[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image314.pdf29. A conductor AB of length L carrying a current I2 is placed perpendicular to a long straight conductor

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ME DIC AL SPOT TEST NEET- 2020 - TEST-14 - 01B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67

[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720

SPOT TEST SERIES (TEST - 14) NEET : 23.04.2020

01. A certain body weight 24.28 gram and hasmeasured volume of 4.3 CC. The possible errorin the measurement of mass and volume are0.02 g and 0.06 CC. Then maximum error in thedensity will be

(1) 2.6% (2) 4.8% (3) 1.5% (4) 0.94%

02. Velocity (v) -time (t) graph corresponding todisplacement (s)-time (t) graph shown below is

t

s

(1)

t

v

(2) t

v

(3) t

v

(4)

t

s

03. In the arrangement shown below, the ends P andQ of an unstretchable string move downwardswith uniform speed u. Pulleys A and B are fixedand at same height. Mass M, moves upward witha speed

a bcA B

y

P/2 /2

Quu ll

M

(1)2u

cos( /2) (2)u

2cos( /2)

(3)u

cos( /2) (4) ucos2

04. A projectile is moving at 60 m/s at its highestpoint where It breaks into two equal parts due tointernal explosion. One part move vertically upat 50 m/s with respect to the ground. The Otherpart will move at

(1) 10 61m/s (2) 10 91m/s

(3) 140 m/s (4) 130 m/s

05. Two blocks of masses m1 = m2 = m are connectedby a string of string of negligible mass whichpasses over a frictionless pulley fixed on the topof an inclined plane as shown in fig. below. Whenangle of inclination = 60° the mass m, justbegins to move up the inclined plane. What isthe coefficient of friction between the block m1and the incline plane:

60°

m1

m2

(1) 2 – 3 (2)1

2 3

(3)1

3(4)

2

3

06. Two identical cylindrical vessel with their basesat the same level, each contains a liquid ofdensity The height of the liquid in one vesselis h1 and that in other is h2. The area of theirbase is A. What is the work done by gravity inequalising the levels when the vessels areinterconnected

(1) 21 2

A g(h h )

4

(2) 2

1 2A g

(h – h )4

(3)2

1 2A g

(h h )2

(4)

21 2

A g(h – h )

2

07. A ball is dropped from a height of 2m. If coefficientof restitution between the surface and the ballis 0.4, the ball rebounds to a height of

(1) 0.32 m (2) 0.64 m (3) 0.24 m (4) 0.96 m

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08. A shell following a parabolic path explodessomewhere in its flight. The centre of mass offragments will continue to move in(1) Vertical direction(2) any direction(3) Horizontal direction

(4) same parabolic path

09. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclinedplanes of same height, but of differentinclinations. In both cases(1) Speed and time of descent will be same(2) Speed will be same but time of descent willbe different(3) speed will be different but time of descent willbe same(4) Speed and time of descent both are different

10. A disc of radius R rolls on a horizontal groundwith linear acceleration a and angularacceleration as shown in figure below. Themagnitude of acceleration of point P, at aninstant where its linear velocity is v and angularvelocity is will be

v, a

r

R

P

O

(1) a + r (2) 2 2a (r )

(3) 2 2a [(R r) ] (4) 2 2 2( r ) (a r)

11. The gravitational field due to a mass distribution

is 3

KE

x in the x-direction (K is a constant).

Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at

infinity, the value of at a distance x

2is:

(1) 2

4K

x(2) 2

K

4x(3) 2

2K

x(4) 2

K

2x

12. By what percentage of energy of a satellite hasto be increased to shift it from an orbit of radiusr to 4 r:

(1) 67% (2) 75% (3) 33.3% (4) 25%

13. A wooden cube floats in water partially immersed.When a 300gm weight is put on the cube iffurther immersed by 3 cm. The length of side ofthe cube is

(1) 15 cm (2) 18 cm (3) 10cm (4) 8cm

14. A liquid distributed by string comes to rest aftersome time due to:

(1) Surface tension

(2) Viscosity

(3) Stability

(4) Attraction of forces between molecules

15. A steel wire of uniform area 3mm2 is heated upto80°C and and is stretched by trying its endsrigidly. The change in tension when thetemperature falls from 80°C to 20° C is

(Taken Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2, = 1.4 × 10–5/°C)

(1) 252 N (2) 380 N (3) 504 N (4)760 N

16. Two samples A and B of a gas at the same initial.Temperature and pressure are compressed from

volume V to V

2, A isothermal and B adiabatically.

The final pressure of A will be:

(1) equal to that of B

(2) greater than that of B

(3) less than that of B

(4) twice that of B

17. The molar heat capacity in a process of a diatomic

gas, if it does a work of Q

5 when heat Q is

supplied to it, is:

(1)25

R8

(2)13

R5

(3)11

R4

(4)23

R10

18. Six gram of helium is enclosed in a vessel atNTP. How much heat should be given to it todouble the pressure. Specific heat of He is 3Jule/g-K:

(1) 2438 J (2) 4914 J (3) 4273 J (4) 3426 J

19. Which statement is incorrect:

(1) all reversible cycles have same efficiency

(2) reversible cycle has more efficiency than anirreversible one

(3) carnot cycle is a reversible cycle

(4) carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency inall cycles.

20. A particle starts SHM from the mean position.Its amplitude is A and Total energy E. At one

instant it's K.E. is E

4, its displacement at this

instant is

(1)2

3(2)

3A

2(3)

1A

2(4)

1A

3

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21. Five beats/sec. are produced on blowing togethertwo closed organ pipes of same diameter but ofdifferent lengths. If shorter pipe is of 10cm lengthand speed of sound in air is 330 m/s length ofother pipe is: (Assume fundamental mode)

(1) 11.44 cm (2) 14.08 cm

(3) 10.06 cm (4) 13.22 cm

22. Fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire is If its length, diameter and tension all aretripled, the new fundamental frequency will be

(1)3

(2)

3 3

(3)

6 3

(4)

6

23. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area, Aseparation d is filled with dielectric as shown infig. below. The dielectric constants are K1 andK2. Net capacitance is:

(1)1 20

1 2

K K2 A

d K K

× × × × × × × × × × ×× × × × × × × × × × ×× × × × × × × × × × ×------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

d/2

d/2

K2

K1(2) 01 2

AK K

d

(3)1 20

1 2

K KA

d K K

(4)1 20

1 2

K K2 A

d K K

24. If Ea be the electric field strength of a short dipoleat a point on its axial line and Ee that onequational line at the same distance then:

(1) Ee = 2Ea (2) Ea = Ee

(3) Ea = 2 Ee (4) Ea = 2Ee

25. If resistance (R) and resistivity () of apotentiometer wire and area of cross section beA. If I is the current through the potentiometerwire then what will be the potential gradientalong the wire

(1)I

A (2)IA

(3)I

A

(4) IA

26. A cell of emf E has resistance, R connected acrossit and a voltmeter measures the potentialdifference across the potentials of the cell is V.The internal resistance of the cell is:

(1)2

2

RV

(E – V)(2)

V(E – V)R

E

(3)ER(V E)

E – V

(4)

R(E – V)

V

27. Two head lamps of a car are in parallel. Thattogether is consumed 64 W with the help of 12V.The resistance of each bulb is

(1) 4.5 (2) 3.6 (3) 5.4 (4) 7.2

28. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer isreduced to half when it is connected with a 5 coil. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1) 2.5 (2) 5 (3) 50 (4) 80

29. A conductor AB of length L carrying a current I2is placed perpendicular to a long straightconductor XY carrying current, I1 is shown infig. below. The force on AB in magnitude is:

A

Y

X

I2I1

B

LL/3

(1)0

1 2I I ln2 (2)

01 2I I ln3

2

(3)0

1 2I I ln34

(4)0

1 2I I ln22

30. A dip needle arrange to move freely in themagnetic meridian dips by an angle . If thevertical plane in which the needle moves isrotated through an angle to the magneticmeridian then the needle will dip by an angle

(1) (2)

(3) More than (4) Less than

31. A solenoid 400 mm long has 80 turns on it andis wound on an iron rod 8mm radius. Find theflux through the solenoid when the current in itis 4A. The relative permeability of iron is 800

(1) 6.5 m Wb (2) 13 m Wb

(3) 29 m Wb (4) 58 m Wb

32. In the circuit shown below, voltmeter reads220V. Then L is:

V

10020µF

C

220V, 100 Hz

L

~

(1) 0.13 H (2) 5.4 mH

(3) 10.8 mH (4) 0.065 H

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33. The magnetic field between the circular plates(of radius R) of a capacitor, when r < R is givenby: (Id Total displacement current)

(1)0 dI

2 R

(2)

0 d2

I r

2 R

(3)

0 d2

I r

R

(4)

0 dI

2 R

34. A ray of light passes through a plain glass slab ofthickness t and refractive index µ = 1.5. Theangle between incident ray and emergent raywill be

(1) 0° (2) 30° (3) 60° (4) 45°

35. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° onone face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergentray of light makes an angle of 30° with incidentray. The angle made by emergent ray withsecond face of prism will be

(1) 0° (2) 90° (3) 30° (4) 45°

36. A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 40cm.The power of the lens to correct the vision is:

(1) –1.5 D (2) –2.5 D (3) +1.5 D (4) –2.5 D

37. Light transmitted by Nicol prism is:

(1) unpolarized (2) plane polarized

(3) circularly polarized (4) elliptically polarized

38. An Young's double slit experiment phasedifference between light waves reaching 4th

bright fringe from central fringe when = 6000Å,is:

(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) zero (4) 8

39. An electron of mass m, and charge initially atrest gets accelerated by a constant electric fieldE. The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelengthof this electron at time, t ignoring relativisticeffect is:

(1) 2

–2h

eEt(2) 2

–h

2eEt(3)

–eht

E(4) 2

–h

eEt40. The angular momentum of electron in hydrogen

atom is proportional to

(1) r (2) r° (3)1

r(4) r3/2

41. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at restemits an alpha particle. If the Q value of thereaction is 8.8 MeV, calculate the K.E. of the-particle

(1) 8.8 MeV (2) 8.64 MeV

(3) 8.54 MeV (4) 0.16 MeV

42. A radioactive substance decays to 1

nd32

of its

initial activity in 60 days. The half life of theradioactive substance expressed in days is

(1) 15 days (2) 18 days

(3) 12 days (4) 20 days

43. Following diagram performs the logic function of

A YB

(1) OR gate (2) NOR gate

(3) AND gate (4) NAND gate

44. A load resistance of 4K is connected in thecollector branch of an amplifier using commonemitter mode with = 60 and input resistanceof the transistor = 500. If the input current ischanged by 50µA, then by what amount does theoutput voltage change

(1) 6.4 V (2) 7.2 V (3) 9 V (4) 12 V

45. Zener diode is used for:

(1) Amplification (2) Rectification

(3) Stabilisation (4) All of these

46. 2 2 2 3 2FeS O Fe O SO

In the above equation, the number of electronslost by one molecule of FeS2 are :

(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 11

47. Butter of tin is :

(1) SnCl6·6H2O (2) SnCl4·4H2O

(3) SnCl4·5H2O (4) SnCl4·2H2O

48. The reaction 2 2 2 3 2FeS O Fe O SO isstarted with 10.0 g of L. After 30 and 90 minutes5.0 g and 1.25 g of L respectively are left. Theorder of the reaction is :

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

49. Which inert gas show abnormal behaviour onliquefaction ?

(1) Xe (2) He (3) Ar (4) Kr

50. If urms of a gas is 30 R1/2 ms–1 at 27°C thenmolar mass of gas is :

(1) 0.02 kg/mol (2) 0.001 kg/mol

(3) 0.003 kg/mol (4) 1 kg/mol

51. If 0.1 M of a weak acid is taken, and itspercentage of degree of ionization is 1.34%, thenits ionization constant will be :

(1) 1.82 × 10–5 (2) 1.79 × 10–5

(3) 0.182 × 10–5 (4) none of the above

52. AB; crystallizes in a body centred cubic latticewith edge length ‘a’ equal to 387 pm. Thedistance between two oppositely charged ions inthe lattice is :

(1) 335 pm (2) 250 pm (3) 200 pm (4) 300 pm

53. The enthalpy of combustion of C6H6 is –3250 kJ,when 0.39 gm of C6H6 is burnt in excess ofoxygen in an open vessel, the amount of heatevolved is :

(1) 8.32 kJ (2) 12.36 kJ

(3) 16.25 kJ (4) 20.74 kJ

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54. The following equilibrium constants are given :

2 2 3 2N 3H 2NH ; K

2 2 2N O 2NO; K

2 2 2 21

H O H O; K2

The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3by oxygen to give NO is :

(1)2

2 3

1

K K

K (2)22 3

1

K K

K (3)1 2

3

K K

K (4)3

2 3

1

K K

K

55. The enthalpies of the following reactions areshown below.

2 21 1

H (g) O (g) OH(g)2 2

; 1H 42.09 kJ mol

2H (g) 2H(g); 1H 435.89 kJ mol

2O (g) 2O(g); 1H 495.05 kJ mol

Calculate the O—H bond energy for the hydroxylradical.

(1) 223.18 kJ mol–1 (2) 423.38 kJ mol–1

(3) 513.28 kJ mol–1 (4) 113.38 kJ mol–1

56. Elements X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 19,37 and 55 respectively. Which of the followingstatements is true about them ?

(1) Their ionization potential would increasewith increasing atomic number

(2) ‘Y’ would have an ionisation potential betweenthose of ‘X’ and ‘Z’

(3) ‘Z’ would have the highest ionization potential

(4) ‘Y’ would have the highest ionizationpotential.

57. Formation of a solution from two components canbe considered as

(i) pure solvent separated solvent molecules,

1H

(ii) pure solute separated solute molecules,

2H

(iii) separated solvent and solute molecules

solution, 3H

Solution so formed will be ideal if :

(1) so ln 1 2 3H H H H

(2) so ln 1 2 3H H H H

(3) so ln 3 1 2H H H H

(4) so ln 1 2 3H H H H

58. The standard EMF for the cell reaction,

so ln 1 2 3H H H H is 1.1 volt at 25°C.

The EMF for the cell reaction, when 0.1 M Cu2+

and 0.1 M Zn2+ solutions are used, at 25°C is :

(1) 1.10 V (2) 0.10 V (3) –1.10 V (4) –0.110 V

59.

H C3 CH3

Br

2 2

(i) alc. KOH(ii) SO Cl ,

P

is :

(1) 3-Chloropropene (2) 2-Chloropropene

(3) 1-Chloropropene (4) 1,2-Dichloropropane

60. The electrons, identified by quantum numbersn and l,

(I) n = 3, l = 2 (II) n = 5, l = 0

(III) n = 4, l = 1 (IV) n = 4, l = 2

(V) n = 4, l = 0

Can be placed in order of increasing energy, as :

(1) I < V < III < IV < II (2) I < V < III < II < IV

(3) V < I < III < II < IV (4) V < I < II < III < IV

61. Arrange the following alcohols in order ofincreasing ease of dehydration

3 2I

CH CH OH 6 5 2II

C H CH OH

3 2III

CCl CH OH 3 2IV

F CCH OH

(1) II < I < IV < III (2) IV < III < II < I

(3) IV < III < I < II (4) II < I < III < IV

62. Which among the following is substitutionreaction ?

(1) C == O + RMg X COMgX

R

(2) O

O

O

+ O

O

O(3) 2Anhy. ZnCl

3 Conc. HClR COH Turbidity

(4) All of the above

63. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO,(ii) HClO2, (iii) HClO3 and (iv) HClO4, is (are) :

(1) The number of Cl=O bonds in (ii) and (iii)together is two

(2) The number of lone pairs of electrons on Clin (ii) and (iii) together is three

(3) The hybridization of Cl in (iv) is sp2

(4) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)

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64. Benzaldehyde reacts with ethanoic KCN to give:

(1) C6H5CHOHCN

(2) C6H5CH(OH)COC6H5(3) C6H5CHOHCOOH

(4) C6H5CHOHCHOHC6H5

65. In a closed system : A(s) 2B(g) 3C(g) , if thepartial pressure of C is doubled, then partialpressure of B will be :

(1) two times the original value

(2) one-half of its original value

(3)1

2 2 times the original value

(4) 2 2 times its original value

66. Which of the following complex ions haselectrons that are symmetrically filled in botht2g and eg orbitals ?

(1) [FeF3]3– (2) [Mn(CN)6]4–

(3) [CoF6]3– (4) [CO(NH3)6]2+

67. Which carbocation is the most stabilized ?

(1)

+

(2)

+

(3) + (4)

+

68. In order to refine “blister copper” it is melted ina furnace and is stirred with green longs of wood.The purpose is :

(1) to expel the dissolved gases in blister copper.

(2) to bring the impurities to surface and oxidizethem.

(3) to increase the carbon content of copper.

(4) to reduce the metallic oxide impurities withhydrocarbon gases liberated from the wood.

69. Arrange the following in the order of theirreactivity of SN2 rection

(i) CH Cl2

(ii) CH==CH—CH Cl2

(iii) 2 2CH CH — CH Cl

(iv)CH3CH2CH2Cl

(1) iv > iii > i > ii (2) ii > i > iii > iv

(3) i > ii > iv > iii (4) i > iii > iv > ii

70. P4O10 is not used to dry NH3 gas becuase :(1) P4O10 reacts with moisture in NH3(2) P4O10 is not a drying agent(3) P4O10 is acidic and NH3 is basic(4) P4O10 is basic and NH3 is acidic

71. The heat of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal g–1 at50°C. If specific heat of solid iodine and its vapourare 0.055 and 0.031 cal g–1 respectively, the heatof sublimation of iodine at 100°C is :(1) 22.8 cal g–1 (2) 25.2 cal g–1

(3) –22.8 cal g–1 (4) –25.2 cal g–1

72. In which case the 2NO

will attack at the metaposition :

(i)

CCl3

(ii)

NO2

(iii)

NH3

+

(iv)

O–

(1) i, ii, iii (2) ii, iv(3) i and iii only (4) ii only

73. Identify the incorrect statement :(1) In (Si3O9)6–, tetrahedral SiO4 units share

two oxygen atoms.(2) Trialkylchlorosilane on hydrolysis gives

R3SiOH.(3) SiCl4 undergoes hyrolysis to give H4SiO4(4) (Si3O9)6– has cyclic structure.

74. The structure :

C == CCH3

CH3

H

CH

COOHCH3

shows :(1) tautomerism(2) geometrical isomerism(3) optical isomnerism(4) geometrical and optical isomerism

75. Ionisation of weak acid can be calculated by theformula :

(1) aK100

C(2)

a(pK pH)

100

1 10

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these76. Which of the following will yield a mixture of

2-chlorobutene and 3-chlorobutene on treatmentwith HCl ?

(1) 2 3CH C CH — CH

(2) H C==C—CH==CH2 2

CH3

(3) 2 2CH CH — CH CH

(4) 2HC C — CH CH

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77. The compond A on heating gives a colourless gasand a residue that is dissolved in water to obtainB. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueoussolution of B, C is formed which is recovered inthe solid form. Solic C on gentle heating givesback A. The compound is :

(1) CaSO4·2H2O (2) CaCO3(3) Na2CO3 (4) K2CO3

78. The fraction of total volume occupied by theatoms present in a simple cube is :

(1)3 2

(2)

4 2

(3)

4

(4)

6

79. The straight chain polymer (silicones) is formedby :

(1) hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 followed bycondensation polymerisation

(2) hydrolysis of (CH3)4Si by additionpolymerisation

(3) hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 followed bycondensation polymerisation

(4) hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl followed bycondensation polymerisation

80. Four metals and their methods of refinementare given :

i. Ni, Cu, Zr, Ga

ii. Electrolysis, Van Arkel process, zone refining,Mond’s process

Choose the right method for each :

(1) Ni, Electrolysis; Cu: Van Arkel process; Zr:Zone refining; Ga: Mond’s process.

(2) Ni: Mond’s process; Cu: Electrolysis; Zr: VanArkel process; Ga: Zone refining

(3) Ni: Mond’s process; Cu: Van Arkel process;Zr: Zone refining; Ga: Electrolysis.

(4) Ni: Electrolysis; Cu: Zone refining; Zr: VanArkel process; Ga: Mond’s process

81. The missing reagents R1 and R2 in the followingseries of reactions are :

21 RR3 2 3 3CH CH Br [ ] CH CHP Ph

(1) PhLi and Ph3P respectively

(2) Ph3P and PhLi respectively

(3) Ph3P and C2H5ONa respectively

(4) Either (2) or (3)

82. At 25°C molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueoussolution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 ohm–1

cm2 mol–1 and at infinite dilution its molarconductance is 238 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. Thedegree of ionisation of ammonium hydroxide atthe same concentration and temperature is :

(1) 20.800% (2) 4.008%

(3) 40.800% (4) 2.080%

83. The secondary structure of a protein refers to :(1) fixed configuration of the polypeptide

backbone(2) helical backbone(3) hydrophobic intractions(4) sequence of amino acids.

84.

C N

OCH3

+ CH MgBr3 Q QH O3

+

Product ‘P’ in the above reaction is :

(1)

CH(OH)CH3

OCH3

(2)

COCH3

OCH3

(3)

CHO

OCH3

(4)

COOH

OCH3

85. The number of S O and S—OH bonds presentin peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric acidrespectively are :(1) (2 and 2) and (2 and 2)(2) (2 and 4) and (2 and 4)(3) (4 and 2) and (2 and 4)(4) (4 and 2) and (4 and 2)

86. Which one of the following sets forms thebiodegradable polymer ?(1) CH2 = CH – CN and CH2 = CH – CH = CH2(2) H2N–CH2–COOH and H2N–(CH2)5–COOH(3) HO–CH2–CH2–OH and

COOHHOOC

(4) CH=CH2 and CH2=CH–CH=CH2

87. When a sample of gas is compressed at constanttemperature from 15 atm to 60 atm, its volumechanges from 76 cm3 to 20.5 cm3. Which of thefollowing statements are possible explanation ofthis behaviour ?(a) The gas behaves non-ideally(b) The gas dimerises(c) The gas is adsorbed into the vessel walls(1) a, b and c (2) a and b only(3) b and c only (4) a only

GOALI I T - J E E


88. G in 2 2Ag O 2 Ag 1/2O at a certaintemperature is –10 kJ mol–1. Pick the correctstatement :

(1) Ag2O decomposes to Ag and O2(2) Ag and O2 combines to form Ag2O

(3) Reaction is in equilibrium

(4) Reaction does not take place

89. In a set of reactions p-nitrotoluene yielded aproduct E.

CH3

NO2

Br2

FeBr3B

Sn/HClC

The product E would be :

(1)

CH3

Br Br

Br

(2)

CH3

Br

Br

(3)

CH3

Br

Br(4)

CH Br2

Br

90.Br /hv2 Major (X) Alcoholic

KOH/ Major (Y)

H—BrPeroxide

Major (Z)

(1)Br

(2)

Br

(3)Br

(4)

Br

91. What is acrosomal reaction ?

(1) Contact of acrosome & nucleus of egg

(2) Disintegeration of acrosome

(3) Contact of sperms with eggs

(4) Digestion of zona pellucida

92. Polyblend is a fine powder of recyclied modifiedplastic which :

(1) enhance anthracite ’s water repellentproperties

(2) helps to increase life of road

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) None of the above

93. Match the following :

A. Plants (i). 125000

B. Fish (ii) 427

C. Birds (iii) 1300

D. Mammals (iv)378

E. Reptiles (v) 40,000

F. Invertebrates (vi)3000

A B C D E F

(1) v i i i i i vi iv i

(2) v i i i vi i i iv i

(3) v vi i i i i i iv i

(4) i i i i i i iv v vi

94. The 10% low is related to :

(1) energy transfer from lower trophic level tohigher trophic level

(2) energy consumption during photosynthesis

(3) Gregarious pest

(4) Mendelian genetics

95. Level of competetion between species dependson :

(1) Availability of resources

(2) Population density

(3) Group interaction of organism


96. (i) Transgenic animals are more sensitive totoxic substance than non-transgenicanimals.

(ii) Earlier, insulin were extracted from pancreasof slaughtered cattles & pigs which are moreefficient than genetically engineeredinsulin.

(iii) Biopatent means right to use biologicalresources

(iv)Basmati is unique for its aroma & flavourwhose 27 varieties are cultivated in India.

Which is not incorrect.

(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (ii), (iii)

(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) All of the above

97. EcoRI is not used :

(1) Restriction endonuclease

(2) to cut ssRNA

(3) enzyme obtained from E.coli RY13


GOALI I T - J E E


98. Methanogens are not found in :(1) Butanal (2) Anaerobic sludge(3) Rumen of cattle (4) Cattle dung

99.

a

b

c

Identify correct labelling :a b c

(1) Colon Tubule Crop(2) Colon Gizzard Salivary reservoir(3) Pharynx Gizzard Salivary reservoir(4) Oesophagus Gizzard Salivary reservoir

100. Breeding is often constrained by :(1) availability of disease resistance genes that

are present & unidentified in various cropvarieties or wild relatives

(2) availability of disease resistance genes thatare present & identified in various cropvarieties or wild relatives

(3) availability of disease resistance genes thatare absent & unidentified in various cropvarieties or wild relatives

(4) None of the above101. Cocaine :

(1) is stimulant drug(2) directly affects CNS(3) was used as par as local anaesthetic(4) all of the above

102. Darwinian fitness can be estimated by :(1) how long different individual in a population

survive.(2) individual have a large size in population(3) number of offsprings produced by different

individuals in population.(4) species recover after mass extinction.

103. The tRNA having CCG in its abticodon site thenit will carry which amino acid :(1) Methionine (2) Serine(3) Proline (4) Glycine

104. Criss-cross inheritance is a type of :

(1) sex-linked inheritance where a parentpasses traits to grand child of same sexthrough offspring of opposite sex.

(2) sex-linked inheritance where a parentpasses traits to grand child of opposite sexthrough offspring of same sex.

(3) Autosomal inheritance where a parentpasses traits to grand child of same sexthrough offspring of opposite sex

(4) Autosomal inheritance where a parentpasses traits to grand child of same sexthrough offspring of same sex

105. Which is not a contraceptive :

(1) IUD (2) Implant (3) CuT (4) AI

106.

NH2

N

N NH

N is a structure of :

(1) Adenine (2) Guanine

(3) Uracil (4) All of the above

107.

The given figure shows :

(1) Duct system of liver

(2) Duct system of pancrease

(3) Duct system of gall bladder


108. Testicular lobules contain :

(1) 1 – 3 seminiferous tubules




109. Statement 1 : Flowers are the structures relatedto sexual reproduction in flowering plants.

Statement 2 : Various embryological process ofplants occurs in a flower.

(1) Both statements are wrong

(2) Both statements are correct

(3) Statement 1 is right but Statement 2 is wrong

(4) Statement 1 is wrong but Statement 2 is right

GOALI I T - J E E


110. Zoospores : Chlamydomonas :: Buds : ______ .

(1) Hydra (2) Yeast

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Sponges

111. Which is most important function of botanicalgarden :

(1) Provide natural habitat for wildlife

(2) They are place for recreation

(3) Plant diversity can be observed here

(4) Allow ex-situ conservation

112. Find the odd one out with respect to mode ofnutrition.

(1) Trypanosoma gambiense

(2) Paramecium caudatum

(3) Euglena

(4) Amoeba proteus

113. Cycas is :

(1) Homosporous & Monoecious

(2) Homosporous & Dioecious

(3) Heterosporous & Dioecious

(4) Heterosporous & Monoecious

114. (i) They are dioecious

(ii) Fertilization internal

(iii) Pseudocoelomate

The following character is shown by :

(1) Hookworm (2) Flatworm

(3) Earthworm (4) All of the above

115.


(1) Parts of ovule showing MMC, a dyad & a tetradof megaspores

(2) Diagrammatic representation of matureembryo sac.

(3) 2, 4 & 8 nucleate stages of embryo sac & amature embryo sac.

(4) 2, 4, 8 nucleate stages of embryo sac &immature embryo sac.

116. Which is not protective in function ?

(1) Prickles (2) Thorn

(3) Spines (4) Tendrils


A. Endodermis (i) Companion cells

B. Stomata (ii) Lenticels

C. Sieve tube (iii) Palisade cells

D. Periderm (iv)Passage cells

E. Mesophyll (v) Guard cells

A B C D E

(1) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) (iii)

118. Faecal deposits of earthworm are called :

(1) Organic matter (2) Castings

(3) Dung (4) Manure

119. Why ER, GB, Lysosomes & Vacuoles arecomponents of EMS :

(1) Their structures are distinct

(2) Their funtions are distinct

(3) Their functions are coordinated


120. Sugars found in polynucleotides are :

(1) 2 deoxyribose (2) dextrose

(3) Ribose (4) Both (1) and (3)

121. 2n = 14, DNA = x then what will be ChromosomeNo. & DNA content in G2 phase :

(1) 2n = 14,DNA = 2x (2) 2n = 28, DNA = 2x

(3) 2n = 7, DNA = 2x (4) n = 7, DNA = 2x

122. Which is not the function of transpiration ?

(1) Help in translocation of sugars from sourceto sink

(2) Cool leaf surface

(3) Provide water for photosynthesis

(4) Maintain shape & structure of plant

123.


(1) Showing bee-a pollinator on orchid flower.

(2) Showing bee-a pollinator on cabbage flower.

(3) Showing bee-a pollinator on castor flower.

(4) Showing bee-a pollinator on pea flower.

GOALI I T - J E E


124. What effect can be seen on plant growth &reproduction in absence of essential mineralelement ?(1) Plants will complete their life cycle normally(2) Plants will not complete their life cycle.(3) Only growth will get affected not the

reproduction.(4) There will be no effect on the normal growth

but reproduction in plants will suffer.125. Which equation is correct to prove that O2 comes

from water during photosynthesis ?

(1) 18 182 2 2 6 12 6 26CO 12H O 6O C H O 6H O

(2) 18 182 2 2 2 12 6 26CO 12H O 6O C H O 6H O

(3) 18 182 2 2 6 12 66CO 12H O 6CO C H O

(4) 18 182 2 2 6 12 6 26CO 12H O 6O C H O 6H O

126. Cyt a a3 is also called :(1) Centchroman (2) Centrigon(3) Cyt bc (4) None of the above

127. Darwin & Darwin is related to discovery of :(1) Auxin (2) C2H4 (3) Zeatin (4) ABA

128. Which is incorrect ?

(1) Pancreatic

amylaseStarch Maltose

(2) NucleotidaseNucleic acids

Nitrogenious base + Pentose sugar

(3) PepsinProteins Peptones + Proteoses

(4) PancreaticLipase(emulsified)

Fat fattyacids + Diglycerides

129. Find the odd one out with respect to function :(1) Green glands (2) Lungs(3) Spiracles (4) Book lungs

130. Atherosclerosis is caused by deposition of :(1) Deposition of Ca2+

(2) Deposition of fats(3) Deposition of fibrous tissue(4) All of the above

131.


(1) Diagrammatic view of male reproductivesystem

(2) Diagrammatic sectional view of male pelvis(3) Diagrammatic view of male reproductive

system (part of testis is open to show innerdetails)

(4) Both (1) and (2)132. ANF mechanism checks on :

(1) Renin - angiotensin mechanism(2) Oxytocin - angiotensin mechanism(3) ADH - angiotensin mechanism(4) Aldosteron - angiotensin mechanism

133. Fibroius joints in humans :(1) allows movement(2) allows some movement(3) doesn’t allow movement(4) both (1) and (2)

134. In pinna :(1) wax secreting sweat gland(2) wax secreting goblet cells(3) wax secreting G-cells(4) wax secreting sebaceous glands

135. All are secondary messengers except :(1) cAMP (2) Ca2+ (3) IP3 (4) I2

136. Which is correct statement ?(1) Bacteria are simple in structure but complex

is behaviour(2) Bacteria are complex in structure but simple

in behavior(3) Bacteria are both simple in structure &

behavior(4) Bateria are both complex in structure &

behavior

137.

Sporophyte(2n)

Syngamy

GametogenesisZygote(2n)

The given cycle is shown by :(1) Pinus (2) Wolffia(3) Cycas (4) All of the above

138. GIP :

(1) Inhibits gastric secretion & motility

(2) Inhibits gastric motility only

(3) Inhibits gastric secretion only


GOALI I T - J E E



Column I Column II

A. Synaptic vesicles i. Resting potential

B. Electrical potential ii. Nerve impulsedifference acrossresting plasmamembrane

C. Action potential iii.Neurotransmitter

D. Granular bodies iv. Nissl’s granules

found in cyton of

neuron

A B C D

(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

140. The joint of humerus with pectoral girdle is :

(1) Hinge joint (2) Ball & socket joint

(3) Pivot joint (4) Fibrous joint

141. A large quantity of which one of the following isremoved from our body by lungs :

(1) CO2 (2) H2O

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of the above

142. —C—OH is seen in chemical/skeletal structureof :

(1) Morphine (2) Cannabinoid

(3) Glucose (4) All of the above

143.

(a)

(b)

Identify correct labelling.

a b

(1) Zygote Synergids

(2) Zygote Degenerating synergids

(3) Zygote Degenerating Antipodals

(4) Zygote Antipodals

144. All are extinct except :

(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Therapsids

(3) Dinosaurs (4) Struthio

145. Pacemaker is :

(1) Instrument for measuring heartbeat

(2) Instrument for measuring pulse rate

(3) SA node that provides impulse for heartbeat

(4) AV node that provides impulse for heartbeat

146. Nervous regulation of breathing involves :

(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Pons varolli

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above

147. Frenulum is :

(1) V-shaped furrow which divides surface oftongue.

(2) fold by which tongue is attached to floor oforal cavity

(3) a tonsil-like structure on lateral wall of palate

(4) an adenoid present on pharyngeal wall

148. Cells of root apex :

(1) are poor in protoplasm

(2) have conspicuous nuclei

(3) have secondary cell walls


149. For oxidation of 1 tripalmitin molecule :

(1) 102 CO2 is evolved (2) 98 H2O is evolved

(3) RQ = 0.7 (4) All of the above

150. How many turns of calvin cycle produces 10glucose molecules ?

(1) 60 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 20

151.


(1) Deciduous forest (2) Tropical rainforest

(3) Marine forest (4) Desert

152. Biston betularia survived because of :

(1) Mimicry (2) Camouflage


GOALI I T - J E E


153. Which incident is not related to conservation offorest ?

(1) Bishnoi movement

(2) Chipko movement

(3) Haryana Kisan Welfare


154. Decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants& animkals into NH3 is called :

(1) Nitrification (2) N2 fixation

(3) Denitrification (4) Ammonification

155. _______ develps in confined part of an osmoticsystem due to osmotic entry of H2O in it :

(1) Pressure potential

(2) Turgor pressure

(3) Positive hydrostatic

(4) All of the above pressure

156. Bharat stage III is for :

(1) 4 whealers (2) 3 wheelers

(3) 2 wheelers (4) All of the above

157. Cuckoo & crow shows :

(1) Brood parasitism (2) Ectoparasitism

(3) Endoparasitism (4) Non parasitism

158. The presence of rice :

(1) goes back 1000s of years in Asia’s agriculturehistory.

(2) goes back 100s of years in Asia’s agriculturehistory

(3) goes back millions of years in Asia’sagriculture history

(4) goes back 10s of years in Asia’s agriculturehistory

159. DNA replication is not seen :

(1) Interphase (2) s-phase

(3) G2-phase (4) None of the above

160. Galactose is :

(1) Called brain sugar (2) Aldose sugar

(3) Hexose sugar (4) All of the above

161. Select incorrect pair :

(1) Gram (+) bacteria - take up Gram stain

(2) Pili - locomotory structure in bacteria

(3) Capsule - thick & though glycocalyx

(4) Cell wall - prevents bactria from collapsing

162. Which of the following can have hexagonalgeometry ?

(1) Ommatidia (2) Virus


163. Excretory system of frog consists of :

(1) pair of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder &cloaca.

(2) single kidney, urinary bladder & cloaca

(3) Kidney & cloaca

(4) Urethra & cloaca

164. Epiblema of roots is equivalent to :

(1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis

(3) Cortex (4) Pericycle

165. Health was considered as a state of body & mindwhere there was a balance of certain ‘humors’by :

(1) Early Greeks

(2) Hippocrates

(3) Indian Ayurveda system of medicine


166.


(1) Relative contribution of various GHGs

(2) Sunlight energy at outermost atmosphere

(3) Ozone hole

(4) Sunlight energy at innermost atmosphere

167. Odd one out is :

(1) Catla (2) Hilsa

(3) Rohu (4) Common carp

168. Pedicel : flowers :: Petiole : ________

(1) Leaf (2) inflorescence

(3) RAM (4) SAM

169. Water canal system is seen in :

(1) Asterias (2) Cucumaria

(3) Echinus (4) Euspongia

170. Phycoerythrin :

(1) Absorbs green light (2) Reflects red light


GOALI I T - J E E


171.


(1) A polynucleotide chain

(2) ds polynucleotide chain

(3) DNA double helix

(4) Nucleosome

172. Which RNA plays structural & catalytic roleduring translation :

(1) mRNA (2) rRNA (3) tRNA (4) snRNA

173. In pond, the decomposers :

(1) are abundant at bottom

(2) are bacteria

(3) are fungi, flagellates


174. Least life span is of :

(1) Crow (2) Parrot (3) Banyan (4) Tortoise

175. Microsporangia is :

(1) Tetragonal (2) Four - sided


176. WHO is :

(1) World Health Organisation

(2) World Health Orphanage

(3) World Health Organ donors

(4) Work Health Organisation

177. Male in honeybee :

(1) develops from fertilized egg

(2) is haploid

(3) has 32 chromosomes

(4) Both (1) and (3)

178. Which is viral disease ?

(1) BSE (2) CJD

(3) Influenza (4) Both (1) and (2)

179. Solanum & Panthera are :

(1) Genus & Genus (2) Genus & Species

(3) Family & Species (4) Family & Genus

180. To prevent fungal attack on herbarium ______isused :

(1) 0.1% mercuric chloride



(4) 10% mercuric chloride

B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001, Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67, www.goalinstitute.org 1

SPOT TEST SERIES

FOR

NEET 2020

Test 14th - (23.04.2020)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

TEST CENTRE

DELHI LUCKNOW VARANASI EAST PATNA

WEST PATNA MUZAFFARPUR BHAGALPUR PURNEA

DARBHANGA GAYA RANCHI BOKARO

JAMSHEDPUR HAZARIBAGH DHANBAD


SOLUTION SPOT TEST SERIES-14, NEET - 23.04.2020

01.d M V

100 100 100d M V

0.02 0.06100 100

24.28 4.3

= 0.08237 + 1.3953

= 1.4777 = 1.5%

03. a = b, l2 = a2 + y2

d dy2 0 2y

dt dt

ll

dy uu

dt ycos

2

l

04.M

v cos m 602

,

M mvsin 50,

2 2

v cos = 120

v sin = 50

v2 = 1202 + 502

v = 130 m/s

05. m2g = m

1g sin60° + µm

1g cos 60°

3 1mg mg mg

2 2

2 – 3

06. h1 + h

2 = 2h

1 2h hh

2

,

211 2

hhW Ah g Ah g

2 2

–h

Ah g 22

2 2 21 2

A gh h – 2h

2

222 2 1 21 2

h hA gW h h – 2

2 2

2 2 2 21 2 1 2 1 22h h – h – h – 2h hA g

W2 2

22 21 2 1 2 1 2

A g A gW h h – 2h h h – h

4 4

07. h’ = e2h = (0.4)2 × 2 = 0.16 × 2 = 0.32 m

10. 2 2 2Ra ( r) (a r)

11. dV = –Edx

x/2 x/2–3V – Edx – Kx dx

x/2–3 1x

V – K–2

x/2

2

1K

2x

2

1K

x2

2

2 2

2 2KV K

x x

12.GMm GMm

E – – –8r 2r

GMm GMm (4 –1)GMm–

2r 8r 8r

3GMmE ,

8r

3GMm/8r% increase

(GMm/2r)

3GMm 2r 375%

8r GMm 4

13. vg = mg

a2h × 1 × g = 300g

a2 × 3 = 300

a2 = 100 a = 10 cm

15. F = Y A

= 2 × 1011 × 1.4 × 10–5 × (80 – 20) × 3 × 10–6

F = 504 N

16. a

PVP 2P,

V/2

b

VP P r

V/2

ra bP 2 P P


17. C T = Q,

CV T =

Q 4QQ –

5 5 ,

5Rn T

2 =

4Q

5

= 8Q

T25nR

,

nCT = Q = 8Q

nC25nR

25C R

8

18. CV = 3 × 4 = 12 J/mole K,

n = 6

1.5,4

1 1

2 2

P T

P T

2

P T

2P T

T2 = 2T = 2 × 273,

T = 273

Q = nCVT = 1.5 × 12 × 273 = 4914 J

20. P.E. = E 3

E – E4 4

23 1KA

4 2 =

21Kx

2

3x A

2

21. n1 – n

2 = 5

= 1 2 2

v v 330 100 1 1– –

4 4 4 10

l l l

5

8250

2

1 1 1 165 –1–

10 1650 1650

l,

165010.060

164

2l

22.1 T 1 3T n

n , '2 A 2 3l 9A 3 3

l

23.2 01 0

I 2

K AK AC ,C

d/2 d/2

1 2R

1 2

C CC

C C

2 01 0

1 20R

0 20 1 1 2

2K A2K AK K2 Ad dC

2 K A2 K A d K K

d d

25. R ,IR V,A

l

I VA

l

I V

A

26.E

I ,IR VR r

IR = V, V + Ir = E,E – V

rI

E – V R(E – V)r

(V/R) V

27. eq

R R RR ,

R R 2

2 2V 2V64

R/2 R ,

2V32

R

212 144 9R 4.5

32 32 2

28. IgG = (I – I

g)S

g gI IG S

2 2 G = S = 5

29.0 1

2

2IdF dx I

4 x

4L/30

1 2

L/3

dxF I I

2 x

4L/30 01 2 1 2L/3

4L/3F I I [ln x] I I ln

2 2 L/3

0 01 2 1 2F I I 2 ln2 I I ln2

2


30.V V

H H

B Btan ,tan '

B B cos

tantan '

cos

cos < 1

tan ' > tan ' >

31. = BAN

= 2

0 r

N1 r N l

= 4 × 10–7 × 800 × 80

0.4× 4 × (8 × 10–3)2 × 80

= 12.9 × 10–3 13 mWb.

32.2

2 2 –6

1 1 1L

LC C (2 100) 20 10

2 4 –5 2

1 10L 0.12678H

4 10 2 10 8

33.

22d d

d 0 d2 2

I I rI ' r , B.d I '

R R

l

20 d

0 d 2 2

I rrB 2 r I B

R 2 R

35. i1 = 60°, A = 30°

= 30°, i2 = ?

= i1 + i

2 – A

i2 = + A – i

1

= 30 + 30 – 60 = 0°

Angle made by emergent ray with second face

= 90° – 0° = 90°

36.1 1 1

–v u f

1 1 1–

–40 f

100 100– – 2.53

f 40

38.2 xd

, n ,n 4D

4

24 8

39.eE eE

a ,v 0 tm m

eEt

m ,

h h

eEtmvm

m

2

h d –h,

eEt dt eEt

40.2nh

L ,L n,r n ,L r2

41. 1 2 1p p 2 (216m)E

22 (4m)E , 1 2

4E E

216

1 2E E 8.8MeV,

1 21

2 2

E EE 1 55,

E 54 E 54

2

54E 8.8 8.64MeV

55

42.

n n

0

N 1 1 1, n 5

N 2 32 2

2y

60T 12days

5

43. Y A B A •B A•B AND gate

44.c

b

I,

I I

c = 60 × 50 × 10–6 = 3mA,

0 0

i i

v R

v R

3–6

0

4 10V 60 50 10 500

500

= 12 volt

(As Vi = I

bR

i = 50 × 10—6 × 500 = 25mV)

46. In FeS2, Fe2+ is converting into Fe3+ and sulphur

is changing from –1 oxidation state to +4 oxidation

state. There are two S– and one Fe2+ in FeS2. Thus

total no. of electrons lost in the given reaction are

11.

47. Butter of tin is SnCl4·5H2O.

48. After every 30 minutes the amount is reduced to

1

2 therefore t1/2 is 30 minutes. In 90 minutes

the amount is reduced to 1

8i.e. n

1

2. Here n = 3.

True for 1st order reaction.


50. rms

3RTu

Mw

51. Percentage of degree of ionization = 1.34%

Degree of ionization ( ) = 0.0134

3 3Initial 00.1 0

At equilibrium 0.1 0.0.1340.1(1 0.0134) 0.1 0.0134

CH COOH CH COO H

3

3

[CH COO ][H ]K

[CH COOH]

0.1 0.0134 0.0134 0.1

0.1 (1 0.0134)

= 1.82 × 10–5

52. For BCC lattice body diagonal a 3 .

The distance between the two oppositely charged

ions a

32

387 1.732

2

= 335 pm

53. 6 6 2 2 2

15C H O 6CO 3H O

2

1 mole 3250 kJ

0.39

78mole

0.393250

78 = 16.25 kJ

54. Given,

2 2 3N 3H 2NH ; K1 .... (i)

2 2N O 2NO; K2 .... (ii)

2 2 2

1H O H O;

2 K3 .... (iii)

We have to calculate

3 2 24NH 5O 4NO 6H O; K = ?

or 3 2 2

52NH O 2NO 3H O

2

For this equation, 2 3

2

2 5/23 2

[NO] [H O]K

[NH ] [O ]

but

23

1 32 2

[NH ]K

[N ][H ] ,

2

22 2

[NO]K

[N ][O ]

& 12

23

2 2

[H O]K

[H ][O ] or

32

33 23 3

2 2

[H O]K

[H ] [O ]

Now operate,

32 3

1

K · K

K

3 322 2 2

3 3/2 22 2 2 2 3

[H O] [N ][H ][NO].

[N ][O ] [H ] [O ] [NH ]

2 32

2 5/23 2

[NO] [H O]K

[NH ] [O ]

32 3

1

K · KK

K

55. We have to calculate the enthalpy of the reaction

OH(g) O(g) H(g)

From the given reaction, this can be obtained as

follows.

12 2 (g)

1 1H (g) O (g) OH ; H 42.09 kJ mol

2 2

12

1 1[H (g) 2H(g)]; H 435.89 kJ mol

2 2

12

1 1[O (g) 2O(g)]; H 495.05 kJ mol

2 2

Add

OH(g) H(g) O(g) ; 1H 423.38 kJ mol

56. Elements X, Y, Z with atomic numbers 19, 37, 55lie in group 1 (alkali metals). ON moving down agroup from the size of atoms increases; theoutermost electrons become less strongly held. So

the ionization energy decreases. Therefore, IE ofY could be beween those of X and Z.

X Y Z

K(19) Rb(37) Cs(55)

I.E. 4.3 4.2 3.9

58. Since concentration of ions is the same hence

ocell cellE E .

59.

CH3H C3

alc. KOHCH2

CH

CH3

Br

2 2SO Cl .heat2 2allylic substitution

CH CHCH Cl

60. Applying (n + l) rule

(I) n + l = 3 + 2 = 5 (II) n + l = 5 + 0 = 5

(III) n + l = 4 + 1 = 5 (IV) n + l = 4 + 2 = 6

(V) n + l = 4 + 0 = 4

Higher the value of (n + l), more is the energyassociated with it. In case of same value of(n + l), the electron with higher value of n hashigher energy.

The order is : V < I < III < II < IV


61. Higher the stability of the carboncation, more

easily it is formed and more will be the ease of its

dehydration. Thus order of stability of the

carbocations of the corresponding alcohols is :

F C3 CH < Cl C2 3 CH < H C2 3

+ +CH < C H CH2 6 5 2

+ +

Least stable dueto intensification

of charge

Most stable dueto resonance

F3CCH2OH < Cl3CCH2OH < H3CCH2OH

< C6H5CH2OH (Ease of dehydration)

62.2Anny. ZnCl

3 3Conc. HClR COH R CCl

It is substitution reaction. R3CCl being insoluble

in H2O give turbid solution.

63. Cl—O—H:

::

: :

Cl

OHO(ii)(i)

:

Cl

OHO

(iii)

O

Cl

OHO

(iv)

O

O

Number of Cl = O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is

3

Number of lone pairs on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together

is 3

Hybridisation of Cl in all the four is sp3

Strongest acid is HClO4 (iv)

64. When benzaldehyde is refluxed with aqueous

alcoholic potassium cyanide, two molecules of

benzaldehyde condense together to form benzoin.

C + C

H O

O H

KCN(alc.)

C – C

H O

OHBenzoin

65.2 3 2 3 2 3

p B(1) C(1) B(2) C(2) B(2) C(1)K p p P p P (2p ) ;

hence

2B(2)

2B(1)

p 1

8p ,

B(2)

B(1)

P 1

P 2 2

66. Symmetrically filled t2g and eg are those, which

contain equal distribution of electrons.

[FeF3]3– t2g

eg equal distribution ofelectrons in orbitalst and e2g g

[Mn(CN)6]4–

t2g

eg unequaldistributionof electronsin orbitals

[CoF6]3–

t2g

eg unequaldistributionof electrons

[Co(NH3)6]2+

t2g

eg unequaldistributionof electronsin orbitals

67. +

Stabilised by extended conjugation.

68. 2 2 2 22Cu S 3O 2Cu O 2SO

2 4 2(From greenlogs of wood)

3Cu O CH 6Cu 2H O CO

69. Reactivity stability of TS.

70.3NH

4 10 2 3 4 3basicAcidic meta phosphoric meta ammonium

acid phosphate

P O 2H O 4HPO NH PO

71. 2 1 p 2 1H H C (T T )

2H 24 (0.031 0.055)(100 50)

12H 22.8 cal g

72. —CCl3, —NO2 and 3— NH

group are ring

deactivator and metadirecting.

74.

CH3

C==C

CH3

H

C*

CH3 COOH

H

It has asymmetric carbon atom (marked *) so it

shows optical isomerism. Two groups attached to

C C are same (—CH3), so it does not show

geomerical isomerism.


75. For weak acid dissociation equilibria, degree of

dissociation (1) is given as :

aK

C ,

aK% 100

C

Also, a

[H ][A ]K

[HA]

[H ]C

C(1 )

[H ]

(1 )

log aK log H log1

or a

1pK pH log

apK pH log

apK pH110

or, apK pH110 1

apK pH

1,

[1 10 ]

apK pH

100%

[1 10 ]

76. H2 3CH C CH — CH

Cl2 2 3 2 3[CH C— CH CH CH CH — CHCH ]

CH ==C—CH CH + CH ==CH—CHCH2 2 3 2 3

Cl Cl2–Chlorobutene 3–Chlorobutene

77. 3 2(B)(A) colourless

CaCO (s) CO (g) CaO(s)

2 2(B)

CaO(s) H O(g) Ca(OH) (aq)

2 2 3 2(C)

Ca(OH) (aq) 2CO (g) Ca(HCO ) (aq)

3 2 3 2 2(A)(C)

Ca(HCO ) (s) CaCO (s) CO (s) H O(g)

78. Number of atoms per unit cell = 1

Atoms touch each other along edges. Hence a

r2

(r = radius of atom and a = edge length)

Therefore % fraction

3

3

4r

3

(2r)

6

= 0.52

79. Hydrolysis of substituted chlorosilanes yield

corresponding silanols which undergo

polymerisation.

SiCH3

CH3

Cl H OH+Cl H OH

–2HClSi

CH3

CH3

OH

OH

Dialkyl silandiol

Polymerisation of dialkyl silandiol yields linear

thermoplastic polymer.

CH3

HO — Si — OH + H O — Si — OH

CH3

CH3

CH3

CH3

HO — Si — O — Si — OH

CH3

CH3

CH3

81.–

3 2 3 3 2 3CH CH Br Ph P CH CH P Ph Br

6 5

2 5

–C H Li or

3 3 3 3C H ONaCH CH PPh CH CHP Ph

82.m

m

9.54

238 = 0.04008 = 4.008%.

83. The secondary structure of a protein refers to the

shape in which a long peptide chain can exist.

There are two different conformations of the

peptide linkage present in protein, these are

-helix and -conformation. The -helix always

has a right handed arrangement. In

-conformation all peptide chains are stretched

out to nearly maximum extension and then laid

side by side and held togethr by intermolecular

hydrogen bonds. The structure resembles the

pleated folds of drapery and therefore is known as

-pleated sheet.

84.

C N

OCH3

+ CH MgBr3

C==NMgBr

OCH3Q

H O3

+

–Mg(OH)Br, –NH3

CCH3

OCH3P

CH3 O


86. Biodegradable polymer is Nylon-2-Nylon-6 which

is copolymer of glycine (H2N – CH2 – COOH) and

aminocaproic acid (H2N–(CH2)5–COOH).

nH N – CH – COOH +2 2

glycine nH N–(CH ) –COOH2 2 5

aminocaproic acid

( HN–CH –C–HN–(CH ) –C )2 2 5 n

O O

nylon – 2 – nylon – 6

87. Given, P1 = 15 atm, P2 = 60 atm

V1 = 76 cm3, V2 = 20.5 cm3.

If the gas is an ideal gas, then according to Boyle’s

law, it must follow the equation,

P1V1 = P2V2

P1 × V1 = 15 × 76 = 1140

P2 × V2 = 60 × 20.5 = 1230

1 1 2 2P V P V

The gas behaves non-ideally.

The given information is not sufficient to

comment on other statements.

88. G ve means the process is spontaneous.

89.

CH3

NO2

Br2

FeBr3

CH3

NO2

Br

Sn/HCl

CH3

NH2

Br

CH3

HBr

CuBr

CH3

N Cl2

BrBr

Br

NaNO2

HClN +2

–

90.

Br

X = Y = Z =Br

GOALI I T - J E E

MEDICAL

SPOT TEST-14th-23.04.2K20

ANS. KEY

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

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11.

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55.

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57.

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60.

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63.

64.

65.

66.

67.

68.

69.

70.

71.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

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81.

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83.

84.

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118.

119.

120.

(3)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(3)

121.

122.

123.

124.

125.

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127.

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166.

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174.

175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

(2)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(2)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(2)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(4)

(3)

(3)

(2)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(4)

(4)

(1)

(1)

(3)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(2)

(1)

(4)

(3)

(1)

(2)

(4)

(1)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(1)

(1)

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[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720goalinstitute.org/imagebag/image314.pdf29. A conductor AB of length L carrying a current I2 is placed perpendicular to a long straight conductor