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7/18/2019 Test - 12 Final Questions
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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2015
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 12GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-ITime Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSINGPAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the TestBooklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOTWrite anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each itemcomprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on theAnswer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response whichyou consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions inthe Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with yourAdmission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination hasconcluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to takeaway with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THEOBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which awrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to thatquestion will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one ofthe given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to thatquestion.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penaltyfor that question.
http://www.insightsonindia.com
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST SERIES FOR CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM 2015
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1. Which of the following were NOT the
subjects of the prehistoric cave paintings?
1. Human activities
2. Geometric designs
3.
Excavations
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) Only 3
c) Only 2
d) None were the concerned subjects
2. At places like Tekkalkota, in Karnataka
and Andhra Pradesh, rock paintings from
Neolithic age are often found. Which of
the following can be an appropriate
reason for it?
a) The population density of the
Neolithic man was one of the highest
in the region.
b) Granite rocks found in Karnataka and
AP are suitable for rock paintings.
c) Due to the rock structure of the region,
there was a lack of deep caves, so rock
paintings became abundant.
d) Paintings existed in other regions too,
but these regions were one of the most
excavated regions which made it
easier to find rock paintings
3. Consider the following statements aboutthe Bhimbetka rock paintings.
1. It is found in Vindhya Hills.
2. These paintings do not cover sacred
and royal images.
3. Artistic themes were covered in these
paintings.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
4. Consider the following statements about
the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
1. It is an organ of United Nations (UN).
2. All members of the IMF do not have
equal say in its affairs.
3. It is also an infrastructural lending
financial institution.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
5. International organizations and
cooperation is helpful because some
challenges transcend national boundaries.
For which of these challenges,
International cooperation is a must?1. Preventing Cyber Crimes
2. Tackling Population explosion
3. Tackling Climate Change
4. Tackling epidemics
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 onlyd) All of the above
6. Which of the following are NOT the
principal organs of the United Nations
(UN)?
1. International Court of Justice
2. Economic and Social Council
3. WTO
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
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a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
7. Consider the following statements about
the appointment of judges to the
International Court of Justice, Hague?
1. They are appointed for a term of five
years.
2. They are appointed solely by the
UNSC.
3. Veto in the UNSC is not applicable for
the appointment of these judges.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) None of the above
8. Consider the following statements about
the manner in which decisions are made
in the UN General Assembly (UNGA).
1. Each member state has one vote.
2. All decisions are passed by a two-
thirds majority.
3. Its decisions are not binding on all UN
members.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
9. Consider the following statements about
the composition and working of the
United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
1. Its non-permanent members are
elected by the UNGA for a term of 2
years.
2. Its decision is binding on all UN
members.3. Any expansion in the composition of
the UNSC will need the approval of
both the UNSC and UNGA.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
10. Apart from the changed power relations
in the World, which of the following
arguments would force a revisit of the
composition of the UNSC?
1. The economies of Asia are growing at
an unprecedented rate.
2. A whole new set of challenges
confronts the world like climate
change, ethnic conflicts.
3. Democratic global governance is only
a logical extension of the spread of
democracy across the globe.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 onlyd) All of the above
11. The World Bank is NOT mandated to
fund projects which fall in the ambit of
1. Disaster management
2. Environmental protection
3. Good governance
4. Rural public services
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
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a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4 only
d) All the above can be funded by WB
12. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is
an international organisation which sets
the rules for global trade. Consider the
following statements about it.
1. All its decisions are taken
unanimously.
2. Major economic powers have a veto
power on the major decisions.
3. It can punish the member nations for
violation of trade rules.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
13. Statues in which of the following
materials were NOT found at Harappansites?
1. Bronze
2. Silver
3. Terracotta
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 onlyc) 1 and 3
d) 3 only.
14. A technique called ‗lost-wax technique‘
was practised by the the Harappans to
caste Bronze statues. Which of the
following was/were NOT a part of the
technique?
1. Coating of clay
2. Draining wax
3. Use of Iron beads
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 only
15. Consider the following statements about
the seals found at the Harappan sites.
1. Gold and ivory was also used for
making these seals.
2. Even Unicorn and Rhinoceros were
depicted on these seals.3. The purpose of producing seals was
solely artistic.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
16. From archaeological finds it appears that
the people of the Indus Valley were
conscious of fashion. The use of which of
the following by them prompts towards
this proposition?
1. Different hairstyles and keeping of
beard
2. Use of cosmetics
3. Use of jewellery
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above.
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17. Match the following traditional form of
murals with the states they are found in.
1. Pithoro – Maharashtra
2. Warli – Rajasthan
3.
Mithila – Uttar Pradesh4. Nayaka paintings – Tamil Nadu
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
18. The Vesar style of temples as an
independent style was created through
the selective mixing of which of the
following orders?
1. Nagara
2. Phamsana
3. Dravida
4. Valabhi
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1 and 3 only
19. Consider the following depictions in
temple of Dashavtara Vishnu of Central
India.
1. Nara-Narayan – Shows the discussionbetween human soul and the eternal
divine.
2. Gajendramoksha – Vishnu‘s
discussion with the lord of elephants.
3. Rekha-Pasanda – Vishnu‘s
suppression of an asura who later
attains moksha.
Which of the above associations are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
20. Consider the following about the Odisha
style of temples.
1. It is a sub-style of the Dravida order.
2. Khakra is one of the main architectural
orders associated with+ it.
3. The exterior of the temples are lavishly
carved, their interiors are generally
quite bare.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
21. A unique form of architecture developed
in the hills of Kumaon, Garhwal,
Himachal and Kashmir in India with the
use of wooden architecture, pagoda
shapes etc. This can be attributed to the
influence of which of the following?
1. Gandhara school of art
2. Buddhist traditions
3. Hindu traditions
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
22. Which of the following are cited as
possible reasons for the Cuban Missile
Crisis, 1962?
1. Spread of capitalism in Cuba
2. Impending USA led invasion of Cuba3. Installation of nuclear missiles in Cuba
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Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
23. Which of the following could have been
the possible effects and consequences of
the Cold war between USA and USSR?
1. Attempts by both superpowers to
promote their respective political and
economic ideologies
2. Nuclear arms proliferation in the
world3. Formation of military alliances across
the globe
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
24. What were the possible advantages that
accrued to the smaller states that became
part of the power blocs formed by USA
and USSR during the Cold war?
1. Economic aid from superpowers
2. Military support
3. Greater voting rights in International
bodies
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
25. In the power blocs formed by the
superpowers, why were the smaller states
important to the superpowers?
1. For getting mineral resources
2. For getting locations to spy on the
other superpower
3. For military bases
4. Ideological spread
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) All of the above
26. Which of the following significant
events/actions were associated with the
Cold war in that period?
1. Truman Doctrine
2. Berlin Blockade
3. American intervention in Vietnam
4. Soviet intervention in Hungary
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) All of the above
27. Culmination of which of the following
factors might possibly have led to the start
of the Non-Alignment Movement (NAM)?
1. Growing cold war tensions
2. The international entry of newly
decolonized African nations
3. The economic impact of the SecondWorld War
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
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28. The Non-Alignment Movement believed
in which of the following principles?
1. Isolationism from International
conflicts
2.
Neutrality in International affairs3. Equal opportunities for the economic
development of recently decolonized
nations
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
29. During the Cold War, the idea of a New
International Economic Order (NIEO) as
proposed by the UNCTAD was
1. Giving the least developed countries
(LDCs) greater access to their own
natural resources.
2. Greater western market access for
LDCs
3. Providing the LDCs with a greater role
in the International institutions
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) All of the above
30. Critics allege India‘s non-alignment as
‗unprincipled‘ during the Cold War.
Which of the following arguments would
strengthen the proposition?
1. India refused to take a firm stand on
crucial international issues like
Russian intervention of
Afghanistan.
2. The Treaty of Friendship in 1971 with
the USSR for 20 years made India
virtually a member of the Soviet
Alliance system.
Choose the answer using the codes below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None strengthens the proposition
31. Several arms control treaties were signed
during the Cold War. Which of these were
from amongst those?
1. Limited Test Ban treaty
2. Nuclear Non-Proliferation treaty
3. Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
32. Which of these could NOT have been the
possible reasons for the breakdown of
Soviet Union?
1. A stagnant soviet economy
2. Authoritarian Soviet government
3. Coup in the communist party
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 only
d) None of the options could be denied as
possible reasons.
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33. While reforms led by Soviet leader
Gorbachev were aimed at reforming the
Soviet Union, they also lead to the
breakdown of the Soviet Union. What
such reforms were introduced byGorbachev after 1985?
1. Freedom to the media
2. Making Soviet Communist party more
democratic
3. Allowing small private industries to
operate
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
34. The consequences of the breakdown of
Soviet Union had global proportions.
Which of the following could have been
the possible consequences?
1. End of cold war confrontations
2. Emergence of new countries in Europe3. Shift in the balance of power in the
world
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
35. The model of transition in Russia, Central
Asia and east Europe that was influenced
by the World Bank and the IMF after the
breakdown of the Soviet Union came to be
known as ‗shock therapy‘. It included
1. Collective farms were replaced by
private farming and capitalism in
agriculture.2. Privatisation of state assets.
3. Break up of the existing trade alliances
among the countries of the Soviet
bloc
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
36. In 2003, the US launched its invasion of
Iraq under the codename ‗Operation Iraqi
Freedom‘. It was intended to
1. Prevent Iraq from developing
Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD)
2. Contain the anti-democratic uprising
in Iraq
3. Protect Iraq from the attacks by the
neighbouring Gulf States
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
37. The USA has had a hegemonic position in
the international sphere since the end of
Cold War especially by exercising its
military influence. However, its
hegemonic power is subject to some
constraints. These may be
1. American Mass Media and CivilSociety
2. The moderating influence of NATO
3. Permanent members of the UNSC
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d)
All of the above
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38. In what ways had the Indian government
involved itself in the problem of Sri
Lankan Tamils in Sri Lanka since the
origin of the problem?
1.
Deploying Indian Peace Keepingforces in SL
2. Pushing SL diplomatically on the 13th
amendment to its constitution
3. Taking up housing projects in war
torn areas
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
39. The conflicts between India and Pakistan
in 1948 and 1965 were possibly rooted in
the
1. Status of Kashmir
2. Status of Bangladesh
3. Control of the Siachen glacier
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
40. India and Pakistan are not in agreement
over the demarcation line in Sir Creek in
the Rann of Kutch. It is important for boththe nations because of
a) control of sea resources in the area
adjoining Sir Creek
b) its implications for the Indus water
treaty
c) the possibilities of effective
coordination over containing marine
piracy
d) the need to contain terrorism across
the sea lanes of communication
41. Nepal and India enjoy a very special
relationship that has very few parallels in
the world due to the Indo-Nepal Treaty of
friendship 1950. It includes
1.
Porous borders2. Work permit for Nepali nationals in
India
3. Allowing Nepali nations to acquire
land in India
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
42. Lomus rishi caves are historically
important caves found at Barabar hills.
Consider the following statements about
it.
1. They are rock-cut caves found in
Gaya.
2. The cave was patronised by Ashoka
for the Ajivika sect.
3. The facade of the cave is decorated
with the semicircular chaitya arch as
the entrance.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
43. Consider the following statements about
the Lion capital, Sarnath.
1. It was built in commemoration of the
historical event of the first sermon by
the Buddha at Sarnath.
2.
It was discovered in the Medievalperiod.
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3. The wheel inscribed in the Lion capital
is the Dharmachakra.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
44. During the early phase of Buddhism,
Buddha is depicted symbolically through
footprints, stupas, lotus throne, chakra,
etc. This was because
a) Buddha had discouraged his
representation in any human form.
b) Buddhism was influenced from
particular practices from Hinduism.
c) These showed his Mahaparinirvana.
d) Construction of such symbols were
patronized by the Mauryan rulers
45. Which of the following were NOT
depicted in Buddhist stupas?
1. Jatakas
2. Toranas
3. Paradakshas
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 onlyc) 1 only
d) 2 only
46. Consider the following statements about
the Mathura school of art.
1. Buddha was depicted in human form.
2. It was a confluence of the Bactrian and
local Mathura tradition.
3. Its influence spread to Northern India
too.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
47. Consider the following statements about
the Gandhara school of art.
1.
Images of Vaishnava and Shaiva arealso depicted alongwith the images of
Buddha.
2. Stupa sculpture was also a part of it.
3. It was developed owing to local
conditions only.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
48. In South India, Buddhist monuments can
be found in these locations
1. Nagarjunkonda
2. Jagayyapetta
3. Amaravati
4. Goli
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) All of the above.
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49. Boddhisattva images were added as a part
of the personified representations of
certain virtues or qualities as propagated
by the Buddhist religious principles for
the welfare of the masses with the rise ofa) Mahayana Buddism
b) Vajrayana Buddhism
c) Gandhara School of art
d) Mathura school of art
50. Consider the following statements.
1. In Karla, the biggest rock-cut chaitya
hall was excavated.
2. Junnar has the largest Buddhist cave
excavations.
3. Roof Chaitya halls are found at Ajanta.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
51. Consider the following sculptures, images
and idols depicted.
1. It contains a Buddhist sculpture seated
in a chaitya hall.
2. Idol sculpture of Gajasur Shiva is
found there.
3. Ravana shaking Mount Kailash is alsodepicted alongwith other Vaishnavite
themes.
Which of the above are found in Ellora caves?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above.
52. Consider the following statements about
Elephanta caves located near Mumbai.
1. The entrance to Elephanta caves is
guarded by huge pillars.
2.
It is a rock-cut cave.3. Originally a Buddhist site, it came to
be dominated by the Shaivite faith.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above.
53. The International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA) was established in 1957. It has
been in news frequently. Consider the
following statements about it.
1. It is associated with the UN.
2. It seeks to prevent countries from
using any form of nuclear energy.
3. Nations which have signed the Non-
Proliferation Treaty (NPT) are
required to allow regular inspections
by the IAEA.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
54. Consider the following statements.
1. The members of the General Assembly
are automatically the members of all
other principal organs and specialised
agencies of the UN.
2. The UN Secretary-General can veto
the decision of the UN General
assembly when the decision goes
against international public interest.
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3. One veto can stall a Security Council
resolution.
Which of the above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 onlyb) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only
55. ‗Global Commons‘ are areas or regions of
the world which are located outside the
sovereign jurisdiction of any one state,
and therefore require commongovernance by the international
community. Which of the following are
related to managing the ‗Global
Commons‘?
1. Montreal Protocol
2. 1991 Antarctic Environment protocol
3. Kyoto Protocol
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
56. Antarctica is a global common. In what
ways is Antarctica important to the
mankind?
1. It plays an important role in
maintaining climatic equilibrium as it
holds more than 90% of the terrestrial
ice.
2. Its deep ice cores provide an
important source of information about
greenhouse gas concentrations.
3. Its melting will provide an alternative
route of global trade.
Which of the above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
57. When we say India and China have
agreed on implementing some Confidence
Building measures (CBMs), we essentially
mean that
a) They have agreed for a total cease fire
across the international borders
b) They have agreed to improve the
relations between the armed personnel
of both countries across the borders
c) They have agreed to exchange
information on defence matters
between them on a regular basis
d) They have agreed to halt down
military modernization drives across
the border
58. Consider the following statements
1. The Permanent Settlement system was
introduced by the British to encourage
investment in agriculture
2. The British expected the Permanent
Settlement system would help the
emergence of a class of yeomen
farmers who would be loyal to the
Company
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
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59. In the early decades after the Permanent
Settlement, zamindars regularly failed to
pay the revenue demand and unpaid
balances accumulated. Consider the
following reasons:1. The revenue demand was very high
from the British
2. The revenue was invariable, regardless
of the harvest, and had to be paid
punctually
3. Zamindars lost their power to organise
local justice and the local police
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 3 and 1 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) All
60. With reference to jotedars who emerged
during the Permanent Settlement days in
Bengal, consider the following statements
1. The power of jotedars was more
effective than that of zamindars inwhole of Bengal
2. Like zamindars who often lived in
urban areas, jotedars were also located
in the urban regions
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 2 Only
b) 1 Only
c) Noned) Both
61. In the 1770s the British embarked on a
brutal policy of extermination, hunting the
Paharias down and killing them.
Regarding these Paharis, which of the
following statements is correct?
a)
They were hill folks who lived aroundthe Rajmahal hills
b) They raided the plains where settled
agriculturists lived during the years of
scarcity
c) Only option a is correct
d)
Both a and b are correct
62. Consider the following statements
1. This country is home
to Escondida, which is the largest
copper mine in the world, producing
over 5% of global supplies
2. This country has Bolivia to the
northeast and the Drake Passage in the
far south
The above description refers to which of the
following countries?
a) Peru
b) Chile
c) Argentina
d) Venezuela
63. Recently the World Health Organization
allowed the use of meningitis vaccine
MenAfriVac on infants in Africa. Consider
the following statements with reference to
this vaccine
1. It is manufactured by the Serum
Institute of India Ltd
2. It is used to treat Measles and
Nephrotic Syndrome among children
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both
d) None
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64. With reference to Waves and Wave
Energy consider the following statements
1. Waves are generated by wind passing
over the surface of the sea
2.
Wave energy is nothing but Tidalenergy which are basically same
3. Production of wave energy has zero
environmental impact
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 3 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1 Only
65. With reference to Blackbuck, consider the
following statements
1. It is classified as near
threatened by IUCN since 2003
2. The blackbuck is the only living
species of the genus Antilope
3. Blackbuck National Park at Velavadar
near Jaipur in Rajasthan is home to
largest number of Blackbucks in India
Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
66. With reference to Masais, consider the
following statements
1. They are ethnic group of semi-nomadic people inhabiting southern
Kenya and northern Tanzania
2. They are primarily cattle herders and
all of their needs for food are met by
their cattle
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c)
Bothd) None
67. Recently the Prime Minister of India
described the LED bulb as a ―Prakash
Path‖ – ―way to light.‖ Why LED bulbs
are encouraged over incandescent andfluorescent bulbs? Consider the following
statements:
1. LED lamps have a lifespan and
electrical efficiency that is several
times better than incandescent lamps,
and significantly better than most
fluorescent lamps
2. LEDs come to full brightness without
need for a warm-up time and consume
less power3. LED lamps are insensitive to excessive
heat
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) All
b) 3 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 3 and 1 Only
68. With reference to Santhals, consider the
following statements
1. They are the largest tribe in India to
retain a good language to the present
day
2. They are the largest tribal community
in India
3. They originally resided peacefully in
the hilly districts
of Mayurbhanj Chhotanagpur,
Palamau, Hazaribagh, but the British
policies pushed them towards
Rajmahal Hills
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 3 and 2 Only
b) All
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only
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69. With reference to water storage capacity
in India and the functions of Central
Water Commission, consider the
following statements
1. Central Water Commission monitorslive storage status of 85 important
reservoirs of the country on weekly
basis
2. The total storage capacity of these 85
reservoirs is about 61% of the storage
capacity of 253.388 BCM which is
estimated to have been created in the
country
3. Among these 85 reservoirs, the Central
region under which Uttar Pradesh,
Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh and
Chhattisgarh come has more
reservoirs compared to other regions
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 3 and 2 Only
c) All
d) 1 and 2 Only
70. When the American Civil War broke out
in 1861, it had profound effect on cotton
growers in India. The cotton exports from
India
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Completely stopped
d)
None of the above
71. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of 1857,
consider the following statements
1. Proclamations were put up only in
Hindi (to reach common man) in the
cities calling upon the population,
both Hindus and Muslims, to unite,
rise and exterminate the firangis
2. Moneylenders and the rich were the
targets of common man who joinedthe rebellion
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) Both
c) 2 Only
d) None
72. Recently the government announced that
it has taken steps to encourage production
and availability of fortified and Neem
coated urea in the country. This is because
1. Neem coated urea reduces Nitrogen
loss by more than 10%
2. Neem coated urea will not only
increase crop yields but also lowerinput cost to farmers
3. Its use will eliminate import of urea
resulting in huge foreign exchange
savings
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 3 Only
c)
2 and 3 Onlyd) All
73. Which of the following leaders was/were
part of the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny?
1. Gonoo
2. Shah Mal
3. Birjis Qadr
4. Kunwar Singh
5. Nana Sahib
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 4 and 5
c) 1,2, 4 and 5
d) All
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74. With reference to Indian citizenship and
related laws, consider the following
statements
1. At present two year continuous stay
in India is mandatory for IndianCitizenship
2. The Indian Citizenship Act, 1955
provides for acquisition, termination,
deprivation, determination of Indian
Citizenship and other related aspects
3. Under the Citizenship act, a minor,
whose parents are Indian Citizens can
register as Overseas Citizen of India
(OCI)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only
75. With reference to Japanese Encephalitis,
consider the following statements
1. It is transmitted to humans throughbites from infected mosquitoes of
the Culex species
2. Domestic pigs and wild birds (herons)
are reservoirs of the virus
3. There is no cure for the disease.
Treatment is focused on relieving
severe clinical signs and supporting
the patient to overcome the infection
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) All
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 2 Only
76. With reference to events that took place
after Gandhiji returned from South Africa,
consider the following statements
1. On Tilak‘s advice, Gandhiji spent a
year travelling around British India,
getting to know the land and its
peoples
2. His first major public appearance was
at the opening of the Banaras Hindu
University (BHU) in February 1916
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 Only
b) None
c) Both
d) 2 Only
77. Which of the following countries have
been severely affected socio-economically
due to the Ebola infection?
a) Liberia and Sierra Leone
b) Liberia and Nigeria
c) Sierra Leone and Chad
d) Liberia and Democratic Republic of
Congo
78. Recently Idukki district of Kerala became
the first in India to be connected with highspeed rural broadband. Idukki is also
famous for
a) Location of Anamudi, the highest peak
in India south of the Himalayas
b) Location Idukki Dam - Asia's largest
Arch Dam
c) Both a and b
d) Only b
79. With reference to Swami Vivekananda,
consider the following statements
1. He founded the Ramakrishna
Math and the Ramakrishna Mission
2. Every year in India, his birthday is
celebrated there as National Youth
Day
3. He contributed to the concept of
nationalism in colonial India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
d) All
80. Union Ministry of Agriculture‘s Bringing
Green Revolution to Eastern India
(BGREI) programme was not launched in
which of the following states?
a) Assam
b) Bihar
c) West Bengal
d) Arunachal Pradesh
81. Which of the following is NOT one of theMillennium Development Goals (MDGs)?
1. To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and
other diseases
2. To develop a global partnership for
development
3. To ensure environmental
sustainability
4. To achieve universal healthcare for all
Choose the answer using the codes below
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 4 Only
d) 4 Only
82. Consider the following statements
1. Jinnah called for a ―Direct Action Day‖
to press the League‘s demand forPakistan after Cabinet Mission
initiated dialogue between the
Congress and the League failed
2. In 1945, a Conservative government
came to power in Britain and
committed itself to granting
independence to India
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both
b) None
c) 2 Only
d) 1 Only
83. Which among the following statements is
NOT correct about the contemporary
world order?
1. There is an absence of world
government, which could regulate a
State‘s behaviour.
2. States, which violate international law,
are severely punished by the UN.
3. The UNSC operates on democratic
principles of equity and fairness.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) All of the above
84. Consider the following statements about
the European Union.
1. It has its own constitution and a
Parliament.
2. It is a free trade area.
3. Its share of world trade is larger than
that of the USA.
4. It has a common currency.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
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85. China followed its own path in
introducing a market economy and
modernization programs step by step after
the 1970s. Consider the following
statements about it.1. It introduced Special Economic Zones
(SEZs) before India did.
2. It did not focus on agricultural
modernization.
3. It did not rely on foreign investments.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1 and 3 only
86. Which of the following religious and
social movements in the Gangetic valley
form part of the ‗Shraman‘ tradition?
1. Jainism
2. Vaishnavism
3. Bhakti movement
4. Buddhism
Choose the correct answer using the codes given
below:
a) 2 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) All of the above.
87. Which of the following were the salientfeatures of the pillars constructed during
the Mauryan era?
1. They were rock-cut pillars.
2. They carried social and religious
messages.
3. The top portion of the pillar was
carved with capital figures like Bull
and elephant.
Choose the correct answer using the codes givenbelow:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above.
88. According to the narrative, there is a
dialogue between the Buddha and Mara,
Buddha is shown his right hand inclining
towards showing
a) Mara that his place belongs to the
earth and he must dissolve in it.
b) Earth as a witness to his generosity.
c) that the Earth will be his final place of
dissolution.
d) that he has conquered Mara
89. India has a rich tradition of Mural
paintings. Which of the following scenes
have been depicted in the mural
traditions?
1. Shiva chasing the boar—a scene from
Kiratarjuniya, Lepaksh temple
2. Shiva killing Tripuraasura, Thanjavoor
3.
Chola king Rajaraja and court poetKaruvar Dever, Thanjavoor
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above.
90. Badami is a famous mural painting site in
the state of Karnataka. Consider the
following statements about it.
1. The excavation of the Badami caves
was patronized by Chalukyas.
2. The cave is popularly known as
Vishnu cave.
3. Indra and his retinue are also painted
in the cave.
Choose the correct answer using the codesbelow.
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a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
91. Chola paintings can NOT be found at
which of these places?
1. Gangaikonda temple
2. Thiruanathpuram
3. Brihdeshwara temple
4. Nartamalai
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) Only 2
b) 1 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 4
92. Kerala painters (during the period from
the sixteenth to the eighteenth century)
evolved a pictorial language and
technique of their own. Consider the
following about Kerala murals.
1. They adopted certain stylistic elementsfrom Nayaka and Vijayanagara
schools.
2. Paintings were also shown in three-
dimensionality.
3. Most of the narrations in them are
based on those episodes from Hindu
mythology which were popular in
Kerala.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
93. Which of the following factors could have
been responsible for the India-China
conflict of 1962?
1. Chinese takeover of Tibet in 1950
2. Competing territorial claims in the
Ladakh region
3. Chinese support to Pakistani army
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 onlyc) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
94. Governor‘s rule has been imposed in the
state of Jammu and Kashmir (J&K)
recently. Consider the following
statements about Governor‘s rule.
1. It is applicable as per the Indian
constitution.
2. It can be imposed only after the
consent of the President.
3. This is the first time Governor‘s rule
has been imposed in J&K.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
95. As per the recent amendment in the
Citizenship Act, 1955 the PIOs will get
which of the following benefits?
1. Exemption from appearing before the
local police station after every visit
2. Life-long Indian visa facility
3. Acquire property in India with more
flexibility
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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96. The recently launched ICICI Bank‘s
Digital Village Project involves
1. Digitised school teaching
2. Cashless banking for the village
3.
E-health projects for the village
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
97. Countries across the world are graduallybeginning to accept styrofoam (the
material most widely used to make
disposable cups and plates) as a serious
hazard to the environment. Why?
1. Hot foods and liquids actually start a
partial breakdown of the Styrofoam
becoming a toxin
2. It is non bio-degradable
3. It has been found to cause cancer in
animals
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
98. The government has recently cleared an
ordinance for amendments to the Mines
and Minerals Act. This will
1. Allow MNCs to directly bid for
mineral resources in India
2. Provide for a District Mineral Fund to
be used for rehabilitation
3. Allow government to reduce its stake
in Coal PSUs lower than the statutory
mandates
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
99. ASEAN is seen as a major balancer in the
power relations in the World. The
‗ASEAN Way‘ is called as an importantfeature of ASEAN. It is?
a) The collective defence policy followed
by the ASEAN members
b) Reflects the life style and culture of the
ASEAN members
c) A form of interaction among ASEAN
members which is informal and
cooperative
d) The economic corridors being
developed by ASEAN
100. Which of the following countries
have experienced both civilian and
military rulers despite being a democracy
presently?
1. Pakistan
2. Nepal
3. Bangladesh4. Sri Lanka
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 2 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above