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KAS Mentor
KPTS 001
Time allowed: 90 min Maximum mark: 100
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Instruction
1. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four
responses (answers). Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer
Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the most appropriate. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE RESPONSE for each question.
2. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet
provided and ONLY in Black or Blue Ball Point Pen.
3. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions.
4. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end.
5. Penalty for wrong the answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG
ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
I. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one -
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
II. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
III. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.
6. Possession of Mobile Phones, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication
gadgets of any kind is prohibited inside the exam hall.
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1. Consider the following statements regarding Constituent assembly of India
1. It was established on the recommendations of the cabinet mission.
2. The demand for a constituent assembly was first made by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Which of the above statements is or correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A. 1 only
• The demand for a constituent assembly was first made by MN Roy in 1934. The Indian National congress
made the same demand in 1935. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ’the
Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly
elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
• In 1946 the Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly
for India. On the basis of The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme
formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
2. The constituent assembly of India was established on
a. 6th December 1946
b. 9th December 1946
c. 13th December 1946
d. 11th December 1946
Answer A. 6th
December 1946.
Timeline of constituent assembly
9 Dec 1946: 1st meeting of CA.
13 Dec 1946 : Objective resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru.
22 Jan 1947 : Passing of objective resolution.
22 July 1947 : Adopted National flag.
26 Nov 1949 : Constitution was adopted by the assembly.
3. The concept of sovereignty enshrined in the preamble is adopted from
a. USA
b. Britain
c. France
d. None of the above
Answer D. None of the above
4. The concept of procedure established by law is adopted to the Indian constitution from
a. Japan
b. Britain
c. South Africa
d. USA
Answer A. Japan
The concept of procedure established by law is mentioned under article 21 of the constitution. The adopting
procedure established by law instead of due process of law restricts the judicial reviewing powers of the
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Indian judiciary but this limitation is diluted to a certain extend over the years, especially after the Supreme
Court verdict on Menaka Gandhi case (1978).
5. The right to vote in India is a
a. Legal right
b. Constitutional right
c. Fundamental right
d. Democratic right
Answer B. Constitutional Right
Article 326 of the Indian constitution says that the elections to the loksabha and state legislative assemblies
should be on the basis of universal adult franchise. And every citizen of India who is not less than 18 years of
age shall be entitled register be registered as a voter.
6. Which of the following commission is not related to state reorganization?
a. Shah Commission
b. Fazal Ali commission
c. Dhar commission
d. All of the above are related to state reorganization
Answer D. All of the above
• It was on the basis of the shah commission report that the Punjab state was reorganized in 1966.
• Fazalali commission or the States re organization commission was appointed by the central
government in 1953 to study the reorganization of the states on linguistic basis.
• Dhar commission or the Linguistic provinces commission was appointed by the central government in
1948 to study the reorganization of the states on linguistic basis.
7. Which of the following person is not served as vice president of India?
a. Zakir Husain
b. NeelamSanjeeva Reddy
c. Shankar Dayal Sharma
d. KR Narayanan
Answer B. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
All the other persons were served both as vice president and president of India.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Union executive
1. 1.As per the Indian constitution the president can appoint a person as prime minister only if he have majority
in the LokSabha.
2. 2.The attorney general of India is appointed by the president on the recommend of Prime Minister.
Which of the above statements is or are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2 only
d. neither 1 nor 2
Answer B. 2 only
• The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the
Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. In
1980, the Delhi High Court held that the Constitution does not require that a person must prove his
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majority in the LokSabha before he is appointed as the Prime Minister. For example, Charan Singh
(1979), VP Singh (1989), Chandrasekhar (1990), PV NarasimhaRao (1991), AB Vajpayee (1996),
DeveGowda (1996), IK Gujral (1997) and again AB Vajpayee (1998) were appointed as Prime Ministers
in this way.
• According to article 76 of the constitution the president will appoint will appoint a person who is
qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney General of India.
9. Consider the following statements regarding president of India
1. 1.The electoral college for presidential election is consist of All the MLAs of all the states and UTs and all the
Members of Parliament.
2. 2.During the absence of president the vice president can act as president for a maximum period of 6 months
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2 only
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D. Neither 1 nor 2
• According to Article 54 the President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college
consisting of; (a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and (b) The elected members
of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. The term ‘‘State ’‘in this regard includes the Union
territories of Delhi and Puducherry (70th Amendment Act 1992).
• When the sitting President is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other
cause, the Vice-President discharges his functions until the President resumes his office.
10. Citizenship (amendment) bill 2016 was aimed to give citizenship to refugees belong to
1. 1.Hindu
2. 2.Sikh
3. 3.Baha’i
4. 4.Jain
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 1,2,3 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
Answer B. 1,2 and 4
The citizenship amendment bill of 2016 was included provisions to grant Indian citizenship to Hindu, Sikh, Jain,
Buddha, Parsi, and Christian refugees who came to India from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh due to
religious persecution.
11. Which of the following is known as the magna carta of the Indian constitution?
a. Preamble
b. Fundamental rights
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Article 32
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Answer B. Fundamental Rights
12. Which of the following right is not provided in the constitution to secure equality?
a. Equal opportunity for public employment.
b. Protection against forced labor.
c. Abolition of titles.
d. Prohibition of untouchability.
Answer B. Protection against forced labor
Protection against forced labor is provided under article 23 of the constitution as a right against exploitation.
13. Fundamental duties were added to the Indian constitution based on the recommendations of
a. Swaran Singh committee.
b. Committee on reviewing the working of the constitution.
c. LM Singhvi committee.
d. None of the above
Answer A. Swaran Singh committee
The fundamental duties which is enshrined in part IV – A of the constitution were added to the constitution by
the 42nd constitutional amendment act of 1976 on the basis of Swaran Singh Committee recommendations.
14. National human rights commission came into existence in the year of
a. 1991
b. 1992
c. 1993
d. 1994
Answer C. 1993
The NHRC was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993.
The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman should be
a retired chief justice of India, and members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court, a
serving or retired chief justice of a high court and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with
respect to human rights. In addition to these fulltime members, the commission also has four ex-officio
members—the chairmen of the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the
National Commission for STs and the National Commission for Women.
15. Which of the following initiatives is not related to BRICS?
a. Regional Anti-Terrorism Structure
b. New Development Bank
c. Contingency Reserve Arrangement
d. All of the above are related to BRICS
Answer A. Regional anti-terrorism structure
� The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) established in 2004, is headquartered at Tashkent, Uzbekistan,
and is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote cooperation of member states against
terrorism, separatism and extremism.
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� New Development Bank formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank. Established in 2015 (treaty
signed 2014). Headquartered in Shanghai, China. The bank's primary focus of lending will be infrastructure
projects (both public and private).
� The initial paid up capital of the bank is $50 billion with each member countries contribute equally. The NDB’s
President is elected on a rotational basis from one of the founding members. K. V. Kamath (India) is the first
President of the bank.
� Contingency Reserve arrangement, established in 2015 by the BRICS countries. Through the Treaty for the
Establishment of a BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement, signed at Fortaleza, Brazil 2014. It proposes to
provide short-term liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigating BOP (Balance
of Payment) crisis situation.
16. Consider the following statements regarding Lokpal
1. 1.Lokpalconsist of a chair person with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.
2. 2.The lokpal have the power of superintendence and direction over the CBI for cases referred to them by the
Lokpal.
Which of the above statements is or are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer C. Both 1 and 2
• According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas act, 2013 the Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a
maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.
• 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and
women.
• The selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal shall bethrough a Selection Committee
consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the LokSabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the
LokSabha, the Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of
India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of
recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.
• A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection. 50% of the
members of the Search Committee shall also be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities
and women.
• The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions
and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.
• Lokpal’s jurisdiction will cover all categories of public servants, including Group A, Group B, Group C,
and Group D officers and employees of Government
• The Lokpal will have the power of superintendence and direction over any investigating agency,
including the CBI, for cases referred to them by the Lokpal.
17. Consider the following statements is incorrect regarding National Commission for Backward classes
a. It was established in 1993 by a law passed by the parliament.
b. The Union minister for minorities is the ex officio chairman of the NCBC.
c. 103rd constitutional amendment granted it a constitutional status under article 338 B.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
Answer B. The Union minister for minorities is the ex officio chairman of the NCBC.
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• The commission was first established in 1993 by an act of Parliament.
• Currently it has given constitutional status under Article 338 B
• According to Article 338 B the Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and
three other Members and the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-
Chairperson and other Members so appointed shall be such as the President may by rule
determine.
18. With reference to the Supreme Court of India consider the following statements
1. 1.A judge of Supreme Court should be 35 years old.
2. 2.Supreme Court judges cannot be removed except on the grounds provided in the constitution.
Which of the above statements is or are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B. 2 only
• A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications: 1. He
should be a citizen of India. 2. (a) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in
succession) for five years; or (b) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in
succession) for ten years; or (c) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president. From
the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge
of the Supreme Court.
• A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President
can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same
session for such removal.
• The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the
total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House
present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
19. High court of Kerala came into existence on the date of
a. 1st November 1956
b. 2nd November 1956
c. 3rd November 1956
d. 1st November 1957
Answer A. 1st November 1956.
20. The Kerala Land reforms act passed in the year of
a. 1961
b. 1962
c. 1963
d. 1964
Answer C. 1963
21. Consider the following statements
1. 1.Battle of Colochel marked the end of Dutch story in Kerala
2. 2.ElayadathuSwaroopam won victorious in this battle.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer D Neither 1 nor 2
a. The Battle of Colochel was fought between Tripapur Family (MarthandaVarma)
Elayadathuswaroopam, supported by the Dutch.
b. The Battle was fought on 10th August,1741 and the Tripapur family came victorious.
c. Even though the Dutch was lost in battle, it was not the end of Dutch in Kerala.
22. The state rituals ‘Murajapam’ and ‘Bhadradeepam’ were instituted by the ruler
a. Dharma Raja
b. Bala Rama
c. Marthanda Varma
d. Swathi Tirunal
Answer C Marthanda Varma
a. Both the state rituals of Murajapam and Bhadradeepam were instituted by King MarthandaVarma.
b. The 56 day Murajapam ritual, performed in Sree Padmanabha Swami temple will culminate with the
Laksha-Deepam. The ritual is being held every six years, since 1750.
c. The 45th edition of Murajapam started in November, 2019.
23. Battle of Nedumkotta is a cause behind
a. 1st Anglo-Mysore War
b. Travancore- EIC conflict
c. 3rd Anglo-Mysore War
d. Cochin-Travancore Conflict
Answer C 3rd Anglo-Mysore War
a. The Battle of Nedumkotta (28December,1789) was fought between the forces of Mysore King Tipu
and forces of King of Travancore Dharma Raja.
b. The state of Travancore was supported by EIC and this eventually led to as the cause behind 3rd Anglo-
Mysore war, that was fought in 1790-1792.
24. Consider the following statements
1. After the fall of Tipu, all Malabar went into the hands of British Administration
2. Both Malabar and Cochin states came under Madras Presidency in 1800.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer B 2 only
a. During the Mysore interlude in Kerala, especially in Malabar, the regions were under their
administration .
b. After the fall of Tipu in 1799, all Malabar was brought under British EIC, except Wayanad.
c. Wayanad was under King Kerala VarmaPazhassi and British came to control over Malabar only after
his deafeat in 1805.
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25. “Vattathopikkare naattil ninnum purathakkuka” was the rebel motto of
a. Pazhassi revolt
b. Veluthampi’s revolt
c. Kuruchiyar revolt
d. None of the above
Answer C Kuruchiyar revolt
a. After the fall of Pazhassi, EIC brought strict administration in Wayanad and the tribals especially
Kuruchiars and Kurumbars fought against the British policies. This revolt is called as the Kuruchiar
revolt (25th March,1812).
b. The motto was “VattathoppikkarePurathakkuka”.
c. But later the revolt was crushed by British under TH Baber.
26. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Secretariat of Kerala?
a. The main building of Secretariat of Kerala was constructed and inaugurated by AyilyamTirunal in
1869.
b. William Barton designed building which was modeled on Roman-Dutch architecture.
c. Lord Dufferin was the first viceroy of India to visit the Darbar hall for the first time.
d. The construction was spearheaded under Diwan T MadhavaRao.
Answer : C
a. Statement 3: It was Lord Curzon, as the first viceroy of India to visit the Darabar hall for the first time.
b. November 1st week,2019- marked the 150th anniversary of main Secretariat building.
c. All other statements are correct.
27. Consider the following statements.
1. The Pre-Gandhian Movement in Malabar was an upper caste movement
2. Kerala Pradesh Congress committee was formed according to Non-Cooperation Movement.
3. The Battle of Pookkottur is an event of Malabar rebellion of 1921.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer : D
a. All statements are correct regarding Khilafat and Non-Cooperation movements in Kerala.
28. Keezhariyur Bomb case is associated with
a. Communist Party in Kerala
b. Quit India Movement
c. Punnapra-Vayalar agitation
d. Khilafat movement
Answer :B
a. Keezhariyur (Kozhikode District) Bomb case is linked with violent activities in kerala during Quit India
Movement.
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b. The programme was led by Dr.KBMenon and they palnned to observe November 9 ,1942 as sabotage
day, pulling down government structures all over Malabar in one stroke with bombs manufactured at
Keezhariyur. But the plan was leaked out and the police arrested the revolutionaries.
29. Consider the following
1. 1.Malayali Memorial
2. 2.Vaikom Satyagraha
3. 3.Ezhava Memorial
4. 4.Electricity agitation.
Chronologically arrange the events.
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 2-1-4-3
c. 2-4-1-3
d. 1-3-2-4
Answer: D
a. Malayali Memorial-1891
b. Ezhava Memorial -1896
c. Vaikom Satyagraha -1924
d. Electricity agitation -1936
30. The first popular ministry in Travancore-Cochin was headed by
a. C Kesavan
b. TK NarayanaPillai
c. Pattom A Thanupillai
d. PanapallyGovindaMenon
Answer: B
a. After the formation of Tiru-Cochi State, there formed popular ministries, and the first one was led by
TK NarayanaPillai(1949-1951)
b. Other Ministers:
i. C Kesavan (Travancore) -1951-1952
ii. AJ John (Travancore) -1952-1954
iii. Pattom A ThanuPillai (Travancore) -1954-1955
iv. PanampillyGovindaMenon (Cochin) -1955-1956
31. The Indus city Lothal was on the river valley of
a. Ravi
b. Narmada
c. Bhogwa
d. Hindan
Answer :C
Sites River Valley
Harappa Ravi
Mohenjodaro Sindhu
Ropar Satluj
Kalibangan Ghaggar
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32. Which one of the following was not there in 6th century Mahajanapadas at the end?
a. Magadha
b. Kosala
c. Vatsa
d. Kashi
Answer: D
a. By the end of 6th century BC, the northern parts of India was ruled by 4 Mahajanapadas; namely
Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avanti.
b. Later all the regions of Northern India was annexed and ruled by the Magadha State and gave birth to
the Mauryan empire in 4th century BCE.
33. The temple architecture in south India begins with
a. The Rashtrakutas of Malkhed
b. The Pallavas of Kanchi
c. The Cholas of Tanjore
d. The Pandyas of Madurai
Answer: B
a. The Temple architecture in south India is referred as the Dravida style of architecture started by the
rulers of Kanchi, the Pallavas.
b. The 6th century AD architectural developments can be understood through different groups;
Mahendra Group, Narasimha Group, Rajasimha and Nandivarman group.
c. Rajasimha group- real structural development of temples started. Eg: Shore temple at
Mahabalipuram, Kailashnath temple at Kanchipuram.
d. The recent visit of PM NarendraModi and Chinese President Xi JinPing at Mamallapuram, is an
architectural contribution of the Pallavas.
34. Consider the following statements
1. During the Maurya times itself, Kerala witnessed the presence of both Buddhism and Jainism.
2. Jaina doctrine is much older than Buddhism
3. The Doctrine of Anekandavada is contribution of Buddhism.
4. Triratnas were the basic principles of Jainism.
Which of the above is /are correct?
a. All
b. 2,3,4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2,and 4
Answer: D
a. Statement 1: Correct. In the sangam era, there is the presence of Buddhism and Jainism in Kerala,
believed to be came during the Mauryan times.
b. Statement 2: correct. The Jainism gets back to the Tirthankaras (Preachers), begins with Rishabdeva,
the first one date backs to Vedic times.
Kotdiji Sindhu
Lothal Bhogwa
Alamgirpur Hindan
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c. Statemnets 3: Incorrect. The doctrine of Anekandavada is of Jainsim, states that the ultimate truth
and reality is complex and has multiple aspects.
d. Statement 4: Correct. Triratnas are the basic principles of Jainism. Right knowledge, Right faith and
Right Conduct are the Triratnas(3 Jewels).
35. Consider the following
Work Author
1. Tarikh-i-Alahi Amir Khusru
2. Futuhat-i- FirozShahi ZaiuddheenBerani
3. HumayunNama Gulbadan Begum
4. Majma-ul-Bahrain Shahjahan
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 ,3 and 4
Answer: C
a. Futuhat-i-Firozshahi is written by the ruler Firuz shah Tughlaq itself.
b. Majma-ul-Bahrain (The Confluence of the Two Seas ) is a book on comparative religion authored by
DaraShikoh, the son of Shah Jahan.
c. Both other pairs are correctly matched.
36. Abdul Samad and Mir Sayyid Ali who completed the miniature painting in Tutinama, was in the court of
a. Akbar
b. Jahangir
c. Shahjahan
d. Aurangzeb
Answer : A
a. Tutinama (Tales of a Parrot")is a Persian series work, and the Mughal King Akbar commissioned
miniature paintings on it.
b. Two Persian artists AbdusSamad and Mir Sayyid Ali completed the painting work.
c. This appears to be first work of Mughal school of painting.
37. With reference to cultural history of India, Sulh-i-kul can be best described as
a. Annual festival in the Mughal court
b. Policy of religious tolerance by Akbar
c. Sufi gathering in every Fridays
d. Religious ideas by Auragzeb.
Answer: B
a. The Mughal King Akbar wanted a peaceful society and brought the idea of Sulh-i-kul , meaning
‘universal peace’.
b. This idea of tolerance did not discriminate between people of different religions in his realm. Instead it
focused on a system of ethics – honesty, justice, peace – that was universally applicable. AbulFazl
helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-i kul. This principle of
governance was followed by Jahangir and Shah Jahan as well (Source: NCERT-Our Past II)
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38. Consider the following statements
1. The NalayiraDivyaprabandham is a major composition by Nayanars
2. Tevaram literature is a 10th century composition by Alwars, supported by Raja RajaChola.
Which of the above is/ are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
a. NalayiraDivyaprabandham is a collection of 4,000 Tamil verses, composed by 12 AlwarVaishnavites
b. Tevaram literature is a 10th century composition by Nayanars, supported by Raja RajaChola. These are
dedicated works of 3 Shaiva poets of 7th century; Sambandar, Tirunavukkarasar(Appar) and Sundarar.
39. Anandamath, a semi-historical novel by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, is based on which of the following
civil uprising?
a. Vizayanagaram revolt
b. Sanyasi revolt
c. Indigo revolt
d. Dhundia revolt
Answer: B
Anandamath is a Bengali novel, written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and published in 1882. Set in the
background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century, it is considered one of the most important
novels in the history of Bengali and Indian literature. Its importance is heightened by the fact that it became
synonymous with the struggle for Indian independence from the British Empire. The novel was banned by the
British. The ban was lifted later by the Government of India after independence. The national song of India,
VandeMataram, was first published in this novel.
40. Consider the following statements regarding Munda Revolt.
1. It was against the destruction of their system of common land-holdings by the intrusion of traders and
moneylenders.
2. Jagirdars and thikadars supported the Mundas in their revolt.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Munda Revolt For over three decades, the Mundasardars of Chhotanagpur had been struggling against the
destruction of their system of common land-holdings by the intrusion of jagirdars, thikadars (revenue farmers)
and traders-moneylenders. During the last decade of the nineteenth century, the Mundas rose under
BirsaMunda in a religious movement or rebellion ("ulgulan") with an agrarian and political content. They
aimed to establish a Munda rule in the land by killing thikadars, jagirdars, rajas and halcims. To bring about the
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liberation, Birsa gathered a force of 6,000 Mundas armed with swords, spears, battle-axes, and bows and
arrows. Birsa was, however, captured in 1900 and he died in jail the same year.
41. The Dual government recommended by Robert Clive provided that
a. Criminal justice to be left to the Nawabi officials, while civil matters were given to British officers.
b. Company will look after fiscal matters and Administrative matters will be carried out by the Indian
rulers
c. Indian rulers look after the administration under the supervision of British
d. Indian rulers will be the titular head but the administration will be carried out by the British.
Answer: B
Between 1765 and 1772, dual government was set up in Bengal. The company, which had got the right to
collect revenue or diwani rights, had the economic control whereas the Nawab had the political
responsibility of civil and criminal administration. In effect, the company got all the powers without any
responsibility whereas the Nawab got all the responsibilities without power.
This system, at the time, suited the EIC as it was a trading company and its motive was private profits
rather than governance. This dual government was annulled by the advent of Warren Hastings and the
year 1773 paved the way for regulation of the company by the British Parliament through the Regulating
Act of 1773.
42. Which of the following movement was referred `Himalayan Blunder` by Mahatma Gandhi?
a. Rowlatt act sathyagraha
b. Non Cooperation movement
c. Civil disobedience movement
d. Quit India movement
Answer: A.
To protest against the draconian Rowlatt Act, Gandhi launched a satyagraha movement, popularly known as
Rowlatt Satyagraha. He told everyone that it would be a non-violent protest and requested people to maintain
peace at all costs, or there would be severe repression by the government and the movement will fail.
However, things started to spiral out of control after the JallianwalahBagh massacre. Infuriated by the police
firing on peaceful protestors, which caused more than 400 deaths, people started to act violently against the
government. There were violent outbreaks of arsony and riots. Government officials were attacked and
government buildings were vandalized.
The government came down with a heavy hand to crush the movement. Hundreds of protestors were arrested
and tortured in jails.
Seeing that a peaceful mass movement is taking a wrong turn, and fearing that the government might further
escalate it's repression, Gandhi called-off the Rowlatt Satyagraha and called it a Himalayan blunder.
43. Which of the following decisive battles was fought during the Third Carnatic War between the English and the
French?
a. Wandiwash
b. Pondicherry
c. Chandranagore
d. Arcot
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Answer: A.
Battle of Wandiwash.
The Seven Year’s War broke out in Europe and once again England and France were pitted against one
another.After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the British forces wrested Chandannagar (in Bengal) from the
French.The French, under Count de Lally, captured Fort St. George and attacked the English to acquire
Madras.But he was defeated by English forces under Sir Eyre Coote in the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760.The
French lost their Indian possessions including Pondicherry, Mahe, Gingee and Karaikal to the British. The war
ended with the Treaty of Paris in 1763.
44. The British had introduced the permanent settlement in many areas. Which of these was a feature of permanent
settlement?
1. fixed land revenue
2. non-transferable ownership of lands
3. cultivators reduced to the status of tenants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D.
Landlords or Zamindars were recognised as the owners of the land. They were given hereditary rights of
succession of the lands under them. The Zamindars could sell or transfer the land as they wished.
TheZamindars’ proprietorship would stay as long as he paid the fixed revenue at the said date to the
government. If they failed to pay, their rights would cease to exist and the land would be auctioned off.The
fixed amount was 10/11th portion of the revenue for the government and 1/11th was for the Zamindar.
45. Which among the following institutions were established during Non Cooperation movement?
1. Banaras Hindu University
2. KashiVidya Pith
3. SavitribhaiPhule University
4. JamiaMillia
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: C
JamiaMiliaIslamia – Aligarh – 1920 – during Khilafat and NCM
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Founders = Shaikhul Hind Maulana Mahmud Hasan, Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar, Janab Hakim Ajmal Khan,
Dr. Mukhtar Ahmad Ansari, Janab Abdul MajeedKhwaja, and Dr. ZakirHussain
KasiVidyapith – Varanasi - 1921- During NCM
Founders = Babushiv Prasad Gupt and Bhagwan Das
Banaras Hindu university– formerly Central Hindu university- Varanasi- 1916
Founder = Madan Mohan malaviya
SavitribhaiPhule Pune university – 1949
46. The Pledge Movement , a social reform movement against child marriage was launched by
a. Social service league
b. Indian national social conference
c. Prarthanasamaj
d. Sathyashodaksamaj
Answer: B
Indian national social conference was founded by M G Ranade and RaghunathRao.It focused attention on the
social issues of importance; it could be called the social reform cell of the Indian national congress,in fact. It
launched Pledge movement to inspire people to take a pledge against Child marriage.
47. Who is known as the Akbar of British East India Company?
a. Lord Canning
b. Lord Wellesley
c. Lord Linlithgow
d. Lord Cornwallis
Answer: B
48. Subsidiary alliance as a policy was extremely advantageous to the British because it helped them in:
1. Controlling defence and foreign relations of the Indian ally.
2. Maintaining large army at the cost of Indian states.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
The subsidiary alliance in India was planned by Lord Wellesley .An Indian ruler entering into Subsidiary Alliance
with the British had to dissolve his own armed forces and accept British forces in his territory.He also had to
pay for the British army’s maintenance.If he failed to make the payment, a portion of his territory would be
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taken away and ceded to the British.A British Resident was also stationed in the Indian Court.The Indian state
could not enter into any alliance with any other foreign power.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the Swadeshi and Boycott movement:
1. Self government was declared as the goal of the Indian national congress during this movement.
2. There was an internal conflict within the Congress during the movement
3. The current national anthem of Bangladesh was composed during this movement only.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. None of the above.
Answer: D
The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis, in the anti-partition movement which was started to oppose the
British decision to partition Bengal. The militant nationalists led by Tilak, LajpatRai, Bipin Chandra Pal and
Aurobindo Ghosh wanted the movement to be taken outside Bengal to other parts of the country and go
beyond a boycott of foreign goods to become a full-fledged political mass struggle with the goal of attaining
swaraj. But the Moderates, dominating the Congress at that time, were not willing to go that far.The Extremist
emboldened by DadabhaiNaoroji’s declaration gave a call for passive resistance in addition to swadeshi and
boycott of foreign goods in 1906.By 1908, the open phase (as different from the underground revolutionary
phase) of the movement was almost over .
50. The interim government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946 was of great significance, because:
1. The Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in this government.
2. Both the congress and the Muslim league came into an agreement on the partition of the country
3. Muslim league gave up the Direct-Action plan before joining this government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 1 and 2 only
Answer: C
The Interim Government was formed as a transition government between an imperial structure and a
democratic structure.
Members of Interim Government
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru Vice President of the Executive Council, External Affairs and
Commonwealth Relations
Vallabhbhai Patel Home, Information and Broadcasting
Baldev Singh Defence
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Dr. John Mithai Industries and supplies
C. Rajagopalachari Education
C.H Bhabha Works, Mines and Power
Rajendra Prasad Food and Agriculture
Asaf Ali Railways
Jagjivan Ram Labour
Liaqat Ali Finance
TT Chundrigar Commerce
AbdurRabNistar Communication
Gazanfar Ali khan Health
JogendraNathMandal Law
51. Regarding DadabhaiNaoroji`s Drain of wealth theory, the main constituents of Home charges were:
1. Dividend to the shareholders of the East India company.
2. Interest on public debt rose abroad
3. Civil and military charges
4. Store purchases in England.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 2,3 and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: D
• Salaries and pensions paid to the Company's employees in England.
• Salaries and pensions paid to the British civilian and military personnel posted in India
• Interest amount on loans raised by the Company in England.
• Dividends paid to the Company's stockholders.
• Store purchases made in England by the Secretary of State on behalf of Government of India for the civilian
and military departmental needs.
52. Match the following
(Authors)
A. Annie Beasant
B. EMS Namboothiripad
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Sarojini Naidu
(Books)
1. Conquest of self
2. Crisis of chaos
3. Golden Threshold
4. Wake up India
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a. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3
b. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
c. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
d. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4
Answer: A
53. Consider the following statements with respect to August Offer:
1. Dominion status as the objective for India
2. Expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians
3. No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities
Which of the following below given codes are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:
• Dominion status as the objective for India;
• Expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians
(who would be drawn from major political parties);
• Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where mainly Indians would
decide the constitution according to their social, economic and political conceptions,
subject to fulfillment of the obligation of the government regarding defense, minority
rights, treaties with States, all India services; and
• No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities.
54. Which of the following is an asteroid?
a. Phobos
b. Ceres
c. Bennu
d. Both b and c
Answer: C
Phobos – Moon of Mars
Ganymede – Moon of Jupiter (Largest Moon)
Bennu- Asteroid
Ceres – Dwarf Planet
55. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the revolution of the earth?
a. Earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit
b. Sun is at the centre of earth’s orbit
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c. Revolution of earth causes different seasons
d. All the above statements are correct
Answer: B
Sun and all of the planets and other bodies in the Solar System orbit about the centre of mass of the Solar
System. This is called the Solar Centre Barycentre.
56. Calculate the time at 90°W longitude when the clock in India shows 10 am Monday.
a. 10.30 am Sunday
b. 10.30 pm Sunday
c. 10.30 pm Monday
d. 10pm Monday
Answer:B
IST – 82.5°
Longitudinal distance 90° from India- 90+82.5=172.5
Change in 1° longitude = 4min
Time @90° = 10am – (172.5*4)min = 10.30pm Sunday
57. Consider the following facts
1. Clear sky
2. Long night
3. Strong wind
4. Temperature above 0°C
Which of the above conditions are favorable for the formation of frost?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2, and 4
d. 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: A
Conditions favorable for the formation of frost
1. Clear sky
2. Long night
3. Calm Atmosphere
4. Dew point temperature below freezing point
58. Which of the following represents the reason of formation of Sargasso sea?
a. Tides
b. Waves
c. Ocean Currents
d. Salinity
Answer: c
The Sargasso sea lies within the North Atlantic ocean, surrounded by four currents that form an ocean gyre.
For the uninitiated, an ocean gyre is a huge system of circulating ocean currents that are formed due to global
wind patterns and the effects of Earth's rotation (Corioliseffect).
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59. Sahel is located in
a. Australia
b. Africa
c. South America
d. Eastern Europe
Answer: B
A semiarid region of north-central Africa south of the Sahara Desert. Since the 1960s it has been afflicted by
prolonged periods of extensive drought.
60. Consider the following statements the interior of earth
1. Core is made up of densest materials
2. Materials in the mantle contributes to the formation of earth’s magnetic field
Which of the above statements is/are correct regarding core of the earth?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Core is made up of heavy metaks like Ni, fe. Liquid outer state and earth’s rotation are the reason for the
formation of Earth’s magnetic field
61. Which of the following are correctly matched
Peak Mountain
1. Dhupgarh Vindhyan Hills
2. Saramathi Peak Mizo Hills
3. Mount Abu Aravalli Mountain
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
Answer: B
1. Dhupgarh- Satpura Hills
2. Saramathi Peak - Naga Hills
62. Which of the following is the longest tributary of River Indus?
a. Chenab
b. Ravi
c. Jhelum
b. Satluj
Answer: B
Satluj – Longest tributary of Indus
Chenab – Largest tributary of Indus
63. Consider the following regarding South West monsoon.
1. It brings rainfall to entire India
2. Orographic rainfall is prominent during SW monsoon
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Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 Nor 2
Answer: A
During SW monsoon south eastern part of India, ie Tamil nadu region remains dry. Here it is important to
know why the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season.
There are two factors responsible for it:
(i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
(ii) It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.
64. Which of the following explain mixed farming?
a. Growing more than one crop
b. Growing more than one crop in alternate stripes
c. Growing crop and raising cattle together
d. Growing of different height crops together
Answer : C
Growing crop and raising cattle together
65. Consider the following statements.
1. High moisture retention capacity
2. Impermeable
3. Found in the semi-arid regions
Identify the soil from the above characteristics.
a. Arid soil
b. Alluvial Soil
c. Black soil
d. Red soil
Answer: c
66. Consider the following statements regarding Himalayas.
1. Vegetation varies from tropical to alpine along the height
2. Rainfall is maximum along the western Himalayas
3. Evergreen forest are more on eastern Himalayas
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: A
Vegetation varies from tropical to alpinealong the height since the temperature decreases as we climbs the
mountain. Rainfall is maximum along the eastern Himalayas. Evergreen forest are more on easternHimalayas
since NE Himalayas receives more than 200cm annual rainfall.
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67. Which of the following is a landlocked port?
a. Haldia
b. Paradweep
c. Ennore
b. Visakhapatanam
Answer: D
68. Which of the following river is not a part of Bharathapuzha drainage basin?
a. Thoothapuzha
b. Kannadipuzha
c. Kalpathipuzha
d. All are part of Bharathapuzha drainage basin
Answer: D
At Parli both Kannadippuzha and Kalpathippuza merge and flow as Bharathapuzha and follows a westerly
course until it empties into the Arabian Sea at Ponnani. Thootha River merges with Nila at Pallippuram. As
Thoothariver is rich in water, after its merger, Nila becomes thicker in flow.
69. Consider the following regarding the climate of Kerala
1. Land breeze and sea breeze have played a significant role in determining the climate of the state
2. Annual range of temperature increases from west to east across the state
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Land breeze and sea breeze along with valley and mountain breezes have played asignificant role in
determining the climate ofthe state of Kerala. Annual range of temperature increases fromwest to east across
the state as we moves away from the coast.
70. Consider the following statements regarding shola forests
1. Shola forests are found along the downslopes of western ghats
2. Tropical evergreen trees form the major vegetation group in these forests
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 Nor 2
Answer: D
The Shola vegetation are tropical montane forests found in the Western Ghats separated by rolling grasslands
in high altitudes.
71. Which of the following is the second highest peak in Kerala?
a. Meesappulimala
b. Anamudi
c. Devimala
d. Mookuthimala
Answer: A
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72. Poonthalpadam soil is found at
a. Thrissur
b. Palakkad
c. Alppuzha
d. Kottayam
Answer: B
Poonthalpadams- Lowlands of Chittoortaluk in Palakkad District
Slushy soils with poor workability. A bed of limestone is seen beneath the slushy layer. Near neutral in
reaction, medium in organic matter and deficient in boron base rich fertile clayey soils and imperfectly
drained. The physical properties like plasticity, cohesion, expansion and shrinkage are similar to those of
the regular soils of the Deccan
73. Consider the following statements regarding Kerala Population
1. Kerala’s child sex ratio is unfavorable to girl child
2. Kerala has a density of above 1000persons/sq.km
3. Kerala has the highest sex ratio among the Indian states
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
Answer: C
Kerala’s child sex ratio isunfavorable to girl child - 959
Population density of Kerala – 860 persons/sq.km
Kerala has the highest sex ratioamong the Indian states– 1068
74. Find out the missing term 1 , 3 , 2 , 6 , 5 , 9 , __ , 12 , 17
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
Answer: B
75. If SUMMER is coded as RUNNER, the code for WINTER will be
a. SUITER
b. VIOUER
c. WALKER
d. VUFFER
Answer: B
76. In a certain language, ‘oka peru’ means ‘fine cloth’. ‘meta lisa ’ means ‘clear water’. ‘dona lisa peru’ means ‘fine
clear weather’. Which word in that language means ‘weather’?
a. peru
b. oka
c. meta
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d. dona
Answer: D
77. Choose the correct alternative
8 : 9 : : 64 : ?
a. 512
b. 125
c. 25
d. 81
Answer: D
78. Choose the correct alternative
Newspaper : press : : cloth : ?
a. Tailor
b. textile
c. Fibre
d. Mill
Answer: D
79. Which of the fraction is the smallest?
a. 13/16
b. 15/19
c. 17/21
d. 7/8
Answer: B
80. The value of (0.96)3 – (0.1)
(0.96)2 + 0.096 +(0.1)
2
a. 0.86
b. 0.95
c. 0.97
d. 1.06
Answer: A
81. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago father’s age was five times the
age of the son. After 6 years, son’s age will be :
a. 12 years
b. 14 years
c. 18 years
d. 20 years
Answer: D
82. What is the mirror image of the clock when the time is 09.48
a. 2.12
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b. 2.48
c. 3.12
d. 11.48
Answer: A
83. Deepak starts walking strait towards east. After walking 75 meters, he turns to the left and walks 25 meters
strait. Again he turns to the left , walks a distance of 40 meters strait, again he turns to the left and walks a distance
of 25 meters.
How far is he from the starting point?
a. 25meter
b. 50 meter
c. 115 meter
d. none of these
Answer: D
84. Pointing to a man, Anila said “ He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my Husband” . How is that man
related to Anila?
a. Son
b. Husband
c. Brother-in-law
d. Nephew
Answer: A
85. What mathematical operation should come at place of ‘?’ in the equation 2 ? 6 – 12 / 4 + 2 = 11
a. +
b. -
c. x
d. /
Answer: C
86. If 1st May 2029 is Tuesday, What was the day of the week On 29th September 2029?
a. Tuesday
b. Thursday
c. Saturday
d. Sunday
Answer: C
87. In a row of children Varsha is 7th from left and Adhya is 11th from the right. They exchange their position and
then varsha becomes 15th from the left. Find out the number of children in the row?
a. 24
b. 26
c. 23
d. 25
Answer: B
88. A train 110 meter long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at
6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?
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a. 5 sec
b. 6sec
c. 7 sec
d. 10 sec
Answer: B
89. Consider the following about Kathakali
1. It was developed principally from Krishanattam, which inturn was developed from Ramanattam.
2. The PachaVesham refers to characters which are usually perceived good in a story.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 Nor 2
Answer: B
90. Kalamandalam kshemavati is associated with which of the following
a. Nangyarkoothu
b. Koodiyattom
c. Ottantullal
d. Mohiniyattom
Answer: D
91. Consider the following regarding Ashtapadi
1. They are love songs on Krishna and Radha as explained in Gita Govindam.
2. The author of Gita Govindam is Melpattur Narayana Bhattatirippad.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 onlky
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Ashtapadi are Indian hymns where the music has eight lines (steps) within each composition. Each ashtapadi
song is set in a special raga (an Indian musical mode) and tala. It is a rhyme of eternal love and supreme
devotion. Gita Govinda was composed in the 12th century by Indian poet Jayadeva from KenduliSasan, a
village near the famous temple city of Puri in Sanskrit language. Gita Govindam is a lyrical poetry in twelve
chapters, sub-divided into twenty four divisions called Prabandha. The Prabandhas contain couplets grouped
into eights, called ashtapadis. The literal meaning of “ashtapadi” is “eight steps.” The songs in Gita Govinda
symbolize the eternal love of Lord Krishna and his beloved Radha. Jayadeva’s Gita Govindam, also known as
KaviPrabandham.
92. Lekhayude Maranamoru Flashback, Yavanika, AadaminteVariyellu are all movies of
a. Bharathan
b. Padmarajan
c. K G George
d. Aravindan
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Answer: C
93. Who among the following aren't one of the triumvirate of Malayalam
a. KumaranAsan
b. UlloorParameswaraIyer
c. G SankaraKurup
d. VallatholNarayanaMenon
Answer: C
The ancient triumvirate poets (Prachinakavithrayam) of Malayalam poetry are Ezhuthachan,
CherusseriNamboothiri and KunchanNambiar. The modern triumvirate poets (Adhhunikakavithrayam) of
malayalam poetry are N. KumaranAshan, VallatholNarayanaMenon and Ulloor S. ParameswaraIyer.
94. HortusMalabaricus was printed in
a. London
b. Talassery
c. Kochi
d. Amsterdam
Answer: D
Hortus Malabaricus is the oldest important printed book on Indian medicinal plants. The 1st of its 12
volumes was published in 1678 from Amsterdam this book, written by H.A. Van Rheede is perhaps the
only authentic record of the ethnoiatrical knowledge of ancient Malabar, available to us today. Several
hundred medicinal plants which were successful used by the Ayurvedicphysiclans of 17th century are
described in this, along with their medicinal powers and methods of application. The identity of many of
the plants described has not yet been accurately established, which would be of considerable interest to
ayurveda.
95. Consider the following statement
1. It is built by Sivappa Naidu in 17th Century
2. It is near the confluence of the Payaswiniriver and Arabian Sea.
The fort is
a. Bekel Fort
b. Chandragiri Fort
c. Palakkad Fort
d. St. Angelo Fort
Answer: B
Chandragiri Fort is a fort built in the 17th century, situated in Kasaragod District of Kerala, South India. The
fort has an eventful history. In earlier days, the river was considered to be the border of two powerful
kingdoms - Kolathunadu and Thulunadu. When Thulunadu was captured by the Vijayanagara Empire, the
Kolathunadu kings lost the Chandragiri region to them. During the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire, the
area was administratively looked after by the KeladiNayakas of Ikkeri. When the Vijayanagara Empire fell
in the 16th century, VengappaNayaka declared independence. Later ShivappaNayaka took over the reins.
He built a chain of forts of which Chandragiri is part.
96. M V Devan, K S Radhakrishnan, M R D Dattan are _______ from Kerala.
a. Musician
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b. Painters
c. Sculptors
d. Writers
Answer: C
97. Which of the following statements are true about First world war?
1. During the first world war , the world was divided into allied powers and axis powers
2. The three emperors league was formed by Bismarck.
a. 1 only
b. 2only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
98. What war during the 1930s greatly influenced the development of military tactics that were used in WWII?
a. The Spanish-American War
b. The Boer War
c. The Spanish Civil War
d. The Korean War
Answer: C
99. What is socialism?
A. Economic system in which the factors of production are owned by the government and wealth is
redistributed from the rich to the poor to create an classless society
B. Belief that the major goal of society should be the happiness of the greatest number of people
C. Economic system in which the factors of production are owned by individuals in order to make a profit
D. Economic system in which the factors of production are owned by the people as a whole, equality is the
greatest ideal of society & government withers away
Answer: A
100. What is Risorgimento?
a. German unification movement
b. Italian unification movement
c. Napoleon administrative programme
d. Communist movement in Russia
Answer: B
The Risorgimento was an ideological and literary movement that helped to arouse the national consciousness of the
Italian people, and it led to a series of political events that freed the Italian states from foreign domination and united
them politically.