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1 facebook.com/kasmentor www.kasmentor.com MOB: 9061474766 KAS Mentor KPTS 001 Time allowed: 90 min Maximum mark: 100 ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Instruction 1. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four responses (answers). Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the most appropriate. In any case, choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question. 2. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet provided and ONLY in Black or Blue Ball Point Pen. 3. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions. 4. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end. 5. Penalty for wrong the answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. I. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one - third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. II. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question. III. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. 6. Possession of Mobile Phones, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication gadgets of any kind is prohibited inside the exam hall.

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Page 1: TEST 001 - que ans• It was on the basis of the shah commission report that the Punjab state was reorganized in 1966. ... (1996), IK Gujral (1997) and again AB Vajpayee (1998) were

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KAS Mentor

KPTS 001

Time allowed: 90 min Maximum mark: 100

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Instruction

1. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four

responses (answers). Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer

Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the

response which you consider the most appropriate. In any case, choose ONLY

ONE RESPONSE for each question.

2. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate OMR Answer Sheet

provided and ONLY in Black or Blue Ball Point Pen.

3. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions.

4. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Question Booklet at the end.

5. Penalty for wrong the answers: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG

ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE

QUESTION PAPERS.

I. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each

question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one -

third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

II. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong

answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there

will be same penalty as above to that question.

III. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there

will be no penalty for that question.

6. Possession of Mobile Phones, Calculators and other Electronic/Communication

gadgets of any kind is prohibited inside the exam hall.

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1. Consider the following statements regarding Constituent assembly of India

1. It was established on the recommendations of the cabinet mission.

2. The demand for a constituent assembly was first made by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Which of the above statements is or correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A. 1 only

• The demand for a constituent assembly was first made by MN Roy in 1934. The Indian National congress

made the same demand in 1935. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ’the

Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly

elected on the basis of adult franchise’.

• In 1946 the Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly

for India. On the basis of The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme

formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.

2. The constituent assembly of India was established on

a. 6th December 1946

b. 9th December 1946

c. 13th December 1946

d. 11th December 1946

Answer A. 6th

December 1946.

Timeline of constituent assembly

9 Dec 1946: 1st meeting of CA.

13 Dec 1946 : Objective resolution by Jawaharlal Nehru.

22 Jan 1947 : Passing of objective resolution.

22 July 1947 : Adopted National flag.

26 Nov 1949 : Constitution was adopted by the assembly.

3. The concept of sovereignty enshrined in the preamble is adopted from

a. USA

b. Britain

c. France

d. None of the above

Answer D. None of the above

4. The concept of procedure established by law is adopted to the Indian constitution from

a. Japan

b. Britain

c. South Africa

d. USA

Answer A. Japan

The concept of procedure established by law is mentioned under article 21 of the constitution. The adopting

procedure established by law instead of due process of law restricts the judicial reviewing powers of the

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Indian judiciary but this limitation is diluted to a certain extend over the years, especially after the Supreme

Court verdict on Menaka Gandhi case (1978).

5. The right to vote in India is a

a. Legal right

b. Constitutional right

c. Fundamental right

d. Democratic right

Answer B. Constitutional Right

Article 326 of the Indian constitution says that the elections to the loksabha and state legislative assemblies

should be on the basis of universal adult franchise. And every citizen of India who is not less than 18 years of

age shall be entitled register be registered as a voter.

6. Which of the following commission is not related to state reorganization?

a. Shah Commission

b. Fazal Ali commission

c. Dhar commission

d. All of the above are related to state reorganization

Answer D. All of the above

• It was on the basis of the shah commission report that the Punjab state was reorganized in 1966.

• Fazalali commission or the States re organization commission was appointed by the central

government in 1953 to study the reorganization of the states on linguistic basis.

• Dhar commission or the Linguistic provinces commission was appointed by the central government in

1948 to study the reorganization of the states on linguistic basis.

7. Which of the following person is not served as vice president of India?

a. Zakir Husain

b. NeelamSanjeeva Reddy

c. Shankar Dayal Sharma

d. KR Narayanan

Answer B. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

All the other persons were served both as vice president and president of India.

8. Consider the following statements regarding Union executive

1. 1.As per the Indian constitution the president can appoint a person as prime minister only if he have majority

in the LokSabha.

2. 2.The attorney general of India is appointed by the president on the recommend of Prime Minister.

Which of the above statements is or are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. both 1 and 2 only

d. neither 1 nor 2

Answer B. 2 only

• The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the

Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. In

1980, the Delhi High Court held that the Constitution does not require that a person must prove his

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majority in the LokSabha before he is appointed as the Prime Minister. For example, Charan Singh

(1979), VP Singh (1989), Chandrasekhar (1990), PV NarasimhaRao (1991), AB Vajpayee (1996),

DeveGowda (1996), IK Gujral (1997) and again AB Vajpayee (1998) were appointed as Prime Ministers

in this way.

• According to article 76 of the constitution the president will appoint will appoint a person who is

qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court to be Attorney General of India.

9. Consider the following statements regarding president of India

1. 1.The electoral college for presidential election is consist of All the MLAs of all the states and UTs and all the

Members of Parliament.

2. 2.During the absence of president the vice president can act as president for a maximum period of 6 months

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2 only

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D. Neither 1 nor 2

• According to Article 54 the President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college

consisting of; (a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament; and (b) The elected members

of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. The term ‘‘State ’‘in this regard includes the Union

territories of Delhi and Puducherry (70th Amendment Act 1992).

• When the sitting President is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other

cause, the Vice-President discharges his functions until the President resumes his office.

10. Citizenship (amendment) bill 2016 was aimed to give citizenship to refugees belong to

1. 1.Hindu

2. 2.Sikh

3. 3.Baha’i

4. 4.Jain

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a. 1,2 and 3

b. 1,2 and 4

c. 1,2,3 and 4

d. 1,3 and 4

Answer B. 1,2 and 4

The citizenship amendment bill of 2016 was included provisions to grant Indian citizenship to Hindu, Sikh, Jain,

Buddha, Parsi, and Christian refugees who came to India from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh due to

religious persecution.

11. Which of the following is known as the magna carta of the Indian constitution?

a. Preamble

b. Fundamental rights

c. Directive Principles of State Policy

d. Article 32

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Answer B. Fundamental Rights

12. Which of the following right is not provided in the constitution to secure equality?

a. Equal opportunity for public employment.

b. Protection against forced labor.

c. Abolition of titles.

d. Prohibition of untouchability.

Answer B. Protection against forced labor

Protection against forced labor is provided under article 23 of the constitution as a right against exploitation.

13. Fundamental duties were added to the Indian constitution based on the recommendations of

a. Swaran Singh committee.

b. Committee on reviewing the working of the constitution.

c. LM Singhvi committee.

d. None of the above

Answer A. Swaran Singh committee

The fundamental duties which is enshrined in part IV – A of the constitution were added to the constitution by

the 42nd constitutional amendment act of 1976 on the basis of Swaran Singh Committee recommendations.

14. National human rights commission came into existence in the year of

a. 1991

b. 1992

c. 1993

d. 1994

Answer C. 1993

The NHRC was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of

Human Rights Act, 1993.

The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairman and four members. The chairman should be

a retired chief justice of India, and members should be serving or retired judges of the Supreme Court, a

serving or retired chief justice of a high court and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with

respect to human rights. In addition to these fulltime members, the commission also has four ex-officio

members—the chairmen of the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the

National Commission for STs and the National Commission for Women.

15. Which of the following initiatives is not related to BRICS?

a. Regional Anti-Terrorism Structure

b. New Development Bank

c. Contingency Reserve Arrangement

d. All of the above are related to BRICS

Answer A. Regional anti-terrorism structure

� The Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) established in 2004, is headquartered at Tashkent, Uzbekistan,

and is a permanent organ of the SCO which serves to promote cooperation of member states against

terrorism, separatism and extremism.

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� New Development Bank formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank. Established in 2015 (treaty

signed 2014). Headquartered in Shanghai, China. The bank's primary focus of lending will be infrastructure

projects (both public and private).

� The initial paid up capital of the bank is $50 billion with each member countries contribute equally. The NDB’s

President is elected on a rotational basis from one of the founding members. K. V. Kamath (India) is the first

President of the bank.

� Contingency Reserve arrangement, established in 2015 by the BRICS countries. Through the Treaty for the

Establishment of a BRICS Contingent Reserve Arrangement, signed at Fortaleza, Brazil 2014. It proposes to

provide short-term liquidity support to the members through currency swaps to help mitigating BOP (Balance

of Payment) crisis situation.

16. Consider the following statements regarding Lokpal

1. 1.Lokpalconsist of a chair person with a maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.

2. 2.The lokpal have the power of superintendence and direction over the CBI for cases referred to them by the

Lokpal.

Which of the above statements is or are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer C. Both 1 and 2

• According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas act, 2013 the Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a

maximum of 8 members of which 50% shall be judicial members.

• 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and

women.

• The selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal shall bethrough a Selection Committee

consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the LokSabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the

LokSabha, the Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of

India and an eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of

recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.

• A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection. 50% of the

members of the Search Committee shall also be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities

and women.

• The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions

and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.

• Lokpal’s jurisdiction will cover all categories of public servants, including Group A, Group B, Group C,

and Group D officers and employees of Government

• The Lokpal will have the power of superintendence and direction over any investigating agency,

including the CBI, for cases referred to them by the Lokpal.

17. Consider the following statements is incorrect regarding National Commission for Backward classes

a. It was established in 1993 by a law passed by the parliament.

b. The Union minister for minorities is the ex officio chairman of the NCBC.

c. 103rd constitutional amendment granted it a constitutional status under article 338 B.

d. All of the above statements are correct.

Answer B. The Union minister for minorities is the ex officio chairman of the NCBC.

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• The commission was first established in 1993 by an act of Parliament.

• Currently it has given constitutional status under Article 338 B

• According to Article 338 B the Commission shall consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and

three other Members and the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-

Chairperson and other Members so appointed shall be such as the President may by rule

determine.

18. With reference to the Supreme Court of India consider the following statements

1. 1.A judge of Supreme Court should be 35 years old.

2. 2.Supreme Court judges cannot be removed except on the grounds provided in the constitution.

Which of the above statements is or are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B. 2 only

• A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications: 1. He

should be a citizen of India. 2. (a) He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in

succession) for five years; or (b) He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in

succession) for ten years; or (c) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president. From

the above, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge

of the Supreme Court.

• A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president. The President

can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same

session for such removal.

• The address must be supported by a special majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a majority of the

total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House

present and voting). The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

19. High court of Kerala came into existence on the date of

a. 1st November 1956

b. 2nd November 1956

c. 3rd November 1956

d. 1st November 1957

Answer A. 1st November 1956.

20. The Kerala Land reforms act passed in the year of

a. 1961

b. 1962

c. 1963

d. 1964

Answer C. 1963

21. Consider the following statements

1. 1.Battle of Colochel marked the end of Dutch story in Kerala

2. 2.ElayadathuSwaroopam won victorious in this battle.

Which of the above is/are correct?

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a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D Neither 1 nor 2

a. The Battle of Colochel was fought between Tripapur Family (MarthandaVarma)

Elayadathuswaroopam, supported by the Dutch.

b. The Battle was fought on 10th August,1741 and the Tripapur family came victorious.

c. Even though the Dutch was lost in battle, it was not the end of Dutch in Kerala.

22. The state rituals ‘Murajapam’ and ‘Bhadradeepam’ were instituted by the ruler

a. Dharma Raja

b. Bala Rama

c. Marthanda Varma

d. Swathi Tirunal

Answer C Marthanda Varma

a. Both the state rituals of Murajapam and Bhadradeepam were instituted by King MarthandaVarma.

b. The 56 day Murajapam ritual, performed in Sree Padmanabha Swami temple will culminate with the

Laksha-Deepam. The ritual is being held every six years, since 1750.

c. The 45th edition of Murajapam started in November, 2019.

23. Battle of Nedumkotta is a cause behind

a. 1st Anglo-Mysore War

b. Travancore- EIC conflict

c. 3rd Anglo-Mysore War

d. Cochin-Travancore Conflict

Answer C 3rd Anglo-Mysore War

a. The Battle of Nedumkotta (28December,1789) was fought between the forces of Mysore King Tipu

and forces of King of Travancore Dharma Raja.

b. The state of Travancore was supported by EIC and this eventually led to as the cause behind 3rd Anglo-

Mysore war, that was fought in 1790-1792.

24. Consider the following statements

1. After the fall of Tipu, all Malabar went into the hands of British Administration

2. Both Malabar and Cochin states came under Madras Presidency in 1800.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer B 2 only

a. During the Mysore interlude in Kerala, especially in Malabar, the regions were under their

administration .

b. After the fall of Tipu in 1799, all Malabar was brought under British EIC, except Wayanad.

c. Wayanad was under King Kerala VarmaPazhassi and British came to control over Malabar only after

his deafeat in 1805.

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25. “Vattathopikkare naattil ninnum purathakkuka” was the rebel motto of

a. Pazhassi revolt

b. Veluthampi’s revolt

c. Kuruchiyar revolt

d. None of the above

Answer C Kuruchiyar revolt

a. After the fall of Pazhassi, EIC brought strict administration in Wayanad and the tribals especially

Kuruchiars and Kurumbars fought against the British policies. This revolt is called as the Kuruchiar

revolt (25th March,1812).

b. The motto was “VattathoppikkarePurathakkuka”.

c. But later the revolt was crushed by British under TH Baber.

26. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Secretariat of Kerala?

a. The main building of Secretariat of Kerala was constructed and inaugurated by AyilyamTirunal in

1869.

b. William Barton designed building which was modeled on Roman-Dutch architecture.

c. Lord Dufferin was the first viceroy of India to visit the Darbar hall for the first time.

d. The construction was spearheaded under Diwan T MadhavaRao.

Answer : C

a. Statement 3: It was Lord Curzon, as the first viceroy of India to visit the Darabar hall for the first time.

b. November 1st week,2019- marked the 150th anniversary of main Secretariat building.

c. All other statements are correct.

27. Consider the following statements.

1. The Pre-Gandhian Movement in Malabar was an upper caste movement

2. Kerala Pradesh Congress committee was formed according to Non-Cooperation Movement.

3. The Battle of Pookkottur is an event of Malabar rebellion of 1921.

Which of the above is/are correct?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 2 only

d. 1,2 and 3

Answer : D

a. All statements are correct regarding Khilafat and Non-Cooperation movements in Kerala.

28. Keezhariyur Bomb case is associated with

a. Communist Party in Kerala

b. Quit India Movement

c. Punnapra-Vayalar agitation

d. Khilafat movement

Answer :B

a. Keezhariyur (Kozhikode District) Bomb case is linked with violent activities in kerala during Quit India

Movement.

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b. The programme was led by Dr.KBMenon and they palnned to observe November 9 ,1942 as sabotage

day, pulling down government structures all over Malabar in one stroke with bombs manufactured at

Keezhariyur. But the plan was leaked out and the police arrested the revolutionaries.

29. Consider the following

1. 1.Malayali Memorial

2. 2.Vaikom Satyagraha

3. 3.Ezhava Memorial

4. 4.Electricity agitation.

Chronologically arrange the events.

a. 1-2-3-4

b. 2-1-4-3

c. 2-4-1-3

d. 1-3-2-4

Answer: D

a. Malayali Memorial-1891

b. Ezhava Memorial -1896

c. Vaikom Satyagraha -1924

d. Electricity agitation -1936

30. The first popular ministry in Travancore-Cochin was headed by

a. C Kesavan

b. TK NarayanaPillai

c. Pattom A Thanupillai

d. PanapallyGovindaMenon

Answer: B

a. After the formation of Tiru-Cochi State, there formed popular ministries, and the first one was led by

TK NarayanaPillai(1949-1951)

b. Other Ministers:

i. C Kesavan (Travancore) -1951-1952

ii. AJ John (Travancore) -1952-1954

iii. Pattom A ThanuPillai (Travancore) -1954-1955

iv. PanampillyGovindaMenon (Cochin) -1955-1956

31. The Indus city Lothal was on the river valley of

a. Ravi

b. Narmada

c. Bhogwa

d. Hindan

Answer :C

Sites River Valley

Harappa Ravi

Mohenjodaro Sindhu

Ropar Satluj

Kalibangan Ghaggar

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32. Which one of the following was not there in 6th century Mahajanapadas at the end?

a. Magadha

b. Kosala

c. Vatsa

d. Kashi

Answer: D

a. By the end of 6th century BC, the northern parts of India was ruled by 4 Mahajanapadas; namely

Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa and Avanti.

b. Later all the regions of Northern India was annexed and ruled by the Magadha State and gave birth to

the Mauryan empire in 4th century BCE.

33. The temple architecture in south India begins with

a. The Rashtrakutas of Malkhed

b. The Pallavas of Kanchi

c. The Cholas of Tanjore

d. The Pandyas of Madurai

Answer: B

a. The Temple architecture in south India is referred as the Dravida style of architecture started by the

rulers of Kanchi, the Pallavas.

b. The 6th century AD architectural developments can be understood through different groups;

Mahendra Group, Narasimha Group, Rajasimha and Nandivarman group.

c. Rajasimha group- real structural development of temples started. Eg: Shore temple at

Mahabalipuram, Kailashnath temple at Kanchipuram.

d. The recent visit of PM NarendraModi and Chinese President Xi JinPing at Mamallapuram, is an

architectural contribution of the Pallavas.

34. Consider the following statements

1. During the Maurya times itself, Kerala witnessed the presence of both Buddhism and Jainism.

2. Jaina doctrine is much older than Buddhism

3. The Doctrine of Anekandavada is contribution of Buddhism.

4. Triratnas were the basic principles of Jainism.

Which of the above is /are correct?

a. All

b. 2,3,4

c. 1 and 2

d. 1,2,and 4

Answer: D

a. Statement 1: Correct. In the sangam era, there is the presence of Buddhism and Jainism in Kerala,

believed to be came during the Mauryan times.

b. Statement 2: correct. The Jainism gets back to the Tirthankaras (Preachers), begins with Rishabdeva,

the first one date backs to Vedic times.

Kotdiji Sindhu

Lothal Bhogwa

Alamgirpur Hindan

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c. Statemnets 3: Incorrect. The doctrine of Anekandavada is of Jainsim, states that the ultimate truth

and reality is complex and has multiple aspects.

d. Statement 4: Correct. Triratnas are the basic principles of Jainism. Right knowledge, Right faith and

Right Conduct are the Triratnas(3 Jewels).

35. Consider the following

Work Author

1. Tarikh-i-Alahi Amir Khusru

2. Futuhat-i- FirozShahi ZaiuddheenBerani

3. HumayunNama Gulbadan Begum

4. Majma-ul-Bahrain Shahjahan

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a. 1 and 2

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 ,3 and 4

Answer: C

a. Futuhat-i-Firozshahi is written by the ruler Firuz shah Tughlaq itself.

b. Majma-ul-Bahrain (The Confluence of the Two Seas ) is a book on comparative religion authored by

DaraShikoh, the son of Shah Jahan.

c. Both other pairs are correctly matched.

36. Abdul Samad and Mir Sayyid Ali who completed the miniature painting in Tutinama, was in the court of

a. Akbar

b. Jahangir

c. Shahjahan

d. Aurangzeb

Answer : A

a. Tutinama (Tales of a Parrot")is a Persian series work, and the Mughal King Akbar commissioned

miniature paintings on it.

b. Two Persian artists AbdusSamad and Mir Sayyid Ali completed the painting work.

c. This appears to be first work of Mughal school of painting.

37. With reference to cultural history of India, Sulh-i-kul can be best described as

a. Annual festival in the Mughal court

b. Policy of religious tolerance by Akbar

c. Sufi gathering in every Fridays

d. Religious ideas by Auragzeb.

Answer: B

a. The Mughal King Akbar wanted a peaceful society and brought the idea of Sulh-i-kul , meaning

‘universal peace’.

b. This idea of tolerance did not discriminate between people of different religions in his realm. Instead it

focused on a system of ethics – honesty, justice, peace – that was universally applicable. AbulFazl

helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-i kul. This principle of

governance was followed by Jahangir and Shah Jahan as well (Source: NCERT-Our Past II)

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38. Consider the following statements

1. The NalayiraDivyaprabandham is a major composition by Nayanars

2. Tevaram literature is a 10th century composition by Alwars, supported by Raja RajaChola.

Which of the above is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

a. NalayiraDivyaprabandham is a collection of 4,000 Tamil verses, composed by 12 AlwarVaishnavites

b. Tevaram literature is a 10th century composition by Nayanars, supported by Raja RajaChola. These are

dedicated works of 3 Shaiva poets of 7th century; Sambandar, Tirunavukkarasar(Appar) and Sundarar.

39. Anandamath, a semi-historical novel by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, is based on which of the following

civil uprising?

a. Vizayanagaram revolt

b. Sanyasi revolt

c. Indigo revolt

d. Dhundia revolt

Answer: B

Anandamath is a Bengali novel, written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and published in 1882. Set in the

background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century, it is considered one of the most important

novels in the history of Bengali and Indian literature. Its importance is heightened by the fact that it became

synonymous with the struggle for Indian independence from the British Empire. The novel was banned by the

British. The ban was lifted later by the Government of India after independence. The national song of India,

VandeMataram, was first published in this novel.

40. Consider the following statements regarding Munda Revolt.

1. It was against the destruction of their system of common land-holdings by the intrusion of traders and

moneylenders.

2. Jagirdars and thikadars supported the Mundas in their revolt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Munda Revolt For over three decades, the Mundasardars of Chhotanagpur had been struggling against the

destruction of their system of common land-holdings by the intrusion of jagirdars, thikadars (revenue farmers)

and traders-moneylenders. During the last decade of the nineteenth century, the Mundas rose under

BirsaMunda in a religious movement or rebellion ("ulgulan") with an agrarian and political content. They

aimed to establish a Munda rule in the land by killing thikadars, jagirdars, rajas and halcims. To bring about the

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liberation, Birsa gathered a force of 6,000 Mundas armed with swords, spears, battle-axes, and bows and

arrows. Birsa was, however, captured in 1900 and he died in jail the same year.

41. The Dual government recommended by Robert Clive provided that

a. Criminal justice to be left to the Nawabi officials, while civil matters were given to British officers.

b. Company will look after fiscal matters and Administrative matters will be carried out by the Indian

rulers

c. Indian rulers look after the administration under the supervision of British

d. Indian rulers will be the titular head but the administration will be carried out by the British.

Answer: B

Between 1765 and 1772, dual government was set up in Bengal. The company, which had got the right to

collect revenue or diwani rights, had the economic control whereas the Nawab had the political

responsibility of civil and criminal administration. In effect, the company got all the powers without any

responsibility whereas the Nawab got all the responsibilities without power.

This system, at the time, suited the EIC as it was a trading company and its motive was private profits

rather than governance. This dual government was annulled by the advent of Warren Hastings and the

year 1773 paved the way for regulation of the company by the British Parliament through the Regulating

Act of 1773.

42. Which of the following movement was referred `Himalayan Blunder` by Mahatma Gandhi?

a. Rowlatt act sathyagraha

b. Non Cooperation movement

c. Civil disobedience movement

d. Quit India movement

Answer: A.

To protest against the draconian Rowlatt Act, Gandhi launched a satyagraha movement, popularly known as

Rowlatt Satyagraha. He told everyone that it would be a non-violent protest and requested people to maintain

peace at all costs, or there would be severe repression by the government and the movement will fail.

However, things started to spiral out of control after the JallianwalahBagh massacre. Infuriated by the police

firing on peaceful protestors, which caused more than 400 deaths, people started to act violently against the

government. There were violent outbreaks of arsony and riots. Government officials were attacked and

government buildings were vandalized.

The government came down with a heavy hand to crush the movement. Hundreds of protestors were arrested

and tortured in jails.

Seeing that a peaceful mass movement is taking a wrong turn, and fearing that the government might further

escalate it's repression, Gandhi called-off the Rowlatt Satyagraha and called it a Himalayan blunder.

43. Which of the following decisive battles was fought during the Third Carnatic War between the English and the

French?

a. Wandiwash

b. Pondicherry

c. Chandranagore

d. Arcot

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Answer: A.

Battle of Wandiwash.

The Seven Year’s War broke out in Europe and once again England and France were pitted against one

another.After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the British forces wrested Chandannagar (in Bengal) from the

French.The French, under Count de Lally, captured Fort St. George and attacked the English to acquire

Madras.But he was defeated by English forces under Sir Eyre Coote in the Battle of Wandiwash in 1760.The

French lost their Indian possessions including Pondicherry, Mahe, Gingee and Karaikal to the British. The war

ended with the Treaty of Paris in 1763.

44. The British had introduced the permanent settlement in many areas. Which of these was a feature of permanent

settlement?

1. fixed land revenue

2. non-transferable ownership of lands

3. cultivators reduced to the status of tenants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D.

Landlords or Zamindars were recognised as the owners of the land. They were given hereditary rights of

succession of the lands under them. The Zamindars could sell or transfer the land as they wished.

TheZamindars’ proprietorship would stay as long as he paid the fixed revenue at the said date to the

government. If they failed to pay, their rights would cease to exist and the land would be auctioned off.The

fixed amount was 10/11th portion of the revenue for the government and 1/11th was for the Zamindar.

45. Which among the following institutions were established during Non Cooperation movement?

1. Banaras Hindu University

2. KashiVidya Pith

3. SavitribhaiPhule University

4. JamiaMillia

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 2 and 3 only

c. 2 and 4 only

d. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: C

JamiaMiliaIslamia – Aligarh – 1920 – during Khilafat and NCM

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Founders = Shaikhul Hind Maulana Mahmud Hasan, Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar, Janab Hakim Ajmal Khan,

Dr. Mukhtar Ahmad Ansari, Janab Abdul MajeedKhwaja, and Dr. ZakirHussain

KasiVidyapith – Varanasi - 1921- During NCM

Founders = Babushiv Prasad Gupt and Bhagwan Das

Banaras Hindu university– formerly Central Hindu university- Varanasi- 1916

Founder = Madan Mohan malaviya

SavitribhaiPhule Pune university – 1949

46. The Pledge Movement , a social reform movement against child marriage was launched by

a. Social service league

b. Indian national social conference

c. Prarthanasamaj

d. Sathyashodaksamaj

Answer: B

Indian national social conference was founded by M G Ranade and RaghunathRao.It focused attention on the

social issues of importance; it could be called the social reform cell of the Indian national congress,in fact. It

launched Pledge movement to inspire people to take a pledge against Child marriage.

47. Who is known as the Akbar of British East India Company?

a. Lord Canning

b. Lord Wellesley

c. Lord Linlithgow

d. Lord Cornwallis

Answer: B

48. Subsidiary alliance as a policy was extremely advantageous to the British because it helped them in:

1. Controlling defence and foreign relations of the Indian ally.

2. Maintaining large army at the cost of Indian states.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a. Only 1

b. Only 2

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The subsidiary alliance in India was planned by Lord Wellesley .An Indian ruler entering into Subsidiary Alliance

with the British had to dissolve his own armed forces and accept British forces in his territory.He also had to

pay for the British army’s maintenance.If he failed to make the payment, a portion of his territory would be

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taken away and ceded to the British.A British Resident was also stationed in the Indian Court.The Indian state

could not enter into any alliance with any other foreign power.

49. Consider the following statements regarding the Swadeshi and Boycott movement:

1. Self government was declared as the goal of the Indian national congress during this movement.

2. There was an internal conflict within the Congress during the movement

3. The current national anthem of Bangladesh was composed during this movement only.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 3 only

d. None of the above.

Answer: D

The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis, in the anti-partition movement which was started to oppose the

British decision to partition Bengal. The militant nationalists led by Tilak, LajpatRai, Bipin Chandra Pal and

Aurobindo Ghosh wanted the movement to be taken outside Bengal to other parts of the country and go

beyond a boycott of foreign goods to become a full-fledged political mass struggle with the goal of attaining

swaraj. But the Moderates, dominating the Congress at that time, were not willing to go that far.The Extremist

emboldened by DadabhaiNaoroji’s declaration gave a call for passive resistance in addition to swadeshi and

boycott of foreign goods in 1906.By 1908, the open phase (as different from the underground revolutionary

phase) of the movement was almost over .

50. The interim government headed by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1946 was of great significance, because:

1. The Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in this government.

2. Both the congress and the Muslim league came into an agreement on the partition of the country

3. Muslim league gave up the Direct-Action plan before joining this government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1,2 and 3

b. 3 only

c. 1 only

d. 1 and 2 only

Answer: C

The Interim Government was formed as a transition government between an imperial structure and a

democratic structure.

Members of Interim Government

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru Vice President of the Executive Council, External Affairs and

Commonwealth Relations

Vallabhbhai Patel Home, Information and Broadcasting

Baldev Singh Defence

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Dr. John Mithai Industries and supplies

C. Rajagopalachari Education

C.H Bhabha Works, Mines and Power

Rajendra Prasad Food and Agriculture

Asaf Ali Railways

Jagjivan Ram Labour

Liaqat Ali Finance

TT Chundrigar Commerce

AbdurRabNistar Communication

Gazanfar Ali khan Health

JogendraNathMandal Law

51. Regarding DadabhaiNaoroji`s Drain of wealth theory, the main constituents of Home charges were:

1. Dividend to the shareholders of the East India company.

2. Interest on public debt rose abroad

3. Civil and military charges

4. Store purchases in England.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1,3 and 4

c. 2,3 and 4

d. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: D

• Salaries and pensions paid to the Company's employees in England.

• Salaries and pensions paid to the British civilian and military personnel posted in India

• Interest amount on loans raised by the Company in England.

• Dividends paid to the Company's stockholders.

• Store purchases made in England by the Secretary of State on behalf of Government of India for the civilian

and military departmental needs.

52. Match the following

(Authors)

A. Annie Beasant

B. EMS Namboothiripad

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Sarojini Naidu

(Books)

1. Conquest of self

2. Crisis of chaos

3. Golden Threshold

4. Wake up India

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a. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3

b. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4

c. A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

d. A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4

Answer: A

53. Consider the following statements with respect to August Offer:

1. Dominion status as the objective for India

2. Expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians

3. No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities

Which of the following below given codes are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2 only

c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Linlithgow announced the August Offer (August 1940) which proposed:

• Dominion status as the objective for India;

• Expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians

(who would be drawn from major political parties);

• Setting up of a constituent assembly after the war where mainly Indians would

decide the constitution according to their social, economic and political conceptions,

subject to fulfillment of the obligation of the government regarding defense, minority

rights, treaties with States, all India services; and

• No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities.

54. Which of the following is an asteroid?

a. Phobos

b. Ceres

c. Bennu

d. Both b and c

Answer: C

Phobos – Moon of Mars

Ganymede – Moon of Jupiter (Largest Moon)

Bennu- Asteroid

Ceres – Dwarf Planet

55. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the revolution of the earth?

a. Earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit

b. Sun is at the centre of earth’s orbit

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c. Revolution of earth causes different seasons

d. All the above statements are correct

Answer: B

Sun and all of the planets and other bodies in the Solar System orbit about the centre of mass of the Solar

System. This is called the Solar Centre Barycentre.

56. Calculate the time at 90°W longitude when the clock in India shows 10 am Monday.

a. 10.30 am Sunday

b. 10.30 pm Sunday

c. 10.30 pm Monday

d. 10pm Monday

Answer:B

IST – 82.5°

Longitudinal distance 90° from India- 90+82.5=172.5

Change in 1° longitude = 4min

Time @90° = 10am – (172.5*4)min = 10.30pm Sunday

57. Consider the following facts

1. Clear sky

2. Long night

3. Strong wind

4. Temperature above 0°C

Which of the above conditions are favorable for the formation of frost?

a. 1 and 2

b. 1,2 and 3

c. 1,2, and 4

d. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: A

Conditions favorable for the formation of frost

1. Clear sky

2. Long night

3. Calm Atmosphere

4. Dew point temperature below freezing point

58. Which of the following represents the reason of formation of Sargasso sea?

a. Tides

b. Waves

c. Ocean Currents

d. Salinity

Answer: c

The Sargasso sea lies within the North Atlantic ocean, surrounded by four currents that form an ocean gyre.

For the uninitiated, an ocean gyre is a huge system of circulating ocean currents that are formed due to global

wind patterns and the effects of Earth's rotation (Corioliseffect).

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59. Sahel is located in

a. Australia

b. Africa

c. South America

d. Eastern Europe

Answer: B

A semiarid region of north-central Africa south of the Sahara Desert. Since the 1960s it has been afflicted by

prolonged periods of extensive drought.

60. Consider the following statements the interior of earth

1. Core is made up of densest materials

2. Materials in the mantle contributes to the formation of earth’s magnetic field

Which of the above statements is/are correct regarding core of the earth?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Core is made up of heavy metaks like Ni, fe. Liquid outer state and earth’s rotation are the reason for the

formation of Earth’s magnetic field

61. Which of the following are correctly matched

Peak Mountain

1. Dhupgarh Vindhyan Hills

2. Saramathi Peak Mizo Hills

3. Mount Abu Aravalli Mountain

a. 1 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 2 and 3

Answer: B

1. Dhupgarh- Satpura Hills

2. Saramathi Peak - Naga Hills

62. Which of the following is the longest tributary of River Indus?

a. Chenab

b. Ravi

c. Jhelum

b. Satluj

Answer: B

Satluj – Longest tributary of Indus

Chenab – Largest tributary of Indus

63. Consider the following regarding South West monsoon.

1. It brings rainfall to entire India

2. Orographic rainfall is prominent during SW monsoon

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Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 Nor 2

Answer: A

During SW monsoon south eastern part of India, ie Tamil nadu region remains dry. Here it is important to

know why the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during this season.

There are two factors responsible for it:

(i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.

(ii) It lies in the rainshadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.

64. Which of the following explain mixed farming?

a. Growing more than one crop

b. Growing more than one crop in alternate stripes

c. Growing crop and raising cattle together

d. Growing of different height crops together

Answer : C

Growing crop and raising cattle together

65. Consider the following statements.

1. High moisture retention capacity

2. Impermeable

3. Found in the semi-arid regions

Identify the soil from the above characteristics.

a. Arid soil

b. Alluvial Soil

c. Black soil

d. Red soil

Answer: c

66. Consider the following statements regarding Himalayas.

1. Vegetation varies from tropical to alpine along the height

2. Rainfall is maximum along the western Himalayas

3. Evergreen forest are more on eastern Himalayas

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 only

d. 1,2 and 3

Answer: A

Vegetation varies from tropical to alpinealong the height since the temperature decreases as we climbs the

mountain. Rainfall is maximum along the eastern Himalayas. Evergreen forest are more on easternHimalayas

since NE Himalayas receives more than 200cm annual rainfall.

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67. Which of the following is a landlocked port?

a. Haldia

b. Paradweep

c. Ennore

b. Visakhapatanam

Answer: D

68. Which of the following river is not a part of Bharathapuzha drainage basin?

a. Thoothapuzha

b. Kannadipuzha

c. Kalpathipuzha

d. All are part of Bharathapuzha drainage basin

Answer: D

At Parli both Kannadippuzha and Kalpathippuza merge and flow as Bharathapuzha and follows a westerly

course until it empties into the Arabian Sea at Ponnani. Thootha River merges with Nila at Pallippuram. As

Thoothariver is rich in water, after its merger, Nila becomes thicker in flow.

69. Consider the following regarding the climate of Kerala

1. Land breeze and sea breeze have played a significant role in determining the climate of the state

2. Annual range of temperature increases from west to east across the state

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Land breeze and sea breeze along with valley and mountain breezes have played asignificant role in

determining the climate ofthe state of Kerala. Annual range of temperature increases fromwest to east across

the state as we moves away from the coast.

70. Consider the following statements regarding shola forests

1. Shola forests are found along the downslopes of western ghats

2. Tropical evergreen trees form the major vegetation group in these forests

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 Nor 2

Answer: D

The Shola vegetation are tropical montane forests found in the Western Ghats separated by rolling grasslands

in high altitudes.

71. Which of the following is the second highest peak in Kerala?

a. Meesappulimala

b. Anamudi

c. Devimala

d. Mookuthimala

Answer: A

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72. Poonthalpadam soil is found at

a. Thrissur

b. Palakkad

c. Alppuzha

d. Kottayam

Answer: B

Poonthalpadams- Lowlands of Chittoortaluk in Palakkad District

Slushy soils with poor workability. A bed of limestone is seen beneath the slushy layer. Near neutral in

reaction, medium in organic matter and deficient in boron base rich fertile clayey soils and imperfectly

drained. The physical properties like plasticity, cohesion, expansion and shrinkage are similar to those of

the regular soils of the Deccan

73. Consider the following statements regarding Kerala Population

1. Kerala’s child sex ratio is unfavorable to girl child

2. Kerala has a density of above 1000persons/sq.km

3. Kerala has the highest sex ratio among the Indian states

Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 3 only

c. 1 and 3

d. 1,2 and 3

Answer: C

Kerala’s child sex ratio isunfavorable to girl child - 959

Population density of Kerala – 860 persons/sq.km

Kerala has the highest sex ratioamong the Indian states– 1068

74. Find out the missing term 1 , 3 , 2 , 6 , 5 , 9 , __ , 12 , 17

a. 9

b. 10

c. 11

d. 12

Answer: B

75. If SUMMER is coded as RUNNER, the code for WINTER will be

a. SUITER

b. VIOUER

c. WALKER

d. VUFFER

Answer: B

76. In a certain language, ‘oka peru’ means ‘fine cloth’. ‘meta lisa ’ means ‘clear water’. ‘dona lisa peru’ means ‘fine

clear weather’. Which word in that language means ‘weather’?

a. peru

b. oka

c. meta

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d. dona

Answer: D

77. Choose the correct alternative

8 : 9 : : 64 : ?

a. 512

b. 125

c. 25

d. 81

Answer: D

78. Choose the correct alternative

Newspaper : press : : cloth : ?

a. Tailor

b. textile

c. Fibre

d. Mill

Answer: D

79. Which of the fraction is the smallest?

a. 13/16

b. 15/19

c. 17/21

d. 7/8

Answer: B

80. The value of (0.96)3 – (0.1)

(0.96)2 + 0.096 +(0.1)

2

a. 0.86

b. 0.95

c. 0.97

d. 1.06

Answer: A

81. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago father’s age was five times the

age of the son. After 6 years, son’s age will be :

a. 12 years

b. 14 years

c. 18 years

d. 20 years

Answer: D

82. What is the mirror image of the clock when the time is 09.48

a. 2.12

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b. 2.48

c. 3.12

d. 11.48

Answer: A

83. Deepak starts walking strait towards east. After walking 75 meters, he turns to the left and walks 25 meters

strait. Again he turns to the left , walks a distance of 40 meters strait, again he turns to the left and walks a distance

of 25 meters.

How far is he from the starting point?

a. 25meter

b. 50 meter

c. 115 meter

d. none of these

Answer: D

84. Pointing to a man, Anila said “ He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my Husband” . How is that man

related to Anila?

a. Son

b. Husband

c. Brother-in-law

d. Nephew

Answer: A

85. What mathematical operation should come at place of ‘?’ in the equation 2 ? 6 – 12 / 4 + 2 = 11

a. +

b. -

c. x

d. /

Answer: C

86. If 1st May 2029 is Tuesday, What was the day of the week On 29th September 2029?

a. Tuesday

b. Thursday

c. Saturday

d. Sunday

Answer: C

87. In a row of children Varsha is 7th from left and Adhya is 11th from the right. They exchange their position and

then varsha becomes 15th from the left. Find out the number of children in the row?

a. 24

b. 26

c. 23

d. 25

Answer: B

88. A train 110 meter long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at

6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

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a. 5 sec

b. 6sec

c. 7 sec

d. 10 sec

Answer: B

89. Consider the following about Kathakali

1. It was developed principally from Krishanattam, which inturn was developed from Ramanattam.

2. The PachaVesham refers to characters which are usually perceived good in a story.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 Nor 2

Answer: B

90. Kalamandalam kshemavati is associated with which of the following

a. Nangyarkoothu

b. Koodiyattom

c. Ottantullal

d. Mohiniyattom

Answer: D

91. Consider the following regarding Ashtapadi

1. They are love songs on Krishna and Radha as explained in Gita Govindam.

2. The author of Gita Govindam is Melpattur Narayana Bhattatirippad.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a. 1 onlky

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Ashtapadi are Indian hymns where the music has eight lines (steps) within each composition. Each ashtapadi

song is set in a special raga (an Indian musical mode) and tala. It is a rhyme of eternal love and supreme

devotion. Gita Govinda was composed in the 12th century by Indian poet Jayadeva from KenduliSasan, a

village near the famous temple city of Puri in Sanskrit language. Gita Govindam is a lyrical poetry in twelve

chapters, sub-divided into twenty four divisions called Prabandha. The Prabandhas contain couplets grouped

into eights, called ashtapadis. The literal meaning of “ashtapadi” is “eight steps.” The songs in Gita Govinda

symbolize the eternal love of Lord Krishna and his beloved Radha. Jayadeva’s Gita Govindam, also known as

KaviPrabandham.

92. Lekhayude Maranamoru Flashback, Yavanika, AadaminteVariyellu are all movies of

a. Bharathan

b. Padmarajan

c. K G George

d. Aravindan

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Answer: C

93. Who among the following aren't one of the triumvirate of Malayalam

a. KumaranAsan

b. UlloorParameswaraIyer

c. G SankaraKurup

d. VallatholNarayanaMenon

Answer: C

The ancient triumvirate poets (Prachinakavithrayam) of Malayalam poetry are Ezhuthachan,

CherusseriNamboothiri and KunchanNambiar. The modern triumvirate poets (Adhhunikakavithrayam) of

malayalam poetry are N. KumaranAshan, VallatholNarayanaMenon and Ulloor S. ParameswaraIyer.

94. HortusMalabaricus was printed in

a. London

b. Talassery

c. Kochi

d. Amsterdam

Answer: D

Hortus Malabaricus is the oldest important printed book on Indian medicinal plants. The 1st of its 12

volumes was published in 1678 from Amsterdam this book, written by H.A. Van Rheede is perhaps the

only authentic record of the ethnoiatrical knowledge of ancient Malabar, available to us today. Several

hundred medicinal plants which were successful used by the Ayurvedicphysiclans of 17th century are

described in this, along with their medicinal powers and methods of application. The identity of many of

the plants described has not yet been accurately established, which would be of considerable interest to

ayurveda.

95. Consider the following statement

1. It is built by Sivappa Naidu in 17th Century

2. It is near the confluence of the Payaswiniriver and Arabian Sea.

The fort is

a. Bekel Fort

b. Chandragiri Fort

c. Palakkad Fort

d. St. Angelo Fort

Answer: B

Chandragiri Fort is a fort built in the 17th century, situated in Kasaragod District of Kerala, South India. The

fort has an eventful history. In earlier days, the river was considered to be the border of two powerful

kingdoms - Kolathunadu and Thulunadu. When Thulunadu was captured by the Vijayanagara Empire, the

Kolathunadu kings lost the Chandragiri region to them. During the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire, the

area was administratively looked after by the KeladiNayakas of Ikkeri. When the Vijayanagara Empire fell

in the 16th century, VengappaNayaka declared independence. Later ShivappaNayaka took over the reins.

He built a chain of forts of which Chandragiri is part.

96. M V Devan, K S Radhakrishnan, M R D Dattan are _______ from Kerala.

a. Musician

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b. Painters

c. Sculptors

d. Writers

Answer: C

97. Which of the following statements are true about First world war?

1. During the first world war , the world was divided into allied powers and axis powers

2. The three emperors league was formed by Bismarck.

a. 1 only

b. 2only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

98. What war during the 1930s greatly influenced the development of military tactics that were used in WWII?

a. The Spanish-American War

b. The Boer War

c. The Spanish Civil War

d. The Korean War

Answer: C

99. What is socialism?

A. Economic system in which the factors of production are owned by the government and wealth is

redistributed from the rich to the poor to create an classless society

B. Belief that the major goal of society should be the happiness of the greatest number of people

C. Economic system in which the factors of production are owned by individuals in order to make a profit

D. Economic system in which the factors of production are owned by the people as a whole, equality is the

greatest ideal of society & government withers away

Answer: A

100. What is Risorgimento?

a. German unification movement

b. Italian unification movement

c. Napoleon administrative programme

d. Communist movement in Russia

Answer: B

The Risorgimento was an ideological and literary movement that helped to arouse the national consciousness of the

Italian people, and it led to a series of political events that freed the Italian states from foreign domination and united

them politically.