21
  http://insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS Page 1 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015 INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 12 GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCE MENT OF THE EXAMINAT ION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT Write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. 5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the sepa rate Answer S heet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate. 8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end. 10. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the a nswer to every questio n. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate g ives more than o ne answer, it will be treated as a wrong ans wer even if on e of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. http://www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015

Test - 12 Final Questions

Embed Size (px)

DESCRIPTION

IAS PRE-2015

Citation preview

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 1/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 1

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 12GENERAL STUDIES

PAPER-ITime Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSINGPAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the TestBooklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOTWrite anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each itemcomprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on theAnswer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response whichyou consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions inthe Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you

have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with yourAdmission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination hasconcluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.10. Penalty for wrong answers :

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THEOBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which awrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to thatquestion will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one ofthe given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to thatquestion.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penaltyfor that question.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 2/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 2

1.  Which of the following were NOT the

subjects of the prehistoric cave paintings?

1.  Human activities

2.  Geometric designs

3. 

Excavations

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  Only 3

c)  Only 2

d)  None were the concerned subjects

2.  At places like Tekkalkota, in Karnataka

and Andhra Pradesh, rock paintings from

Neolithic age are often found. Which of

the following can be an appropriate

reason for it?

a)  The population density of the

Neolithic man was one of the highest

in the region.

b)  Granite rocks found in Karnataka and

AP are suitable for rock paintings.

c)  Due to the rock structure of the region,

there was a lack of deep caves, so rock

paintings became abundant.

d)  Paintings existed in other regions too,

but these regions were one of the most

excavated regions which made it

easier to find rock paintings

3.  Consider the following statements aboutthe Bhimbetka rock paintings.

1.  It is found in Vindhya Hills.

2.  These paintings do not cover sacred

and royal images.

3.  Artistic themes were covered in these

paintings.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

4.  Consider the following statements about

the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

1.  It is an organ of United Nations (UN).

2.  All members of the IMF do not have

equal say in its affairs.

3.  It is also an infrastructural lending

financial institution.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  2 only

d)  1 and 3 only

5.  International organizations and

cooperation is helpful because some

challenges transcend national boundaries.

For which of these challenges,

International cooperation is a must?1.  Preventing Cyber Crimes

2.  Tackling Population explosion

3.  Tackling Climate Change

4.  Tackling epidemics

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  2 and 4 only

b)  1 and 3 only

c)  1, 3 and 4 onlyd)  All of the above

6.  Which of the following are NOT the

principal organs of the United Nations

(UN)?

1.  International Court of Justice

2.  Economic and Social Council

3.  WTO

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 3/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 3

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  3 only

d)  1 and 3 only

7.  Consider the following statements about

the appointment of judges to the

International Court of Justice, Hague?

1.  They are appointed for a term of five

years.

2.  They are appointed solely by the

UNSC.

3.  Veto in the UNSC is not applicable for

the appointment of these judges.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  3 only

d)  None of the above

8.  Consider the following statements about

the manner in which decisions are made

in the UN General Assembly (UNGA).

1.  Each member state has one vote.

2.  All decisions are passed by a two-

thirds majority.

3.  Its decisions are not binding on all UN

members.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

9.  Consider the following statements about

the composition and working of the

United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

1.  Its non-permanent members are

elected by the UNGA for a term of 2

years.

2.  Its decision is binding on all UN

members.3.  Any expansion in the composition of

the UNSC will need the approval of

both the UNSC and UNGA.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

10. Apart from the changed power relations

in the World, which of the following

arguments would force a revisit of the

composition of the UNSC?

1.  The economies of Asia are growing at

an unprecedented rate.

2.  A whole new set of challenges

confronts the world like climate

change, ethnic conflicts.

3.  Democratic global governance is only

a logical extension of the spread of

democracy across the globe.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 onlyd)  All of the above

11. The World Bank is NOT mandated to

fund projects which fall in the ambit of

1.  Disaster management

2.  Environmental protection

3.  Good governance

4.  Rural public services

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 4/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 4

a)  1 and 3

b)  1, 2 and 3

c)  3 and 4 only

d)  All the above can be funded by WB

12. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is

an international organisation which sets

the rules for global trade. Consider the

following statements about it.

1.  All its decisions are taken

unanimously.

2.  Major economic powers have a veto

power on the major decisions.

3.  It can punish the member nations for

violation of trade rules.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

13. Statues in which of the following

materials were NOT found at Harappansites?

1.  Bronze

2.  Silver

3.  Terracotta

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 onlyc)  1 and 3

d)  3 only.

14. A technique called ‗lost-wax technique‘

was practised by the the Harappans to

caste Bronze statues. Which of the

following was/were NOT a part of the

technique?

1.  Coating of clay

2.  Draining wax

3.  Use of Iron beads

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  3 only

c)  1 only

d)  2 only

15. Consider the following statements about

the seals found at the Harappan sites.

1.  Gold and ivory was also used for

making these seals.

2.  Even Unicorn and Rhinoceros were

depicted on these seals.3.  The purpose of producing seals was

solely artistic.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

16. From archaeological finds it appears that

the people of the Indus Valley were

conscious of fashion. The use of which of

the following by them prompts towards

this proposition?

1.  Different hairstyles and keeping of

beard

2.  Use of cosmetics

3.  Use of jewellery

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above.

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 5/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 5

17. Match the following traditional form of

murals with the states they are found in.

1.  Pithoro – Maharashtra

2.  Warli – Rajasthan

3. 

Mithila – Uttar Pradesh4.  Nayaka paintings – Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 4 only

c)  4 only

d)  1 and 3 only

18. The Vesar style of temples as an

independent style was created through

the selective mixing of which of the

following orders?

1.  Nagara

2.  Phamsana

3.  Dravida

4.  Valabhi

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 4 only

c)  3 and 4 only

d)  1 and 3 only

19. Consider the following depictions in

temple of Dashavtara Vishnu of Central

India.

1.  Nara-Narayan – Shows the discussionbetween human soul and the eternal

divine.

2.  Gajendramoksha – Vishnu‘s

discussion with the lord of elephants.

3.  Rekha-Pasanda – Vishnu‘s

suppression of an asura who later

attains moksha.

Which of the above associations are correct?

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 only

d)  All of the above

20. Consider the following about the Odisha

style of temples.

1.  It is a sub-style of the Dravida order.

2.  Khakra is one of the main architectural

orders associated with+ it.

3.  The exterior of the temples are lavishly

carved, their interiors are generally

quite bare.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

21. A unique form of architecture developed

in the hills of Kumaon, Garhwal,

Himachal and Kashmir in India with the

use of wooden architecture, pagoda

shapes etc. This can be attributed to the

influence of which of the following?

1.  Gandhara school of art

2.  Buddhist traditions

3.  Hindu traditions

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

22. Which of the following are cited as

possible reasons for the Cuban Missile

Crisis, 1962?

1.  Spread of capitalism in Cuba

2.  Impending USA led invasion of Cuba3.  Installation of nuclear missiles in Cuba

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 6/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 6

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

23. Which of the following could have been

the possible effects and consequences of

the Cold war between USA and USSR?

1.  Attempts by both superpowers to

promote their respective political and

economic ideologies

2.  Nuclear arms proliferation in the

world3.  Formation of military alliances across

the globe

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

24. What were the possible advantages that

accrued to the smaller states that became

part of the power blocs formed by USA

and USSR during the Cold war?

1.  Economic aid from superpowers

2.  Military support

3.  Greater voting rights in International

bodies

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

25.  In the power blocs formed by the

superpowers, why were the smaller states

important to the superpowers?

1.  For getting mineral resources

2.  For getting locations to spy on the

other superpower

3.  For military bases

4.  Ideological spread

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 4

b)  2 and 3

c)  1, 3 and 4

d)  All of the above

26. Which of the following significant

events/actions were associated with the

Cold war in that period?

1.  Truman Doctrine

2.  Berlin Blockade

3.  American intervention in Vietnam

4.  Soviet intervention in Hungary

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 4

b)  2 and 3

c)  1, 3 and 4

d)  All of the above

27. Culmination of which of the following

factors might possibly have led to the start

of the Non-Alignment Movement (NAM)?

1.  Growing cold war tensions

2.  The international entry of newly

decolonized African nations

3.  The economic impact of the SecondWorld War

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 7/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 7

28. The Non-Alignment Movement believed

in which of the following principles?

1.  Isolationism from International

conflicts

2. 

Neutrality in International affairs3.  Equal opportunities for the economic

development of recently decolonized

nations

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  3 only

d)  All of the above

29. During the Cold War, the idea of a New

International Economic Order (NIEO) as

proposed by the UNCTAD was

1.  Giving the least developed countries

(LDCs) greater access to their own

natural resources.

2.  Greater western market access for

LDCs

3.  Providing the LDCs with a greater role

in the International institutions

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  3 only

d)  All of the above

30. Critics allege India‘s non-alignment as

‗unprincipled‘ during the Cold War.

Which of the following arguments would

strengthen the proposition?

1.  India refused to take a firm stand on

crucial international issues like

Russian intervention of

Afghanistan.

2.  The Treaty of Friendship in 1971 with

the USSR for 20 years made India

virtually a member of the Soviet

Alliance system.

Choose the answer using the codes below.

a)  1 only

b)  2 only

c)  Both 1 and 2

d)  None strengthens the proposition

31. Several arms control treaties were signed

during the Cold War. Which of these were

from amongst those?

1.  Limited Test Ban treaty

2.  Nuclear Non-Proliferation treaty

3.  Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

32. Which of these could NOT have been the

possible reasons for the breakdown of

Soviet Union?

1.  A stagnant soviet economy

2.  Authoritarian Soviet government

3.  Coup in the communist party

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  3 only

b)  1 and 2 only

c)  1 only

d)  None of the options could be denied as

possible reasons.

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 8/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 8

33. While reforms led by Soviet leader

Gorbachev were aimed at reforming the

Soviet Union, they also lead to the

breakdown of the Soviet Union. What

such reforms were introduced byGorbachev after 1985?

1.  Freedom to the media

2.  Making Soviet Communist party more

democratic

3.  Allowing small private industries to

operate

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

34. The consequences of the breakdown of

Soviet Union had global proportions.

Which of the following could have been

the possible consequences?

1.  End of cold war confrontations

2.  Emergence of new countries in Europe3.  Shift in the balance of power in the

world

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

35. The model of transition in Russia, Central

Asia and east Europe that was influenced

by the World Bank and the IMF after the

breakdown of the Soviet Union came to be

known as ‗shock therapy‘. It included

1.  Collective farms were replaced by

private farming and capitalism in

agriculture.2.  Privatisation of state assets.

3.  Break up of the existing trade alliances

among the countries of the Soviet

bloc

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

36.  In 2003, the US launched its invasion of

Iraq under the codename ‗Operation Iraqi

Freedom‘. It was intended to

1.  Prevent Iraq from developing

Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD)

2.  Contain the anti-democratic uprising

in Iraq

3.  Protect Iraq from the attacks by the

neighbouring Gulf States

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 only

d)  All of the above

37. The USA has had a hegemonic position in

the international sphere since the end of

Cold War especially by exercising its

military influence. However, its

hegemonic power is subject to some

constraints. These may be

1.  American Mass Media and CivilSociety

2.  The moderating influence of NATO

3.  Permanent members of the UNSC

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  3 only

d) 

All of the above

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 9/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 9

38.  In what ways had the Indian government

involved itself in the problem of Sri

Lankan Tamils in Sri Lanka since the

origin of the problem?

1. 

Deploying Indian Peace Keepingforces in SL

2.  Pushing SL diplomatically on the 13th 

amendment to its constitution

3.  Taking up housing projects in war

torn areas

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

39. The conflicts between India and Pakistan

in 1948 and 1965 were possibly rooted in

the

1.  Status of Kashmir

2.  Status of Bangladesh

3.  Control of the Siachen glacier

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

40.  India and Pakistan are not in agreement

over the demarcation line in Sir Creek in

the Rann of Kutch. It is important for boththe nations because of

a)  control of sea resources in the area

adjoining Sir Creek

b)  its implications for the Indus water

treaty

c)  the possibilities of effective

coordination over containing marine

piracy

d)  the need to contain terrorism across

the sea lanes of communication

41. Nepal and India enjoy a very special

relationship that has very few parallels in

the world due to the Indo-Nepal Treaty of

friendship 1950. It includes

1. 

Porous borders2.  Work permit for Nepali nationals in

India

3.  Allowing Nepali nations to acquire

land in India

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

42. Lomus rishi caves are historically

important caves found at Barabar hills.

Consider the following statements about

it.

1.  They are rock-cut caves found in

Gaya.

2.  The cave was patronised by Ashoka

for the Ajivika sect.

3.  The facade of the cave is decorated

with the semicircular chaitya arch as

the entrance.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

43. Consider the following statements about

the Lion capital, Sarnath.

1.  It was built in commemoration of the

historical event of the first sermon by

the Buddha at Sarnath.

2. 

It was discovered in the Medievalperiod.

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 10/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 10

3.  The wheel inscribed in the Lion capital

is the Dharmachakra.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

44. During the early phase of Buddhism,

Buddha is depicted symbolically through

footprints, stupas, lotus throne, chakra, 

etc. This was because

a)  Buddha had discouraged his

representation in any human form.

b)  Buddhism was influenced from

particular practices from Hinduism.

c)  These showed his Mahaparinirvana.

d)  Construction of such symbols were

patronized by the Mauryan rulers

45. Which of the following were NOT

depicted in Buddhist stupas?

1.   Jatakas

2.  Toranas

3.  Paradakshas

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  3 onlyc)  1 only

d)  2 only

46. Consider the following statements about

the Mathura school of art.

1.  Buddha was depicted in human form.

2.  It was a confluence of the Bactrian and

local Mathura tradition.

3.  Its influence spread to Northern India

too.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

47. Consider the following statements about

the Gandhara school of art.

1. 

Images of Vaishnava and Shaiva arealso depicted alongwith the images of

Buddha.

2.  Stupa sculpture was also a part of it.

3.  It was developed owing to local

conditions only.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

48.  In South India, Buddhist monuments can

be found in these locations

1.  Nagarjunkonda

2.   Jagayyapetta

3.  Amaravati

4.  Goli

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  2 and 3

b)  1, 3 and 4

c)  1 and 4

d)  All of the above.

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 11/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 11

49. Boddhisattva images were added as a part

of the personified representations of

certain virtues or qualities as propagated

by the Buddhist religious principles for

the welfare of the masses with the rise ofa)  Mahayana Buddism

b)  Vajrayana Buddhism

c)  Gandhara School of art

d)  Mathura school of art

50. Consider the following statements.

1.  In Karla, the biggest rock-cut chaitya 

hall was excavated.

2.   Junnar has the largest Buddhist cave

excavations.

3.  Roof Chaitya halls are found at Ajanta.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

51. Consider the following sculptures, images

and idols depicted.

1.  It contains a Buddhist sculpture seated

in a chaitya hall.

2.  Idol sculpture of Gajasur Shiva is

found there.

3.  Ravana shaking Mount Kailash is alsodepicted alongwith other Vaishnavite

themes.

Which of the above are found in Ellora caves?

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above.

52. Consider the following statements about

Elephanta caves located near Mumbai.

1.  The entrance to Elephanta caves is

guarded by huge pillars.

2. 

It is a rock-cut cave.3.  Originally a Buddhist site, it came to

be dominated by the Shaivite faith.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above.

53. The International Atomic Energy Agency

(IAEA) was established in 1957. It has

been in news frequently. Consider the

following statements about it.

1.  It is associated with the UN.

2.  It seeks to prevent countries from

using any form of nuclear energy.

3.  Nations which have signed the Non-

Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are

required to allow regular inspections

by the IAEA.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

54. Consider the following statements.

1.  The members of the General Assembly

are automatically the members of all

other principal organs and specialised

agencies of the UN.

2.  The UN Secretary-General can veto

the decision of the UN General

assembly when the decision goes

against international public interest.

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 12/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 12

3.  One veto can stall a Security Council

resolution.

Which of the above are correct?

a)  1 and 2 onlyb)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  3 only

55.  ‗Global Commons‘ are areas or regions of

the world which are located outside the

sovereign jurisdiction of any one state,

and therefore require commongovernance by the international

community. Which of the following are

related to managing the ‗Global

Commons‘? 

1.  Montreal Protocol

2.  1991 Antarctic Environment protocol

3.  Kyoto Protocol

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

56. Antarctica is a global common. In what

ways is Antarctica important to the

mankind?

1.  It plays an important role in

maintaining climatic equilibrium as it

holds more than 90% of the terrestrial

ice.

2.  Its deep ice cores provide an

important source of information about

greenhouse gas concentrations.

3.  Its melting will provide an alternative

route of global trade.

Which of the above are correct?

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

57. When we say India and China have

agreed on implementing some Confidence

Building measures (CBMs), we essentially

mean that

a)  They have agreed for a total cease fire

across the international borders

b)  They have agreed to improve the

relations between the armed personnel

of both countries across the borders

c)  They have agreed to exchange

information on defence matters

between them on a regular basis

d)  They have agreed to halt down

military modernization drives across

the border

58. Consider the following statements

1.  The Permanent Settlement system was

introduced by the British to encourage

investment in agriculture

2.  The British expected the Permanent

Settlement system would help the

emergence of a class of yeomen

farmers who would be loyal to the

Company

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 only

b)  2 Only

c)  Both

d)  None

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 13/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 13

59.  In the early decades after the Permanent

Settlement, zamindars regularly failed to

pay the revenue demand and unpaid

balances accumulated. Consider the

following reasons:1.  The revenue demand was very high

from the British

2.  The revenue was invariable, regardless

of the harvest, and had to be paid

punctually

3.  Zamindars lost their power to organise

local justice and the local police

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  2 and 3 Only

b)  3 and 1 Only

c)  1 and 2 Only

d)  All

60. With reference to jotedars who emerged

during the Permanent Settlement days in

Bengal, consider the following statements

1.  The power of jotedars was more

effective than that of zamindars inwhole of Bengal

2.  Like zamindars who often lived in

urban areas, jotedars were also located

in the urban regions

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  2 Only

b)  1 Only

c)  Noned)  Both

61.  In the 1770s the British embarked on a

brutal policy of extermination, hunting the

Paharias down and killing them.

Regarding these Paharis, which of the

following statements is correct?

a) 

They were hill folks who lived aroundthe Rajmahal hills

b)  They raided the plains where settled

agriculturists lived during the years of

scarcity

c)  Only option a is correct

d) 

Both a and b are correct

62. Consider the following statements

1.  This country is home

to Escondida, which is the largest

copper mine in the world, producing

over 5% of global supplies

2.  This country has Bolivia to the

northeast and the Drake Passage in the

far south

The above description refers to which of the

following countries?

a)  Peru

b)  Chile

c)  Argentina

d)  Venezuela

63. Recently the World Health Organization

allowed the use of meningitis vaccine

MenAfriVac on infants in Africa. Consider

the following statements with reference to

this vaccine

1. It is manufactured by the Serum

Institute of India Ltd

2. It is used to treat Measles and

Nephrotic Syndrome among children

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 Only

b)  2 Only

c)  Both

d)  None

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 14/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 14

64. With reference to Waves and Wave

Energy consider the following statements

1.  Waves are generated by wind passing

over the surface of the sea

2. 

Wave energy is nothing but Tidalenergy which are basically same

3.  Production of wave energy has zero

environmental impact

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 and 2 Only

b)  3 and 2 Only

c)  1 and 3 Only

d)  1 Only

65. With reference to Blackbuck, consider the

following statements

1.  It is classified as near

threatened by IUCN since 2003

2.  The blackbuck is the only living

species of the genus Antilope

3.  Blackbuck National Park at Velavadar

near Jaipur in Rajasthan is home to

largest number of Blackbucks in India

Which of the above is/are correct?

a)  1 Only

b)  1 and 2 Only

c)  1 and 3 Only

d)  2 and 3 Only

66. With reference to Masais, consider the

following statements

1. They are ethnic group of semi-nomadic people inhabiting southern

Kenya and northern Tanzania

2. They are primarily cattle herders and

all of their needs for food are met by

their cattle

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 Only

b)  2 Only

c) 

Bothd)  None

67. Recently the Prime Minister of India

described the LED bulb as a ―Prakash

Path‖ – ―way to light.‖ Why LED bulbs

are encouraged over incandescent andfluorescent bulbs? Consider the following

statements:

1.  LED lamps have a lifespan and

electrical efficiency that is several

times better than incandescent lamps,

and significantly better than most

fluorescent lamps

2.  LEDs come to full brightness without

need for a warm-up time and consume

less power3.  LED lamps are insensitive to excessive

heat

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  All

b)  3 and 2 Only

c)  1 and 2 Only

d)  3 and 1 Only

68. With reference to Santhals, consider the

following statements

1.  They are the largest tribe in India to

retain a good language to the present

day

2.  They are the largest tribal community

in India

3.  They originally resided peacefully in

the hilly districts

of Mayurbhanj Chhotanagpur,

Palamau, Hazaribagh, but the British

policies pushed them towards

Rajmahal Hills

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  3 and 2 Only

b)  All

c)  1 and 2 Only

d)  1 and 3 Only

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 15/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 15

69. With reference to water storage capacity

in India and the functions of Central

Water Commission, consider the

following statements

1. Central Water Commission monitorslive storage status of 85 important

reservoirs of the country on weekly

basis

2.  The total storage capacity of these 85

reservoirs is about 61% of the storage

capacity of 253.388 BCM which is

estimated to have been created in the

country

3.  Among these 85 reservoirs, the Central

region under which Uttar Pradesh,

Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh and

Chhattisgarh come has more

reservoirs compared to other regions

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 and 3 Only

b)  3 and 2 Only

c)  All

d)  1 and 2 Only

70. When the American Civil War broke out

in 1861, it had profound effect on cotton

growers in India. The cotton exports from

India

a)  Increased

b)  Decreased

c)  Completely stopped

d) 

None of the above

71. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857,

consider the following statements

1.  Proclamations were put up only in

Hindi (to reach common man) in the

cities calling upon the population,

both Hindus and Muslims, to unite,

rise and exterminate the firangis

2.  Moneylenders and the rich were the

targets of common man who joinedthe rebellion

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 Only

b)  Both

c)  2 Only

d)  None

72. Recently the government announced that

it has taken steps to encourage production

and availability of fortified and Neem

coated urea in the country. This is because

1.  Neem coated urea reduces Nitrogen

loss by more than 10%

2.  Neem coated urea will not only

increase crop yields but also lowerinput cost to farmers

3.  Its use will eliminate import of urea

resulting in huge foreign exchange

savings

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 and 3 Only

b)  3 Only

c) 

2 and 3 Onlyd)  All

73. Which of the following leaders was/were

part of the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny?

1.  Gonoo

2.  Shah Mal

3.  Birjis Qadr

4.  Kunwar Singh

5.  Nana Sahib

Choose the correct answer using the codes below

a)  1,2 and 3

b)  4 and 5

c)  1,2, 4 and 5

d)  All

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 16/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 16

74. With reference to Indian citizenship and

related laws, consider the following

statements

1.  At present two year continuous stay

in India is mandatory for IndianCitizenship

2.  The Indian Citizenship Act, 1955

provides for acquisition, termination,

deprivation, determination of Indian

Citizenship and other related aspects

3.  Under the Citizenship act, a minor,

whose parents are Indian Citizens can

register as Overseas Citizen of India

(OCI)

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 Only

b)  1 and 2 Only

c)  1 and 3 Only

d)  2 and 3 Only

75. With reference to Japanese Encephalitis,

consider the following statements

1.  It is transmitted to humans throughbites from infected mosquitoes of

the Culex species

2.  Domestic pigs and wild birds (herons)

are reservoirs of the virus

3.  There is no cure for the disease.

Treatment is focused on relieving

severe clinical signs and supporting

the patient to overcome the infection

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  All

b)  2 and 3 Only

c)  1 and 3 Only

d)  1 and 2 Only

76. With reference to events that took place

after Gandhiji returned from South Africa,

consider the following statements

1.  On Tilak‘s advice, Gandhiji spent a

year travelling around British India,

getting to know the land and its

peoples

2.  His first major public appearance was

at the opening of the Banaras Hindu

University (BHU) in February 1916

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  1 Only

b)  None

c)  Both

d)  2 Only

77. Which of the following countries have

been severely affected socio-economically

due to the Ebola infection?

a)  Liberia and Sierra Leone

b)  Liberia and Nigeria

c)  Sierra Leone and Chad

d)  Liberia and Democratic Republic of

Congo

78. Recently Idukki district of Kerala became

the first in India to be connected with highspeed rural broadband. Idukki is also

famous for

a)  Location of Anamudi, the highest peak

in India south of the Himalayas

b)  Location Idukki Dam - Asia's largest

Arch Dam

c)  Both a and b

d)  Only b

79. With reference to Swami Vivekananda,

consider the following statements

1.  He founded the Ramakrishna

Math and the Ramakrishna Mission

2.  Every year in India, his birthday is

celebrated there as National Youth

Day

3.  He contributed to the concept of

nationalism in colonial India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 17/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 17

a)  1 and 2 Only

b)  2 and 3 Only

c)  1 and 3 Only

d)  All

80. Union Ministry of Agriculture‘s Bringing

Green Revolution to Eastern India

(BGREI) programme was not launched in

which of the following states?

a)  Assam

b)  Bihar

c)  West Bengal

d)  Arunachal Pradesh

81. Which of the following is NOT one of theMillennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

1. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and

other diseases

2. To develop a global partnership for

development

3. To ensure environmental

sustainability

4. To achieve universal healthcare for all

Choose the answer using the codes below

a)  1 and 2 Only

b)  2 Only

c)  2 and 4 Only

d)  4 Only

82. Consider the following statements

1.   Jinnah called for a ―Direct Action Day‖

to press the League‘s demand forPakistan after Cabinet Mission

initiated dialogue between the

Congress and the League failed

2.  In 1945, a Conservative government

came to power in Britain and

committed itself to granting

independence to India

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a)  Both

b)  None

c)  2 Only

d)  1 Only

83. Which among the following statements is

NOT correct about the contemporary

world order?

1.  There is an absence of world

government, which could regulate a

State‘s behaviour.

2.  States, which violate international law,

are severely punished by the UN.

3.  The UNSC operates on democratic

principles of equity and fairness.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 only

d)  All of the above

84. Consider the following statements about

the European Union.

1.  It has its own constitution and a

Parliament.

2.  It is a free trade area.

3.  Its share of world trade is larger than

that of the USA.

4.  It has a common currency.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2, 3 and 4 only

c)  2 and 4 only

d)  3 and 4 only

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 18/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 18

85. China followed its own path in

introducing a market economy and

modernization programs step by step after

the 1970s. Consider the following

statements about it.1.  It introduced Special Economic Zones

(SEZs) before India did.

2.  It did not focus on agricultural

modernization.

3.  It did not rely on foreign investments.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 only

d)  1 and 3 only

86. Which of the following religious and

social movements in the Gangetic valley

form part of the ‗Shraman‘ tradition?

1.   Jainism

2.  Vaishnavism

3.  Bhakti movement

4.  Buddhism

Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:

a)  2 and 3

b)  1, 3 and 4

c)  1 and 4

d)  All of the above.

87. Which of the following were the salientfeatures of the pillars constructed during

the Mauryan era?

1.  They were rock-cut pillars.

2.  They carried social and religious

messages.

3.  The top portion of the pillar was

carved with capital figures like Bull

and elephant.

Choose the correct answer using the codes givenbelow:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above.

88. According to the narrative, there is a

dialogue between the Buddha and Mara,

Buddha is shown his right hand inclining

towards showing

a)  Mara that his place belongs to the

earth and he must dissolve in it.

b)  Earth as a witness to his generosity.

c)  that the Earth will be his final place of

dissolution.

d)  that he has conquered Mara

89.  India has a rich tradition of Mural

paintings. Which of the following scenes

have been depicted in the mural

traditions?

1.  Shiva chasing the boar—a scene from

Kiratarjuniya, Lepaksh temple

2.  Shiva killing Tripuraasura, Thanjavoor

3. 

Chola king Rajaraja and court poetKaruvar Dever, Thanjavoor

Choose the correct answer using the codes below.

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above.

90. Badami is a famous mural painting site in

the state of Karnataka. Consider the

following statements about it.

1.  The excavation of the Badami caves

was patronized by Chalukyas.

2.  The cave is popularly known as

Vishnu cave.

3.  Indra and his retinue are also painted

in the cave.

Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 19/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 19

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

91. Chola paintings can NOT be found at

which of these places?

1.  Gangaikonda temple

2.  Thiruanathpuram

3.  Brihdeshwara temple

4.  Nartamalai

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  Only 2

b)  1 and 4

c)  1 and 3

d)  2 and 4

92. Kerala painters (during the period from

the sixteenth to the eighteenth century)

evolved a pictorial language and

technique of their own. Consider the

following about Kerala murals.

1.  They adopted certain stylistic elementsfrom Nayaka and Vijayanagara

schools.

2.  Paintings were also shown in three-

dimensionality.

3.  Most of the narrations in them are

based on those episodes from Hindu

mythology which were popular in

Kerala.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2

b)  2 and 3

c)  1 and 3

d)  All of the above

93. Which of the following factors could have

been responsible for the India-China

conflict of 1962?

1.  Chinese takeover of Tibet in 1950

2.  Competing territorial claims in the

Ladakh region

3.  Chinese support to Pakistani army

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 onlyc)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

94. Governor‘s rule has been imposed in the

state of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K)

recently. Consider the following

statements about Governor‘s rule. 

1.  It is applicable as per the Indian

constitution.

2.  It can be imposed only after the

consent of the President.

3.  This is the first time Governor‘s rule

has been imposed in J&K.

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

95. As per the recent amendment in the

Citizenship Act, 1955 the PIOs will get

which of the following benefits?

1.  Exemption from appearing before the

local police station after every visit

2.  Life-long Indian visa facility

3.  Acquire property in India with more

flexibility

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 20/21

 

http://insightsonindia.com  INSIGHTS Page 20

96. The recently launched ICICI Bank‘s

Digital Village Project involves

1.  Digitised school teaching

2.  Cashless banking for the village

3. 

E-health projects for the village

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

97. Countries across the world are graduallybeginning to accept styrofoam (the

material most widely used to make

disposable cups and plates) as a serious

hazard to the environment. Why?

1.  Hot foods and liquids actually start a

partial breakdown of the Styrofoam

becoming a toxin

2.  It is non bio-degradable

3.  It has been found to cause cancer in

animals

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

98. The government has recently cleared an

ordinance for amendments to the Mines

and Minerals Act. This will

1.  Allow MNCs to directly bid for

mineral resources in India

2.  Provide for a District Mineral Fund to

be used for rehabilitation

3.  Allow government to reduce its stake

in Coal PSUs lower than the statutory

mandates

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  1 and 2 only

b)  2 and 3 only

c)  1 and 3 only

d)  All of the above

99. ASEAN is seen as a major balancer in the

power relations in the World. The

‗ASEAN Way‘ is called as an importantfeature of ASEAN. It is?

a)  The collective defence policy followed

by the ASEAN members

b)  Reflects the life style and culture of the

ASEAN members

c)  A form of interaction among ASEAN

members which is informal and

cooperative

d)  The economic corridors being

developed by ASEAN

100.  Which of the following countries

have experienced both civilian and

military rulers despite being a democracy

presently?

1.  Pakistan

2.  Nepal

3.  Bangladesh4.  Sri Lanka

Choose the correct answer using the codes below:

a)  2 and 4 only

b)  1 and 3 only

c)  1, 3 and 4 only

d)  All of the above

7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions

http://slidepdf.com/reader/full/test-12-final-questions 21/21

 

http://insightsonindia com INSIGHTS Page 21