SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion East TYBSc ... Sem VI...SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion East TYBSc IT Sem VI - Business Intelligence Sample Questions Sr No

SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion East

TYBSc IT Sem VI - Business Intelligence Sample Questions

Sr

No Question Option A Option B Option C Option D

1

Which of the following is NOT a component

of business intelligence architecture?

Data sources Data warehouses

and data marts

Business

intelligence

methodologies

Data mining

2

Decision support systems are used for Management

decision making

Providing tactical

information to

management

Providing

strategic

information to

management

Better

operation of an

organization

3

Computer information system are most

successful in providing information for

Control decisions Planning decision Strategic decision None of the

above

4

On which learning methods the Data Mining

method is based?

inductive learning

methods

deductive learning

methods

productive

learning methods

comprehensive

learning

methods

5

In which Mathematical mode the decision

maker is required to choose among a number

of available alternatives Risk analysis

models

Optimization

models

Pattern

recognition

Models

Waiting line

models

6

Data mining activities can be subdivided into

two major investigation streams , which are

Interpretation and

Sampling

Interpretation and

Prediction

Forecast and

Prediction

Forecast and

Interpretation

7

The ______ method involves subdividing the

m observations available into two disjoint

subsets. Holdout

Repeated random

sampling Cross validation

Confusion

matrix

8

Filters, wrappers and embedded methods

are categories of __________

Quantitative

classification discritization Feature selection Sampling

9

Which method of analysis does NOT classify

variables as dependent or independent? regression analysis

discriminant

analysis analysis of

variance

cluster

analysis

10

Which statement is NOT true about cluster

analysis?

Objects in one

cluster are similar

to each other and

dissimilar to

objects in the other

clusters.

Cluster analysis is

also called

classification

analysis or

numerical

taxonomy

Groups or clusters

are suggested by

the data, not

defined a priori

Cluster

analysis is a

technique for

analysing data

when the

criterion or

dependent

variable is

categorical and

the

independent

variables are

interval in

nature.

11

Which of the following clustering algorithms

suffers from the problem of convergence at

local optima?

K- Means

clustering

Hierarchical

clustering Diverse clustering

All of the

above

12

Which of the following statements about

Naive Bayes is incorrect? Attributes are

equally important.

Attributes are

statistically

dependent of one

another given the

class value.

Attributes are

statistically

independent of

one another given

the class value

Attributes can

be nominal or

numeric

13

Which is NOT the evaluation criteria of

classification model

Accuracy Speed Scalability Cost

14

Which of the statement is not true about

Data Mining?

The term data

mining refer to the

overall process

consisting of data

gathering and

analysis,

development of

inductive learning

models and

adoption of

practical decisions

and consequent

actions based on

the knowledge

acquired.

Data mining

analysis is to draw

a fresh conclusion

without

investigating the

past data,

observations and

interpretations

Data mining

activities can be

subdivided into

two major

investigation

streams,

interpretation and

prediction

The data

mining process

is based on

inductive

learning

methods

15

In _______ model, input data are supposed

to be known a priori and with certainty Stochastic Deterministic Symbolic Static

16

The objective of BI is To support

decision-making

and complex

problem solving

To support

information

gathering

To support data

collection

To support

data analysis

17

Extraction of information and knowledge

from data is known as

Data mining Optimization Data exploration Data mart

18

Which is the last Phases of mathematical

models for decision making Problem

Identification

Implementation

and Testing Model Formation

Development

of Algorithm

19

Principal component analysis (PCA) is

reduction by means of elimination reduction projection conclusion

20

______ methods make use of classification

methods based on simple and intuitive

algorithms Separation Regression Probabilistic Heuristic

21

____________ is an indicator of ability of

classification model to predict the target class

for future observations

Speed Scalability Accuracy Cost

22 A perceptron is:

a single layer feed-

forward neural

network with pre-

processing

an auto-

associative neural

network

a double layer

auto-associative

neural network

a neural

network that

contains

feedback

23

______ is also called as complete linkage

criterion Minimum Distance

Maximum

Distance Mean Distance

Distance

between

centroids

24 maps and houses are example of Analogical Model Iconic Model Symbolic Model Static Model

25

In ________ type of model, decision-making

process is carried out within one single

temporal stage Stochastic Deterministic Symbolic Static

26

___________ is used to to simulate the

behavior of biological systems composed of

neurons Decision Tree

Neural networks Bayesian method Logistic

regression

27

Which of the following is not a component of

business intelligence analysis cycle?

Analysis Insight Decision Design

28

Following are the phases of Development of

a business intelligence system

Analysis and

Design

Planning Implementation

and Control

All of the

above

29

Bayesian classifiers is

A class of learning

algorithm that tries

to find an optimum

classification of a

set of examples

using the

probabilistic theory

Any mechanism

employed by a

learning system to

constrain the

search space of a

hypothesis

An approach to

the design of

learning

algorithms that is

inspired by the

fact that when

people encounter

new situations,

they often explain

them by reference

to familiar

experiences,

adapting the

explanations to fit

the new situation.

None of these

30

____________ is replicating the holdout

method a number of times

Holdout method Repeated random

sampling

Cross-validation Cross join

31

post-pruning is applied upon completion of

tree development

at the start of tree

development

In the middle of

tree development

Before tree

development

32

forward–backward(trade-off) attribute

search scheme

Start with empty

set

and adds one

attribute at a time

based on relevance

Start with set of all

attributes and

removes one

attribute at a time

based on

relevance

introduces best

attribute and

eliminates the

worst attribute

removes all

attributes

33 Classify variable which is not continuous age height gender

revenue of

medical shop

34

Strategic information is needed for Day to day

operations

Meet government

requirements

Long range

planning

Short range

planning

35

In __________ type of decision role of

knowledge workers is fundamental

Structured Unstructured Semi-structured loosely

structured

36

___________ methods make use of

classification methods based on separating

the observations based on the target class Separation Regression Probabilistic Heuristic

37

Which of the following curve analysis is

conducted on each predictor for

classification? NOC ROC COC

AOC

38

______ are supervised learning methods for

predicting the value of a categorical target

attribute Classification Clustering Regression Customization

39

When data are classified according to a

single characteristic, it is called:

Quantitative

classification

Qualitative

classification Area classification

Simple

classification

40

Strategic decisions involve use of _______

data

Past Present Future Imaginary

41

A model which visually conveys what the

real things looks like is Analogical Model Iconic Model Symbolic Model Static Model

42

Decision support systems are essential for Day–to-day

operation of an

organization

Providing

statutory

information

Top level strategic

decision making

Ensuring that

organizations

are profitable

43

________________ is the process to bridge

the gap between the current operating

conditions of a system (as is) and the

supposedly better conditions to be achieved

in the future (to be).

Analysis Problem solving Data mining Design

44

___________measurements express

relationship between input flows and the

corresponding output flows

Effectiveness Efficiency Evaluation Feedback

45

__________ model represents systems as they

function Analogical Model Iconic Model Symbolic Model Static Model

46

Suppose we would like to perform clustering

on spatial data such as the geometrical

locations of houses. We wish to produce

clusters of many different sizes and shapes.

Which of the following methods is the most

appropriate Decision Trees

Density-based

clustering

Model-based

clustering

K-means

clustering

47

Decision support systems are used by Line managers Top-level

managers

Middle level

managers

System users

48

Optimization is Determine the best

solution

Successful

marketing

approaches to

achieve the

optimum outcome

Getting the

greatest return for

the least

expenditure of

time, effort,

manpower

All the above

49

In ________ type of decisions, scope of the

information is quantitative

Strategic Tactical Operational real time

50

Data reduction is to reduce size in

case of large

dataset

Reduce the size of

each data record

delete fixed

amount of data

converting

data into

another format

with reduced

size

Sr. No Question Option A Option B Option C Option D

1

_____ is perceived by the

customer from the attributes of

the service that have a positive

effect on the performance of tasks

associated with desired outcomes. Utility warranty value performance

2 Warranty is fitness for ________. Purpose effect

performanc

e use

3

In logic of value creation through

services which logic gate can be

used for warranty? AND OR NOT XOR

4

Processes may define roles,

responsibilities, tools,

management controls, policies,

standards, guidelines, activities and

work instructions if they are

needed

TRUE FALSE

5

A ________is the person

responsible for the operational

management of a process.

process

owner

process

manager

process

developer

process

officer

6

______is made accountable for

ensuring that the action takes

place, even if they might not do it

themselves

Responsibili

ty Consult

Accountabili

ty Inform

7

______helps place and prioritize

improvement programmes and

projects based on strategic

objectives. Service

Strategy

Service

Design

Service

Transition

Continual

Service

Improvement

8

The _______ phase is concerned

predominantly with the design of

IT Services

Service

Transition

Service

Design

Continual

Service

Improveme

nt

Service

Strategy

9

______ ensures the value from

vendor.

Supplier

manageme

nt

service level

management

availability

managemen

t

capacity

management

SIES College of Commerce & Economics

IT Service Management Sample Questions

Class : T.Y.B.Sc IT Semester : VI

10

The primary goal of __________t is

to ensure that an agreed level of IT

service is provided for all current IT

services, and that future services

are delivered to agreed achievable

targets.

Service

Level

Manageme

n

Supplier

management

capacity

managemen

t

availability

management

11

_______ is a written statement of

available IT services,default

levels,options,prices &

identification of which processes or

customer use them

service

solution

service

catalogue

Service level

agreement

underpinning

contracts

12

________ensure that underpinning

contracts and agreements with

suppliers are aligned to business

needs.

Service

Level

Manageme

n

availability

management

Supplier

Manageme

nt

capacity

management

13

________ provide guidance on the

development and improvement of

capabilities for transitioning new

and changed services into

operations Service

Transition

Service

Design

Continual

Service

Improveme

nt

Service

Strategy

14

Which of the following is not

Service Transition process?

Knowledge

Manageme

nt

Change

Management

Service

Asset and

Configuratio

n

Manageme

nt

availability

management

15

_____ is created by Problem

Management and is used by

Problem management and Incident

Management. CMDB AMDB KEDB ASDB

16

Business unit managers do not

benefit from improved ITSM

practices. TRUE FALSE

17

The is a a major source of good

practice used by organizations

worldwide to establish and

improve their ITSM practices.

SDLC PMP

ITIL

framework ITIM

18

ITSM is defined as a set of

specialized organizational_______

for providing value to customers in

the form of

services

capacities capabilities

communitie

s securities

19

When staff members of an IT organization have an internal focus on the technology being delivered and supported, they lose sight of the actual purpose

and benefit that their efforts deliver to the business. TRUE FALSE

20

Which of the following are benefits

of IT service management? Select

all options that apply.

Learning

from

previous

experience

Demonstrabl

e

performance

indicators

Higher

customer

retention

Integrated

centralized

processes

21 Functions typically defines___

roles &

responsibili

ties services customers suppliers

22 What is service?

A means to

make

people not

to do work

themselves.

A means of

utilizing idle

organization

resources

A means of

earning

revenues

A means of

delivering

value to

customers

23

Using services customers want to

achieve outcomes _______ the

ownership of specific costs & risks. with without borrowing mortgaging

24

Continual Service improvement is

not connected to other phases of

ITIL life cycle. TRUE FALSE

25

A ________ is used when a

threshold has been reached or

something has been changed. warning event trigger error

26

The main activity of proactive

problem management is

problem

logging

Problem

detection

Trend

Analysis

Target

prevention

27

Responsibilities in service

operation are divided between

service desk & technical support

groups. TRUE FALSE

28 VOI is subcomponent of ROI TRUE FALSE

29

_______ can be defined as change

of state that has significance for

the managementod CI. event trigger warning error

30

Change management activities are

not related to project management

activities. TRUE FALSE

31


knowledge management system

component? SKMS CMS CMDB ERP

32

Which of the following are

consequences of insufficient

testing Incidents

Increased

service desk

calls for

assistance

Problems &

errors

Unhappy

customers

33

in which approach of deploment

the new or changed service is

deployed to all user areas in one

operation. Big bang automated manual

not a

possible way

of

deployment

34

Supply Management provides the

basis by which improvements are

made to both services and the

capabilities of an IT Service

Provider

TRUE FALSE

35

Use techniques that address the

root-cause of the symptoms, so

that weeds will no longer grow is

__________

Access

Manageme

nt

Supply

Management

Problem

Manageme

nt

Financial

Management

36

The goal of _________ to help

plan, implement and maintain a

stable technical infrastructure to

support the organization’s business

processes

Facility

Manageme

nt

Financial

Management

Technical

Manageme

nt Supply

Management

37


change management types? Normal Standard Emergency Change

38 What is SACM?

Service

Asset and

Configurati

on

Manageme

nt

Service

Accounts &

Configuration

Management

Service

Asset &

Console

Manageme

nt

Service

Access &

Console

Manamenent

39 Select DRAC curve steps? Denial Rejection Acceptance Consult

40

_____ is a measure of how quickly

and effectively a service,

component or CI can be restored

to normal working after a failure.

Downtime Capacity

Maintainabi

lity Reliability

41

The primary goal of _____ is to

ensure that a Service Catalogue is

produced, maintained and always

contains accurate information on

all operational services and those

ready for deployment.

Portfolio

Manageme

nt

Availability

Management

Capacity

Manageme

nt

Service

Catalogue

Management

42

________includes all of the

functional requirements, resources

and capabilities needed and

agreed. Service

Portfolio

Service

Solutions Processes functions

43

_______ consists of measuring,

monitoring, and tuning the

performance of IT Infrastructure

components.

Demand

Manageme

nt

Application

Sizing

Performanc

e

Monitoring Tuning

44


supplier category? Strategic Tactical Operational Procedural

45

Proactive activities are part of

______ phase.

Service

Strategy

Service

Design

Service

Transition

Continual

Service

Improvement

46

Processes are strategic assets

when they create competitive

advantage and market

differentiation.

TRUE FALSE

47

_________refer to the logical

grouping of roles and automated

measures that execute a defined

process, an activity or combination

of both.

Processes activities effects Functions

48

IT Service Management value to

client by:

Increased

TCO

Enhanced

profitability

Increased

risk

Total

dissatisfactio

n

49

People increase competence by

_________. Product Practice Partner Process

50 What can be a part of the service strategy phase?Plan Vision

required

assets

procured

day to day

activity

SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion E

SOFTWARE QUALITY ASSURANCE

TYBScIT SEM VI

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. Quality can be recongnized but not defined. This is called as the _________

a) View of quality

b) Transcendental user

c) Product

d) Manufacturing

2. The most successful tool used for Statistical Process Control (SPC) is _______.

a) Gantt Chart

b) Control Chart

c) Line Chart

d) Bar Chart

3. Which of the following is the example of an Application software?

a) MS-Windows

b) Word Processor

c) Linux

d) Unix

4. Which of the following term describes testing?

a) Finding broken code

b) A stage of all projects

c) Evaluating deliverable to find error

d) Process of developing software

5. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming(XP) process

mode

a) analysis, design coding, testing

b) planning,analysis,design,coding

c) planning,analysis,coding,testing

d) planning,design,coding,testing

6. A graph has 2 IF-conditions; what is itsMcCabe complexity?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

7. When all the nodes are travesered in program graph then it is called as ____

a) Graph coverage

b) Edge coverage

c) Node coverage

d) Path coverage

8. One of the foolowing is not a component of verification workbench:

a) Verification Process

b) Process rework

c) Standards

d) Validation Process

9. Name the testing that involves testing of many units by combing them together to form a

module or sub module.

a) Interface testing

b) Integration testing

c) System Testing

d) Unit Testing

10. ___________ is conducted on whole integrated system to estimate the systems

compliance with its specified set of requirements.

a) Integration Testing

b) Interface Testing

c) System Testing

d) Unit Testing

11. How many process maturity levels are there?

a) Five

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

12. A design must be ______________in all respect.

a) Clarity

b) Traceable

c) Implementable

d) Complete

13. How many types of performance testing techniques are there?

a) One

b) Four

c) Two

d) Three

14. _________ Testing is carried out at client’s site by the end users or the stakeholders of

the product.

a) Beta

b) Gamma

c) Alpha

d) Unit

15. In this review the author of the artifact presents it to all the team members and the entire

team discusses about the various aspects of the artifact

a) Audit

b) Superior Review

c) Inspection

d) Walkthrough

16. Boundary Value testing on NextDate program does not give _____________ results

a) Bad

b) Good

c) Poor

d) Excellent

17. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which of the following

testing principle implies this?

a) Testing shows presence of defects

b) Pesticide paradox

c) Testing is context dependent

d) Defect Clustering

18. Exhaustive testing is

a) Always possible

b) practically possible

c) Impractical but possible

d) Impractical and impossible

19. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?

a) Waterfall & RAD

b) Prototyping & Spiral

c) Prototyping & RAD

d) Waterfall & Spiral

20. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing

b) Black Box Testing

c) Grey Box Testing

d) Red Box Testing

21. AND conditions are ___________ coupled OR conditions are _____________ coupled

a) Strongly,strrongly

b) Strongly, weakly

c) Weakly,weakly

d) Weakly,strongly

22. _________decides the execution of the inspection,defines the schedules,allocates time

and defines objectives of inspection.

a) Manager

b) Moderator

c) Author

d) Reviewer

23. Structured Testing includes the following except

a) Path Coverage

b) Call Coverage

c) Loop Coverage

d) Exit

24. "Delivering the right product" is part of _________ view of quality.

a) Customer

b) Developer

c) Supplier

d) Market

25. Improvement in Quality has a ________ effect on Productivity.

e) Positive

f) Negative

g) No effect

h) Worsening

Sr.

No.

Question Answer1 Answer2 Answer3 Answer4

1 GIS deals with which kind of data? Numeric data Binary data Spatial Data Complex data

2 Among the following which do not come under the components of GIS? Hardware Software Data Algorithm

3 What is DEM? Discrete

Elevation

model

Data Elevation

Model

Digital Elevation

Model

Decision Enterprise

Model

4 Which Database system offers the underlying database technology for

geographic information systems and other applcations?

Relational

DataBase

System

Object Oriented

DataBase System

Spatial Data Base

System

Object Relational

DataBase System

5 Equilateral triangles,squares and hexagons are examples of irregular

tessellations

Regular

tessellations

Boundaries Land parcels

6 Which data is comprised of lines or arcs? Raster data vector data Raw data discrete data

7 Which is a key GIS requirement for datamanagement and integrity? DBMS RDBMS TOPOLOGY QUERY Management

8 Which data is the change in characteristic of a place over time? Discrete data Raw data Vector data temporal data

9 What is Metadata ? It is "data

about data"

It is

"meteorological

data"

It is " oceanic

data"

It is "contour data"

10 Housewith respect to GIS is referred to as Discrete

objects

Continuous fields Geographic

object

GIS object

11 Spatial databases are also known as Geodatabases Operational

Databases

Concurrent

databases

Distributed Databases

12 SDI is an abbreviation of Spatial Data

Interface

Spatial Data

Infrastructure

Spatial Data

Intention

Spatial Data

International

13 Which data is the information about an object or feature? Nominal Attribute Ratio Quantative

SIES College of Commerce and Economics, Sion East

TYBSc IT Semester VI Principles of Geographic Information Systems Sample Questions

14 Which data for image processing works with pixels? Raster Vector Simple Complex

15 The query operator that allow tuples that meet the selection condition to

pass and disallowed tuples that do not meet the condition

Attribute

selection

Join Tuple Selection Attribute Projection

16 ISO(International Organization for Standardisation) and OGS( Open

Geospatial Consortium) are

Attribute Standards Objects Fields

17 A _________ is a computer program that extracts data from the database. query data model DataTable DataStructure

18 Raster approach subdivides space into regular cells. These cells are called

_______ in 2D and ______ in 3D.

pixels, voxels voxels, pixels 2D cartesian

coordinate, 3D

cartesian

coordinate

2D geograpic

coordinate, 3D

geographic

coordinate

19 For relational data model, the structure used to define the database

are___________.

attribute,tuple,

relation

attribute,cell,unit tuple,cell,relation tuple,relation,unit

20 The relation with the attribute which is the primary key is referenced in

another relation, in that another relation that attribute is called as

______.

Unique key Foreign key Candidate key Super key

21 The height of a point with respect to tide gauge is measured using

technique known as _________.

Graph Levelling Geodetic

levelling

Ellipsodetic

levelling

Geo leveling point

22 Lines of equal latitude are called as _________ Parallels Perpendiculars Meridians Deviations

23 A ________ is a mathematically described technique to represent Earth’s

curved surface on a flat map

Map Selection Map Projection Map Distortion Map Reference

24 Geoid is used to describe ________. Heights Width Ranges Weights

25 Errors related to space segment includes Incorrect Space Incorrect Clock

Reading

Incorrect Orbit

Position

Both 2 & 3

26 ________is an integrated, systematic network of reference receivers

covering a large area.

Native

positioning

Differential

Positioning

Network

Positioning

Reference Positioning

27 GMT stands for Green Mean

time

Green Medium

Time

Greenwich

Medium Time

Greenwich Mean

Time

28 GPS: US Military, GLONASS: _______? Indian Military UK Military Australian

Military

Russian Military

29 Interpolation is made possible by a principle called Spatial

Autocorrelation

Spatial auto-

correction

Thematic

Autocorrelation

Thematic auto-

correction

30 What does TIN Stand for? Triangulated

Irregular

Networks

Trend Irregular

Networks

Triangulated

Internal Networks

Trend Internal

Networks

31 A __________is a set of objects with similar attributes. BLOB Class Aggregation Association

32 The conversion of raster data into vector data is called_______. Rasterization Vectorization Spatial system Geospatial

33 What does GPS do? Determine

absolute

location

Map, Analyze

and process

different info

To determine

landscapes

To determine colleges

34 Topological characteristics of spatial data do not include: Adjacency Inclusion Connectivity Elevation

35 ______________ is a function that joins different classes of objects with

common characteristics to a higher level generalized class

Classification Retrieval Generalization Estimation

36 Search function, buffer zone generation, interpolation and topographic

function are a part of _______ function

Overlay Classification Retrieval Neighbourhood

37 Polygon clipping and polygon overwrite are ____________ operations Raster overlay Raster

intersection

Polygon division Polygon overlay

38 Which function performs Intersection, union, difference and

complement operations?

Classification Overlay Neighbourhood Connectivity

39 Which is not the property of vector features? Location Length Area color

40 Map algebra equation C1 := A + 10 denotes: add a

constant factor

of 10 to all cell

values of raster

A and store the

result as output

raster C1

add a constant

factor of 10 to

first cell value of

raster A and

store the result

as output raster

C1

add a constant

factor of 10 to all

first row values of

raster A and store

the result as

output raster C1

add a constant

factor of 10 to all first

column values of

raster A and store the

result as output raster

C1

41 In given assignment CON(A = forest; 10; 0) Forest is else

statement, 10

is then

statement & 0

is condition

Forest is

condition, 10 is

then statement

& 0 is else

statement

Forest is then

statement, 10 is

condition & 0 is

else statement

Forest is condition,

10 is else statement &

0 is then statement

42 Which of the following doesn't determine the capability of GIS? Defining a map Representing

cartographic

feature

Retrieving data Transferring data

43 In vector data,the basic units of spatial information are points,lines(arc

s) and polygons

integer,float,char sets,bags and

Array

tuples,tables,structur

e

44 which of the following is an example of Nature Geographical phenomena? River Overflow Buildings Bridges Construction of Roads

45 Users may all

be using the database at the same time, without affecting each other’s

activities.

This DBMS function is called as _________________.

data

redundancy

concurrency

control

data correctness integrity

constraints,

46 Which is not belong to spatial data presentation methods: Hard copy Output of digital

data sets.

Soft copy Digitizing

47 The local vertical datum is implemented through a __________. Labeling

Network

Levelling

Network

Labeling

Connection

Levelling Connection

48 ____ produces a vector data set from a raster. Bundling of

data

Data cleaning Vectorization Pattern recognition

49 Area < 400000 AND Land use = 80 is which type of query? Interactive

spatial

selection

Spatial selection

by attribute

Combined

attribute

condition

Spatial selection

using topological

selection

50 What is the name of the Russian equivalent of GPS? GLONASS GPESKI GLASNOST IKONOS

TYBSc IT Security in Computing SIES College of Semester – VI Commerce & Economics

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1. Policies, Standards, Guidelines are part of ______ security program components.

(a) Authority (b) Framework (c) Assessment (d) Action

2. _______ is a plan of action for how to implement the security remediation plans.

(a) Project plan (b) Roadmap (c) Maintenance (d) Action

3, __________ is used to educate employees, business partners, and other stakeholders.

(a) Security awareness program (b) Policy enforcement (c) Project Plan (d) Gap Analysis

4. An effective security strategy is comprehensive and _________.

(a) static (b) fixed (c) not known (d) dynamic

5. _______ describe how processes are performed by people on an ongoing basis to produce

the desired outcomes of the security program in a periodic, reliable fashion.

(a) Procedure (b) Gap analysis (c) Planning (d) Roadmap

6. __________ controls on the network include audit trail, log files etc.

(a) Defence (b) Detective (c) Deterrence (d) Direction

7. It is a medium through which an exploit or threat is planned or attacked.

(a) Threat (b) Threat agent (c) Threat vector (d) Remote threat

8. _____ virus attached with program files such as .com, .exe.

(a) Boot sector (b) File infector (c) Trojan (d) Worm

9. The _______ implants itself in the memory of a computer.

(a) Boot sector (b) File infector (c) Trojan (d) Resident virus

10. _____ arrives through email and spread as malicious executable files.

(a) Boot sector (b) File infector (c) Email worm (d) Trojan

11. ________ refers to allowing access to those who are authorized to do so.

(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Access time

12. cryptography, two-factor authentication are used to achieve___________



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13. __________ refers to assurance that data has not been changed.


14. _______ assures that the services are available whenever it is needed.


15. The ______ model does not provide different levels of security required for asset.

(a) onion (b) potato (c) flower (d) lollipop

16. The _____ provides layered strategy for security.

(a) onion (b) potato (c) flower (d) lollipop

17. While designing best practices for network defence, The equipment housing the filing

cabinets, data wiring, laptops etc. must be _____ protected.

(a) physical (b) logically (c) no need to protect (d) ethically

18. ______ booting from USB storage devices stop attackers from bypassing operating

system security.

(a) Disabling (b) enabling (c) additional (d) extra

19. Full form of DHCP is ________

(a) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (b) Density Host Configuration Protocol

(c) Deep Home Combine Protocol (d) None of the above

20. Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not any host

program?

(a) Trap Doors (b) Worm (c) Trojan Horse (d) Viruses

21. Which of the following malicious program do not replicate automatically?

(a) Trap Doors (b) Worm (c) Trojan Horse (d) Viruses

22. In computer security __________ means that computer system assets can be modified

only by authorized parities.

(a) Confidentiality (b) Integrity (c) Availability (d) Authenticity

23. What is the function of a firewall?

(a) protects the computer in case of fire (b) Block or screen out spam

(c) Prevents the CPU from being overheated

(d) Helps to prevent outsiders from obtaining unauthorized access


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24. __________ is the act of capturing packets of data flowing across a computer network

(a) Packet catching (b) Packet snipping (c) Packet sniffing (d) Packet pulling

25. ___________condition exists when a program attempts to put more data in a buffer than

it cannot hold

(a) Buffer overflow (b) Buffer fill (c) Buffer overrun (d) Buffer full

26. ___________is a form of attack in which an attacker changes the Media Access Control

(MAC) address and attacks an Ethernet

(a) ARP Protocol (b) ARP sniffing (c) ARP poisoning (d) ARP cracking

27. A ________________issues, catalogs, renews, and revokes certificates under the

Management of a policy and administrative control.

(a) Certification authority (b) Registration authority

(c) Revocation Authority (d) Digital authority

28. _________________defines the protection against denial by one of the parties in a

communication.

(a) Authentication (b) Non-repudiation (c) Confidentiality (d) Integrity

29. __________checks for user’s identity.

(a) Authorisation (b) Authentication (c) Awareness (d) Activeness

30. Authentication based on password is termed as __________

(a) single -factor authentication (b) two-factor authentication

(c) multi-factor authentication (d) none of the above

31. When authentication based on user password and biometric factor it is termed as

(a) single -factor authentication (b) two-factor authentication

(c) multi-factor authentication (d) none of the above

32. The full form of CHAP is

(a) Character Handshake Authentication Protocol

(b) Challenge Hands Authentication Protocol

(c) Character Handshake Authentication Protocol

(d) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

33. ________ use hardware or software-based authentication that generate a random seed

based on the current time of the day.

(a) Time based keys (b) Thread based keys (c) Turn based key (d) None of this


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34. __________ is a network authentication based on the use of tickets.

(a) CHAP (b) MS-CHAP (c) Kerberos (d) LDAP

35. The full form of LDAP is ____________

(a) Lightweight density Access protocol (b) Lightweight dense Active Protocol

(c) Lightweight Directory Access protocol (d) Lightweight Directory Active Protocol

36. The Certificates used for authentication are digitally signed by certificate authority called

(a) CA (b) Manager (c) Officer (d) Lawyer

37. The three primary rules defined for RBAC are

(a) Role assignment,Role authorization,permission authorization

(b) Role authorization,permission authorization,role level

(c) Role authorization,permission authorization,rule level

(d) Role assignment,Role authorization,password

38. In Unix file permission are assigned and they consist of three level of access which are

(a) Owner, Group, and all others (b) Owner, User, and others

(c) Programmer, Group, Owner (d) None of the above

39. The process of converting plain text to cipher text is called ________

(a) encryption (b) decryption (c) system (d) hardware

40. The process of converting cipher text to plain text is _____________

(a) encryption (b) decryption (c) system (d) hardware

41. when plain text is processed as one bit at a time then it is called ______

(a) block cipher (b) stream cipher (c) caesar cipher (d) modified caesar cipher

42. The full form of OLTP is Online transaction processing

(a) Open transaction processing (b) Online transaction processing

(c) Online trust process (d) Online transaction print

43. In ______ a copy of all data to another set of media is done.

(a) full backups (b) incremental backups

(c) differential backups (d) transactional log backups

44. An ________ operation will result in copying only the data that has changed since the last

backup operation.


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(a) full backups (b) incremental backups

(c) differential backups (d) transactional log backups

45. Full form of DMZ

(a) distributed military zone (b) Demilitarized zone

(c) dedicated many zone (d) dedicated military zone

46. A ________ operates in both the physical and the data link layer.

(a) passive hub (b) repeater (c) bridge (d) router

47. Network layer firewall works as a _________

(a) Frame filter (b) Packet filter (c) Content filter (d) Virus filter

48. _______________ is the central node of 802.11 wireless operations.

(a) WPA (b) Access Point (c) WAP (d) Access Port

49. Specifications for a wireless LAN are called

(a) Standard 802.3z (b) Standard 802.3u (c) Project 802.3 (d) IEEE 802.11

50. Servers, network attached storage, desktop, laptops are classified as

(a) Computer Equipment (b) Assets with direct monetary value

(c) Communication equipment (d) furniture and fixture

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