TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES - insightsonindia.com · Each item is printed in both Hindi and English. ... TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES Paper---1 ... The boundary zone between Pacific

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TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES

Paper---1

INSIGHTS REVISION TESTS FOR PRELIMS 2018

Serial No. 10

Days. 37-41

Insights IAS | InsightsonIndia

www.insightsias.com 1 www.insightsonindia.com

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SERIES – 10 : QUESTIONS (Days 37-41)

1. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding soils of India.

a) Black soil exhibits self-ploughing characteristic

b) Humus content of laterite soil is low and generally they are unfit for cultivation.

c) Arid soils generally are clayey in texture with higher acidity

d) Alkaline soil are treated with gypsum to make it suitable for cropping.

2. Which one of the following mining area is significant for a different mineral from that of the other three

areas ?

a) Nellore

b) Panchpatmali

c) Koderma

d) Ajmer

3. Consider the following statements regarding Malwa Plateau

1. In general Red Soil is found over the plateau

2. Soyabean and cotton are important crops grown in the area.

3. The regions is rich in limestone deposits.

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?

a) 1 and 2 Only

b) 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 only

4. Consider the following regarding shifting cultivation

1. Roca — Central America.

2. Podu — Western Ghats

3. Dahiya — Madhya Pradesh

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched.

a) 3 Only

b) 1 and 2 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only

d) 1 and 3 only

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5. Consider the following statements

1. In India, groundnut crop is raised mostly during the Kharif season under rainfed conditions.

2. In India, tobacco is cultivated only in black cotton soils.


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) None of the above


1. In India, Tertiary deposits of coal occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland

2. In India, lignite does not occur anywhere except in Tamil Nadu.

3. In India, metallurgical coal is restricted to Jharkand and Andhra Pradesh Only


a) 2 and 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 1 only

d) 1 and 2 only

7. Match of the following

List I (Sources of energy) List II –Places

1. Geothermal Gulf of Kutch

2. Wind Vizhinjam

3. Wave Muppandal

4. Tidal Puga Valley

Which of the following is correct.

A B C D

a) 2 4 3 1

b) 2 3 4 1

c) 4 2 1 3

d) 4 3 2 1




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8. Which among the following is INCORRECT

a) National Waterway-4 extending from Muktyal to Pondicherry is the longest National

Waterway.

b) Asian Highway-48 also known as SAARC Road extends between Agra in India to Matara in

Srilanka

c) Presently, longest operational LPG pipeline in India extends between Jamnagar in Gujarat to

Loni near New Delhi.

d) Western Dedicated Freight corridor extends between Jawaharlal Nehru Port to Dadri.


1. Bellary region of Karnataka has the maximum concentration of Iron & steel Industries in India.

2. Location of Aluminium smelting is influenced by availability of raw material and supply of

electricity.


a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2


10. Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from north to south because of

a) Cheap Labour.

b) Cheap and abundant supply of power

c) Better availability of power

d) Higher yield and longer crushing season

11. Which of the following factors are considered as the threat to Indian forests.

1. Expansion of plantations

2. Grazing

3. Teak monoculture


a) 3 Only

b) 1 and 3 Only

c) 2 and 3 Only.

d) All the above.

12. Consider the following regarding rain water harvesting

1. Reduce flooding

2. Reduced surface runoff

3. No impact on conservation of soil.

4. Dilution of fluorides and salinity in groundwater.




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Which of the following is/are CORRECT

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 4 only

c) 2, 3 and 4

d) All the above

13. A state in India has the following characteristics.

1. Discontinuous hills of lower elevation extend in the central part of the state.

2. Nearly 60% of soil cover is Red soil and it is the leading producer of Tobacco, Chilly and Turmeric

in the country

3. Chenchus, Yerukalas, Koyas are important tribal groups of the state.

Identify the state with the above features

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Jharkand

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Gujarat

14. Majuli one of the biggest riverine island in the world is formed by confluence of

a) Brahmaputra and Manas river

b) Kameng, Dhansiri and Brahmaputra river

c) Brahmaputra, Subansiri and Kherkutia suti

d) Brahmaputra and Barak river

15. The number of states which are located to the south of Tropic of Cancer excluding the states through

which Tropic of cancer passes

a) 7

b) 8

c) 6

d) 10

16. Monazite a important source of rare earths in general is NOT found over which state

a) Odisha

b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Jammu Kashmir

17. Consider the following

1. Lock Industry — Aligarh

2. Brass Handicraft — Firozabad

3. Glass Industry — Moradabad




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Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) All the above

18. The largest naval base in India is located in

a) Vishakapatnam

b) Karwar

c) Kochi

d) Paradeep

19. Tropical cyclone Gita that hit in 2018 was formed in

a) Arabian sea

b) Bay of Bengal

c) South Pacific

d) South China sea

20. Consider the following statements regarding millet cultivation

1. They are rainfed crops mostly grown to the west of 100 cm Isohyet line.

2. The are grown only in black soil region of Deccan plateau.

3. Apart from Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand is also important producer of ragi in the

country.

Which of the following is/are correct

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 only

d) 3 only

21. Which of the following statement is NOT correct

a) The seismograph provides information regarding time, location and magnitude of the

earthquake.

b) The seismographs located beyond 145’ from epicenter record the arrival of P-waves only.

c) At a seismic station the first waves to arrive are surface waves.

d) The intensity of an earthquake is measured by Mercalli scale.

22. Consider the following statements regarding Plate Tectonics

1. Oceanic trenches are morphological feature of divergent plate boundaries.

2. Plate movement along transform boundaries leads to formation of fold mountains.

Which of the following is/are CORRECT

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) None of the above




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23. The most violent volcanic eruptions are associated with which of the following volcano

a) Shield Volcanoes

b) Caldera

c) Mid-Ocean Ridge volcanoes

d) Flood Basalt Provinces

24. Indicate the correct sequence of Igneous, sedimentary and Metamorphic rocks based on the following

statements

1. The rocks are stratified rocks rich in fossils of animals and plants.

2. The rocks are hard and normally crystalline in structure.

3. Rocks undergo chemical changes or structural modification of minerals because of excessive heat

and pressure.

Which of the following is correct

a) 3,2,1

b) 1,2,3

c) 2,1,3

d) 1,3,2

25. A meandering stream deposit most of its sediments

a) Inside of the meanders where the stream flows faster

b) Inside of the meanders where the stream flows slower

c) Outside of meanders where the stream flows faster

d) Outside of meanders where the stream flows faster

26. The boundary between the crust and mantle

a) is a source region where earth’s magnetic field is formed

b) coincides with the boundary between the asthenosphere and lithosphere

c) is marked by a change in velocity of seismic waves at the Moho.


27. Which of the following statements is CORRECT

(a) The Earth’s magnetic poles are inclined approximately 11 degrees from the Earth’s rotation

axis.

(b) The Earth’s magnetic poles are aligned with Earth’s rotation axis.

(c) The Earth’s magnetic poles are perpendicular to the Earth’s rotation axis.

(d) None of the above.

28. The boundary zone between Pacific plate and Antarctic plate exhibits conditions of

(a) convergence (b) sinking

(c) sliding (d) divergence




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29. A lens-shaped igneous intrusion situated beneath an anticlinal fold or in the base of a syncline is called

(a) Lapolith

(b) Lacolith

(c) Phacolith

(d) Batholith

30. Match the following

Landforms Processes

A . Natural Levees 1. Aeolin

B. Esker 2. Karst

C. Uvala 3. Fluvial

D. Barchan 4. Glacial


A B C D

a) 1 3 2 4

b) 3 2 4 1

c) 1 2 3 4

d) 3 4 2 1

31. Dead sea is situated in which one of the following

(a) A rift valley

(b) An intermontane Plateau

(c) Intermontane Plains

(d) Canyons

32. Hawaii Islands are known for active volcanoes because

(a) they are locked in the subduction zone of covering

(b) faults and fractures are found there

(c) they are situated over a hot plume

(d) they are situated on a diverging boundary with rising convective currents


1. Nearly 46.6% of total crust of earth is composed of silicon.

2. P wave travel fastest through inner core.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2





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34. The common weathering found in hot and dry environment is

(a) Carbonation

(b) Hydration

(c) Abrasion

(d) Frost action

35. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched

(a) Washington : Potomac river

(b) Vienna : Danube river

(c) Canberra : Murray river

(d) Lahore : Ravi river


1. The flow of Mississippi river is entirely located in USA.

2. River Parana flows through Pampas region of South America.

Which of the following statement is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


37. Aral sea is located between

(a) Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan

(b) Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan

(c) Kazakhstan and Tajikistan

(d) Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan

38. All Central American countries are located along both coasts of Caribbean Sea and Pacific Ocean

EXCEPT

(a) Nicaragua and Honduras

(b) Panama and Costa Rica

(c) Belize and El Salvador

(d) None of the above

39. English Channel is separated by North Sea by

(a) Strait of Otranto

(b) Strait of Gibraltar

(c) Strait of Dardanelles

(d) Strait of Dover




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40. Beginning from Perth encircling Australia, various geographical features one comes across in order are

(a) Great Barrier Reef – Bass Strait – Torres Strait

(b) Bass strait – Great Barrier Reef – Torres Strait

(c) Torres Strait – Bass Strait – Great Barrier Reef

(d) Great Barrier Reef – Torres Strait – Bass Strait

41. A man observes that a flag-pole outside his home casts no shadow on 21st March at 12 o’clock noon. His

home is at

a) North Pole

b) Equator

c) Tropic of cancer

d) Arctic circle

42. Consider the following statements regarding the distribution and pattern of isotherms:

1. In the northern hemisphere, isotherms bend sharply equator-ward over the continents during

winter.

2. Temperature gradients are greater in summer than in winter in the northern hemisphere.

Which of the following statements is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


43. A temperature inversion is most likely to occur under which of the following conditions.

a) Mountain top in late evening

b) Windy but cloudy night

c) Calm, cloudy and humid night

d) Calm, clear and cool winter night

44. In the northern hemisphere, tropical cyclones and temperate cyclones are similar in that both

a) Originate over warm ocean

b) are formed only during the summers

c) have winds that blow counter-clockwise around their centers

d) generally move from from east to west

45. Identify the correct sequence of the given processes regarding rainfall:

a) unsaturated air, condensation, dew point, precipitation

b) dew point, condensation, unsaturated air, precipitation

c) unsaturated air, dew point, condensation, precipitation

d) dew point, condensation, precipitation, unsaturated air




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46. The hot dust-laden wind blowing from Sahara desert to Mediterranean region is called the

a) chinook

b) foehn

c) mistral

d) sirocco

47. Kuoshio is a warm ocean current which runs from

a) Philippines to Japan

b) Indonesia to Philippines

c) Japan to Indonesia

d) Sri Lanka Indonesia

48. Which one of the following is NOT a factor modifying ocean currents

a) Direction and shape of the coast-line

b) Revolution of the earth

c) Seasonal variation in winds

d) Bottom topography

49. Consider the following statements regarding Madden Julian oscillation

1. is eastward moving ‘pulse’ of clouds, rainfall, winds and pressure near the equator.

2. is confined to Indian ocean only


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


50. Bowl shaped depression created as a result of glacial erosion high on a mountainside is called

(a) Glacial trough

(b) Bergschrund

(c) Hanging valley

(d) Cirque

51. Grassland biomes around the Earth vary in several ways, but the chief factor causing the variation is

(a) Amount of rainfall

(b) Soil type

(c) Fauna

(d) Prevailing winds




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52. In which biome would a person most likely to observe the midnight sun

(a) Temperate rain forest

(b) Desert

(c) Tundra

(d) Tropical rain forest

53. Which of the following statement in general explains most favorable condition for Indian monsoons

(a) During El-nino years

(b) Sub-tropical Westerly Jet-Streams(STWJS) located to the south of Himalayas during summer

(c) Weak Somali jet-stream

(d) Normal Walker cell circulation coupled with high Sea Surface Temperature (SST) on Western

Indian Ocean

54. Currents in the deep oceans are driven by

(a) wind (b) coriolis effect

(c) density difference (d) seafloor earthquakes

55. Amongst the given options, which one of the following is the highest mountain peak

(a) Mount Elbrus

(b) Mount Aconcagua

(c) Mount Kilimanjaro

(d) Mount Kosciuszko

56. Takla Makan desert is located between

(a) Kunlun Shan and Tian shan

(b) Hindu Kush and Karakoram range

(c) Tian Shan and Altai mountains

(d) Kunlun Shan and Kailash range

57. Caucasus mountains extends between

(a) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea

(b) Black sea and Aegean sea

(c) Black sea and Caspian sea

(d) Caspian sea and Aral sea

58. Amongst the following, identify the hot semi-desert of Europe

(a) Mojave desert

(b) Tabernas desert

(c) Sonaran desert

(d) Nagev desert




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59. Golan height a rocky-plateau in West Asia is disputed between

(a) Jordan and Syria

(b) Syria and Lebanon

(c) Iraq and Iran

(d) Israel and Syria

60. Which one of the following country is NOT party to Territorial claims in the Arctic and North pole

(a) Finland (b) United Kingdom

(c) United States (d) Russia


Tribe Region

1. Pygmies – Equatorial Rainforest

2. Hausa – Hot desert

3. Bindibu – Savannah

Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 3 only


1. Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by dry winter and warm & wet summer.

2. Mediterranean regions are famous for viticulture and olive cultivation.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


63. Consider the following statements regarding British type of climate

1. Precipitation during summers only

2. Coniferous Evergreen Forest

3. Severe winters


a) 2 and 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only





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1. The region is practically treeless, with tall and nutritious grass.

2. High annual range of temperature

3. Known as Granaries of the world.

Based on above features, which region does it denote

a) Monsoon region b) Savannah

c) Temperate grasslands d) Siberian region

65. Which one of the following regions receives the rainfall throughout the year due to westerly winds

a) South-west Australia

b) Iraq and Iran

c) South Africa

d) South Chile

66. Which one of the following statements is correct

a) The trees of equatorial evergreen forests are mostly softwood type

b) While most hardwoods are either deciduous or evergreen, softwood is usually coniferous in

characteristics

c) While most softwoods occurs in the tropical areas, the hardwoods are characteristics of

temperate region.



1. Rainfall throughout the year with summer maximum

2. Found along Brazilian Highland and Queensland of Australia

3. Famous for coffee cultivation

Based on above features, which climate does it denote

a) Equatorial type

b) Natal type

c) Tropical marine

d) Mediterranean climate

68. In Africa, if one traverses from North to South between 20 to 30 East longitude, the correct sequence

of broad natural vegetation is

(a) Savanna – Desert type – Rain forests – Mediterranean – Savanna – Desert type

(b) Desert type – Savanna – Rainforest – Savanna – Desert type – Mediterranean

(c) Desert type – Rainforest – Savanna – Desert type – Mediterranean – Savanna

(d) Rainforest – Savannah – Desert type– Mediterranean – Savanna – Desert type




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Tribes Hills/Ranges

1. Bhotia/Bhotiya – Trans-himalayas

2. Bodo – Mizo hills

3. Gond – Satpura

Which of the following is/are CORRECTLY matched

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

70. Consider the following statements:

1. Natives of Andaman-Nicobar islands belong to Negrito races

2. Tribals living in Central India belong to Mongoloid races

3. Indo-Aryans belong to the Nordic races


a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only


1. North eastern region known for high precipitation, has higher ground water potential than

northern alluvial plains of India.

2. Tank irrigation a traditional irrigation method is largely confined to states of peninsular plateau.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2



1. Mizoram is the leading producer of rubber in North-east

2. Wheat, maize and rice are the prominent crops grown in Jammu and Kashmir


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2





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Port Exports

1. New Mangalore – Iron-ore

2. Mumbai – Petrochemicals

3. Kandla – Cereals and oil cake

Which of the following is/are correctly matched

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) All the above

74. Which amongst the following has the lowest child sex ratio (0-6 years ) as per 2011 census

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gujarat

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Goa

75. Which of the ISIS affected town/city is located in IRAQ

a) Aleppo b) Raqqa

c) Damascus d) Mosul

76. Kuril islands are disputed between

(a) Russia and Japan (b) China and Japan

(c) China and Vietnam (d) Russia and China

77. Summer rains in Australia broadly decrease from

(a) West to East

(b)East to West

(c) North to South

(d) South and North

78. Consider the following cities of South America

1. Santiago

2. Quito

3. Brasilia

Arrange the cities from north to south

a) 3-2-1

b) 1-2-3

c) 2-1-3

d) 2-3-1




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79. Which one of the following countries makes maximum use of the geothermal energy

(a) Russia (b) Iceland

(c) United Kingdom (d) China


1. North Korea is separated from South Korea by 36th parallel

2. North Korea shares boundary with China and Russia

Which of the statement is/are correct

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2



1. As the Tsunami enters shallow water their wavelength decreases, and their wave height increases.

2. Tsunamis are most commonly formed in Pacific Ocean.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


82. Which of the following is the correct sequence in coral reef formation

a) Atoll – Barrier Reef – Fringing reef

b) Barrier reef – Fringing reef – Atoll

c) Fringing reef – Atoll – Barrier reef

d) Fringing reef – Barrier reef – Atoll

83. A Continental Tropical (cT) airmass is formed in

a) the Pacific ocean

b) Siberian region

c) Sahara and deserts of West Asia

d) Northern Indian Ocean

84. The seasonal migration of animal livestock from lowland pastures to mountainous regions is termed

a) Transhumance

b) Intensive subsistence agriculture

c) Shifting agriculture

d) Livestock ranching




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85. Consider the following situations:

1. Birth rate greater than death rate

2. Very high birth and death rates

3. Low birth and death rates

Demographic Transition in a country follows the sequences

a) 1, 3, 2 b) 2, 1, 3

c) 2, 3, 1 d) 3, 1, 2

86. Which one of the following areas is dominant in hunting and gathering

a) Hot desert

b) Cold desert

c) Tropical rainforest

d) Temperate grassland

87. Consider the following statements regarding Elephanta Islands

1. Elephanta Islands are entirely made up of Deccan basalt mostly vegetated by mangroves.

2. Elephanta Island was center of sculptural importance under Western Chalukyas.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Borh 1 and 2



1. Western coastal plains in general are example of submergent coastal plains.

2. Eastern coastal plains are emergent type and broader than western coastal plains.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


89. Laterite soil in India in general is found over

1. Western Ghats

2. Eastern Ghats

3. Aravallis


a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only d) All the above




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90. Which of the following statement regarding ‘Monsoon Break’ is CORRECT

a) Localized convective rainfall during April and May

b) Higher rainfall along foothills of Himalayas due to northward shifting of Monsoon trough over

Himalayas.

c) Weakening of South-west monsoons and no rainfall for few weeks over Western Ghats.



1. Having the longest coastline, Gujarat is the leading producer of marine fishes in India.

2. Gujarat is one of the leading producer of cash crops in India.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2



Mine Mineral resource

1. Bailadila – Iron ore

2. Khetri – Copper

3. Barmer – Oil and Natural Gas

Which of the following is correctly matched

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All the above


1. Among peninsular rivers, Kaveri has the largest river basin.

2. River Kaveri is considered as a perennial river.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2


94. The basic distinction between urban and rural settlements is the

a) Population size b) Population density

c) Economic Function d) Location




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95. In South America, which amongst following country is landlocked

a) Ecuador

b) Uruguay

c) Peru

d) Bolivia

96. Consider the following ports:

1. Gibraltar

2. Colombo

3. Singapore

4. Aden

The correct sequence of the location of ports along the Mediterranean Sea- Red Sea ocean route from

London to Tokyo is

a) 1-2-3-4

b) 1-4-2-3

c) 4-1-3-2

d) 3-1-4-2


1. Andaman and Nicobar islands

2. Gulf of Kutch

3. Gulf of Manner

In which of the above following places, coral reefs in India are found

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All the above

98. River Ghaggar does not flow through which of the following states

a) Himachal Pradesh

b) Uttarakhand

c) Haryana

d) Punjab

99. Which of the religious towns in India is NOT located on the bank of Ganga river

a) Rishikesh

b) Varanasi

c) Ujjain

d) Haridwar




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100. The number of states in India which do not have international border or lie on the coast

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 4

PAPER II (CSAT)

101. Read the following statements and answer the question below.

1. Jessica has four children.

2. Two of the children have blue eyes and two of the children have brown eyes.

3. Half of the children are girls.

If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact ?

1. At least one girl has blue eyes.

2. Two of the children are boys.

3. The boys have brown eyes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the statements is a known fact.

102. Five persons – A, B, C, D and E are being compared in weight and height. The second heaviest person

D is the shortest. A is the 2nd tallest and shorter than E, The heaviest person is the third tallest person.

There is only one person shorter than B, who is lighter than E and A respectively.

Who is the heaviest person?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) D

103. 15 people entered a theatre before Sujit. 7 people entered the theatre between Sujit and Suraj and 20

people entered the theatre after Suraj. If Suraj entered the theatre before Sujit then how many people

entered the theatre ?

a) 28

b) 36

c) 44

d) 40




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104. Four Cars numbered as (C1, C2, C3 and C4) are participating in a car rally. They have to travel from

P to Q then to R. After the race, the following is observed.

1. The digit in the car number and the order in which they depart or arrive at any point is not the

same.

2. The first car to leave P is the second car to reach R.

3. The first car to reach R is the second car to leave P and the last car to reach Q.

Which is the first car to leave P ?

a) C4

b) C3

c) C2

d) C1

105. U, V, W, X, Y and Z are six police officers, who are parading in two rows, with three in the front row

and three in the back row. Each officer in the back row has one officer exactly in the front of him. W and

X are at the extreme ends of two different rows. Y is to the right of U and exactly in front of V. If Z is

exactly behind W, then which of the following statements is true?

a) X is exactly between V and Z.

b) Z and U are at extreme ends.

c) With the given information two seating arrangements are possible.

d) Y and X are at extreme ends of the front row.

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