would most commonly be used for canine vaccinations?
A) 16 gauge C) 21 gauge
B) 20 gauge D) 25 gauge
ANSWER: C
155) Which of the following acronyms is used when administering medication twice a day?
A) TID C) BID
B) QID D) SID
ANSWER: C
156) Which of the following cattle breeds would be considered a dairy breed?
a. Shorthorn
b. Polled Hereford
c. Brown Swiss
d. Gelbvieh
ANSWER: C
157) Which of the following hazards is associated with radiography?
A) Hearing Loss C) Cancer
B) Burns or scalds D) None of the above
ANSWER: C
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158) Determine the number of pounds in 10.5 kilograms.
A) 25.5 C) 21.9
B) 24.6 D) 23.1
ANSWER: D
159) Which of the following parasites is considered an endoparasite?
a. Fleas C. Hookworms
b. Ticks D) Mites
ANSWER: C
160) Dystocia can be defined as:
a. The carrying of an embryo or fetus.
b. The process of giving birth.
c. Abnormal or difficult birth.
d. A birth in which the offspring enters the birth canal hind end first.
ANSWER: C
161) Referring to the lower or bottom view:
a. Dorsal
b. Ventral
c. Cranial
d. Anterior
ANSWER: B
162) Which of the following breeds of sheep is considered a fine wool breed?
a. Southdown
b. Suffolk
c. Hampshire
d. Rambouillet
ANSWER: D
163) Kyra, a 7-year-old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increases
vocalization and urine leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increased drinking) or having
accidents due to lack of training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A
(urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and
pattern of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is
prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg
po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5-mg tablets. How many tablets does this dog receive for the first three days?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
ANSWER: 3
164) Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Metronidazole tablets 250 mg Sig: 1
tablet, P.O., BID x 10days
a. 10 tablets
b. 20 tablets
c. 30 tablets
d. 40 tablets
ANSWER: B
165) You regularly order six 10-ml vials per month of a drug that has a concentration of 50 mg/ml. Now that
same drug is only available in 20-ml vials of 10 mg/ml. How many vials should you order this month?
a. 25 vials
b. 20 vials
Vet Science Coaching Guide.doc.doc 26
c. 15 vials
d. 10 vials
ANSWER: C
166) The order is for 500 mg of amoxicillin, and tablets on hand are 250 mg. How many tablets will be
administered?
a. 1 tablet
b. 2 tablets
c. 5 tablets
d. 6 tablets
ANSWER: B
167) Indicate the minimum amount of tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Ascriptin tablets
Sig: 1 tab P.O., BID x 14 days then 1 tab BID prn
a. 28 tablets
b. 24 tablets
c. 20 tablets
d. 16 tablets
ANSWER: A
168) A 13-year old M/N domestic short hair (DSH) named Buttons has a bite wound in the right side of the
mandible. The owner does not know when the cat got the bite wound because Buttons is an outside cat. He has
not been eating or drinking the past few days, is lethargic, and on PE has a T= 103.5>, HR = 180 bpm, and RR = 45
breaths/min. Other than the mandibular wound, he is healthy. He is current on vaccinations. The decision is made to
sedate Buttons so that the wound can be clipped, cleaned, and debrided. You must calculate the dose of injectable
anesthetic for Buttons, who weighs 12.5 lb. The dosage of Ketamine is 22 mg/kg IM. The concentration listed on the
vial of ketamine is 100 mg/ml.
The animal's weight in kg is?
a. 2.4 kg
b. 5.7 kg
c. 7.1 kg
d. 9.9 kg
ANSWER: B
169) The order is 0.5 mg of Centrine, and 0.2 mg tablets are on hand. How many tablets will be administered?
a. 1.0 tablets
b. 1.5 tablets
c. 2.0 tablets
d. 2.5 tablets
ANSWER: D
170) A cat in end-stage renal disease is receiving epoetin (2000 u/ml). The dose is 100 u/kg. Your patient
weighs 5.5 lb. How many units will you deliver?
a. 250
b. 500
c. 750
d. 1000
ANSWER: A
171) Translate the following into percents: 1:100
a. .05% c. 1%
b. .5% d. 1.5%
ANSWER: C
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172) 1000 mg = _____ g
a. .001
b. .01
c. 1
d. 10
ANSWER: C
173) How many mgs of a drug should be given to a patient weighing 22 lb if the dose is 0.2 mg/kg?
a. 2 mg
b. 2.2 mg
c. 22 mg
d. 22.2 mg
ANSWER: A
174) Indicate the tablets/capsules prescribed for the following order: Rx: Cephalexin capsules
250 mg Sig: 2 caps P.O., STAT; then 1 cap P.O., BID x 14 days
a. 30 capsules c. 50 capsules
b. 40 capsules d. 60 capsules
ANSWER: A
175) The veterinarian orders 4.4 mg/kg of carprofen for pain control divided into two equal daily doses for a 50-
lb dog. On hand are 100-mg scored tablets. How many tablets is/are administered each morning and afternoon?
a. 5 tablets in the morning and 2 in the afternoon
b. 1 tablet in the morning and afternoon
c. .5 tablets in the morning and 1 in the afternoon
d. .5 tablets in the morning and afternoon
ANSWER: D
176) The level of fluid in the liter bags reads at the 700 mark. How much fluid has been given?
a. 700 L
b. 700 ml
c. 300 L
d. 300 ml
ANSWER: D
177) Fenbendazole (10% suspension) is an antiparasitic drug used in the treatment of whipworms, roundworms,
hookworms, and some species of tapeworms. For dogs the dosage is 50 mg/kg po for 3 days. How many mls would
you give a dog that weights 50 lbs?
a. 9.5 mls
b. 11.4 mls
c. 12.1 mls
d. 14.3 mls
ANSWER: B
178) Which statement is Not true regarding nutritional differences between dogs and cats:
A) Cats are true carnivores and dogs are omnivores
B) Cats have a higher demand for protein than dogs
C) Dogs require higher levels of taurine and arginine than cats in their diet
D) A cats requirements for niacin and vitamin A are much higher than a dog
ANSWER: C
179) Hip dysplasia is a condition in which:
A) The ball and socket joint of the hip becomes diseased
B) The socket joint is deep not allowing the head of the femur to be held
C) The cartilage lining of the acetabulum becomes calcified and thick
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D) Is not painful and does not impact the dogs ability to walk correctly
ANSWER: A
180) A comminuted fracture of an animal’s bone is where:
A) The bone is broken into two pieces, a clean break
B) Several fragments of bone are the result of the break
C) One bone punctures through the skin as a result of the break
D) None of the above
ANSWER: B
181) Which is not a sign of heart failure:
A) Excessive intolerance C) Fluid accumulation in lungs and abdomen
B) Animal develops a cough D) All are signs of heart failure
ANSWER: D
182) Kennel cough is found in
A) Dogs C) Dogs and Cats
B) Cats D) All species
ANSWER: A
183) Which of the following is not a bacterial infection in animals:
A) Pneumonia C) Strangles
B) Canine Parvovirus D) Anthrax
ANSWER: B
184) Sargent, a German Shepherd Dog, needs anti-inflammatory medication due to his surgery for 30 days post
op. For the first 20 days he will need 2 pills a day, once in the morning and once at night. For the next 10
days he will take one pill a day. How many pills total will he be taking over the 30 days period?
A) 30 pills C) 50 pills
B) 40 pills D) 60 pills
ANSWER: C
185) Ruger, a 10 month old black Labrador, weighs 25 kilograms. Approximately how many pounds does he
weigh?
A) 40 pounds C) 60 pounds
B) 55 pounds D) 70 pounds
ANSWER: B
186) A 75lb dog must be dewormed. If the daily doge of the dewormer is 1 teaspoon per 25lb body weight for 3
days, approximately how much should be given each day?
A) 3 tablespoons C) 1 tablespoon
B) 5 teaspoons D) 1 teaspoon
ANSWER: C ---- 3 teaspoons = 1 tablespoon
187) How many tablets would you dispense for a 1-month supply of a drug with a dose
Of one and one-half tablets three times daily?
A) 500 C) 135
B) 45 D) 90
ANSWER: C ---(1.5tablets/dose x 3 doses/day x30 days=135)
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188) Six 12oz puppies need deworming medication. If the dose is 1 ml/lb
How many milliliters do you dispense?
A) 12 C) 6
B) 4.5 D) 3
ANSWER: B – (120z divided by 160/lb x 1ml/lb x 6 puppies = 4.5 ml)
189) Six blood pressure readings are 115, 120, 123, 121, 121 and 112 mm hg.
What is the average value?
A) 123 C) 121
B) 120 D) 119
ANSWER: D – (115+120+123=121+121+112 divided by 6 = 119 mm hg)
190) You are taking the heart rate of a cat. If you count 10 beats in 5 seconds,
What is the rate in beats per minute?
A) 50 C) 300
B) 120 D) 220
191) A growth in the skin that is 2 inches in diameter is how many centimeters?
A) 2.5 C) 20
B) 30 D) 5
ANSWER: D (2.5 cm/in x 2 in = 5 cm)
192) A 16oz bottle contains how many milliliters?
A) 480 C) 40
B) 240 D) 1.6
ANSWER: A (16oz x 30 ml/1oz = 480
193) Four hundred pounds is how many kilograms?
A) 880 C) 600
B) 182 D) 18
ANSWER: B (400lb divided by 2.2lb/kg = 181.8 kg = 182kg)
194) In feed that has 20lb of corn, 5lb of beet pulp, 1lb bone meal, and 2lb of whey,
approximately what percent is corn?
A) 98% C) 40%
B) 28% D) 71%
ANSWER: D (20+5+1+2=28.20 divided by 28lb = 71%)
195) Five tonometer readings in mm/Hg are 14, 15, 19, 14, and 18.
What is the average?
A) 14 C) 18
B) 16 D) 14.5
ANSWER: B (15+14+14+19+18 divided by 5= 16mm/HG)
196) A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of
Insulin is 100 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given?
A) 0.3 C) 0.03
B) 30 D) 0.15
ANSWER: C (3 units divided by 100 units/ml = 0.03)
197) A patient requires 3 units of insulin every 12 hours. If the concentration of insulin
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Is 30 units/ml, how many milliliters should be given?
A) 0.1 C) 0.05
B) 10 D) 0.01
ANSWER: A (3 units divided by 30 units/ml = 0.1)
198) When you view a specimen under a compound microscope using the 40x objective
and a 10x ocular,
the total magnification of the specimen being viewed is
A) 4x C) 400x
B) 40x D) 4000x
ANSWER: C
199) The capillary refill time (CRT) for Buddy is 1 second. In the patient chart, the CVA records that the CRT
for Buddy is:
a. Abnormally low
b. Normal
c. Abnormally high
d. Not enough information to record
Answer: B
200) Anemia is:
a. The study of parasites.
b. A single celled animal.
c. A decrease in the number of red blood cells.
d. A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans.
Answer: C
201) Pericardium is:
a. The muscular layer of the heart wall.
b. The fibrous sac that encloses the heart.
c. A thin layer that lines the surface of the heart.
d. A thin layer that lines the inside of the heart.
Answer: B
202) A compound fracture is one in which:
a. The break is along the axis of a bone.
b. The bone shatters in the many pieces.
c. The break is on one side of the bone.
d. The bone breaks through the skin.
ANSWER: D
203) An orchiectomy :
a. Removal of the ovaries and uterus.
b. Removal of the testes.
c. An incision into the thorax.
d. Removal of a tumor.
ANSWER: B
204) Microfilaria are:
a. The larval stage of the heartworm.
b. The segment of the tapeworm containing the male and female reproductive organs.
c. Microscopic single celled organisms.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: A
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205) The abomasum is:
a. The first compartment of the ruminant stomach.
b. The second compartment of the ruminant stomach.
c. The third compartment of the ruminant stomach.
d. The fourth compartment of the ruminant stomach.
ANSWER: D
206) The function of the cecum is to:
a. Produce bile.
b. Aide in the digestion of fibrous materials.
c. Produce insulin.
d. None of the above.
ANSWER: B
207) Carbohydrates contain or include:
a. Amino Acids
b. Simple Sugars
c. Lipids
d. None of the above
ANSWER: B
208) Which organization governs the use, storage and disposal of controlled substances?
a. EPA
b. DEA
c. OSHA
d. None of the above
ANSWER: B
209) Which zoonotic disease is fatal in humans?
a. Corona
b. Rabies
c. Parvovirus
d. Scabies
ANSWER: B
210) Diseases that can be transmitted to humans are known as:
a. Contagious
b. Benign
c. Malignant
d. Zoonotic
ANSWER: D
211) Which of the following diseases is not a disease that affects dogs?
a. Rabies
b. Distemper
c. Black Leg
d. Hepatitis
ANSWER: C
212) Which of the following substances is not considered a bio-hazardous substance?
a. Scalpel blade
b. Syringe
c. Microscope Slide
d. Needle
ANSWER: B
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213) Which of the following bedding materials is most commonly used in the small animal clinic?
a. Pine Shavings
b. Newspaper
c. Blankets and Towels
d. Straw
ANSWER: B
214) Which of the following needles has the smallest bore?
a. 16 gauge
b. 20 gauge
c. 21 gauge
d. 25 gauge
ANSWER: D
215) Kyra, a 7-year=old, F/S mixed breed dog (107 lb) is presented to the clinic with signs of increases
vocalization and urine leaking. She does not appear to be PU/PD (increased urination/increased drinking) or having
accidents due to lack of training. She usually leaks urine after she has lain down (her bed is damp). The U/A
(urinalysis) is WNL as the PE. Scout radiographs of the urinary bladder are unremarkable. Based on her history and
pattern of urine leaking, the vet determines that she might have estrogen responsiveness incontinence. She is
prescribed DES (diethylstilbestrol) at a dosage of 1 mg po sid for 3 days, followed by maintenance therapy of 1 mg
po per week. DES comes in 1-mg and 5-mg tablets. How many mg does this dog receive for 3 weeks of treatment?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
ANSWER: B
216) “Max” needs 30 mg. Gentocin IV Gentocin comes in two different concentrations; 50 mg/ml or 100
mg/ml. Using 50 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw up? AND Using 100 mg/ml, how many ml would you draw
up?
a. 0.6 ml and 0.3 ml
b. 6 ml and 3 ml
c. 0.3 ml and 0.6 ml
d. 3 ml and 6 ml
ANSWER: A
217) 0.2 L = ________ ml
a. 2
b. 20
c. 200
d. 2000
ANSWER: C
218) To prevent inhaling gas when you are monitoring anesthesia, it is best for you to stand :
a. Close to the patient’s head.
b. Away from the patient’s head.
c. Anywhere in the room.
d. Outside of the room.
ANSWER: B
219) When treating or assisting a doctor with an animal’s abscess wound, it is important to:
a. Wear disposable gloves.
b. Disinfect the treatment counter thoroughly.
c. Wash and disinfect all instruments used.
d. All of the above.
ANSWER: D
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220) If you are bitten, scratched or cut when working around animals, you should:
A) Wash thoroughly with water and a disinfecting soap, then notify
your supervisor.
B) Quickly rinse out the area.
C) Just wipe the blood off and bandage if needed.
D) None of the above.
ANSWER: A
221) Rabies is transmitted through:
a. Blood from the affected animal
b. Urine from the affected animal
c. Feces from the affected animal
d. Saliva from the affected animal
ANSWER: D
222) Lyme disease is caused by a:
A) Bacteria
B)Virus
C) Parasite
D) Fungus
ANSWER: B
223) One of the fastest means of getting drugs in to the bloodstream is:
A) Orally
B) Intranasally
C) Topically
D) Intravenously
ANSWER: D
224) Nebulized is defined as:
a. Turned into a liquid
b. Turned into a fine mist
c. Turned into molecules
d. Turned into oxygen
ANSWER: B
225) The Snap Canine Heartworm Test tests the blood for:
a. Adult heartworms
b. Antigen produced by female heartworms
c. Microfilaria
d. Female heartworms only
ANSWER: B
226) When in the heart, heartworms congregate in the:
a. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Left atrium
ANSWER: A
227) The amount of fecal matter needed for a canine or feline fecal analysis is approximately:
a. The size of a baseball
b. The size of a golf ball
c. The size of a grapefruit
d. The size of a grape
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ANSWER: D
228) Which internal parasite is the most common in puppies and kittens?
a. Roundworm
b. Hookworm
c. Whipworm
d. Giardia
ANSWER: A
229) The roundworm is often described as looking like:
a. Rice
b. Spaghetti
c. Flakes
d. Leech
ANSWER: B
230) The veterinarian is explaining to Sally’s owner how she will be spayed. Spay is defined as:
a. Substance that induces an immune response
b. Swelling and inflammation
c. The common term for removal of female reproductive organs
d. Allergic response
ANSWER: C
231) If an animal was suffering from anaphylactic shock, it would be
a. An exaggerated allergic response
b. Proteins produced by lymph system
c. Minerals in the blood stream
d. Slippery white film
ANSWER: A
232) An animal is being given a vaccine. Vaccine is defined as a. A suspension of killed or modified
microorganisms that stimulate an immune response when introduced into the body
b. Swelling and inflammation
c. More susceptible to disease
d. Having no resistance to disease
ANSWER: A
233) An animal is vaccinated for rabies. Rabies is caused by:
a. A rhabidovirus
b. Parvo virus
c. Bacteria
d. Fungus
ANSWER: A
234) Lauren is bandaging Bruce, a four year old horse. Leg bandages on horses are started on the_______ part
of the leg and wrapped toward the back.
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Lateral
d. Proximal
ANSWER: D
235) The bellyband should _______ slightly as it is wrapped.
a. Overlap
b. Space out
c. Cut off circulation
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d. Never touch
ANSWER: A
236) Immunity is defined as:
a. Having resistance to a disease due to the formation of antibodies.
b. Slow and painful abscess
c. Rhabidovirus
d. Not being able to tolerate disease
ANSWER: A
237) A kitten is suffering from FCV. Feline calicivirus is caused by:
a. RNA virus
b. Fungus
c. Bacteria
d. Does not exist
ANSWER: A
238) Lauren is taking a patient history from Ms. Harper about her horse. Which is the most appropriate question
for her to ask?
a. “Is your horse drinking a lot of water and eating okay?”
b. “How much water is it drinking and how much is it eating?”
c. “Is your horse able to exercise daily?”
d. “Is you horse drinking more water now than compared to a few months ago?”
ANSWER: B
239) A vet diagnosed Bill’s goat with dyspnea. What does this mean?
a. The lamb has normal breathing.
b. The lamb has abnormal heart sounds.
c. The lamb has difficulty breathing.
d. The lamb has bluish discoloring of its skin.
ANSWER: C
240) Jane is taking a dog’s pulse. What is the name of the artery where she will do this?
a. Femoral artery
b. Brachiocephalic artery
c. Facial artery
d. Carotid Artery
ANSWER: A
241) During an exam, Julie must take vital signs from an animal. Which of the following steps is the most correct
procedure for her to take the rectal temperature?
a. Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 1 minute, remove and
rotate to read.
b. Shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert and hold for 3 minutes, remove
and rotate to read.
c. Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert
and hold for 1 minute, remove and rotate to read.
d. Wipe thermometer with alcohol, shake down thermometer, lubricate with petroleum jelly, gently insert
and hold for 3 minutes, remove and rotate to read.
ANSWER: B
242) The veterinarian is describing to Spike’s owner how he’ll be neutered. Neuter is defined as:
a. Having resistance to a disease
b. The common term for removal of male reproductive organs
c. Proteins produced by lymph system
d. Swelling and inflammation
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ANSWER: B
243) Whipworm eggs look like a/an _________________ under a microscope.
a. Circle
b. Oval
c. Rectangle
d. Cone
ANSWER: B
244) What type of mite can cause a zoonotic disease?
a. Demodectic
b. Otodectes
c. Sarcoptic
d. All of the above
ANSWER: C
245) What is the vector for heartworms?
a. Tick
b. Lice
c. Flea
d. Mosquito
ANSWER: D
246) Ideally, a horse should be bedded on
a. Newspaper
b. Straw
c. Walnut shavings
d. Wood shavings
ANSWER: D
247) An eight month old Chihuahua was stung by a wasp and had a fluctuation in its heart rate. What term
describes its fluctuating heart rate?
a. Arrhythmia
b. Auscultation
c. Bradycardia
d. Tachypnea
ANSWER: A
248) Annie is helping to examine a patient. She is instructed to take the temperature, pulse and respiration,
which is a crucial part of a physical exam. Which of the following factors does not affect TPR?
a. age
b. size
c. environmental temperature
d. breed
ANSWER: D
249) Which of the following answers best completes this statement? Temperature, pulse and respiration rates
tend to _________ as size of the animal ___________.
a. increase, decreases
b. decreases, decreases
c. shallow, decreases
d. decreases slowly, decreases rapidly
ANSWER: A
250) What is spermatogenesis?
a. Process by which sperm are produced by the male.
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b. Condition in which one or both testicles remain in the body cavity.
c. Process by which ova are produced by the female.
d. Causes destruction of the cotyledons of the uterus.
ANSWER: A
251) The term that means of, or relating to dogs:
a. Feline
b. Bovine
c. Canine
d. Galline
ANSWER: C
252) The term that means of, or relating to cats:
a. Feline
b. Bovine
c. Canine
d. Galline
ANSWER: A
253) The term that means of, or relating to cattle:
a. Feline
b. Bovine
c. Canine
d. Galline
ANSWER: B
254) The term that means of, or relating to horses:
a. Equine
b. Galline
c. Bovine
d. Ovine
ANSWER: A
255) The term that means of, or relating to swine:
a. Equine
b. Canine
c. Galline
d. Porcine
ANSWER: D
256) The term that means of, or relating to sheep:
a. Equine
b. Galline
c. Bovine
d. Ovine
ANSWER: D
257) The term that means of, or relating to poultry:
a. Equine
b. Feline
c. Porcine
d. Galline
ANSWER: D
258) Your place of employment offers dog boarding services and has the ability to accommodate the specific
needs of each pet and family.
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The daily rates for 8 to 24 hour boarding are:
Under 20 lbs – $25.00
20 ‐ 50 lbs – $26.00
Over 50 lbs – $27.00
Dogs can be walked for an additional fee of $5.00 per dog for each walk around the property. Medications
are administered or applied at a rate of $0.50 per dose. Two or more dogs in the same kennel receive a 10% discount
on all boarding services. A client has two dogs that are to be housed together. One is a 5.5‐pound poodle named
Timmy, and the other is a 62‐pound mixed breed named Max. The owner instructs you that Max needs to be given a
medication once a day for 4 days and that each dog is to be walked once a day. The owner boarded the dogs
from Monday morning until Sunday evening. Taxes are included in all prices quoted. You are responsible for billing
the client. What is the total charge for all boarding services?
A) $437.50 C) $427.40
B) $436.00 D) $392.40
Answer:D
259) A veterinary assistant’s gross income per year is $27,461.00. After a raise, her gross yearly salary
increases to $28,284.83. What is the percentage increase in her raise?
A) 1% C) 8%
B) 3% D) 25%
Answer: B
260) To prepare for disinfection of hard non‐porous surfaces against canine parvovirus, mix a solution of
Clorox® Regular‐Bleach in 2.5 gallons of water at the rate of ¾ cup of bleach per 1 gallon of water. What is the
volume of bleach added to the 2.5 gallons of water?
A) 30 fl. Oz C) 1 ¾ cups
B) 15 fl. Oz D) 1 ½ cups and 2 tbsp
Answer: B
261) You have taken the body temperature of a market hog that reads 38 degrees Celsius. The owner of the hog
does not understand Celsius and ask you to concert it to Fahrenheit. What is the converted body temperature?
A) 100.4 F C) 102.5
B) 104 F D) 98.8
Answer: A
262) You are directed to take a weight on a client’s dog. The English Mastiff named Sophia weighs 85.90 kg.
How much does Sophia weigh in pounds?
A) 8.59 lbs C) 85.90 lbs
B) 18.9 lbs D) 188.9 lbs
ANSWERS: D
263) The doctor diagnosed pinkeye in a 450 pound heifer calf and prescribed Nuflor for the treatment. The
dosage on the label is 200mg/kg or 20 milligrams of drug per kilogram of body weight. The concentration
of Nuflor is 300 mg/ml. What dose of Nuflor will be administered?
A) 13.7 ml C) 10.22 ml
B) 137 ml D) 4,100 ml
Answer : A
264) The Veterinarian informs you that the patient has a bite wound and will required antibiotics. A common
antibiotic Cefrazolin, is administered to help fight infection. Cefazolin is administered at a dosage of 22
mg/kg. The patient weighs 44 pounds. What is the dose of Cefazolin for this animal?
A) 0.44 mg C) 440 mg
B) 4.4 ml D) 968 mg
Answer : C
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265) How many milliliters (ml) are in 9 ounces(oz) of liquid?
A) 2.70 ml C) 900 ml
B) 270 ml D) 9000ml
Answer: B
266) Selamectin is recommended for use in dogs 6 weeks of age and older. The directions state: “Apply to the
skin once a month at the recommended dosage of 6 mg/kg or 6 milligrams of selamectin per kilogram of
body weight”. The product comes prepackaged in six tubes. Each dispensing tube contains 240 mg of
selamectin. If the client’s dog weighs 88 pounds, how many months of treatment are in one package of
selamectin?
A) 2 months C) 5.5 months
B) 3.25 months D) 6 months
Answer: D
267) The doctor’s order reads: “Amoxicillin 225 mg, p.o. q12hrs.” The bottle from pharmacy is labeled: “250
mg=5 ml” How many milliliters would you give per dose?
A) 0.45 ml C) 45 ml
B) 4.5 ml D) 450 ml
Answer: B
268) Indicate the number of tablets prescribed for the following order:
Rx: Metronidazole tablets 50mg
Sig: 2 tablets, P.O. BIDx 10 days
A) 10 tablets C) 30 tablets
B) 20 tablets D) 40 tablets
Answer: D
269) `Feline viral rhinotracheitis symptoms include:
a. Sneezing, discharge from nose and eyes
b. Anorexia
c. Aggression
d. Licking of wound
ANSWER: A
270) Leptospirosis is caused by:
a. Leptospira bacteria
b. DNA virus
c. Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
271) Symptoms of distemper include:
a. Lameness
b. Swollen joints
c. Aggression
d. Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, nasal secretions, and seizures
ANSWER: C
271) Rabies is transmitted by:
a. Bite from a tick
b. Ingestion of fecal material from infected dog
c. Contamination of wound by saliva
d. Inhalation bacteria
ANSWER: C
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272) Linda is going to perform a laboratory test. Where is it possible that she will be doing this?
a. Veterinary hospitals
b. Research facilities
c. Zoos
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
273) In preparation for her CVA test, Mary is studying systems of the body. Which of these is NOT included in
the circulatory system?
a. Heart
b. Lymphatics
c. Blood Vessels
d. Blood
ANSWER: B
274) If an animal has problems in the right side of the heart, what other problem will likely occur?
a. Ascites
b. Lung congestion
c. Nerve Degeneration
d. Osteoporosis
ANSWER: A
275) Luke, a border collie, has a problem in the left side of the heart. What other problem will likely occur?
a. Ascites
b. Lung congestion
c. Nerve Degeneration
d. Osteoporosis
ANSWER: B
276) Mary is also studying the physiology of the body systems. Which of these is a function of the circulatory
system?
a. Respiration for the body
b. Urination of waste products
c. Transportation of nutrients, blood cells, gases, etc.
d. Protection of the body
ANSWER: C
277) Which of these is the correct flow of blood through the heart?
a. Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Left Atrium, Left
Ventricle, Aorta
b. Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Arteries, Lungs, Pulmonary Veins, Right Atrium, Right
Ventricle, Aorta
c. Right Atrium, Right Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Left Atrium, Left
Ventricle, Aorta
d. Left Atrium, Left Ventricle, Pulmonary Veins, Lungs, Pulmonary Arteries, Right Atrium, Right
Ventricle, Aorta
ANSWER: A
278) What are the percentages of cells and plasma in blood?
a. 40% and 60%, respectively
b. 50% and 50%, respectively
c. 60% and 40%, respectively
d. 30% and 70%, respectively
ANSWER: A
279) Which of these is NOT part of the process of filtration of the blood through the urinary system?
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a. Nephrons
b. Medulla
c. Vena Cava
d. Kidney
ANSWER: C
280) While Linda was running a laboratory test, she evaluated total plasma protein, and noticed an elevated
total plasma protein. This is a sign of
a. inflammation
b. infection
c. dehydration
d. all of the above
ANSWER: D
281) In most species, what are the kidneys shaped like?
a. Pears
b. Circles
c. Clovers
d. Beans
ANSWER: D
281) Sammy is trying to run a urinalysis. He first has to obtain urine from the dog. How can he obtain urine from
an animal?
a. Free Catch
b. Cystocentesis
c. Catheterization
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D
282) Which of these is the scientific name for hookworm?
a. Ancylostoma caninum
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Toxocara canis
d. None of the above
ANSWER: A
283) James accidentally spilled bleach. In order to know the correct clean up procedure to take, he must
check the MSDS. The acronym MSDS stands for:
a. Material Safety from Disease Sheet
b. Material Safety Data Sheet
c. Mechanical Safety Destruction Sheets
d. Mechanical Safety Data Sheet
ANSWER: B
283) A member of OSHA is doing a walkthrough of a veterinary clinic. The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration is housed in
a. The Department of Health
b. The Department of Finance
c. The Department of Security
d. The Department of Labor
ANSWER: D
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284) Adam has just assisted in restraining a Lhasa Apso for am IM injection. The RVT that gave the injection
must now dispose of the needle and syringe. Where must all needles and syringes be disposed of?
a. A bottle
b. A dumpster
c. A trashcan
d. A sharps container
ANSWER: D
285) Sugar, a small dog, has come into a veterinary clinic with sarcoptic mange. To prevent the spread of this and
other zoonotic diseases, you need to:
a. dispose of waste in a proper manner
b. isolate infected animals
c. wash hands often
d. all of the above
ANSWER: D
286) Evan is creating a poster over biohazards for his Veterinary Technology class. Which of these is NOT an
example of a biohazard and therefore should not be included in his poster?
a. Needles
b. Materials soaked with bodily fluids
c. Bandage material
d. None of the above
ANSWER: D
287) Fran is doing research on pathogens. A pathogen is:
a. A microorganism that produces disease.
b. Disease that can be transmitted between animals and humans.
c. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.
d. Refers to the back.
ANSWER: A
288) Aseptic technique is
a. Precautions taken to prevent contamination of a surgical wound.
b. Cleaning surfaces with bleach
c. Swabbing for a bacteria culture
d. A chemical agent that kills of prevents to growth of microorganisms
ANSWER: A
289) While cleaning an exam room, Abby uses a disinfectant. This is:
a. A chemical agent that kills, or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects.
b. a washcloth and hot water
c. something that contaminates surfaces
d. a chemical agent that allows that growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects
ANSWER: A
290) An animal has a superficial wound. Superficial means:
a. Near the surface, also called external.
b. deep laceration
c. a wound that is on the extremities of an animal
d. on an organ.
ANSWWER: A
291) Most surgical instruments are manufactured from
a. Aluminum
b. Copper
c. Stainless Steel
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d. Lead
ANSWER: C
292) The operating room should be cleaned
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Bi-weekly
d. Monthly
ANSWER: A
293) When a patient is having an ovariohysterectomy performed, the patient is placed in ____________
recumbency.
a. Lateral
b. Dorsal
c. Ventral
d. Sternal
ANSWER: B
294) Which of the following hormones is the most primary hormone produced by the testes?
a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. Progesterone
d. Oxytocin
ANSWER: B
295) Which of the following is not a primary action of testosterone?
a. Anabolic growth
b. Promotes spermatogenesis
c. Promotes secretions from accessory glands
d. None of these
ANSWER: D
296) What are the anatomical differences between the oviducts of most mammals and the oviducts of poultry?
a. Mammals have one oviduct.
b. Mammals do not have oviducts.
c. Poultry do not have oviducts.
d. Poultry have one oviduct.
ANSWER: D
297) What is the main difference between the testes of mammals and the testes of poultry?
a. Mammals have one testicle.
b. The testes of poultry do not descend out of the abdominal cavity.
c. Poultry have one testicle.
d. The testes of mammals do not descend out of the abdominal cavity.
ANSWER: B
298) What is the purpose of the infundibulum?
a. To transport the egg from the ovary to the oviduct.
b. To expel the fetus.
c. To contract during labor.
d. To give nourishment to the fetus.
ANSWER: A
299) Which of the following hormones are the primary hormones produced by the ovaries?
a. Estrogen and testosterone.
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b. Testosterone and oxytocin.
c. Testosterone and progesterone.
d. Estrogen and progesterone.
ANSWER: D
300) What are the primary functions of the hormones that the ovaries produce?
a. Sexual behavior and maintenance of pregnancy.
b. To give a deeper voice and more defined muscles.
c. To maintain weight and pregnancy.
d. To give secondary male characteristics and maintain weight gain.
ANSWER: A
B. National FFA Medical Math Resource Sheet will be provided on exam (Source – National FFA) FFA.org/SiteCollectionDocuments/Math%20Resource.pdf (see next page)
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National Vet Science Math Practicum Units of Measurements
These are common formulas and conversions that students should be prepared to use as they may appear on the Math Practicum.
Units of Mass 1 kilogram (kg)= 2.2 pounds 1 pound = 0.45 kg 1 gram (g)= 1000 milligrams (mg) 1 pound = 453.59 g 60 grains (gr) = 1 dram (dr) 3 teaspoons (tsp) = 1 tablespoon (tbsp)= 1/2 oz = 14.3 g 2 tbsp = 1/8 cup = 1 oz = 28.3 g 4 tbsp = 1/4 cup = 2 oz = 56.7 g 5 1/3 tbsp = 1/3 cup = 2.6 oz = 75.6 g 8 tbsp = 1/2 cup = 4 oz = 113.4 g 12 tbsp = 3/4 cup = 6 oz = 0.375 pound 32 tbsp = 2 cups = 16 oz = 1 pound Units of Volume 1 tsp = 5 milliliters (ml) 2 tbsp = 1 fluid ounce (fl oz)= 30 ml 1/4 cup = 2 fl oz = 60 ml 1/2 cup = 4 fl oz = 125 ml 1 cup = 8 fl oz = 250 ml 1 1/2 cups = 12 fl oz = 375 ml 2 cups or 1 pint = 16 fl oz = 500 ml 4 cups or 1 quart = 32 fl oz = 1000 ml = 1 liter (L) 1 gallon = 128 fl oz = 4 L 2 pints = 1 quart 4 quarts = 1 gallon Units of Length 1 millimeter (mm) = 0.001 of a meter (m) 25 mm = 1 inch Units of Temperature Celcius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) °C = 5/9 (°F-32) or (°F-32) x 5/9° F = 9/5 (°C)+32 or °C x 9/5 + 32
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I have attached the math resource for you, the conversion sheet, as well as I have walked through the first six of the math problems so you have a start. The math can make or break a team! I would bring calculators for your kids but they must be non-programming.
C. Contest sites will use provided medical math question bank to create representative, but not identical, problems for each approved contest.
D. Test will be generated in scantron form including multiple choice, true/false and/or matching.
E. The test will be 50 questions in length with each question being worth 2 points each. F. Students are allowed to have basic (non-programming) calculators for the test to the
General Knowledge Test section.
Although nationals is ran differently from states, the national curriculum is a good source of review material. The math tests, scenarios and tests are great practice resources. If I was you, I would print it all out and add it to your coaches binder. https://www.ffa.org/participate/cdes/veterinary-science/
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Veterinary Science Math Question Bank
These are sample questions for test questions to be pulled from.
Note: Contest hosts are to change numbers and create new questions, with same format. Please
do not copy exact questions plus numbers here. We want to prohibit straight memorization of
questions.
1. Your patient needs 1.5 g of a drug that is available as 750 mg/capsule. How many tablets will be
dispensed if treatments are BID for ten days?
40
1.5g X 1000mg x 1 capsule = 2 capsules x 2 (BID= twice a day) x 10 days= 40
1g 750 mg
2. A doctor orders 75 mg of Demerol IM every 4 hours for pain. It is available in 50 mg/ mL. How
much should be injected over a 24-hour period?
9 mL
75mg x 1 ml = 1.5mg 24 hours/4 hours= 6 doses 1.5ml x 6 doses= 9ml
50 mg
3. A dog develops a hot spot and the veterinarian feels the best way to treat it is to use Prednisone
(a steroid). Tablets contain 5 mg/tablet. The dog weighs 75 lbs and the recommended dosage is 5
mg /25 lbs. How many tablets will be given over five days if the medication is to be given OD?
15 tablets
75 pounds x 5 mg x I tablet= 3 tabs x 5 days= 15 tabs
25 pounds 5 mg
4. Green Apple shampoo can be bought in 5 gallon pails. If a groomer uses 16 oz bottles to hold
shampoo, how many bottles can he get out of the 5 gallon pail?
40 bottles
5 gals x 4 quarts x 32 fl oz x 1 bottle = 40 bottles
1 gallon 1 quart 16 ounces
5. A German Shepherd weighs 46.7 kg. What is his weight in pounds?
102.7 lbs
46.7 kg x 2.2 lbs = 102.7 lbs.
1 kg
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6. A sick cat weighs 3.5 kg. You must give it 20 mg/lb of a drug QID. What is the total dose?
616 mg
3.5 kg x 2.2 lbs x 20 mg = 154 mg x 4 (QID) = 616 mg
1 kg 1 lb.
7. A cow has a fever of 105 oF. What is her temperature in Celsius?
40.5oC
8. Atropine is given at a dosage of 0.01 mg/lb of body weight. If the concentration is 0.5 mg/mL, how
many mL should you give a 12 kg beagle?
.53 mg
9. Nolvasan solution is prepared by adding 1 oz per gallon of water. If a mop pail holds 40 quarts of
water and you want to fill it, how many tablespoons of Nolvasan should be used to get the proper
dilution?
20
10. When making 1200 mL of a 3% Lysol solution, how many grams of Lysol are used?
36 g
11. You regularly order six 10-ml vials per month of a drug that has a concentration of 50 mg/ml. Now
that same drug is only available in 20-ml vials of 10 mg/ml. How many vials should you order this
month?
15 vials
12. The veterinarian orders 4.4 mg/kg of Carprofen for pain control divided into two equal daily
doses for a 50-lb dog. On hand are 100-mg scored tablets. How many tablets is/are administered
each morning and afternoon?
.5 tablets in the morning and afternoon
13. How many mgs of a drug should be given to a patient weighing 22 lb if the dose is 0.2 mg/kg?
2 mg
14. Matt brings his newborn foal, Chayleigh in for dehydration. Chayleigh weighs 110 lb. The
veterinarian instructs the technician to administer fluids at the rate of 70 ml/kg/24 hours. What is
the total volume Chayleigh should receive in 24 hours?
3500 ml per 24 hours
15. From the question above, calculate Chayleigh’s rate in drops/minute. Your clinic uses 10 drop/mL
drip set for fluid administration. Round to the nearest whole drop.
24 drops/minute
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16. How many milliliters (mL) are in 6 ounces (oz) of liquid?
180 mL
17. The veterinarian has asked you to calculate the pulse/heart rate for an animal in the clinic. You
monitor the animal for 20 seconds and measure 23 beats in the 20 second time period. What is
the pulse/heart rate for the animal?
69 bpm
18. The doctor’s order reads: “Amoxicillin 225 mg p.o., q12 hrs.” The bottle from pharmacy is labeled:
“250 mg = 5 ml.” How many milliliters would you give per dose?
4.5 ml
19. Indicate the number of tablets prescribed for the following order:
40 tablets
Use the following statement to answer questions 20-23
Mrs. Kidd brings in her dog, Killer. Dr. Peelman has diagnosed Killer with a urinary tract infection. She has
prescribed SMZ-TMP. Killer is Chow and weighs 70 lbs. The dose is 30 mg/kg once
every 12 hours. Killer will need to be treated for 10 days. Each tablet costs $0.75 and there is a one-time
dispensing fee of $7.50
20. What is Killer’s weight in kilograms?
31.8kg
21. How many tablets per dose will be given to Killer?
2
22. How many tablets will need to be sent home for Killer’s entire course of treatment?
40
23. What is the total medication cost to Mrs. Kidd?
. $37.50
Rx: Metronidazole tablets 50 mg
Sig: 2 tablets, P.O., BID x 10 days
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Use the following image to answer questions 24-25:
24. How many total milligrams are in the bottle?
2250mg
25. The recommended dose in milligrams for a 12 kg dog is:
52.8mg
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Equipment and Materials Identification List
100. Ambubag 101. Anesthetic machines 144. Hoof knife 102. Autoclave 145. Hoof rasp 103. Autoclave tape indicator 146. IV administration set 104. Backhaus towel clamps 147. Laparoscope 105. Balling gun 148. Laryngoscopes 106. Bandaging material- Elasticon 149. Muzzle – basket 107. Bandaging material– roll gauze 150. Muzzle – nylon 108. Bandaging material– vet wrap 151. Needle holder – Mayo-Hegar 109. Bands (castration or docking) 152. Needle holder – Olsen-Hegar 110. Cat bag 153. Obstetrical chain and handle 111. Catch pole (dog snare) 154. Ophthalmoscope 112. Catheter - butterfly 155. Otoscope 113. Catheter – IV 156. Pig tooth nippers 114. Catheter – Tomcat urinary 157. Radiology personal protective 115. Centrifuge equipment 116. Chemical indicator strips 158. Rectal prolapse ring –swine 117. Cold sterile tray 159. Rumen magnet 118. Dehorner - Barnes 160. Scalpel blade 119. Dehorner - electric 161. Scalpel handle 120. Dental floats 162. Scissors – Suture wire cutting 121. Dental scaler 163. Scissors – Bandage 122. Drench gun – small ruminant 164. Scissors – Lister bandage 123. Ear notcher 165. Scissors – Littauer suture removal 124. Elastrator 166. Scissors – Mayo dissecting 125. Elizabethan collar 167. Scissors - Metzenbaum dissecting 126. Emasculators 168. Silver nitrate sticks 127. Endoscope 128. Endotracheal tubes
169. Small animal oxygen cage 170. Snook ovariohysterectomy hook
129. Fecal loop 130. Fecalyzers
171. Speculum – large animal oral 172. Speculum – small animal oral
131. Feeding tube for small animals 173. Speculum – vaginal 132. Fetal extractor - calf 174. Squeeze chute 133. Forceps – Alligator 175. Staple remover 134. Forceps – Allis tissue 176. Stethoscope 135. Forceps – Babcock tissue 177. Surgical drapes 136. Forceps – Brown-Adson thumb 178. Suture needle – cutting 137. Forceps – Crile 179. Suture needle – taper 138. Forceps – Kelly 180. Syringe – automatic, multidose 139. Forceps – Halstead mosquito hemostatic
181. Tattooing instruments – small and large 182. Tonometer
140. Forceps – Rat tooth thumb 183. Tourniquet 141. Gravity feeder/J tube 184. Trocar and cannula 142. Head gate 185. Twitch chain 143. Hog snare 186. Twitch handle
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Parasite / Microscopic Identification List
187. Blowfly (Family Calliphoridae) 188. Calcium oxalate crystals 189. Cat Warble (Genus Cuterebra) 190. Cocci (bacteria) 191. Coccidia (Genus Isospora or Eimeria) 192. Demodectic Mite (Genus Demodex) 193. Ear Mite (Family Psoroptidae; Genus Otodectes) 194. Eosinophils 195. Epithelial cells (urine) 196. Flea Larva (Genus Ctenocephalides) 197. Flea Tapeworm Egg* (Genus Dipylidium) 198. Flea Tapeworm Segment* (Genus Dipylidium) 199. Flea Tapeworm* (Genus Dipylidium) 200. Fleas* (Genus Ctenocephalides) 201. Giardia* (Genus Giardia) 202. Heartworm Adult* (Genus Dirofilaria) 203. Heartworm Microfilaria* (Genus Dirofilaria) 204. Hookworm Adult* (Family Ancylostomatidae; Genus Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Bunostomum or Globocephalus) 205. Hookworm Egg* (Family Ancylostomatidae; Genus Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Bunostomum or Globocephalus) 206. Horse Bots* (Genus Gasterophilus) 207. Horse Strongyles* (Family Strongylidae; Genus Strongylus ) 208. Lice - Biting (Order Mallophaga; Genus Bovicola or Trichodectes) 209. Lice - Sucking (Order Anoplura; Genus Linognathus or Hematopinus) 210. Liver Fluke (Class Trematoda; Genus Fasciola, Fascioloides or Dicrocoelium) 211. Mosquito Adult (Family Culicidae; Genus Anopheles, Culex or Aedes) 212. Mosquito Larva (Family Culicidae; Genus Anopheles, Culex or Aedes) 213. Neutrophils 214. Platelets 215. Red Blood cell (erythrocyte) 216. Rod (bacteria) 217. Roundworm Adult* (Family Ascarididae or Toxocaridae; Genus Toxocara, Toxascaris, Ascaris, Parascaris or Neoascaris) 218. Roundworm Egg* (Family Ascarididae or Toxocaridae; Genus Toxocara, Toxascaris, Ascaris, Parascaris or Neoascaris) 219. Sarcoptic Mite (Family Sarcoptidae; Genus Sarcoptes or Notoedres) 220. Struvite crystals (triple magnesium phosphate) 221. Taenia Tapeworm Egg* (Family Taeniidae; Genus Taenia) 222. Taenia Tapeworm Segment* (Family Taeniidae; Genus Taenia) 223. Taenia Tapeworm* (Family Taeniidae; Genus Taenia) 224. Tick – American Dog (Family Dermacentor; Genus variabilis) 225. Tick – Black Legged Deer (Family ixodes; Genus scapularis) 226. Tick – Brown Dog (Family Rhipicephalus; Genus Sanguineus) 227. Tick – Lonestar (Family Amblyomma; Genus americanum) 228. Whipworm Egg* (Genus Trichuris) 229. Whipworm* (Genus Trichuris) 230. Yeast (cytology) *Asterisk indicates which parasite life cycles could have questions.
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Breed/Species Identification List
DOGS CATS Herding Group Terrier Group 290. Abyssinian 231. Australian Cattle Dog 263. Bull Terrier 291. American Shorthair 232. Australian Shepherd 264. Cairn Terrier 292. Burmese 233. Border Collie 265. Parson Russell Terrier 293. Maine Coon 234. Collie 235. German Shepherd Dog 236. Old English Sheepdog
266. Scottish Terrier 267. West Highland White Terrier
294. Manx 295. Persian 296. Ragdoll
237. Pembroke Welsh Corgi 297. Russian Blue 238. Shetland Sheepdog Toy Group 298. Siamese
268. Cavalier King Charles Spaniel
299. Sphynx
Hound Group 269. Chihuahua BIRDS 239. Afghan Hound 270. Miniature Pinscher 300. African Gray Parrot 240. Basenji 271. Papillon 301. Canary 241. Basset Hound 272. Pekingese 302. Cockatiel 242. Beagle 273. Pomeranian 303. Cockatoos 243. Black and Tan Coonhound 274. Poodle 304. Love Birds 244. Bloodhound 275. Pug 305. Macaw 245. Dachshund 276. Shih Tzu 306. Parakeet 246. Greyhound 277. Yorkshire Terrier 307. Sun Conure 247. Rhodesian Ridgeback 308. Zebra Finch Working Group Non-Sporting Group 278. Bernese Mountain Dog REPTILES 248. Bichon Frise 279. Boxer 309. Bearded Dragon 249. Boston Terrier 280. Doberman Pinscher 310. Chameleon 250. Bulldog 281. Great Dane 311. Gecko 251. Chinese Shar-Pei 282. Great Pyrenees 312. Iguana 252. Chow Chow 283. Mastiff 253. Dalmatian 284. Newfoundland POULTRY 254. Poodle 285. Portuguese Water Dog 313. Chicken – Cornish Sporting Group 255. Brittany Spaniel 256. Cocker Spaniel
286. Rottweiler 287. Saint Bernard 288. Siberian Husky 289. Standard Schnauzer
314. Chicken – Leghorns 315. Chicken – Plymouth Rock 316. Chicken – Rhode Island Red 317. Duck
257. English Setter 258. German Shorthaired Pointer 259. Golden Retriever 260. Irish Setter 261. Labrador Retriever 262. Weimaraner
318. Geese 319. Quail 320. Turkey
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Breed/Species Identification List – continued Chameleon SMALL MAMMALS 321. Chinchilla
GOAT 358. Alpine
322. Ferret 359. Nubian 323. Gerbils 360. Angora 324. Guinea Pig 361. Boer 325. Hamster 362. LaMancha 326. Hedgehog 363. Saanen 327. Sugar Glider 364. Toggenburg RABBITS SHEEP 328 Angora 365. Columbia 329. Californian 366. Dorper 330. Dutch 367. Dorset 331. English Spot 332. Holland Lop 333. Mini-Rex 334. Netherland Dwarf 335. New Zealand
368. Hampshire 369. Merino 370. Rambouillet 371. Southdown 372. Suffolk
DAIRY CATTLE SWINE 336. Ayrshire 373. American Landrace 337. Brown Swiss 374. Berkshire 338. Guernsey 375. Chester White 339. Holstein 376. Duroc 340. Jersey 377. Hampshire 378. Yorkshire BEEF CATTLE 341. Angus 342. Brahman 343. Charolais 344. Hereford 345. Shorthorn 346. Simmental HORSE 347. Appaloosa 348. Arabian 349. Belgian 350. Clydesdale 351. Morgan 352. Paint 353. Percheron 354. Quarter Horse 355. Saddlebred 356. Tennessee Walking Horse
357. Thoroughbred
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The following pages are supplied to practice for a contest. Have a properly timed powerpoint and these supplemental pages, and have the students practice bubbling in a scantron during the allotted time. Timing is such a big issue at the beginning contests and can make or break high end teams if done improperly.
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Equipment and Materials Identification List
A Ambubag B Anesthetic machines BCD. Hoof knife C Autoclave BCE Hoof rasp D Autoclave tape indicator BDE IV administration set E Backhaus towel clamps CDE Laparoscope AB Balling gun ACD Laryngoscopes AC Bandaging material- Elasticon ACE Muzzle – basket AD. Bandaging material– roll gauze ABCD Muzzle – nylon AE Bandaging material– vet wrap ABCE Needle holder – Mayo-Hegar BC Bands (castration or docking) ACDE Needle holder – Olsen-Hegar BD Cat bag BCDE Obstetrical chain and handle BE Catch pole (dog snare) A Ophthalmoscope CD Catheter - butterfly B Otoscope CE Catheter - IV C Pig tooth nippers DE Catheter – Tomcat urinary D Radiology personal protective ABC Centrifuge equipment ABD Chemical indicator strips E Rectal prolapse ring –swine ABE Cold sterile tray AB Rumen magnet BCD Dehorner - Barnes AC Scalpel blade BDE Dehorner - electric AD Scalpel handle CDE Dental floats AE Scissors – Suture wire cutting ACD Dental scaler BC Scissors – Bandage ACE Drench gun – small ruminant BD Scissors – Lister bandage ABCD Ear notcher BE Scissors – Littauer suture removal ABCD Elastrator CD Scissors – Mayo dissecting ACDE Elizabethan collar CE Scissors - Metzenbaum dissecting BCDE Emasculators DE Silver nitrate sticks A Endoscope B. Endotracheal tubes
ABC Small animal oxygen cage ABD Snook ovariohysterectomy hook
C Fecal loop D Fecalyzers
ABE Speculum – large animal oral BCD Speculum – small animal oral
E Feeding tube for small animals BCE Speculum – vaginal AC Fetal extractor - calf BDE Squeeze chute AD Forceps - Alligator CDE Staple remover AE Forceps – Allis tissue ACD Stethoscope BC Forceps – Babcock tissue ACE Surgical drapes BD Forceps – Brown-Adson thumb ABCD Suture needle – cutting BE Forceps – Crile ABCE Suture needle – taper CD Forceps - Kelly ACDE Syringe – automatic, multidose CE Forceps – Halstead mosquito hemostatic
BCDE Tattooing instruments – small and large A Tonometer
DE Forceps – Rat tooth thumb B Tourniquet ABC Gravity feeder/J tube C Trocar and cannula ABD Head gate D Twitch chain ABE Hog snare E Twitch handle
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Parasite / Microscopic Identification List
AB Blowfly (Family Calliphoridae) AC Calcium oxalate crystals AD Cat Warble (Genus Cuterebra) AE Cocci (bacteria) BC Coccidia (Genus Isospora or Eimeria) BD Demodectic Mite (Genus Demodex) BE Ear Mite (Family Psoroptidae; Genus Otodectes) CD Eosinophils CE Epithelial cells (urine) DE Flea Larva (Genus Ctenocephalides) ABC Flea Tapeworm Egg* (Genus Dipylidium) ABD Flea Tapeworm Segment* (Genus Dipylidium) ABE Flea Tapeworm* (Genus Dipylidium) BCD Fleas* (Genus Ctenocephalides) BCE Giardia* (Genus Giardia) BDE Heartworm Adult* (Genus Dirofilaria) CDE Heartworm Microfilaria* (Genus Dirofilaria) ACD Hookworm Adult* (Family Ancylostomatidae; Genus Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Bunostomum or Globocephalus) ACE Hookworm Egg* (Family Ancylostomatidae; Genus Ancylostoma, Uncinaria, Bunostomum or Globocephalus) ABCD Horse Bots* (Genus Gasterophilus) ABCE Horse Strongyles* (Family Strongylidae; Genus Strongylus ) ACDE Lice - Biting (Order Mallophaga; Genus Bovicola or Trichodectes) BCDE Lice - Sucking (Order Anoplura; Genus Linognathus or Hematopinus) A Liver Fluke (Class Trematoda; Genus Fasciola, Fascioloides or Dicrocoelium) B Mosquito Adult (Family Culicidae; Genus Anopheles, Culex or Aedes) C Mosquito Larva (Family Culicidae; Genus Anopheles, Culex or Aedes) D Neutrophils E Platelets AC Red Blood cell (erythrocyte) AD Rod (bacteria) AE Roundworm Adult* (Family Ascarididae or Toxocaridae; Genus Toxocara, Toxascaris, Ascaris, Parascaris or Neoascaris) BC Roundworm Egg* (Family Ascarididae or Toxocaridae; Genus Toxocara, Toxascaris, Ascaris, Parascaris or Neoascaris) BD Sarcoptic Mite (Family Sarcoptidae; Genus Sarcoptes or Notoedres) BE Struvite crystals (triple magnesium phosphate) CD Taenia Tapeworm Egg* (Family Taeniidae; Genus Taenia) CE Taenia Tapeworm Segment* (Family Taeniidae; Genus Taenia) DE Taenia Tapeworm* (Family Taeniidae; Genus Taenia) ABC Tick – American Dog (Family Dermacentor; Genus variabilis) ABD Tick – Black Legged Deer (Family ixodes; Genus scapularis) ABE Tick – Brown Dog (Family Rhipicephalus; Genus Sanguineus) BCD Tick – Lonestar (Family Amblyomma; Genus americanum) BCE Whipworm Egg* (Genus Trichuris) BDE Whipworm* (Genus Trichuris) CDE Yeast (cytology) *Asterisk indicates which parasite life cycles could have questions.
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Breed/Species Identification List
DOGS CATS Herding Group Terrier Group E Abyssinian A Australian Cattle Dog AB Bull Terrier AB American Shorthair B Australian Shepherd AC Cairn Terrier AC Burmese C Border Collie AD Parson Russell Terrier AD Maine Coon D Collie E German Shepherd Dog 305. AB English Sheepdog
AE Scottish Terrier BC West Highland White Terrier
AE Manx BC Persian BD Ragdoll
AC Pembroke Welsh Corgi BE Russian Blue AE Shetland Sheepdog Toy Group CD Siamese
BD Cavalier King Charles Spaniel
CE Sphynx
Hound Group BE Chihuahua BIRDS BC Afghan Hound CD Miniature Pinscher DE African Gray Parrot BD Basenji CE Papillon ABC Canary BE Basset Hound DE Pekingese ABD Cockatiel CD Beagle ABC Pomeranian ABE Cockatoos CE Black and Tan Coonhound ABD Poodle BCD Love Birds DE Bloodhound ABE Pug BCE Macaw ABC Dachshund BCD Shih Tzu CDE Parakeet ABD Greyhound BCE Yorkshire Terrier ACD Sun Conure ABE Rhodesian Ridgeback ACE Zebra Finch Working Group Non-Sporting Group BDE Bernese Mountain Dog REPTILES BCD Bichon Frise CDE Boxer ABCD Bearded Dragon BCE Boston Terrier ACD Doberman Pinscher ABCE Chameleon BDE Bulldog ACE Great Dane ACDE Gecko CDE Chinese Shar-Pei ABCD Great Pyrenees BCDE Iguana ACD Chow Chow ABCE Mastiff ACE Dalmatian ACDE Newfoundland POULTRY ABCD Poodle BCDE Portuguese Water Dog A Chicken – Cornish Sporting Group ABCE Brittany Spaniel ACDE Cocker Spaniel
A Rottweiler B Saint Bernard C Siberian Husky D Standard Schnauzer
B Chicken – Leghorns C Chicken – Plymouth Rock D Chicken – Rhode Island Red E Duck
BCDE English Setter A German Shorthaired Pointer B Golden Retriever C Irish Setter D Labrador Retriever E Weimaraner
ABC Geese ABE Quail BCD Turkey
Vet Science Coaching Guide.doc.doc 59
Breed/S6pecies Identification List - continued Chameleon SMALL MAMMALS BCE Chinchilla
GOAT BCD Alpine
BDE Ferret BCE Nubian CDE Gerbils BDE Angora ACD Guinea Pig CDE Boer ACE Hamster ACD LaMancha ABCD Hedgehog ACE Saanen ABCE Sugar Glider ABCD Toggenburg RABBITS SHEEP ACDE Angora ABCE Columbia BCDE Californian ACDE Dorper A Dutch BCDE Dorset B English Spot C Holland Lop D Mini-Rex E Netherland Dwarf AB New Zealand
A Hampshire B Merino C Rambouillet D Southdown E Suffolk
DAIRY CATTLE SWINE AC Ayrshire AB American Landrace AD Brown Swiss AC Berkshire AE Guernsey AD Chester White BC Holstein AE Duroc BD Jersey BC Hampshire BD Yorkshire BEEF CATTLE BE Angus CD Brahman CE Charolais CE Hereford ABC Shorthorn ABD Simmental HORSE ABC Appaloosa ABD Arabian ABE Belgian BCD Clydesdale ACD Morgan ACE Paint ABCE Percheron ACDE Quarter Horse BCDE Saddlebred B Tennessee Walking Horse
C Thoroughbred
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