Upload
others
View
3
Download
0
Embed Size (px)
Citation preview
INSIGHTSIAS SIMPLYFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION
INSTA Tests
13 to 16 (GS)
www.insightsonindia.com
prelims.insightsonindia.com | mains.insightsonindia.com
Telegram: insightsIAStips | FB: insightsonindia | TW: vinaygb | YT: INSIGHTS IAS
BENGALURU | DELHI | HYDERABAD
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN UPSC Prelims 2020
Copyright © by Insights IAS All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Insights IAS.
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
Insta 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services
Prelims – 2020
This document is the compilation of 100 questions that are part of InsightsIAS
famous INSTA REVISION initiative for UPSC civil services Preliminary examination
– 2020 (which has become most anticipated annual affair by lakhs of IAS aspirants
across the country). These questions are carefully framed so as to give aspirants tough
challenge to test their knowledge and at the same time improve skills such as
intelligent guessing, elimination, reasoning, deduction etc – which are much needed
to sail through tough Civil Services Preliminary Examination conducted by UPSC.
These questions are based on this INSTA Revision Plan which is posted on our
website (www.insightsonindia.com). Every year thousands of candidates follow our
revision timetable – which is made for SERIOUS aspirants who would like to intensively
revise everything that’s important before the exam.
Those who would like to take up more tests for even better preparation, can
enroll to Insights IAS Prelims Mock Test Series – 2020
(https://prelims.insightsonindia.com). Every year toppers solve our tests and sail
through UPSC civil services exam. Your support through purchase of our tests will help
us provide FREE content on our website seamlessly.
Wish you all the best!
Team InsightsIAS
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 1 Insights IAS
DAY – 13 (InstaTest-13)
1. Consider the following statements regarding first stage of Demographic
transition
1. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality
2. The population growth is high
3. Most of the people are engaged in agriculture
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Demographic transition
• Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the
future population of any area. The theory tells us that population of any region
changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 2 Insights IAS
society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban industrial and
literate society. These changes occur in stages which are collectively known as
the demographic cycle.
• The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people
reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable
food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people are engaged
in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low, people
are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago
all the countries of the world were in this stage. Fertility remains high in the
beginning of second stage but it declines with time. This is accompanied by
reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead
to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high.
• In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The
population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanised,
literate and has high technical knowhow and deliberately controls the family
size. This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to adjust
their fertility.
• In the present day, different countries are at different stages of demographic
transition.
2. Consider the following statements regarding human development
1. The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-
Haq.
2. Dr Haq has described human development as development that
enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr
Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s
choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development under
this concept. These choices are not fixed but keep on changing.
• The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live
meaningful lives. A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with
some purpose. This means that people must be healthy, be able to develop
their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 3 Insights IAS
3. Consider the following statements regarding Gilgit Baltistan
1. It is Located in the northern Pakistan.
2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) passes through this region
3. It shares a geographical boundary with Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Home Minister Amit Shah’s statement in the Parliament has sufficiently amplified
India’s broadened vision that Pakistan Occupied Kashmir including the so-called Azad
Kashmir and Gilgit-Baltistan (G-B) belong to India.
Where is Gilgit Baltistan located?
• Located in the northern Pakistan. It borders China in the North, Afghanistan in
the west, Tajikistan in the North West and Kashmir in the south east.
• It shares a geographical boundary with Pakistan-occupied Kashmir, and India
considers it as part of the undivided Jammu and Kashmir, while Pakistan sees
it as a separate from PoK.
• It has a regional Assembly and an elected Chief Minister.
• China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) also passes through this region.
• Gilgit-Baltistan is home to five of the “eight-thousanders” and to more than fifty
peaks above 7,000 metres (23,000 ft).
• Three of the world’s longest glaciers outside the polar regions are found in
Gilgit-Baltistan.
How Pakistan took over it?
• The British sold it, along with the rest of Jammu and Kashmir, to the Dogra ruler
of Jammu, Gulab Singh, after defeating the Sikh army in 1846, but retained
controlled over the area through a lease extracted from the Maharaja.
• This lease was last renewed in 1935. In 1947, a British army officer of the rank
of Colonel imprisoned Maharaja Hari Singh’s governor in the region, and
handed over the area for accession to Pakistan.
Recent developments:
• Pakistan, in 2017, proposed to declare the strategic Gilgit-Baltistan region as
its fifth Province.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 4 Insights IAS
Impediments ahead:
• Gilgit- Baltistan is part of J&K and any such move would seriously damage
Pakistan’s Kashmir case. Two UN resolutions of August 13, 1948 and
January 5, 1949 clearly established a link between GB and the Kashmir issue.
• Making the region its fifth province would thus violate the Karachi Agreement
— perhaps the only instrument that provides doubtful legal authority to
Pakistan’s administration of GB — as well as the UN resolutions that would
damage its position on the Kashmir issue.
• Any such move would also be violative of the 1963 Pak-China Boundary
Agreement that calls for the sovereign authority to reopen negotiations with
China “after the settlement of the Kashmir dispute between Pakistan and India”
and of the 1972 Simla Agreement that mentions that “neither side shall
unilaterally alter the situation”.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/21/gilgit-baltistan-2/
4. Which of the following factors can be considered as Basis of International Trade
1. Difference in national resources
2. Population
3. Stage of economic development
4. Extent of foreign investment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
Basis of International Trade
(i) Difference in national resources: The world’s national resources are
unevenly distributed because of differences in their physical make up i.e.
geology, relief soil and climate.
(ii) Population factors: The size, distribution and diversity of people between
countries affect the type and volume of goods traded.
(iii) Stage of economic development: At different stages of economic
development of countries, the nature of items traded undergo changes.
(iv) Extent of foreign investment: Foreign investment can boost trade in
developing countries which lack in capital required for the development of
mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 5 Insights IAS
(v) Transport: In olden times, lack of adequate and efficient means of transport
restricted trade to local areas. Only high value items, e.g. gems, silk and spices
were traded over long distances. With expansions of rail, ocean and air
transport, better means of refrigeration and preservation, trade has experienced
spatial expansion.
5. Which of the following countries does not share its border with Saudi Arabia
(a) Iraq
(b) Iran
(c) Oman
(d) Yemen
Solution: B
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 6 Insights IAS
6. Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Suppliers Group
1. It is a multilateral export control regime.
2. India is a member of the organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
At the Bloomberg Global Business Forum in New York, Prime Minister Narendra
Modi made a pitch for India’s membership of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
What is NSG?
• Brought in 1974– in response to the Indian nuclear test (smiling Buddha).
• It is a multilateral export control regime.
• It is a Group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear
proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology
that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons.
• The NSG first met in November 1975 in London, and is thus popularly referred
to as the “London Club”.
• It is not a formal organization, and its guidelines are not binding. Decisions,
including on membership, are made by consensus.
Membership: 48 supplier states.
Criteria for membership:
• Ability to supply items (including items in transit) covered by the annexes to
Parts 1 and 2 of the NSG Guidelines;
• Adherence to the Guidelines and action in accordance with them;
• Enforcement of a legally based domestic export control system which gives
effect to the commitment to act in accordance with the Guidelines;
• Full compliance with the obligations of one or more of nuclear non-proliferation
agreement.
• Support of international efforts towards non-proliferation of weapons of mass
destruction and of their delivery vehicle.
• Presently, India is not a member the group.
Why the membership is important for India?
• Membership will increase India’s access to state-of-the-art technology from the
other members of the Group.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 7 Insights IAS
• Access to technology and being allowed to produce nuclear equipment will give
a boost to the Make in India program. That will, in turn, boost the economic
growth of our country.
• As per India’s INDC under the Paris Climate agreement, we have committed to
reducing dependence on fossil fuels and ensuring that 40% of its energy is
sourced from renewable and clean sources. In order to achieve this target, we
need to scale up nuclear power production. This can only happen if India gains
access to the NSG.
• India will get an opportunity to voice it’s concern if in case of change in the
provision of the NSG guidelines.
Other Benefits associated with NSG membership- Once admitted, an NSG member
state gets:
• Timely information on nuclear matters.
• Contributes by way of information.
• Has confirmed credentials.
• Can act as an instrument of harmonization and coordination.
• Is part of a very transparent process.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/26/nuclear-suppliers-group-2/
7. Consider the following statements regarding Primary activities
1. Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer
to utilization of earth’s resources
2. It includes hunting and gathering, fishing, agriculture, and mining and
quarrying.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Human activities which generate income are known as economic activities.
Economic activities are broadly grouped into primary, secondary, tertiary and
quaternary activities.
1. Primary activities are directly dependent on environment as these refer to
utilisation of earth’s resources such as land, water, vegetation, building
materials and minerals. It, thus includes, hunting and gathering, pastoral
activities, fishing, forestry, agriculture, and mining and quarrying.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 8 Insights IAS
2. Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw
materials into valuable products. Cotton in the boll has limited use but after it is
transformed into yarn, becomes more valuable and can be used for making
clothes. Iron ore, cannot be used; directly from the mines, but after being
converted into steel it gets its value and can be used for making many valuable
machines, tools, etc.
o Secondary activities, therefore, are concerned with manufacturing,
processing and construction (infrastructure) industries.
3. Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an important
component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities are performed
by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and consultants.
o Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production
involves the ‘provision’ of services that are ‘consumed’. The output is
indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. Exchange, involves
trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome
distance. Tertiary activities, therefore, involve the commercial output of
services rather than the production of tangible goods. They are not
directly involved in the processing of physical raw materials. Common
examples are the work of a plumber, electrician, technician, launderer,
barber, shopkeeper, driver, cashier, teacher, doctor, lawyer and
publisher etc. The main difference between secondary activities and
tertiary activities is that the expertise provided by services relies more
heavily on specialised skills, experience and knowledge of the workers
rather than on the production techniques, machinery and factory
processes.
8. Consider the following statements regarding forms of the settlements
1. Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found where
the roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.
2. Circular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found where
several roads converge
3. Star like pattern: Villages develop around lakes, tanks
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 9 Insights IAS
Forms or shapes of the settlements: These may be a number of geometrical forms
and shapes such as Linear, rectangular, circular star like, T-shaped village, double
village, cross-shaped village etc.
(a) Linear pattern: In such settlements houses are located along a road, railway line,
river, canal edge of a valley or along a levee.
(b) Rectangular pattern: Such patterns of rural settlements are found in plain areas or
wide inter montane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right
angles.
(c) Circular pattern: Circular villages develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes the
village is planned in such a way that the central part remains open and is used for
keeping the animals to protect them from wild animals.
(d) Star like pattern: Where several roads converge, star shaped settlements develop
by the houses built along the roads.
(e) T-shaped, Y-shaped, Cross-shaped or cruciform settlements: T -shape
settlements develop at tri-junctions of the roads, while Y-shaped settlements
emerge as the places where two roads converge on the third one and houses are
built along these roads. Cruciform settlements develop on the cross-roads and
houses extend in all the four direction.
(f) Double village: These settlements extend on both sides of a river where there is a
bridge or a ferry.
9. Consider the following statements regarding National Animal Disease Control
Programme.
1. It is a 100% centrally funded programme
2. It aims to eradicate Foot and Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
PM to launch National Animal Disease Control Programme for Foot and Mouth
Disease.
• It is a 100% centrally funded programme, with a total outlay of Rs.12,652 crore
from 2019 to 2024.
• It aims to control Foot and Mouth Disease and Brucellosis by 2025 with
vaccination and eventual eradication by 2030.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 10 Insights IAS
About Foot-and-mouth disease:
• It is an infectious and sometimes fatal viral disease.
• Affects cloven-hoofed animals, including domestic and wild bovids.
• Symptoms: The virus causes a high fever for two or three days, followed by
blisters inside the mouth and on the feet that may rupture and cause lameness.
• The virus responsible for the disease is a picornavirus, the prototypic member
of the genus Aphthovirus.
Spread of the disease and Concerns associated:
• Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) has severe implications for animal farming,
since it is highly infectious and can be spread by infected animals through
aerosols, through contact with contaminated farming equipment, vehicles,
clothing, or feed, and by domestic and wild predators.
Can Humans be affected?
• Humans can be infected with foot-and-mouth disease through contact with
infected animals, but this is extremely rare. Some cases were caused by
laboratory accidents. Because the virus that causes FMD is sensitive to
stomach acid, it cannot spread to humans via consumption of infected meat,
except in the mouth before the meat is swallowed. Symptoms of FMD in
humans include malaise, fever, vomiting, red ulcerative lesions (surface-
eroding damaged spots) of the oral tissues, and sometimes vesicular lesions
(small blisters) of the skin.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/07/foot-and-mouth-disease/
10. Consider the following pairs regarding different names of Shifting cultivation
and their region
1. Jhuming - North eastern states of India 2. Milpa - Indonesia and Malaysia 3. Ladang - Central America and Mexico
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
• The vegetation is usually cleared by fire, and the ashes add to the fertility of the
soil. Shifting cultivation is thus, also called slash and burn agriculture. The
cultivated patches are very small and cultivation is done with very primitive tools
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 11 Insights IAS
such as sticks and hoes. After sometime (3 to 5 years) the soil loses its fertility
and the farmer shifts to another parts and clears other patch of the forest for
cultivation. The farmer may return to the earlier patch after sometime. One of
the major problems of shifting cultivation is that the cycle of jhum becomes less
and less due to loss of fertility in different parcels.
• It is prevalent in tropical region in different names, e.g. Jhuming in North
eastern states of India, Milpa in central America and Mexico and Ladang
in Indonesia and Malaysia.
11. Consider the following statements regarding different types of port
1. Ports of Call - These ports serve warships and have repair workshops for them
2. Packet Station - These are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail across water bodies covering short distances
3. Entrepot Ports - These are collection centres where the goods are brought from different countries for export
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: B
Types of port on the basis of specialized functions:
(i) Oil Ports: These ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil. Some of
these are tanker ports and some are refinery ports. Maracaibo in Venezuela,
Esskhira in Tunisia, Tripoli in Lebanon
(ii) Ports of Call: These are the ports which originally developed as calling points
on main sea routes where ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and
taking food items. Later on, they developed into commercial ports. Aden,
Honolulu and Singapore are good examples.
(iii) Packet Station: These are also known as ferry ports. These packet stations
are exclusively concerned with the transportation of passengers and mail
across water bodies covering short distances. These stations occur in pairs
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 12 Insights IAS
located in such a way that they face each other across the water body, e.g.
Dover in England and Calais in France across the English Channel.
(iv) Entrepot Ports: These are collection centres where the goods are brought from
different countries for export. Singapore is an entrepot for Asia. Rotterdam for
Europe, and Copenhagen for the Baltic region.
(v) Naval Ports: These are ports which have only strategic importance. These
ports serve warships and have repair workshops for them. Kochi and Karwar
are examples of such ports in India.
12. The Motihari-Amalekhgunj petroleum pipeline is a joint project between:
(a) India and China
(b) India and Bangladesh
(c) India and Nepal
(d) China and Nepal
Solution: C
• PM Modi and his Nepalese counterpart KPS Oli will “switch on” the Motihari-
Amalekhgunj petroleum pipeline from their offices in New Delhi and
Kathmandu.
• The pipeline will transport fuel from Barauni refinery in Bihar’s Begusarai district
to Amalekhgunj in southeastern Nepal, situated across the border from Raxaul
in East Champaran district. The 69-km pipeline will drastically reduce the cost
of transporting fuel to landlocked Nepal from India.
• The pipeline will help in tackling the oil storage problem in Nepal and doing
away with transportation of petroleum products through tankers.
13. Consider the following statements regarding Ageing Population
1. Population ageing is the process by which the share of the older
population becomes proportionally larger.
2. It is very common in least developed countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 13 Insights IAS
Ageing Population
• Population ageing is the process by which the share of the older population
becomes proportionally larger. This is a new phenomenon of the twentieth
century. In most of the developed countries of the world, population in higher
age groups has increased due to increased life expectancy. With a
reduction in birth rates, the proportion of children in the population has declined.
14. Which of the following countries does not share its border with Italy
(a) Spain
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Austria
Solution: A
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 14 Insights IAS
15. Consider the following statements regarding Deucha Panchami block
1. It is India’s largest iron ore block.
2. It is situated in Odisha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
World’s Second Largest Coal Block:
• Deaucha Panchami coal block of Birbhum Coalfield Area is World’s Second
Largest Coal Block.
• Situated in West Bengal. This coal mine is the largest coal mine or coal block
in Asia, due to the number of coal reserves.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/21/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-21-
september-2019/
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 15 Insights IAS
16. Foot Loose Industries are those which
(a) Provide Flexible working hours for labourers
(b) Depend on components which are available anywhere
(c) Dependent of weight losing materials
(d) are mobile in nature.
Solution: B
Foot Loose Industries
• Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not
dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
• They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere.
They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are
generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is
accessibility by road network.
Extra Learning:
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 16 Insights IAS
17. Which of the following countries does not share its border with South Atlantic
Ocean
(a) Ghana
(b) Republic of the Congo
(c) Nigeria
(d) Niger
Solution: D
18. Consider the following statements regarding recent changes made with respect
to Cabinet secretary
1. He is appointed for a fixed tenure of five years.
2. He is under the direct charge of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 17 Insights IAS
Solution: D
• Govt Amends 60-Year-Old rule to pave way for Cabinet Secretary extension.
With this, the current Cabinet Secretary Pradeep Kumar Sinha, has become
the longest-serving bureaucrat in the post in the country’s history.
Key concept- changes made:
• A cabinet secretary is appointed for a fixed tenure of two years.
• According to All India Services (Death-Cum-Retirement-Benefits) Rules,
1958, the government can give extension in service to a cabinet secretary
provided the total tenure does not exceed four years.
• As per the modified rules, the central government may give an extension in
service for a further period not exceeding three months, beyond the period of
four years to a cabinet secretary.
Role of the cabinet secretary:
• The cabinet secretariat is under the direct charge of the prime minister.
• The administrative head of the secretariat is the cabinet secretary who is also
the ex-officio chairman of the civil services board.
Functions:
• The cabinet secretariat assists in decision-making in government by ensuring
inter-ministerial coordination, ironing out differences amongst ministries or
departments and evolving consensus through the instrumentality of the
standing or ad hoc committees of secretaries.
• Management of major crisis situations in the country and coordinating activities
of various ministries in such a situation is also one of the functions of the cabinet
secretariat.
• Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of
India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India
(Allocation of Business) Rules 1961, facilitating smooth transaction of
business in Ministries/ Departments of the Government.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/06/10/cabinet-secretary/
19. Consider the following statements
1. Quaternary activities center around research, development and may be
seen as an advanced form of services involving specialized knowledge
and technical skills.
2. The highest level of decision makers or policy makers performs quinary
activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 18 Insights IAS
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• Quaternary activities involve some of the following: the collection, production
and dissemination of information or even the production of information.
Quaternary activities centre around research, development and may be seen
as an advanced form of services involving specialized knowledge and technical
skills.
QUINARY ACTIVITIES
• The highest level of decision makers or policy makers perform quinary
activities. These are subtly different from the knowledge-based industries that
the quinary sector in general deals with.
• Quinary activities are services that focus on the creation, re-arrangement and
interpretation of new and existing ideas; data interpretation and the use and
evaluation of new technologies. Often referred to as ‘gold collar’ professions,
they represent another subdivision of the tertiary sector representing special
and highly paid skills of senior business executives, government officials,
research scientists, financial and legal consultants, etc. Their importance in the
structure of advanced economies far outweighs their numbers.
20. Consider the following statements regarding Nipah Virus
1. The natural host of the virus is fruit bats belonging to the family
Pteropodidae.
2. The incubation period of the virus is 7-14 days.
3. The virus can be transmitted to humans from animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
• The deadly Nipah Virus has resurfaced in Kerala.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 19 Insights IAS
What is Nipah Virus?
• According to WHO, the Nipah virus infection is a newly emerging zoonosis, that
is, a disease transmitted from animals to humans. The virus belongs to a new
genus termed Henipavirus (subfamily Paramyxovirinae).
• The natural host of the virus are fruit bats belonging to the family Pteropodidae.
In 2004, humans were affected after eating the date palm contaminated by
infected fruit bats. Pigs can also act as intermediate hosts.
• The virus can be transmitted to humans from animals (such as bats or pigs).
• The incubation period of the virus is 7-14 days
When it was first reported?
• It was first identified in 1998 at Kampung Sungai Nipah village, Malaysia. The
virus is named after this village.
What are the symptoms in humans?
• The symptoms of Nipah are similar to that of influenza: fever, muscle pain, and
respiratory problems. Inflammation of the brain can also cause disorientation.
Late onset of Encephalitis can also occur. Sometimes a person can have an
asymptomatic infection, and be a carrier of Nipah and not show any symptoms.
Are there any vaccines?
• Currently, there are no vaccines for both humans and animals. Intensive
supportive care is given to humans infected by Nipah virus. According to WHO,
ribavarin can reduce the symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and convulsions
associated with the disease. Individuals infected need to be hospitalised and
isolated. Special care should be taken to prevent human-to-human
transmission. Surveillance systems should be established to detect the virus
quickly and to initiate appropriate control measures.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/06/04/nipah-virus/
21. Consider the following pairs regarding Age-Sex Pyramid with their
characteristics:
1. Expanding Populations
: triangular shaped pyramid
2. Constant Population
: bell shaped and tapered towards the top
3. Declining Populations
: narrow base and a tapered top
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 20 Insights IAS
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Age-Sex Pyramid
• The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and
males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-
sex structure of the population.
• The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the
population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side
shows the percentage of women in each age group.
Expanding Populations
• The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria as you can see is a triangular shaped pyramid
with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries.
• These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates. If
you construct the pyramids for Bangladesh and Mexico, it would look the same.
Constant Population
• Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This
shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant
population.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 21 Insights IAS
Declining Populations
• The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and
death rates. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or
negative
22. Project REPLAN (REducing PLAstic in Nature) is program under
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
(b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
(c) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(d) Ministry of Environment
Solution: A
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 22 Insights IAS
KVIC, as part of its commitment to Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan, had started
manufacturing of plastic-mixed handmade paper under its project REPLAN
(REducing PLAstic in Nature).
• In this project, the waste plastic is collected, cleaned, chopped, beaten and
treated for softness.
• After that, it is mixed with the paper raw material i.e. cotton rags pulp in a ratio
of 80 % (pulp) and 20% (plastic waste).
23. Consider the following pairs regarding railway lines with the places they connect
1. Trans-Siberian railways
: St. Petersburg to Vladivostok
2. Trans-Canadian railways
: Victoria to Halifax
3. The Australian Trans–Continental Railway
: Perth to Sydney
4. The Orient Express : Paris to Istanbul Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 23 Insights IAS
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 24 Insights IAS
The Australian Trans–Continental Railway:
• This rail-line runs west-east across the southern part of the continent from
Perth on the west coast, to Sydney on the east coast. Passing through
Kalgoorlie, Broken Hill and Port Augusta
The Orient Express:
• This line runs from Paris to Istanbul passing through Strasbourg, Munich,
Vienna, Budapest and Belgrade.
24. Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme (ITHPC) is an important
program under
(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
(b) The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild
Fauna and Flora (CITES)
(c) Global Tiger Forum (GTF)
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
Solution: A
Union Environment Ministry released a report on Status of Tiger Habitats in high
altitude ecosystems.
• The study is led by the Global Tiger Forum (GTF), with range country
governments of Bhutan, India and Nepal, along with WWF. It has been
supported by the Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme
(ITHPC) of the IUCN.
• Initiated in 2014, the Integrated Tiger Habitat Conservation Programme
(ITHCP) or ‘Tiger Programme‘ is a grant-making initiative which contributes to
the Global Tiger Recovery Programme (GTRP), a global effort to double tiger
numbers in the wild by 2022. The programme consists of a portfolio of 12 large-
scale projects in key Tiger Conservation Landscapes across Bangladesh,
Bhutan, India, Indonesia, Nepal and Myanmar.
The Tiger Programme is based on three pillars:
1. Protecting tiger species and their prey from the threat of poaching;
2. Preserving tiger habitats, including core habitats, buffer zones and corridors;
3. Supporting human populations living in tiger landscapes.
https://www.iucn.org/theme/species/our-work/action-ground/integrated-tiger-habitat-
conservation-programme
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 25 Insights IAS
25. Consider the following statements regarding the Plastic Waste Management
Rules, 2016:
1. It aims to increase minimum thickness of plastic carry bags from 40 to
80 microns.
2. Rural areas have been brought under the ambit of these Rules.
3. Persons organising public events (marriage functions, religious
gatherings, public meetings etc) have been made responsible for
management of waste generated from these events.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
Solution: B
• The Indian Army has removed 130 tonnes of garbage from the Siachen Glacier
and is cutting potential trash in rations.
• To address the issue of scientific plastic waste management, the Plastic Waste
(Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 were notified in 2011, which included
plastic waste management. The Government has notified the Plastic Waste
Management Rules, 2016, in suppression of the earlier Plastic Waste
(Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 aim to:
• Increase minimum thickness of plastic carry bags from 40 to 50 microns and
stipulate minimum thickness of 50 micron for plastic sheets also to facilitate
collection and recycle of plastic waste.
• Expand the jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal area to rural areas,
because plastic has reached rural areas also
• To bring in the responsibilities of producers and generators, both in plastic
waste management system and to introduce collect back system of plastic
waste by the producers/brand owners, as per extended producers responsibility
• To introduce collection of plastic waste management fee through pre-
registration of the producers, importers of plastic carry bags/multilayered
packaging and vendors selling the same for establishing the waste
management system
• To promote use of plastic waste for road construction as per Indian Road
Congress guidelines or energy recovery, or waste to oil etc. for gainful utilization
of waste and also address the waste disposal issue; to entrust more
responsibility on waste generators, namely payment of user charge as
prescribed by local authority, collection and handing over of waste by the
institutional generator, event organizers.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 26 Insights IAS
• An eco-friendly product, which is a complete substitute of the plastic in all uses,
has not been found till date. In the absence of a suitable alternative, it is
impractical and undesirable to impose a blanket ban on the use of plastic all
over the country. The real challenge is to improve plastic waste management
systems.
What’s new in Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
• Rural areas have been brought in ambit of these Rules since plastic has
reached to rural areas also. Responsibility for implementation of the rules is
given to Gram Panchayat.
• First time, responsibility of waste generators is being introduced. Individual
and bulk generators like offices, commercial establishments, industries are to
segregate the plastic waste at source, handover segregated waste, pay user
fee as per bye-laws of the local bodies.
• Plastic products are left littered after the public events (marriage functions,
religious gatherings, public meetings etc) held in open spaces. First time,
persons organising such events have been made responsible for management
of waste generated from these events.
• Use of plastic sheet for packaging, wrapping the commodity except those
plastic sheet’s thickness, which will impair the functionality of the product are
brought under the ambit of these rules. A large number of commodities are
being packed/wrapped in to plastic sheets and thereafter such sheets are left
for littered. Provisions have been introduced to ensure their collection and
channelization to authorised recycling facilities.
• Extended Producer Responsibility: Earlier, EPR was left to the discretion of
the local bodies. First time, the producers (i.e persons engaged in manufacture,
or import of carry bags, multi-layered packaging and sheets or like and the
persons using these for packaging or wrapping their products) and brand
owners have been made responsible for collecting waste generated from their
products. They have to approach local bodies for formulation of plan/system for
the plastic waste management within the prescribed timeframe.
• State Pollution Control Board (SPCBs) will not grant/renew registration of
plastic bags, or multi-layered packaging unless the producer proposes the
action plan endorsed by the concerned State Development Department.
• Producers to keep a record of their vendors to whom they have supplied raw
materials for manufacturing carry bags, plastic sheets, and multi-layered
packaging. This is to curb manufacturing of these products in unorganised
sector.
• The entry points of plastic bags/plastic sheets/multi-layered packaging in to
commodity supply chain are primarily the retailers and street vendors. They
have been assigned the responsibility of not to provide the commodities in
plastic bags/plastic sheets/multi-layered packaging which do not conform to
these rules. Otherwise, they will have to pay the fine.
• Plastic carry bag will be available only with shopkeepers/street vendors pre-
registered with local bodies on payment of certain registration fee. The amount
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 27 Insights IAS
collected as registration fee by local bodies is to be used for waste
management.
• Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been mandated to formulate the
guidelines for thermoset plastic (plastic difficult to recycle). In the earlier Rules,
there was no specific provision for such type of plastic.
• Manufacturing and use of non-recyclable multi-layered plastic to be phased in
two years.
Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2018:
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has notified the
Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2018 on March 27, 2018.
• The amended Rules lay down that the phasing out of Multilayered Plastic
(MLP) is now applicable to MLP, which are “non-recyclable, or non-energy
recoverable, or with no alternate use.”
• The amended Rules also prescribe a central registration system for the
registration of the producer/importer/brand owner. The Rules also lay down that
any mechanism for the registration should be automated and should take into
account ease of doing business for producers, recyclers and manufacturers.
The centralised registration system will be evolved by Central Pollution Control
Board (CPCB) for the registration of the producer/importer/brand owner. While
a national registry has been prescribed for producers with presence in more
than two states, a state-level registration has been prescribed for smaller
producers/brand owners operating within one or two states.
DAY – 14 (InstaTest-14)
26. Consider the following statements regarding the alluvial plains
1. Bhangar is a narrow belt parallel to the Shiwalik foothills where the
streams and rivers coming from the mountains disappear.
2. In Tarai belt, most of the streams and rivers re-emerge and create
marshy and swampy conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 28 Insights IAS
From the north to the south, Northern Plains can be divided into three major zones:
the Bhabar, the Tarai and the alluvial plains. The alluvial plains can be further divided
into the Khadar and the Bhangar.
Bhabar is a narrow belt ranging between 8-10 km parallel to the Shiwalik foothills at
the break-up of the slope. As a result of this, the streams and rivers coming from the
mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders, and at times, disappear in
this zone.
South of the Bhabar is the Tarai belt, with an approximate width of 10-20 km where
most of the streams and rivers re-emerge without having any properly demarcated
channel, thereby, creating marshy and swampy conditions known as the Tarai.
This has a luxurious growth of natural vegetation and houses a varied wildlife. The
south of Tarai is a belt consisting of old and new alluvial deposits known as the
Bhangar and Khadar respectively.
27. Consider the following statements regarding River Jhelum
1. Srinagar is located on the banks of Jhelum river.
2. Jhelum is in its mature stage and forms meanders in the Kashmir valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
Srinagar, capital city of the state of Jammu and Kashmir is located on the banks of
Jhelum river. Dal Lake in Srinagar presents an interesting physical feature.
Jhelum in the valley of Kashmir is still in its youth stage and yet forms meanders – a
typical feature associated with the mature stage in the evolution of fluvial land form.
28. Consider the following statements regarding Oxytocin
1. It acts both as a hormone and as a brain neurotransmitter.
2. The release of oxytocin regulate female reproductive functions namely
Childbirth and Breast-feeding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 29 Insights IAS
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
About Oxytocin:
• Oxytocin has also been dubbed the hug hormone, cuddle chemical, moral
molecule, and the bliss hormone due to its effects on behavior, including its role
in love and in female reproductive biological functions in reproduction.
• Oxytocin is a hormone that is made in the brain, in the hypothalamus. It is
transported to, and secreted by, the pituitary gland, which is located at the
base of the brain.
• It acts both as a hormone and as a brain neurotransmitter.
• The release of oxytocin by the pituitary gland acts to regulate two female
reproductive functions: Childbirth and Breast-feeding.
Extra Reading:
Indian Medical Association has said Karnataka Antibiotics and Pharmaceuticals Ltd
(KAPL) neither has the experience nor the capacity to handle Oxytocin production.
What’s the issue?
• The Delhi high court had quashed the Centre’s December 14, 2018 notification,
which had banned its sale by private manufacturers and retail chemists, saying
the sale was allowed. Essentially, this meant that only KAPL could produce the
drug as there is no other public sector enterprise doing so. However, Delhi high
court quashed the amended order too. The central government moved
Supreme Court against the Delhi high court order.
What’s the concern now?
• KAPL has said bulk production of the drug would take three-four years. This
would put lives of many pregnant women at risk as it would lead to acute
shortages.
• With the ban, the government did not adequately weigh in the danger of its
order to the users of oxytocin, nor consider the deleterious effect of possible
restricted supply if manufacture is confined to one unit on pregnant women and
young mothers.
29. Consider the following statements regarding Dooars or Duars
1. Duars are the longitudinal valley lying between lesser Himalayas and
shiwaliks
2. The Duars are found in northeastern India.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 30 Insights IAS
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Duar formations
• As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the
Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik
formations.
• In place of the Shiwaliks here, the ‘duar formations’ are important, which have
also been used for the development of tea gardens.
• The Dooars or Duars are the alluvial floodplains in northeastern India that
lie south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas and north of the Brahmaputra
River basin.
• The Duars are found in northeastern India.
30. Arrange the following hills from south to north
1. Dafla Hills
2. Mizo Hills
3. Naga Hills
Which of the following order given below is correct?
(a) 1 3 2
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 1
Solution: D
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 31 Insights IAS
31. Consider the following statements regarding eastern coastal plain of India
1. The eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent
coast.
2. The eastern coastal plain provides natural conditions for the
development of ports and harbours.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 32 Insights IAS
• The western coastal plains are an example of submerged coastal plain. It
is believed that the city of Dwaraka which was once a part of the Indian
mainland situated along the west coast is submerged under water. Because of
this submergence it is a narrow belt and provides natural conditions for
the development of ports and harbours.
• As compared to the western coastal plain, the eastern coastal plain is
broader and is an example of an emergent coast. There are well developed
deltas here, formed by the rivers flowing eastward in to the Bay of Bengal.
These include the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the
Kaveri. Because of its emergent nature, it has less number of ports and
harbours. The continental shelf extends up to 500 km into the sea, which makes
it difficult for the development of good ports and harbours.
32. 11-degree channel separates
(a) Lakshadweep and Maldives
(b) Minicoy and rest of Lakshadweep
(c) Amini Island and the Canannore Island
(d) None of the above
Solution: C
• The islands of the Arabian sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. These are
scattered between 8°N-12°N and 71°E -74°E longitude. The entire island group
is built of coral deposits. There are approximately 36 islands of which 11 are
inhabited.
• The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Elevene-degree channel,
north of which is the Amini Island and to the south of the Canannore Island.
• The Islands of this archipelago have storm beaches consisting of
unconsolidated pebbles, shingles, cobbles and boulders on the eastern
seaboard.
33. Which of the following is/are the right bank tributaries of river Indus?
1. Kabul river
2. Khurram
3. Tochi
4. Gomal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 33 Insights IAS
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
The Indus receives a number of Himalayan tributaries such as the Shyok, the Gilgit,
the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting and the Dras.
It finally emerges out of the hills near Attock where it receives the Kabul river on its
right bank. The other important tributaries joining the right bank of the Indus are the
Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the Sangar. They all originate in the
Sulaiman ranges.
34. Consider the following statements regarding social forestry
1. Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same
land inclusive of the waste patches.
2. Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community
land such as the village pasture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• Rural forestry lays emphasis on promotion of agro-forestry and community-
forestry.
• Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land
inclusive of the waste patches.
• It combines forestry with agriculture, thus, altering the simultaneous production
of food, fodder, fuel, timber and fruit.
• Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land
such as the village pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips along
railway lines, and schools etc.
• Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees
for commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm lands.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 34 Insights IAS
35. Consider the following statements regarding Elephant Endotheliotropic
Herpesvirus (EEHV)
1. It is a rare viral disease that causes fatal disease in young Asian
Elephants.
2. It is lethal for young elephants between the ages of 1 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Elephant Endotheliotropic Herpesvirus (EEHV)
• Elephant Endotheliotropic Herpesvirus (EEHV) is a rare viral disease that
causes fatal disease in young Asian Elephants.
• When it is triggered, the elephant dies of massive internal bleeding and
symptoms which are hardly visible.
• Some elephants show symptoms such as reduced appetite, nasal discharge
and swollen glands.
• The disease is usually fatal, with a short course of 28-35 hours.
• It is lethal for young elephants between the ages of 1 and 12.
• There is no true cure for herpesviruses in animals or in humans.
• If a young elephant dies before reproducing, it affects the population of the
species in the concerned geography.
• It has killed five elephants in Nandan Kanan Zoo & Chandaka forest in
Odisha.
36. Which of the following are east flowing small rivers?
1. Penner
2. Palar
3. Periyar
4. Kalinadi
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 35 Insights IAS
Solution: A
37. Consider the following statements regarding western cyclonic disturbances
1. They enter the Indian subcontinent during the winter months and are
brought by the westerly jet stream.
2. A decrease in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an
advance in the arrival of these cyclones’ disturbances.
3. It is highly beneficial for kharif crops.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from the
west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean
Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 36 Insights IAS
An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the
arrival of these cyclones’ disturbances.
In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean Sea
cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the
amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.
38. El-Nino results in:
1. The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation
2. Increase in the amount of planktons
3. Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
El-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years,
bringing drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world.
• The system involves oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the
appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and
affects weather in many places including India.
• El-Nino is merely an extension of the warm equatorial current which gets
replaced temporarily by cold Peruvian current or Humbolt current (locate these
currents in your atlas). This current increases the temperature of water on the
Peruvian coast by 10°C.
This results in:
(i) the distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation;
(ii) irregularities in the evaporation of sea water;
(iii) reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of
fish in the sea.
39. Consider the following statements
1. Small Farmer’s Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) is an autonomous
society promoted by Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. SFAC is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 37 Insights IAS
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
SFAC is an Autonomous Society promoted by Ministry of Agriculture,
Cooperation and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
• It is registered under Societies Registration Act 1860. The Society is also
registered as Non-Banking Financial Institution by Reserve Bank of India.
• The role of State SFACs is to aggressively promote agribusiness project
development in their respective States.
40. Consider the following statements regarding Red soil
1. Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of high rainfall
2. They are generally rich in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern
and southern part of the Deccan Plateau. Along the piedmont zone of the Western
Ghat, long stretch of area is occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow and red soils are also
found in parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle
Ganga plain.
• The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline
and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
• The fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas coarse-
grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility. They are generally
poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 38 Insights IAS
41. Consider the following statements regarding local winds in northwest India
1. Loo are dry and hot winds.
2. Dust storms bring a welcome respite from the oppressing heat
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
• In the heart of the ITCZ in the northwest, the dry and hot winds known as ‘Loo’,
blow in the afternoon, and very often, they continue to well into midnight.
• Dust storms in the evening are very common during May in Punjab, Haryana,
Eastern Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
• These temporary storms bring a welcome respite from the oppressing heat
since they bring with them light rains and a pleasant cool breeze.
42. Consider the following statements regarding MANI App
1. It is launched by RBI
2. It aims to provide digital education for rural women.
3. The app authenticates a note as being either genuine or counterfeit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
MANI App:
• Reserve Bank of India, RBI has launched a mobile app, MANI, Mobile Aided
Note Identifier.
• It aims to help visually challenged people to identify denomination of currency
notes.
• Through the downloaded app, users can scan the notes using the camera.
• The audio output will give the result in Hindi and English.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 39 Insights IAS
• The mobile application does not authenticate a note as being either genuine or
counterfeit.
43. The Accessible India Campaign has been launched by
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Solution: D
The Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) under
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has developed a Management
Information System (MIS) for stakeholders of Accessible India Campaign (AIC).
• The portal will bring all the nodal ministries, and States/UTs on a single platform
for monitoring the progress being made against each target of AIC.
About Accessible India Campaign:
• Accessible India Campaign (AIC) is the nationwide flagship campaign of the
Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD), Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Aim: The aim of the Campaign is to make a barrier free and conducive
environment for Divyangjans all over the country. The campaign has the vision
to build an inclusive society in which equal opportunities are provided for the
growth and development of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) so that they can
lead productive, safe and dignified lives.
• Implementation: For creating universal accessibility for Persons with
Disabilities, the campaign has been divided into three verticals: Built
Environment; Transport and Information & Communication Technology (ICT)
ecosystem.
Targets:
• Completing accessibility audit of at least 25-50 most important government
buildings in 50 cities and making them fully accessible by the end of this year.
• Making 50% of all the government buildings of NCT and all the State capitals
fully accessible by December 2018.
• Completing accessibility audit of 50% of government buildings and making
them fully accessible in 10 most important cities/towns of States not covered in
targets (i) and (ii) by December 2019.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 40 Insights IAS
• Accessible India Campaign is in line with the Article 9 of UNCRPD (UN
Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities) to which India is a
signatory since 2007.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/19/accessible-india-campaign/
44. According to Koeppen’s scheme, Monsoon with dry season in summer can be
found in which parts of India
(a) Northeastern India
(b) Central India
(c) South east India
(d) South west India
Solution: C
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 41 Insights IAS
45. Consider the following statements regarding The High-Biodiversity Wilderness
Areas (HBWA)
1. HBWA approach has been developed by IUCN.
2. Wilderness areas are classified as areas ≥10,000 km2 that are based on
the world’s terrestrial ecoregions.
3. India has no High-Biodiversity Wilderness Areas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Solution: C
The High Biodiversity Wilderness Areas (HBWA) approach has been developed
by Conservation International (CI). HBWAs consist of 5 of the 24 major wilderness
areas that hold globally significant levels of biodiversity, as identified by Mittermeier et
al (2002).
• The 5 HBWAs are Amazonia, the Congo forests of Central Africa, New
Guinea, the Miombo-Mopane woodlands of Southern Africa (including the
Okavango Delta), and the North American desert complex of northern
Mexico and the Southwestern part of United States of America.
• The intact portion of these areas covers 8,981,000 km2 (76% of their original
extent), and 6.1% of the planet’s land area. 2 The geographic boundaries of the
HBWAs coincide with the boundaries of several amalgamated WWF
ecoregions.
Criteria:
• Wilderness areas are classified as areas ≥10,000 km2 that are based on the
world’s terrestrial ecoregions, with a human population density outside urban
areas of ≤5 people per km2 that retain at least 70% of their historical habitat
extent (500 years ago). This analysis yielded 24 wilderness areas. 2 The HBWA
are the top five wilderness areas based on endemic biodiversity (at least 0.5%
of the world’s plants).
India has no High-Biodiversity Wilderness Areas
http://www.biodiversitya-z.org/content/high-biodiversity-wilderness-areas-hbwa
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 42 Insights IAS
46. Consider the following statements regarding The United Nations Relief and
Works Agency
1. It is a relief and human development agency
2. It is the only UN agency dedicated to helping refugees from a specific
region or conflict
3. It is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN Member
States.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
Solution: D
India has contributed USD 5 million in 2019 to UN Palestine refugee agency. The
contribution was provided in support of UNRWA’s core programmes and services,
including education, health care, and relief and social services.
Background:
• India has increased its annual financial contribution fourfold to the United
Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East
(UNRWA) core budget, from USD 1.25 million in 2016 to USD 5 million in 2018.
UNRWA:
• It is a relief and human development agency that was established in 8
December 1949.
• Following the 1948 Arab-Israeli conflict, UNRWA was established by United
Nations General Assembly to carry out direct relief and works programmes for
Palestine refugees. The Agency began operations on 1 May 1950.
• UNRWA is the only UN agency dedicated to helping refugees from a specific
region or conflict and is separate from UNHCR.
• Funding: UNRWA is funded almost entirely by voluntary contributions from UN
Member States. UNRWA also receives some funding from the Regular Budget
of the United Nations, which is used mostly for international staffing costs.
• Aid is provided in five areas of operation: Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, the Gaza
Strip and the West Bank, including East Jerusalem; aid for Palestinian
refugees outside these five areas is provided by UNHCR.
Functions:
• UNRWA has been providing health, education, relief and social services, as
well as emergency humanitarian assistance, across its five fields of operation
Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, West Bank and the Gaza Strip since 1950.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 43 Insights IAS
• The Agency currently serves 5.4 million Palestinian refugees 20% of the world’s
refugees.
Challenges before UNRWA:
• The UN agency is going through a difficult financial situation due to voluntary
contributions from a limited donor base.
• There is a projected shortfall of more than USD 200 million against a funding
requirement of approximately USD 1.2 billion for UNRWA this year.
• The shortfall may impact the agency’s ability to provide essential services to
the Palestine refugees, notably in the fields of education, health, and assistance
to the most vulnerable refugees.
• Besides, a corruption scandal involving sexual misconduct, nepotism,
retaliation against whistleblowers and lots of business-class travel has gripped
the United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near
East.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/08/un-palestine-refugee-agency-2/
47. Consider the following statements regarding ‘One Nation One Ration Card’
scheme
1. It aims to provide portability of food security benefits all across the nation.
2. It is launched by Ministry of Consumer Affairs and Food and Public
Distribution.
3. It would integrate the existing PDS systems/portals of States/UTs with
the Central systems/portals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
• Government has launched One Nation-One Ration Card scheme on pilot
basis in Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharastra and Gujarat. Families who
have food security cards can buy subsidized rice and wheat from any ration
shop in these states but their ration cards should be linked with Aadhar Number
to avail this service.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 44 Insights IAS
About the scheme:
• One Nation One Ration Card (RC) will ensure all beneficiaries especially
migrants can access PDS across the nation from any PDS shop of their own
choice.
• Benefits: no poor person is deprived of getting subsidized food grains under
the food security scheme when they shift from one place to another. It also aims
to remove the chance of anyone holding more than one ration card to avail
benefits from different states.
• Significance: This will provide freedom to the beneficiaries as they will not be
tied to any one PDS shop and reduce their dependence on shop owners and
curtail instances of corruption.
• It is launched by Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution.
• It would integrate the existing PDS systems/portals of States/UTs with the
Central systems/portals.
Challenges:
• Prone to corruption: Every state has its own rules for Public Distribution
System (PDS). If ‘One Nation, One Ration Card’ is implemented, it will further
boost corruption in an already corrupted Public Distribution System.
• The scheme will increase the woes of the common man and, the middlemen
and corrupt PDS shop owners will exploit them.
• Tamil Nadu has opposed the proposal of the Centre, saying it would result in
undesirable consequences and is against federalism.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/02/one-nation-one-ration-card-2/
48. Consider the following statements regarding Convention on International Trade
in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
1. It is an international agreement to regulate worldwide commercial trade
in wild animal and plant species
2. It is administered by the World Animal Foundation.
3. It is legally binding on the Parties, but it does not take the place of
national laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 45 Insights IAS
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
Flora (CITES):
• It is an International agreement to regulate worldwide commercial trade in wild
animal and plant species.
• It restricts trade in items made from such plants and animals, such as food,
clothing, medicine, and souvenirs.
• It was signed on March 3, 1973 (Hence world wildlife day is celebrated on
march 3).
• It is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• Secretariat— Geneva (Switzerland).
• It is legally binding on the Parties, but it does not take the place of national laws.
Classifications:
It classifies plants and animals according to three categories, or appendices, based
on how threatened. They are.
• Appendix I: It lists species that are in danger of extinction. It prohibits
commercial trade of these plants and animals except in extraordinary situations
for scientific or educational reasons.
• Appendix II species: They are those that are not threatened with extinction but
that might suffer a serious decline in number if trade is not restricted. Their trade
is regulated by permit.
• Appendix III species: They are protected in at least one country that is a
CITES member states and that has petitioned others for help in controlling
international trade in that species.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/08/22/cites-washington-convention-3/
49. Consider the following statements regarding Dadabhai Naoroji
1. He was the first Indian member of the British parliament.
2. He was Congress president for five times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
September 4, 2019 was the 194th birth anniversary of Dadabhai Naoroji, the “Grand
Old Man of India”, who was among the first leaders who stirred national
consciousness in the country. Born in 1825 at Navsari, in present-day Gujarat.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 46 Insights IAS
Key contributions:
• He was closely involved with the Indian National Congress in its early phase.
• He served as the first Indian member of the British parliament.
• His first agitation, in 1859, concerned recruitment to the Indian Civil Service.
• In 1865 and 1866, Naoroji helped found the London Indian Society and the
East India Association The two organisations sought to bring nationalist
Indians and sympathetic Britons on one platform.
• As the secretary of the East India Association, Naoroji travelled in India to
gather funds and raise national awareness.
• In 1885, Naoroji became a vice-president of the Bombay Presidency
Association, was nominated to the Bombay legislative council by Governor
Lord Reay, and helped form the Indian National Congress.
• He was Congress president thrice, in 1886, 1893, and 1906.
• In 1893, he helped form an Indian parliamentary committee to attend to
Indian interests.
• In 1895, he became a member of the royal commission on Indian
expenditure.
• Dadabhai Naoroji was among the key proponents of the ‘Drain Theory’,
disseminating it in his 1901 book ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/09/05/dadabhai-naoroji/
50. Sholas can be found in which of the following hills?
1. Nilgiris
2. Anaimalai hills
3. Palani hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
The temperate forests are called Sholas in the Nilgiris, Anaimalai and Palani hills.
Some of the other trees of this forest of economic significance include, magnolia,
laurel, cinchona and wattle. Such forests are also found in the Satpura and the
Maikal ranges.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 47 Insights IAS
DAY – 15 (InstaTest-15)
51. Consider the following statements regarding South Asia Satellite
1. It is an earth observation satellite launched by ISRO
2. It offers the services in different areas like tele-medicine, disaster
management and banking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
South Asia Satellite GSAT-9 is a Geostationary Communication satellite
launched by India. The primary objective of GSAT-9 is to provide various
communication applications in Ku-band with coverage over South Asian countries.
• India’s Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F09) successfully
launched the 2230 kg South |Asia Satellite (GSAT-9) into its planned
Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).
• The two solar arrays of GSAT-9 consisting of Ultra Triple Junction solar cells
generate about 3500 Watts of electrical power. Sun and Earth sensors as well
as gyroscopes provide orientation reference for the satellite. The Attitude and
Orbit Control System (AOCS) of the satellite maintains it’s orientation with the
help of momentum wheels, magnetic torquers and thrusters.
• The satellite’s propulsion system consists of a Liquid Apogee Motor (LAM) and
chemical thrusters using liquid propellants for initial orbit raising and station
keeping. The satellite also carries plasma thrusters, assisting in station keeping.
• It offers the services in different areas like tele-medicine, disaster management
and banking.
• India will set up five ground stations and more than 500 terminals in five
neighboring countries – Bhutan, Nepal, Maldives, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka.
• Pakistan did not join the project, stating that it was working on its own satellite,
but did offer “monetary and technical support”. India rejected Pakistani offers,
saying that it wanted the project to be a “gift” and multi-national collaboration
would be time consuming.
https://www.isro.gov.in/update/05-may-2017/gslv-successfully-launches-south-asia-
satellite
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 48 Insights IAS
52. Which of the following rivers is/are tributaries of River Krishna
1. Manjra
2. Koyna
3. Tungbhadra
4. Bhima
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: B
The Penganga, the Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra are Godavari’s principal
tributaries.
The Krishna is the second largest eastflowing Peninsular river which rises near
Mahabaleshwar in Sahyadri. Its total length is 1,401 km. The Koyna, the Tungbhadra
and the Bhima are its major tributaries.
Extra Learning :
About River Krishna:
Of the total catchment area of the Krishna, 27 per cent lies in Maharashtra, 44 per
cent in Karnataka and 29 per cent in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 49 Insights IAS
Important Dams on River Krishna:
1. Almatti Dam
2. Basava Sagar Dam
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. Srisailam Dam
5. Jurala Dam
6. Narayanpur Dam (downriver of Almatti Dam)
7. Pulichitnthala Dam is under construction.
8. Amar Dam
Other information:
• There are famous religious places such as Narsobawadi and Audumber on
the riverbanks close to Sangli.
• The riverbanks are also famous for the International Kalachakra Festival,
which was observed in front of the Dalai Lama in Amaravati. Amaravati served
as the capital of the Satavahana kings who ruled South India for 400 years and
a significant place for studying and gathering insights on Buddhism.
53. Which of the following are the reasons for dry season in Tamil Nadu during
monsoons
1. The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of
southwest monsoon.
2. It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-
west monsoon.
Which of the statement above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Why does Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during monsoon season. There are two
factors responsible for it:
(i) The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch
of southwest monsoon.
(ii) It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-
west monsoon.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 50 Insights IAS
Extra Learning:
54. Consider the following statements regarding contesting an election in India
1. A person is who not registered as a voter in any of the constituency in
India can also contest in election.
2. A person confined in jail can also vote in an election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
If I am not registered as a voter in any Constituency, can I contest election?
Ans. No
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 51 Insights IAS
• For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a
voter. Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from
contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Section 5
(c) of R. P. Act, 1951 has a similar provision for Assembly Constituencies.
• If you are a registered voter in Delhi, you can contest an election to Lok Sabha
from any constituency in the country except Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim,
as per Section 4 (c), 4 (cc) and 4 (ccc) of the R. P. Act, 1951.
Can a person confined in jail vote in an election?
Ans. No
• According to section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, no
person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison, whether under a
sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or is in the lawful
custody of the police.
https://eci.gov.in/faqs/elections/contesting-for-elections/faqs-contesting-for-elections-
r4/
55. Which of the following is/are considered as the pillars of Human development
1. Equity
2. Sustainability
3. Human Labour Productivity
4. Empowerment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
Solution: C
The Four Pillars of Human Development:
• Just as any building is supported by pillars, the idea of human development is
supported by the concepts of equity, sustainability, productivity and
empowerment.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 52 Insights IAS
Extra Learning:
Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The
opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race,
income and in the Indian case, caste. Yet this is very often not the case and happens
in almost every society. For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which
group the most of the school dropouts belong to. This should then lead to an
understanding of the reasons for such behaviour. In India, a large number of women
and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of
school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access
to knowledge.
Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have
sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities.
All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the
future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future
generations. A good example is about the importance of sending girls to school. If a
community does not stress the importance of sending its girl children to school, many
opportunities will be lost to these young women when they grow up. Their career
choices will be severely curtailed and this would affect other aspects of their lives. So
each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future
generations.
Productivity here means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human
work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people.
Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase
their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work
efficiency.
Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from
increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are
required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically
disadvantaged groups is of special importance.
56. Consider the following statements regarding Measuring of Earthquakes
1. The Mercalli scale measures the intensity of the earthquake shock.
2. The intensity scale takes into account the visible damage caused by the
event.
3. The range of intensity scale is from 0-10.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 53 Insights IAS
Solution: A
Measuring Earthquakes
The earthquake events are scaled either according to the magnitude or intensity of the
shock. The magnitude scale is known as the Richter scale. The magnitude relates to
the energy released during the quake. The magnitude is expressed in numbers, 0-10.
The Richter magnitude scale is a scale of numbers used to tell the power (or
magnitude) of earthquakes. Charles Richter developed the Richter Scale in 1935. His
scale worked like a seismogram, measured by a particular type of seismometer at a
distance of 100 kilometers (62 mi) from the earthquake.
The intensity scale is named after Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity scale
takes into account the visible damage caused by the event. The range of intensity
scale is from 1-12.
Extra Learning:
EFFECTS OF EARTHQUAKE:
Earthquake is a natural hazard. The following are the immediate hazardous effects of
earthquake:
(i) Ground Shaking
(ii) Differential ground settlement
(iii) Land and mud slides
(iv) Soil liquefaction
(v) Ground lurching
(vi) Avalanches
(vii) Ground displacement
(viii) Floods from dam and levee failures
(ix) Fires
(x) Structural collapse
(xi) Falling objects
(xii) Tsunami
The first six listed above have some bearings upon landforms, while others may be
considered the effects causing immediate concern to the life and properties of people
in the region.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 54 Insights IAS
57. Consider the following statements regarding Ashgabat agreement
1. It is a multimodal transport agreement that envisages the creation of an
International Transport and Transit Corridor connecting Central Asia with
the Persian Gulf.
2. Pakistan, Afghanistan and India have acceded to the Ashgabat
agreement.
3. The agreement was originally signed by Iran, India and Russia in 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 55 Insights IAS
Solution: B
• The Ashgabat agreement is a multimodal transport agreement between the
governments of Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Pakistan,
India and Oman for creating an international transport and transit corridor
facilitating transportation of goods between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.
• The agreement was originally signed by Iran, Oman, Qatar, Turkmenistan and
Uzbekistan on April 25, 2011. Qatar subsequently withdrew from the agreement
in 2013, the same year Kazakhstan applied for membership, which was
eventually approved in 2015. Pakistan has also joined the Agreement from
November 2016. India formally joined in February 2018
• The agreement came into force in April 2016. Ashgabat in Turkmenistan is the
depository state for the agreement
• Afghanistan has not acceded the Ashagabat agreement.
https://idsa.in/idsacomments/significance-of-india-joining-the-ashgabat-
agreement_p-stobdan-120218
58. Consider the following statements regarding Plate tectonics
1. McKenzie and Parker came out with the concept of Plate Tectonics.
2. A tectonic plate is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock,
generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Plate tectonics
Since the advent of the concept of sea floor spreading, the interest in the problem of
distribution of oceans and continents was revived. It was in 1967, McKenzie and
Parker and also Morgan, independently collected the available ideas and came out
with another concept termed Plate Tectonics. A tectonic plate (also called lithospheric
plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both
continental and oceanic lithosphere.
Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere as rigid units. The lithosphere
includes the crust and top mantle with its thickness range varying between 5 and100
km in oceanic parts and about 200 km in the continental areas.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 56 Insights IAS
A plate may be referred to as the continental plate or oceanic plate depending on
which of the two occupy a larger portion of the plate. Pacific plate is largely an oceanic
plate whereas the Eurasian plate may be called a continental plate.
The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven
major and some minor plates. Young Fold Mountain ridges, trenches, and/or faults
surround these major plates.
Extra Learning:
The major plates are as follows :
I. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
II. North American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the South American
plate along the Caribbean islands) plate
III. South American (with western Atlantic floor separated from the North American
plate along the Caribbean islands) plate
IV. Pacific plate
V. India-Australia-New Zealand plate
VI. Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
VII. Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate.
Some important minor plates are listed below:
(i) Cocos plate : Between Central America and Pacific plate
(ii) Nazca plate : Between South America and Pacific plate
(iii) Arabian plate : Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
(iv) Philippine plate: Between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 57 Insights IAS
59. Consider the following statements regarding Mixed Farming
1. Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry.
2. Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.
3. Crop rotation and intercropping play an important role in maintaining soil
fertility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Mixed Farming
• This form of agriculture is found in the highly developed parts of the world, e.g.
North-western Europe, Eastern North America, parts of Eurasia and the
temperate latitudes of Southern continents.
• Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are
wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops. Fodder crops are an
important component of mixed farming. Crop rotation and intercropping play an
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 58 Insights IAS
important role in maintaining soil fertility. Equal emphasis is laid on crop
cultivation and animal husbandry. Animals like cattle, sheep, pigs and poultry
provide the main income along with crops.
• Mixed farming is characterized by high capital expenditure on farm machinery
and building, extensive use of chemical fertilizers and green manures and also
by the skill and expertise of the farmers.
60. Consider the following statements regarding Fall armyworm
1. It is an insect native to tropical and subtropical regions of the Americas.
2. It is an invasive species impacting the productivity of maize, rice and
sugarcane in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Fall Armyworm (FAW), or Spodoptera frugiperda, is an insect that is native to
tropical and subtropical regions of the Americas.
In the absence of natural control or good management, it can cause significant
damage to crops. It prefers maize, but can feed on more than 80 additional species of
crops, including rice, sorghum, millet, sugarcane, vegetable crops and cotton.
http://www.fao.org/fall-armyworm/en/
61. Arrange the following cities of India from north to south
1. Agra
2. Latur
3. Gandhinagar
4. Delhi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 1 3 2 4
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 59 Insights IAS
Solution: A
62. Consider the following statements regarding Laterite Soil
1. The laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
2. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium.
3. Red laterite soils are suitable for tree crops like cashewnut.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 60 Insights IAS
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Laterite Soil
Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘Later’ which means brick. The laterite
soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall. These are the result of
intense leaching due to tropical rains. With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and
soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. Humus content of the
soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature. These soils are
poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash
are in excess. Hence, laterites are not suitable for cultivation; however, application of
manures and fertilisers are required for making the soils fertile for cultivation.
Red laterite soils in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala are more suitable for tree
crops like cashewnut.
Laterite soils are widely cut as bricks for use in house construction. These soils have
mainly developed in the higher areas of the Peninsular plateau. The laterite soils are
commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly
areas of Odisha and Assam.
Extra Learning:
• The National Bureau of Soil
Survey and the Land Use
Planning an Institute under
the control of the Indian
Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR) did a lot of
studies on Indian soils.
• In their effort to study soil and
to make it comparable at the
international level, the ICAR
has classified the Indian soils
on the basis of their nature
and character as per the
United States Department of
Agriculture (USDA) Soil
Taxonomy.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 61 Insights IAS
On the basis of genesis, colour, composition and location, the soils of India have been
classified into:
(i) Alluvial soils
(ii) Black soils
(iii) Red and Yellow soils
(iv) Laterite soils
(v) Arid soils
(vi) Saline soils
(vii) Peaty soils
(viii) Forest soils
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 62 Insights IAS
63. Consider the following statements regarding Irrawaddy Dolphins
1. They usually live in brackish water.
2. Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary is the natural habitat of it
3. It is a least concerned species as per IUCN status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
Solution: C
• The Irrawaddy dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) is a euryhaline species of
oceanic dolphin found in discontinuous subpopulations near sea coasts and in
estuaries and rivers in parts of the Bay of Bengal and Southeast Asia.
• It is inhabiting in the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary and Gahirmatha
Marine Sanctuary. Its habitat range extends from the Bay of Bengal to New
Guinea and the Philippines
• It is an endangered species
• The protection of the Irrawaddy dolphin is crucial for the overall health of the
Mekong River—home to an estimated 1,100 species of fish. The Irrawaddy
dolphin is also regarded as a sacred animal by both Khmer and Lao people,
and is an important source of income and jobs for communities involved in
dolphin-watching ecotourism.
https://www.worldwildlife.org/species/irrawaddy-dolphin
64. Consider the following statements regarding Coriolis Force
1. It deflects the wind to left the direction in the northern hemisphere and to
the right in the southern hemisphere.
2. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 63 Insights IAS
• The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface
experiences friction. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind
movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the
Coriolis force. Thus, the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to
the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional
force and the Coriolis force. In addition, the gravitational force acts downward.
Coriolis Force
• The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This
force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in
1844. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and
to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind
velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of
latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
• The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The
pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure
gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the
deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating
perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around
it. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to
the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is
the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.
65. Which of the following vegetations can be found in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
1. Swamps
2. Dry and moist deciduous
3. Wet evergreen forests
4. Dry scrubs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve possesses different habitat types, unspoilt areas of
natural vegetation types with several dry scrubs, dry and moist deciduous, semi-
evergreen and wet evergreen forests, evergreen sholas, grasslands and swamps. It
includes the largest known population of two endangered animal species, namely the
Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed macaque. The largest south Indian population of
elephant, tiger, gaur, sambar and chital as well as a good number of endemic and
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 64 Insights IAS
endangered plants are also found in this reserve. The habitat of a number of tribal
groups remarkable for their traditional modes of harmonious use of the environment
are also found here.
Extra Learning:
• Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under
UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote
sustainable development based on local community efforts and sound science.
The programme of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971. The
purpose of the formation of the biosphere reserve is to conserve in situ all forms
of life, along with its support system, in its totality, so that it could serve as a
referral system for monitoring and evaluating changes in natural ecosystems.
The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in 1979, since then the
network of biosphere reserves has increased to 631 in 119 countries across the
world
66. The Community Policing Scheme ‘Prahari’ has been launched by
(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat
(c) Haryana
(d) Delhi
Solution: D
Community policing scheme ‘Prahari’:
• Launched by Delhi Police.
• To prevent crime and maintain law and order in Delhi.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 65 Insights IAS
• Under this scheme, civil personnel such as chowkidars and security guards
deployed in the commercial and VIP areas will act as the eyes and ears of the
police.
• Significance: The move will help to bring professionalism in the work of security
guards by giving them appropriate training and enabling frequent police-Prahari
interaction and co-operation.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-19-
october-2019/
67. Consider the following pairs regarding the local winds with the places of their
origin
1. Fohn: Andes
2. Chinook: Rockies
3. Harmattan: Guinea Coast
4. Zonda: Alps
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Solution: B
Differences in the heating and cooling of earth surfaces and the cycles those develop
daily or annually can create several common, local or regional winds.
Local winds
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 66 Insights IAS
68. Which of the following tree species belong to the Moist deciduous forests
1. Teak
2. Sal
3. Amla
4. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
• Tropical Deciduous forests are the most widespread forests in India.
• They are also called the monsoon forests. They spread over regions which
receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. On the basis of the availability of water,
these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous.
• The Moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which
record rainfall between 100-200 cm. These forests are found in the
northeastern states along the foothills of Himalayas, eastern slopes of the
Western Ghats and Odisha. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul,
kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of these forests.
Extra Learning:
On the basis of certain common features such as predominant vegetation type and
climatic regions, Indian forests can be divided into the following groups:
TYPES OF FORESTS:
(i) Tropical Evergreen and Semi Evergreen forests
(ii) Tropical Deciduous forests
(iii) Tropical Thorn forests
(iv) Montane forests
(v) Littoral and Swamp forests.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 67 Insights IAS
69. Consider the following statements regarding Mount Kilimanjaro
1. It is a dormant volcano in Nairobi.
2. It is the highest mountain in Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 68 Insights IAS
Solution: B
Mount Kilimanjaro:
• Differently-abled man from Ernakulam district scales Mount Kilimanjaro.
• Mount Kilimanjaro is a dormant volcano in Tanzania.
• It is the highest mountain in Africa, with its summit about 4,900 metres (16,100
ft) from its base, and 5,895 metres (19,341 ft) above sea level.
• The first people known to have reached the summit of the mountain were Hans
Meyer and Ludwig Purtscheller, in 1889.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/18/insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-18-
october-2019/
70. Consider the following statements regarding Nor Westers
1. These are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in
Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka.
2. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 69 Insights IAS
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Nor Westers: These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam.
Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of
‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These showers are useful for tea,
jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms are known as “Bardoli Chheerha”.
Extra Learning:
Some Famous Local Storms of Hot Weather Season:
(i) Mango Shower : Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon
showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of
Karnataka. Locally, they are known as mango showers since they help in the
early ripening of mangoes.
(ii) Blossom Shower : With this shower, coffee flowers blossom in Kerala and
nearby areas.
(iii) Loo : Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from
Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna.
71. Arrange the following cities of West Asia from East to west
1. Bandar Abbas
2. Mosul
3. Aleppo
4. Manama
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 1 3 2 4
Solution: C
Extra Learning:
Bandar Abbas or Bandar-e ‘Abbās is a port city on the southern coast of Iran, on the
Persian Gulf. The city occupies a strategic position on the narrow Strait of Hormuz,
and it is the location of the main base of the Iranian Navy.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 70 Insights IAS
Aleppo is a city in Syria, which serves as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the
most populous Syrian governorate. With an official population of 4.6 million in 2010,
Aleppo was the largest Syrian city before the Syrian Civil War; however, it is now the
second-largest city in Syria, after the capital Damascus.
Mosul is a major city in northern Iraq. Located approximately 400 km north of
Baghdad, Mosul stands on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite the ancient Assyrian
city of Nineveh on the east bank. Mosul fell to IS in June 2014. The battle for Mosul
was a huge military operation to recapture Iraq’s second largest city from so-called
Islamic State (IS).
Manama, the modern capital of the Arabian Gulf island nation of Bahrain, has been
at the center of major trade routes since antiquity.
72. Who among the following ministry/organizations has launched RUCO
(Repurpose Used Cooking Oil) initiative?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 71 Insights IAS
(c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
(d) Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR),
Solution: C
To mark the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi on 2nd October as Rashtriya
Swachhta Diwas, publicity vans were flagged off in Delhi, to generate awareness
among the people about the OMCs’ initiative of converting Used Cooking Oil to
Biodiesel. The publicity involves wide social media campaign to spread awareness
and educate people about the ill effects of used cooking oil and ways to dispose it off
for converting it to biodiesel.
Concerns associated with the consumption of used cooking oil (UCO):
• During frying, several properties of oil are altered, Total Polar
Compounds(TPC) are formed on repeated frying.
• The toxicity of these compounds is associated with several diseases such as
hypertension, atherosclerosis, Alzheimer’s disease, liver diseases.
Limit set by FSSAI:
FSSAI has fixed a limit for Total Polar Compounds at 25 percent beyond which the
vegetable oil shall not be used.
What are Total Polar Compounds (TPC)?
The level of TPC increases every time oil is re-heated.
TPC accumulation in oil without food is slower than that in oil frying with food.
About RUCO:
Launched by FSSAI.
• The initiative will enable collection and conversion of used cooking oil to bio-
diesel.
• FSSAI wants businesses using more than 100 litres of oil for frying, to maintain
a stock register and ensure that RUCO is handed over to only registered
collecting agencies.
Potential and significance of the initiative:
• India has the potential to recover 220 crore litres of used cooking oil for the
production of biodiesel by 2022 through a co-ordinated action.
• While biodiesel produced from used cooking oil is currently very small, but a
robust ecosystem for conversion and collection is rapidly growing in India and
will soon reach a sizable scale.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 72 Insights IAS
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/02/ruco-repurpose-used-cooking-oil-
initiative-2/
73. Consider the following statements regarding National Disaster Response Fund
(NDRF)
1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audit the accounts of
NDRF.
2. It constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
3. It forms the part Public Accounts of Government of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
Centre approves additional financial assistance of Rs.1813.75 crore from National
Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) to the State of Karnataka and Bihar.
Background:
• The States of Karnataka and Bihar have apprised of the paucity of funds in the
SDRF account, resulting in delay in providing relief assistance to the affected
people and requested for release of advance additional financial assistance
from NDRF.
About NDRF:
• Defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act).
• It is a fund managed by the Central Government for meeting the expenses for
emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster
situation or disaster.
• Constituted to supplement the funds of the State Disaster Response Funds
(SDRF) of the states to facilitate immediate relief in case of calamities of a
severe nature.
• National Calamity Contingency Fund (NCCF) was renamed as National
Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) with the enactment of the Disaster
Management Act in 2005.
What is it to be used for?
• NDRF amount can be spent only towards meeting the expenses for emergency
response, relief and rehabilitation.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 73 Insights IAS
• For projects exclusively for the purpose of mitigation, i.e, measures aimed at
reducing the risk, impact or effect of a disaster or threatening disaster situation
a separate fund called National Disaster Mitigation Fund has to be constituted.
Sources of Financing NDRF:
• Financed through the levy of a cess on certain items, chargeable to excise and
customs duty, and approved annually through the Finance Bill.
• The requirement for funds beyond what is available under the NDRF is met
through general budgetary resources.
• Currently, a National Calamity Contingency Duty (NCCD) is levied to finance
the NDRF and additional budgetary support is provided as and when
necessary.
• A provision also exists in the DM Act to encourage any person or institution to
make a contribution to the NDRF.
Key features of NDRF:
• Located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve
Funds not bearing interest“.
• Monitoring: Department of Agriculture and Cooperation under Ministry of
Agriculture (MoA) monitors relief activities for calamities associated with
drought, hailstorms, pest attacks and cold wave /frost while rest of the natural
calamities are monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
• Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) audits the accounts of
NDRF.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/05/national-disaster-response-fund-ndrf/
74. Consider the following statements regarding Fronts
1. When an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called the
occluded front.
2. When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is
called the warm front.
3. When the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact
zone is a cold front.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 74 Insights IAS
The air with distinctive characteristics in terms of temperature and humidity is called
an airmass. It is defined as a large body of air having little horizontal variation in
temperature and moisture. The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form,
are called the source regions.
When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the
cold front, whereas if the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact
zone is a warm front. If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called
the occluded front. The fronts occur in middle latitudes and are characterized by
steep gradient in temperature and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in
temperature and cause the air to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation.
75. Consider the following statements regarding Guru Ravidas
1. His devotional songs were included in the Guru Granth Sahib.
2. He taught removal of social divisions of caste and gender, and promoted
unity in the pursuit of personal spiritual freedom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 75 Insights IAS
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Yielding to the protests against the Supreme Court-directed demolition of a Guru
Ravidas temple in south Delhi, the Centre has agreed to allot the same site to the
devotees to construct a new temple.
Who is Guru Ravidas?
• He was a poet and saint of the Bhakti movement.
• Born in Varanasi to the ‘untouchable’ leather tanners caste.
• He is believed to be a disciple of the bhakti saint-poet Ramanandaand a
contemporary of the bhakti saint-poet Kabir.
• One of his famous disciples was the saint, Mirabai.
• Ravidas’ devotional songs were included in the Sikh scriptures, Guru
Granth Sahib.
• The Panch Vani text of the Dadupanthi tradition within Hinduism also
includes numerous poems of Ravidas.
• Ravidas taught removal of social divisions of caste and gender, and
promoted unity in the pursuit of personal spiritual freedoms.
• Among Ravidas’s moral and intellectual achievements were the conception of
“Begampura”, a city that knows no sorrow; and a society where caste and class
have ceased to matter.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/19/guru-ravidas-2/
DAY – 16 (InstaTest-16)
76. Consider the following statements regarding Corruption Perceptions Index
1. It ranks around 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of
public sector corruption.
2. It is an index published annually by Transparency International
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 76 Insights IAS
Solution: C
The Corruption Perceptions Index is an index published annually by Transparency
International since 1995 which ranks countries “by their perceived levels of public
sector corruption, as determined by expert assessments and opinion surveys.
India has been ranked at the 80th position among 180 countries and territories in
the Corruption Perception Index (CPI) prepared by Transparency International.
Denmark and New Zealand have cornered the top spot, followed by Finland,
Singapore, Sweden and Switzerland in the top ten.
77. Consider the following statements regarding Inner Line Permit (ILP)
1. It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is
protected under the ILP system.
2. At present, it is required only in Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland.
3. The ILP is issued by the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Inner Line Permit (ILP)
• It is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that is
protected under the ILP system.
• At present, four Northeastern states are covered, namely, Arunachal Pradesh,
Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland. (The inclusion of Manipur in Inner Line
Permit was announced on 10 December 2019)
• Both the duration of stay and the areas allowed to be accessed for any non-
native are determined by the ILP.
• The ILP is issued by the concerned state government and can be availed both
by applying online or in person.
Extra Learning:
HISTORY of ILP:
• The Inner Line Permit is an extension of the Bengal Eastern Frontier
Regulation Act 1873. The Britishers framed regulations restricting entry in
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 77 Insights IAS
certain designated areas. This was done to protect the Crown’s interest in
certain states by preventing “British subjects” (Indians) from trading within these
regions.
• In 1950, the term ‘British subjects’ was replaced with ‘Citizens of India’. Today,
all non-natives require the permit. This was done to protect the indigenous tribal
communities of these states from exploitation.
What about foreigners?
An ILP is only valid for domestic tourists. For foreign tourists in:
• Manipur: No permit is required. But, have to register themselves.
• Mizoram: No permit is required. But, need to register.
• Nagaland: No permit is required. However, they need to register.
• Arunachal Pradesh: Tourists need a Protected Area Permit (PAP) or Restricted
Area Permit (RAP) from the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/03/02/inner-line-permit-ilp-2/
78. Consider the following statements regarding National Anthem of India
1. The National Anthem was first sung at the 1911 Calcutta session of the
Congress.
2. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted as the country’s National Anthem by the
Constituent Assembly of India on 16th August 1947 soon after
Independence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
About National Anthem :
• On December 27, 1911, the National Anthem was first sung at the Calcutta
session of the Congress. In 1912, the song was published under the title Bharat
Bidhata in the Tatwabodhini Patrika, which was the official publication of the
Brahmo Samaj and of which Tagore was the Editor.
• ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted as the country’s National Anthem by the
Constituent Assembly of India on January 24, 1950, the last day of its last
session.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 78 Insights IAS
Extra Learning:
• Reverence to the National Anthem is a Fundamental duty as per Article
51A (a) of the Constitution.
• Originally written in Bengali, it is the first of five stanzas of a poem written and
later set to notations by Rabindranath Tagore.
• The members of the Indian Delegation to the General Assembly of the United
Nations held at New York in 1947 gave a recording of Jana Gana Mana as the
country’s national anthem.
1) The full version of the Anthem shall be played on the following occasions: –
i) Civil and Military investitures;
ii) When National Salute (which means the Command “Rashtriya Salute –
Salami Shastr” to the accompaniment of the National Anthem is given on
ceremonial occasions to the President or to the Governor/Lieutenant
Governor within their respective States/ Union Territories;
iii) During parades – irrespective of whether any of the dignitaries referred to in
(ii) above is present or not;
iv) On arrival of the President at formal State functions and other functions
organized by the Government and mass functions and on his departure from
such functions;
v) Immediately before and after the President addresses the Nation over All
India Radio;
vi) On arrival of the Governor/Lieutenant Governor at formal State functions
within his State/Union Territory and on his departure from such functions;
vii) When the National Flag is brought on parade;
viii) When the Regimental Colours are presented;
ix) For hoisting of colours in the Navy.
2) The short version of the Anthem shall be played when drinking toasts in Messes.
3) The Anthem shall be played on any other occasion for which special orders have
been issued by the Government of India.
4) Normally the Anthem shall not be played for the Prime Minister, though there may
be special occasions when it may be played.
5) When the National Anthem is played by a band, the Anthem will be preceded by
a roll of drums to assist the audience to know that the National Anthem is going to
be played
A specific set of rules and regulations have been set by the Government of India to
oversee the proper and correct rendition of the National Anthem. The Prevention of
Insults to National Honour Act, 1971, was penned down by the Government of India
to prevent any intentional disrespect or insult towards the National Anthem of the
country. Offenders are punishable with up to three years of imprisonment as well as
monetary fine.
https://mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/NationalAnthem%28E%29_2.pdf
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 79 Insights IAS
79. Which of the following is/are the applications of Artificial Intelligence?
1. Assistance in surgeries
2. Personalized shopping
3. Financial Accounting
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: D
• Artificial intelligence (AI) is the ability of a computer program or a machine to
think and learn. It is also a field of study which tries to make computers “smart”.
• They work on their own without being encoded with commands.John McCarthy
came up with the name “artificial intelligence” in 1955.
• The term may also be applied to any machine that exhibits traits associated
with a human mind such as learning and problem-solving.
It has lot of applications in different fields like
• Financial Reporting
• Personalized shopping
• Assistance in surgeries
• Deep Learning
• Cyber Security
• Intelligence Gathering etc.
https://becominghuman.ai/10-powerful-examples-of-ai-applications-553f7f062d9f
Extra Reading:
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 80 Insights IAS
80. Consider the following statements regarding Central Waqf Council (CWC)
1. It is a non-statutory body set up by executive resolution for the purpose
of advising Centre on matters pertaining to working of the State Wakf
Boards and proper administration of the Wakfs in the country.
2. The secretary to Ministry of Minority affairs is the ex-officio chairperson
of the council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Central Waqf Council (CWC)
• Central Waqf Council is a statutory body under the administrative control of
the Ministry of Minority Affairs was set up in 1964 as per the provision given
in the Waqf Act, 1954 as Advisory Body to the Central Government on matters
concerning the working of the Waqf Boards and the due administration of
Auqaf.
• However, the role of the Council was expanded significantly under the
provisions of the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2013. The Council has been
empowered to advise the Central Government, State Governments and State
Waqf Boards.
• It will now issue directives to the boards/ State Government to furnish
information to the Council on the performance of the board particularly on their
financial performance, survey, revenue records, encroachment of Waqf
properties, Annual and Audit report etc under section 9 (4) of the act.
• It is a permanent dedication of movable or immovable properties for religious,
pious or charitable purposes as recognized by Muslim Law, given by
philanthropists.
• The Council is headed by a Chairperson, who is the Union Minister in charge
of Wakfs and there are maximum 20 other members, appointed by Government
of India as stipulated in the Wakf Act.
Extra Learning:
Major Functions of Central Waqf Council
• To advise Central Government, State Governments, State Waqf Boards on
matters concerning the working of the Boards and due administration of Auqaf.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 81 Insights IAS
• To monitor the implementation of the provisions of Waqf (Amendment) Act,
2013 in States and UTs.
• To render legal advice on protection and retrieval of the Waqf Properties and
for removal of encroachment etc.
• To implement the Scheme for Development of Urban Waqf Properties &
Identification of potential Waqf land for development by National Waqf
Development Corporation Ltd.
• To implement Educational and Women Welfare Schemes for skill development
and to empower the poor, especially Women.
• To implement the Scheme of Computerization of the State Waqf Boards
records, a Central sector scheme of Ministry of Minority Affairs.
• To seek necessary information from the State Government/Boards on the
performance of the State Waqf Boards as per the provision given in the Waqf
(Amendment) Act, 2013.
• To take up the Waqf matters with various departments of Central and State
Governments such as ASI, Railways, Revenue and Forest etc.
• To undertake awareness programmes to promote the interest of the Council
and to sensitize the Waqf institutions about their new roles and responsibilities.
81. Consider the following statements:
1. Reservation in promotion in public posts is a fundamental right.
2. Article 335 recognizes that special measures need to be adopted for
considering the claims of SCs and STs in order to bring them to a level-
playing field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Reservation in promotion in public posts not a fundamental right: SC.
• The Supreme Court has recently ruled that the states are not bound to provide
reservation in appointments and promotions and that there is no fundamental
right to reservation in promotions.
What has the court said?
• Reservation in promotion in public posts cannot be claimed as a fundamental
right.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 82 Insights IAS
• Articles 16 (4) and 16
(4-A) of the
Constitution does not
confer individuals with
a fundamental right to
claim reservation in
promotion. It only
empowers the State to
make a reservation in
matters of appointment
and promotion in favour
of the Scheduled
Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes, only if in the opinion of the State they are not adequately
represented in the services of the State.
• State governments are not bound to make a reservation and have
discretion in providing reservations.
• The judgment also noted that even the courts could not issue a mandamus
directing the States to provide reservation.
• Article 335 recognizes that special measures need to be adopted for
considering the claims of SCs and STs in order to bring them to a level-playing
field.
• In its landmark 1992 decision in Indra Sawhney vs Union of India, the
Supreme Court had held that reservations under Article 16(4) could only be
provided at the time of entry into government service but not in matters
of promotion.
• Supreme Court added that the principle would operate only prospectively
and not affect promotions already made and that reservation already provided
in promotions shall continue in operation for a period of five years from the date
of the judgment. It also ruled that the creamy layer can be and must be
excluded.
• On June 17, 1995, Parliament, acting in its constituent capacity, adopted the
seventy-seventh amendment by which clause (4A) was inserted into Article
16 to enable reservation to be made in promotion for SCs and STs. The validity
of the seventy-seventh and eighty-fifth amendments to the Constitution and of
the legislation enacted in pursuance of those amendments was challenged
before the Supreme Court in the Nagaraj case.
• Upholding the validity of Article 16 (4A), the court then said that it is an
enabling provision. “The State is not bound to make reservation for the SCs
and STs in promotions. But, if it seeks to do so, it must collect quantifiable data
on three facets — the backwardness of the class; the inadequacy of the
representation of that class in public employment; and the general efficiency
of service as mandated by Article 335 would not be affected”.
• The court ruled that the constitutional amendments do not abrogate the
fundamentals of equality.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 83 Insights IAS
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/10/reservation-in-promotion-in-public-
posts-not-a-fundamental-right-sc/
82. Which is the first state to pass a law against lynching in India?
(a) Kerala
(b) Manipur
(c) West Bengal
(d) Assam
Solution: B
• Manipur became the first to pass a remarkable law against lynching. The
Manipur law closely follows the Supreme Court’s prescriptions, creating a nodal
officer to control such crimes in every State, special courts and enhanced
punishments.
What is Lynching?
• Lynching is a premeditated extrajudicial killing by a group. It is most often used
to characterize informal public executions by a mob in order to punish an
alleged transgressor, punish a convicted transgressor, or intimidate a group.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/manipur-shows-the-way/article26007016.ece
83. Consider the following statements regarding National Security Act
1. It is a law that allows punitive detention, if authorities are satisfied that a
person is a threat to national security or law and order.
2. The person does not need to be charged during this period of detention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
National Security Act
• It is a stringent law that allows preventive detention for months, if authorities
are satisfied that a person is a threat to national security or law and order.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 84 Insights IAS
• The person does not need to be charged during this period of detention.
• The goal is to prevent the individual from committing a crime.
• It was promulgated on September 23, 1980, during the Indira Gandhi
government.
As per the National Security Act, the grounds for preventive detention of a person
include:
• acting in any manner prejudicial to the defense of India, the relations of India
with foreign powers, or the security of India.
• regulating the continued presence of any foreigner in India or with a view to
making arrangements for his expulsion from India.
• preventing them from acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the
State or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public
order or from acting in any manner prejudicial to the maintenance of supplies
and services essential to the community it is necessary so to do.
Duration:
• Under the National Security Act, an individual can be detained without a
charge for up to 12 months; the state government needs to be intimated that
a person has been detained under the NSA.
• A person detained under the National Security Act can be held for 10 days
without being told the charges against them.
Appeal: The detained person can appeal before a high court advisory board but they
are not allowed a lawyer during the trial.
Extra Learning:
Public Safety Act of Jammu and Kashmir:
• The Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act, 1978 (PSA) is a preventive
detention law under which a person is taken into custody to prevent them from
acting harmfully against “the security of the state or the maintenance of the
public order” in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir (now a union territory).
Whereas PSA applies only to Jammu and Kashmir, it is very similar to the
National Security Act that is used by the central and other state governments
of India for preventive detention
• Within four weeks of passing the detention order, the government has to refer
the case to an Advisory Board. This Advisory Board will have to give its
recommendations within eight weeks of the order. If the Board thinks that there
is cause for preventive detention, the government can hold the person up to
two years.
• Usually when a person is arrested, they have the right to legal representation
and can challenge the arrest. But, when a person is arrested under the PSA,
they do not have these rights before the Advisory Board unless sufficient
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 85 Insights IAS
grounds can be established that the detention is illegal. There have been cases
where the High Court has interfered and quashed the detention.
• According to Section 13(2), the detaining authority need not even inform the
detained individual as to the reason for the action, if it decides that it goes
against public interest.
• The Jammu and Kashmir Public Safety Act (PSA) received the assent of the
J&K Governor on April 8, 1978.
• The Act was introduced as a tough law to prevent the smuggling of timber and
keep the smugglers “out of circulation”.
• The law allows the government to detain any person above the age of 16
without trial for a period of two years.
• The PSA allows for administrative detention for up to two years “in the case of
persons acting in any manner prejudicial to the security of the State”, and for
administrative detention up to one year where “any person is acting in any
manner prejudicial to the maintenance of public order”.
• Detention orders under PSA can be issued by Divisional Commissioners or
District Magistrates.
• Section 22 of the Act provides protection for any action taken “in good faith”
under the Act: “No suit, prosecution or any other legal proceeding shall lie
against any person for anything done or intended to be done in good faith in
pursuance of the provisions of this Act.”
• Under Section 23 of the Act, the government is empowered to “make such
Rules consistent with the provisions of this Act, as may be necessary for
carrying out the objects of this Act”.
• In August 2018, the Act was amended to allow individuals to be detained under
the PSA outside the state as well.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/02/07/public-safety-act/
84. Consider the following statements regarding Section 144 of the Criminal
Procedure Code (Cr.PC)
1. It is imposed by District Magistrate, a sub- divisional Magistrate or any
other Executive Magistrate on behalf of the State Government.
2. The order under Section 144 shall remain in force indefinitely until
withdrawn by the government.
3. Section 144 empowers the authorities to block the internet access.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 86 Insights IAS
Solution: C
Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code (Cr.PC):
• It gives power to a District Magistrate, a sub- divisional Magistrate or any other
Executive Magistrate on behalf of the State Government to issue an order to
an individual or the general public in a particular place or area to “abstain from
a certain act” or “to take certain order with respect to certain property in his
possession or under his management”.
• This order can be passed against a particular individual or general public.
The order can be passed even ex-parte.
• As held by the Supreme Court, mere apprehension of danger is not a
sufficient ground to curb citizens’ rights by invoking Section 144 CrPC.
• Section 144 also empowers the authorities to block the internet access. In
the Anuradha Bhasin case (Kashmir Internet case- Bhasin Doctrine) and
many other cases, the court allowed an internet ban with constant examination
and review.
• Even Social Media activity can be monitored, or it can even be restricted.
Communication blockage can also be imposed, if it will strongly affect public
order.
Duration of Section 144 order:
• No order under Section 144 shall remain in force for more than two months
but the state government can extent the validity for two months and maximum
up to six months. It can be withdrawn at any point of time if situation becomes
normal.
85. Consider the following statements regarding Board of Financial Supervision
(BFS)
1. The Reserve Bank of India performs the supervisory function under the
guidance of the Board for Financial Supervision
2. It provides technical assistance for cooperative banks
3. The primary objective of BFS is to undertake consolidated supervision
of the financial sector
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) None
Solution: D
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 87 Insights IAS
The Reserve Bank of India performs the supervisory function under the guidance of
the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS). The Board was constituted in November
1994 as a committee of the Central Board of Directors of the Reserve Bank of India
under the Reserve Bank of India (Board for Financial Supervision) Regulations,
1994.
Objective
• The primary objective of BFS is to undertake consolidated supervision of the
financial sector comprising Scheduled Commercial and Co-operative
Banks, All India Financial Institutions, Local Area Banks, Small Finance Banks,
Payments Banks, Credit Information Companies, Non-Banking Finance
Companies and Primary Dealers.
Constitution
• The Board is constituted by co-opting four Directors from the Central Board as
Members and is chaired by the Governor. The Deputy Governors of the
Reserve Bank are ex-officio members. One Deputy Governor, traditionally, the
Deputy Governor in charge of supervision, is nominated as the Vice-Chairman
of the Board.
• In April 2018, a Sub-committee of the Board for Financial Supervision was
constituted, under Para 11 & 12 of the Reserve Bank of India (Board for
Financial Supervision) Regulations, 1994. The Sub-committee performs the
functions and exercises the powers of supervision and inspection under the
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, in
relation to Payments Banks, Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks, small
Foreign Banks, select scheduled Urban Co-operative Banks, select Non-
Banking Financial Companies and Credit Information Companies.
• The Sub-committee is chaired by the Deputy Governor in charge of supervision
and includes the three Deputy Governors and two Directors of the Central
Board as Members.
BFS Meetings
• The Board is required to meet normally once every month. It deliberates on
inspection reports, periodic reviews related to banking and non-banking sectors
and policy matters arising out of or having relevance to the supervisory
functions of the Reserve Bank.
• The BFS oversees the functioning of Department of Banking Supervision
(DBS), Department of Non-Banking Supervision (DNBS) and Department
of Co-operative Bank Supervision (DCBS) and gives directions on
regulatory and supervisory issues.
Functions
Some of the initiatives taken by the BFS include:
• Fine-tuning the supervisory processes adopted by the Bank for regulated
entities;
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 88 Insights IAS
• Introduction of off-site surveillance system to complement the on-site
supervision of regulated entities;
• Strengthening the statutory audit processes of banks and enlarging the role of
auditors in the supervisory process;
• Strengthening the internal defences within supervised institutions such as
corporate governance, internal control and audit functions, management
information and risk control systems, review of housekeeping in banks;
• Introduction of supervisory rating system for banks and financial institutions;
• Supervision of overseas operations of Indian banks, consolidated supervision
of banks;
• Technical assistance programme for cooperative banks;
• Introduction of scheme of Prompt Corrective Action Framework for weak banks;
• Guidance regarding fraud risk management framework in banks;
• Introduction of risk based supervision of banks;
• Introduction of an enforcement framework in respect of banks;
• Establishment of a credit registry in respect of large borrowers of supervised
institutions; and
• Setting up a subsidiary of RBI to take care of the IT requirements, including the
cyber security needs of the Reserve Bank and its regulated entities, etc.
https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/AboutusDisplay.aspx#FS
86. Which of the following act exempted the Governor-General and the Council
from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their
official capacity?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Amending Act of 1781
(c) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(d) Charter Act of 1793
Solution: B
Amending Act of 1781
• In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British
Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781, also known as the Act of
Settlement.
The features of this Act were as follows:
• It exempted the Governor-General and the Council from the jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity. Similarly, it
also exempted the servants of the company from the jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court for their official actions.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 89 Insights IAS
• It excluded the revenue matters and the matters arising in the collection of
revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• It provided that the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the
inhabitants of Calcutta. It also required the court to administer the personal law
of the defendants i.e., Hindus were to be tried according to the Hindu law and
Muslims were to be tried according to the Mohammedan law.
• It laid down that the appeals from the Provincial Courts could be taken to the
Governor-General-in-Council and not to the Supreme Court.
• It empowered the Governor-General-in Council to frame regulations for the
Provincial Courts and Councils.
87. Consider the following pairs regarding the Committees of the Constituent
Assembly with their chairperson
1. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
3. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Sardar
Patel
4. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: A
The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different
tasks of constitution-making. Out of these, eight were major committees and the others
were minor committees. The names of these committees and their chairmen are given
below:
Major Committees
1. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.
This committee had the following five sub-committees:
1) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
2) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 90 Insights IAS
3) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially
Excluded Areas Sub-Committee – Gopinath Bardoloi
4) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam)
Sub-Committee – A.V. Thakkar
5) North-West Frontier Tribal Areas Sub-Committee
6. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Minor Committees
1. Finance and Staff Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. Credentials Committee – Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. House Committee – B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
4. Order of Business Committee – Dr. K.M. Munshi
5. Ad-hoc Committee on the National Flag – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
6. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly – G.V. Mavalankar
7. Ad-hoc Committee on the Supreme Court – S. Varadachari (Not an Assembly
Member)
8. Committee on Chief Commissioners’ Provinces – B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
9. Expert Committee on the Financial Provisions of the Union Constitution – Nalini
Ranjan Sarkar (Not an Assembly Member)
10. Linguistic Provinces Commission – S.K. Dar (Not an Assembly Member)
11. Special Committee to Examine the Draft Constitution – Jawaharlal Nehru
12. Press Gallery Committee – Usha Nath Sen
13. Ad-hoc Committee on Citizenship – S. Varadachari
88. Consider the following statements regarding Spirulina
1. It is a processed nutribar developed in laboratory atmosphere.
2. It is a source of antioxidants and protect against oxidative damage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: B
Spirulina is an organism that grows in both fresh and salt water.
• It is a type of cyanobacteria, whi’[\ch is a family of single-celled microbes that
are often referred to as blue-green algae.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 91 Insights IAS
• Just like plants, cyanobacteria can produce energy from sunlight via a process
called photosynthesis.
• Spirulina was consumed by the ancient Aztecs but became popular again when
NASA proposed that it could be grown in space for use by astronauts
• A standard daily dose of spirulina is 1–3 grams, but doses of up to 10 grams
per day have been used effectively.
This tiny alga is packed with nutrients. Namely
1) Protein: 4 grams
2) Vitamin B1 (thiamine):
3) Vitamin B2 (riboflavin):
4) Vitamin B3 (niacin):
5) Copper:
6) Iron:
7) It also contains decent amounts of magnesium, potassium and manganese and
small amounts of almost every other nutrient that you need.
Spirulina is a fantastic source of antioxidants, which can protect against oxidative
damage.
Its main active component is called phycocyanin. This antioxidant substance also
gives spirulina its unique blue-green color.
Phycocyanin can fight free radicals and inhibit production of inflammatory signaling
molecules, providing impressive antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects.
https://www.healthline.com/nutrition/10-proven-benefits-of-spirulina#section2
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Vijayawada/spirulina-to-fight-malnutrition-in-
kids/article19738184.ece
89. Which of the following is/are the federal features of Indian Constitution:
1. Division of powers
2. Supremacy of Constitution
3. Integrated judiciary
4. Bicameralism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: C
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 92 Insights IAS
The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of Government. It contains all
the usual features of a federation, viz., two Government, division of powers, written
Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity of Constitution, independent judiciary
and bicameralism.
However, the Indian Constitution also contains a large number of unitary or non-
federal features, viz., a strong Centre, single Constitution, single citizenship, flexibility
of Constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state governor by the Centre, all-
India services, emergency provisions and so on.
Extra Learning:
The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the country.
The framers adopted the federal system due to two main reasons : the large size of
the country and its socio-cultural diversity. They realised that the federal system not
only ensures the efficient governance of the country but also reconciles national unity
with regional autonomy.
However, the term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Instead,
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’.
According to Dr B R Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to
‘Federation of States’ to indicate two things:
(i) the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like
the American federation; and
(ii) the states have no right to secede from the federation. The federation is union
because it is indestructible.
The Indian federal system is based on the ‘Canadian model’ and not on the ‘American
model’. The ‘Canadian model’ differs fundamentally from the ‘American model’ in so
far as it establishes a very strong centre.
The Indian federation resembles the Canadian federation
(iii) in its formation (i.e., by way of disintegration);
(iv) in its preference to the term ‘Union’ (the Canadian federation is also called a
‘Union’); and
(v) in its centralising tendency (i.e., vesting more powers in the centre vis-a-vis
the states).
90. Consider the following statements regarding concept of secularism
1. The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation
between the religion and the state.
2. The Indian Constitution embodies the negative concept of secularism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 93 Insights IAS
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: A
The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between
the religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of
secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multi-religious.
Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e.,
giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally. The
Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion
(the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is
inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multi-religious. Hence, the
Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal
respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally.
91. Consider the following statements regarding formation of states in India
1. Article 3 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or
establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
2. President has to refer the bill to the state legislature concerned for
expressing its views within a specified period and he is bound by the
views of the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: D
Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more
states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
(b) increase the area of any state;
(c) diminish the area of any state;
(d) alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) alter the name of any state.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 94 Insights IAS
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating
the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior
recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the
President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing
its views within a specified period.
Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new
states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’.
Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not
part of the Union of India. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or
changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with
the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the
Union of India.
The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and
may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time.
92. Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme
1. Bonds can be used as collateral for loans.
2. The minimum permissible investment limit will be 1 gram of gold for
individual.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: C
Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, has decided to
issue Sovereign Gold Bonds. The Bonds will be sold through Scheduled
Commercial banks (except Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks), Stock
Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL), designated post offices, and
recognized stock exchanges viz., National Stock Exchange of India Limited and
Bombay Stock Exchange Limited.
About the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme:
• The sovereign gold bond was introduced by the Government in 2015.
• Government introduced these bonds to help reduce India’s over dependence
on gold imports.
• The move was also aimed at changing the habits of Indians from saving in
physical form of gold to a paper form with Sovereign backing.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 95 Insights IAS
Key facts:
• Eligibility: The bonds will be restricted for sale to resident Indian entities,
including individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
• Denomination and tenor: The bonds will be denominated in multiples of
gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram. The tenor will be for a period of 8
years with exit option from the 5th year to be exercised on the interest payment
dates.
• Minimum and Maximum limit: The minimum permissible investment limit will
be 1 gram of gold, while the maximum limit will be 4 kg for individual, 4 kg for
HUF and 20 kg for trusts and similar entities per fiscal (April-March) notified by
the government from time to time.
• Joint Holder: In case of joint holding, the investment limit of 4 kg will be applied
to the first applicant only.
• Collateral: Bonds can be used as collateral for loans. The loan-to-value (LTV)
ratio is to be set equal to ordinary gold loan mandated by the Reserve Bank
from time to time.
• Tenor: The tenor of the Bond will be for a period of 8 years with exit option after
5th year to be exercised on the interest payment dates.
• Interest rate: The investors will be compensated at a fixed rate of 2.50 percent
per annum payable semi-annually on the nominal value.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/01/sovereign-gold-bond-scheme/
93. Which of the following fundamental/constitutional rights is/are available only to
citizens of India
1. Right against discrimination under Article 15
2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
3. Right to freedom of speech and expression
4. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution: D
Like any other modern state, India has two kinds of people—citizens and aliens.
Citizens are full members of the Indian State and owe allegiance to it. They enjoy all
civil and political rights. Aliens, on the other hand, are the citizens of some other state
and hence, do not enjoy all the civil and political rights.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 96 Insights IAS
They are of two categories—friendly aliens or enemy aliens.
• Friendly aliens are the subjects of those countries that have cordial relations
with India. Enemy aliens, on the other hand, are the subjects of that country
that is at war with India. They enjoy lesser rights than the friendly aliens, eg,
they do not enjoy protection against arrest and detention (Article 22).
The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and
denies the same to aliens):
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
birth (Article 15).
2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).
3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement,
residence and profession (Article 19).
4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).
5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.
Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of
India, judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts, Governor of states, Attorney
General of India and Advocate General of states.
94. Which of the following elements of Rule of Law are applicable to the Indian
System
1. Absence of arbitrary power
2. Equality before the law
3. The primacy of the rights of the individual
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’,
propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist.
His concept has the following three elements or aspects:
(i) Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a
breach of law.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 97 Insights IAS
(ii) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor,
high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered
by the ordinary law courts.
(iii) The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the
result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of
law rather than the constitution being the source of the individual rights.
The first and the second elements are applicable to the Indian System and not the
third one. In the Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights.
The Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 14 is a ‘basic
feature’ of the constitution. Hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment.
95. The School Education Quality Index has been launched by
(a) Pratham NGO
(b) Institute of Human Resources Development (IHRD)
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) NITI Aayog
Solution: D
NITI Aayog releases the first edition of School Education Quality Index (SEQI).
About the School Education Quality Index (SEQI):
• Developed by NITI Aayog to evaluate the performance of States and Union
Territories (UTs) in the school education sector.
• Aim: To bring an ‘outcomes’ focus to education policy by providing States and
UTs with a platform to identify their strengths and weaknesses and undertake
requisite course corrections or policy interventions.
• The index is developed through a collaborative process, including key
stakeholders such as Ministry of Human Resource and Development (MHRD),
the World Bank and sector experts.
It consists of 30 critical indicators that assess the delivery of quality education. These
indicators are categorized as below:
Category 1: Outcomes;
• Domain 1: Learning outcomes
• Domain 2: Access outcomes
• Domain 3: Infrastructure and facilities for outcomes
• Domain 4: Equity outcomes
Category 2: Governance processes aiding outcomes.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 98 Insights IAS
Significance of the index:
• Schooling should result in successful learning outcomes. In this regard, SEQI
acts as a credible system of assessment and helps to design necessary
remedial actions.
How are they ranked?
• To facilitate a like-for-like comparison, States and UTs have been grouped as
Large States, Small States and UTs.
• States’ and UTs’ performance on Learning Outcomes is driven by their results
on the National Achievement Survey (NAS) 2017.
• Their performance on Access Outcomes is primarily driven by enrolment ratios
at the secondary level and transition rates from upper-primary to secondary
level.
• In terms of Infrastructure & Facilities for Outcomes, States’ and UTs’
performance is strongly linked to the presence of Computer Aided-Learning
(CAL) at the elementary level and vocational education at the secondary and
senior-secondary level.
Performance of various states:
• Kerala has emerged on top among 20 large states in terms of quality of school
education, followed by Rajasthan and Karnataka, while the most-populous
Uttar Pradesh was ranked at the bottom position during 2016-17.
• Among 20 large states in the country 18 have improved their overall
performance between 2015-2016 and 2016-2017, which is otherwise referred
to as the incremental performance in the report.
• The highest incremental performance has been recorded in Kerala. As against
77.6% score in 2015-2016, the state has recorded 82.2% in 2016-2017.
• The overall performance has declined in Karnataka and Uttarakhand.
• All seven union territories have shown an improvement in their overall
performance scores.
• The performance and ranks have decreased in Mizoram, Sikkim and Arunachal
Pradesh.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/01/school-education-quality-index-seqi/
96. Consider the following statements regarding National Pension System (NPS)
1. It was launched in 2004 for government employees.
2. Any Indian citizen, resident or non-resident and OCIs are eligible to join
NPS till the age of 65 years.
3. The scheme is managed by National Council for Senior Citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 99 Insights IAS
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: C
Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) has now
permitted Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) to enroll in National Pension Scheme (NPS)
at par with Non-Resident Indians.
What is National Pension System (NPS)?
• It is a government-sponsored pension scheme. It was launched in January
2004 for government employees. However, in 2009, it was opened to all
sections.
• The scheme allows subscribers to contribute regularly in a pension account
during their working life. On retirement, subscribers can withdraw a part of the
corpus in a lumpsum and use the remaining corpus to buy an annuity to secure
a regular income after retirement.
• This system is managed by PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development Authority).
Who can join NPS?
• Any Indian citizen between 18 and 65 years can join NPS.
• An NRI can join NPS. However, the account will be closed if there is a change
in the citizenship status of the NRI.
• Now, any Indian citizen, resident or non-resident and OCIs are eligible to join
NPS till the age of 65 years.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/31/national-pension-scheme-2/
97. Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles
1. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’
enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature.
3. The Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining
the constitutional validity of a law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 100 Insights IAS
Solution: D
• The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’
enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which
were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of
India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
• The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not
legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
• The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in
examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme
Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any
law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive
Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14
(equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from
unconstitutionality.
Extra Learning:
Difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles:
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 101 Insights IAS
98. Consider the following statements regarding Pardoning powers of President.
1. The power of pardon shall be exercised by the President on the advice
of Council of Ministers.
2. Governor can grant pardon to the sentence of death.
3. The constitution provides the mechanism to question the legality of
decisions of President or governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
The President has commuted death sentences to life imprisonment in at least 20 cases
over the past nine years, based on the recommendations received from the Ministry
of Home Affairs (MHA).
Clemency powers of the President under article 72:
It says that the President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or
remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person
convicted of any offence.
• Pardon –A pardon completely absolves the offender from all sentences and
punishment and disqualifications and places him in the same position as if he
had never committed the offence.
• Commutation– Commutation means exchange of one thing for another. In
simple words to replace the punishment with less severe punishment. For
example for Rigorous imprisonment-simple imprisonment.
• Reprieve– Reprieve means temporary suspension of death sentence. For
example- pending a proceeding for pardon or commutation.
• Respite – Respite means awarding a lesser punishment on some special
grounds. For example- the Pregnancy of women offender.
• Remissions– Remission means the reduction of the amount of sentence
without changing its character, for example, a sentence of 1 year may be
remitted to 6 months.
The President can exercise these powers:
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court martial;
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law
relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends;
• In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 102 Insights IAS
The pardoning power of President is wider than the governor and it differs in the
following two ways:
1. The power of the President to grant pardon extends in cases where the
punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but Article 161 does not
provide any such power to the Governor.
2. The President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is
sentence of death but pardoning power of Governor does not extend to
death sentence cases.
Key facts:
• This power of pardon shall be exercised by the President on the advice of
Council of Ministers.
• Further, the constitution does not provide for any mechanism to question the
legality of decisions of President or governors exercising mercy jurisdiction.
• But the SC in Epuru Sudhakar case has given a small window for judicial
review of the pardon powers of President and governors for the purpose of
ruling out any arbitrariness.
• The court has earlier held that court has retained the power of judicial review
even on a matter which has been vested by the Constitution solely in the
Executive.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/05/pardoning-powers-of-president/
99. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution is/are amended by
Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
1. Goods and Services Tax Council
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: A
Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a special majority of
Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple
majority. But, some other articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of
the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is, a majority of the
members of each House present and voting (similar to the ordinary legislative
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 103 Insights IAS
process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the
Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.
Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways:
(a) Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament,
(b) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament, and
(c) Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the
state legislatures.
By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States
1. Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and high courts.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Goods and Services Tax Council.
6. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
7. Representation of states in Parliament.
8. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368
itself).
Extra Learning:
By Simple Majority of Parliament
A number of provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the
two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
These provisions include:
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing
states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the
president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
5. Quorum in Parliament.
6. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
7. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
8. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
9. Use of English language in Parliament.
10. Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
11. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
12. Use of official language.
13. Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
15. Delimitation of constituencies.
16. Union territories.
INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 - InstaTests
www.insightsonindia.com 104 Insights IAS
17. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
By Special Majority of Parliament
The provisions which can be amended by this way includes:
(i) Fundamental Rights;
(ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and
(iii) All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.
100. Which among the following states has launched Kanya Sumangala Yojana?
(a) Haryana
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Solution: C
Kanya Sumangala Yojana to be launched for girl child in UP.
Key features:
• It will provide a fund worth Rs 15000 to every family where a girl child is born.
The amount will be released to the family in a phased manner.
• The scheme has been designed in a way that the parents will have to take
proper care of the girl child with respect to her health and education and other
aspects, in order to get the benefit.
https://www.insightsonindia.com/2019/10/25/kanya-sumangala-yojana/
www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS IAS
TESTIMONIALS INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN for Prelims 2020 – InstaTests
http://disq.us/p/282plo8
http://disq.us/p/282palg
http://disq.us/p/2839b2u
http://disq.us/p/28595xc
http://disq.us/p/2857k0t
http://disq.us/p/2857hhq
http://disq.us/p/2856dfp
http://disq.us/p/2858me1
http://disq.us/p/28592b1
www.insightsonindia.com INSIGHTS IAS
http://disq.us/p/2855z70
http://disq.us/p/2855vwp
http://disq.us/p/2855yka
http://disq.us/p/2852u5r
http://disq.us/p/2854jny
http://disq.us/p/285733x
http://disq.us/p/2856vij