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GS-Paper - II
P-PFC-L-CGJB 1 www.TestFunda.com
TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - II
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST
BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED
BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer sheet. In case, you feel that there is more than one correct response,
mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You will have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer
Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you will have to fill
in some particulars in the Answer sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY THE CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUESTIONS FROM 73
TO 80, WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENELTY FOR WRONG ANSWER.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question which has a penalty for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers
happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question, if it has a penalty.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
Serial No:
98520 D
TEST BOOKLET SERIES
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
T.B.C.: P - PFC - L - CGJB
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
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Directions for the following 5 (five) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that
follow. Your answer to these items should be based on
the passage only.
Passage
Now India’s children have a right to receive at least
eight years of education, the gnawing question is
whether it will remain on paper or become a reality.
One hardly needs a reminder that this right is
different from the others enshrined in the
Constitution, that the beneficiary –a six year old child
cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle
when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is
the adult society which must act on behalf of the
child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to
education is denied no compensation offered later
can be adequate or relevant. This is so because
childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on
behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little
use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed
at school during childhood cannot serve the same
purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for
girls because our society permits them only a short
childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has
become law at a point in India’s history when the
ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced
in the form of foeticide. This is “symptomatic of a
deeper turmoil” in society which is compounding the
traditional obstacles to the education of girls.
Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential
of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the
system of education has not been able to address it.
1. With reference to the passage, consider the
following statements :
(A) When children are denied education, adult
society does not act on behalf of them.
(B) Right to Education as a law cannot be
enforced in the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
2. According to the passage, what could be the
traditional obstacles to the education of girls?
(A) Inability of parents to fight a legal battle
when the Right to Education is denied to
their children.
(B) The traditional way of thinking about girl’s
role in society.
(C) The prejudice against the intellectual
potential of girls.
(D) Improper system of education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(1) A and B only (2) B, C and D only
(3) A, C and D only (4) A, B, C and D
3. On the basis of the passage, consider the
following statements :
(A) Right to Education is a legal right and not a
fundamental right.
(B) For realising the goal of universal education,
the education system in the country must be
made identical to that of developed
countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
4. Which one of the following statements conveys
the key message of the passage?
(1) India has declared that education is
compulsory for its children.
(2) Adult society is not keen on implementing
the Right to Education.
(3) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl
child, needs to be safeguarded.
(4) The system of education should address the
issue of Right to Education.
5. Which one of the following statements conveys
the inference of the passage?
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(1) The society has a tenacious prejudice against
the intellectual potential of girls.
(2) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on
behalf of children for their Right to
Education.
(3) The legal fight to get education for children is
often protracted and prohibitive.
(4) There is no sufficient substitute for education
received in childhood.
Read the following passage and answer the 3
(three) items that follow:
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family.
There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three
males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a
lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male,
neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest
person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.
6. How is D related to E?
(1) Husband (2) Son
(3) Father (4) Wife
7. Who are the females in the group?
(1) C and E (2) C and D
(3) E and A (4) D and E
8. Whose wife is the teacher?
(1) C (2) D (3) A (4) B
Read the following passage and answer the 3
(three) items that follow:
In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be
introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652
were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal
of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the
proposal. 196 females were undecided.
9. How many females voted for the proposal?
(1) 430 (2) 600 (3) 624 (4) 640
10. How many males were undecided?
(1) 31 (2) 227 (3) 426 (4) 581
11. How many females were not in favour of the
proposal?
(1) 430 (2) 496 (3) 586 (4) 1226
12. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and
Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is
exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is
ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the
queue, how many persons are there between Mr.
X and Mr. Z?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Read each of the following two passages and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need
to rethink the role of the State. The early debate
among economists about the size of the Government
can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an
enabling Government. India is too large and complex
a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is
needed. Asking the Government to produce all the
essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and
keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a
large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread
corruption.
The aim must be to stay with the objective of
inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding
fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern
view of what the State can realistically deliver.
This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State,
that is, a Government that does not try to directly
deliver to the citizens everything that they need.
Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the
market so that individual enterprise can flourish and
citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs
of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do
not manage to do well for themselves, for there will
always be individuals, no matter what the system,
who need support and help. Hence we need a
Government that, when it comes to the market, sets
effective, incentive-compatible rules and remains on
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the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the
same time, plays an important role in directly helping
the poor by ensuring that they get basic education
and health services and receive adequate nutrition
and food.
13. According to the passage:
(A) The objective of inclusive growth was laid
down by the founding fathers of the nation.
(B) Need of the hour is to have an enabling
Government.
(C) The Government should engage in maximum
interference in market processes.
(D) There is a need to change the size of the
Government
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) A and D only (4) A, B, C and D
14. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive
growth can be effected by focusing on
(1) Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the
country.
(2) Increasing the regulations over the
manufacturing sector.
(3) Controlling the distribution of manufactured
goods.
(4) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived
sections of the society.
15. What constitutes an enabling Government?
(A) A large bureaucracy.
(B) Implementation of welfare programmes
through representatives.
(C) Creating an ethos that helps individual
enterprise.
(D) Providing resources to those who are
underprivileged.
(E) Offering direct help to the poor regarding
basic services.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below.
(1) A, B and C only (2) D and E only
(3) C, D and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E
16. Why is the State unable to deliver “all that is
needed”?
(A) It does not have sufficient bureaucracy.
(B) It does not promote inclusive growth.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
17. What is the essential message being conveyed by
the author of the passage?
(1) The objective of inclusive growth laid down
by the founding fathers of the nation should
be remembered.
(2) The Government needs to make available
more schools and health services.
(3) The Government needs to establish markets
and industries to meet the needs of the poor
strata of the society.
(4) There is a need to rethink the role of the
State in achieving inclusive growth.
Passage-2
The concept of ‘creative society’ refers to a phase of
development of a society in which a large number of
potential contradictions become articulate and active.
This is most evident when oppressed social groups
get politically mobilised and demand their rights. The
upsurge of the peasants and tribals, the movements
for regional autonomy and self-determination, the
environmental movements, and the women’s
movements in the developing countries are signs of
emergence of creative society in contemporary times.
The forms of social movements and their intensity
may vary from country to country and place to place
within a country. But the very presence of
movements for social transformation in various
spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a
creative society in a country.
18. What does the author imply by “creative society”?
(A) A society where diverse art forms and
literary writings seek incentive.
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(B) A society where social inequalities are
accepted as the norm.
(C) A society where a large number of
contradictions are recognised.
(D) A society where the exploited and the
oppressed groups grow conscious of their
human rights and upliftment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(1) A, B and C (2) D only
(3) C and D (4) B and D
19. What according to the passage are the
manifestations of social movements?
(A) Aggressiveness and being incendiary.
(B) Instigation by external forces.
(C) Quest for social equality and individual
freedom.
(D) Urge for granting privileges and self-respect
to disparaged sections of the society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(1) A and C only (2) B and D only
(3) C and D only (4) A, B, C and D
20. With reference to the passage, consider the
following statements:
(A) To be a creative society, it is essential to have
a variety of social movements.
(B) To be a creative society, it is imperative to
have potential contradictions and conflicts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) NeitherA nor B
21. Consider the following three statements:
(A) Only students can participate in the race.
(B) Some participants in the race are girls.
(C) All girl participants in the race are invited for
coaching.
Which one of the following conclusions can be
drawn from the above statements?
(1) All participants in the race are invited for
coaching.
(2) All students are invited for coaching
(3) All participants in the race are students.
(4) None of the statements (1), (2) and (3) given
above is correct.
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
Each of the following two items consists of four
statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both
be true, but both can be false. Study the statements
carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above
condition. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below each set of statements:
22. Examine the following statements:
(A) All animals are carnivorous.
(B) Some animals are not carnivorous.
(C) Animals are not carnivorous.
(D) Some animals are carnivorous.
Codes:
(1) A and C (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) C and D
23. Examine the following statements:
(A) All trains are run by diesel engine.
(B) Some trains are run by diesel engine.
(C) No train is run by diesel engine.
(D) Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
Codes:
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) A and C (4) A and D
24. Consider the four age pyramids given below
namely A, B, C and D representing four different
countries.
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Which one of them indicates the declining
population?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
25. The following figure has four curves namely A, B,
C and D. Study the figure and answer the item
that follows.
Which curve indicates the exponential growth?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Directions for the following 2 (two) items:
The following pie charts show the break-up of disease
categories recorded in the patients from two towns,
Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease
categories as percentage of the total number of
patients. Based on these, answer the two items that
follow the charts.
26. Which of the two towns has a higher number of
persons with Diabetes?
(1) Town A
(2) Town B
(3) Same in Town A and Town B
(4) No inference can be drawn
27. What can we say about persons with more than
one disease from these graphs?
(1) There are likely to be persons with more
than one disease in Town A.
(2) There are likely to be persons with more
than one disease in Town B.
(3) There are likely to be persons with more
than one disease in both Towns A and B.
(4) No inference can be drawn.
28. Consider the following Velocity – Time graph. It
shows two trains starting simultaneously on
parallel tracks.
With reference to the above graph, which one of
the following statements is not correct?
Diabetes 18%
High BP 13%
Heart Disease
22%
Obesity 34%
Others 13%
Distribution of diseases in Town - A
Diabetes 24%
High BP 19%
Heart Disease
30%
Obesity 28%
Others 20%
Distribution of diseases in Town - B
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(1) Train B has an initial acceleration greater
than that of train A.
(2) Train B is faster than Train A at all times
(3) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0
(4) Both trains travel the same distance in time
t0 units.
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on
the passage only.
Passage
A country under foreign domination seeks escape
from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and
finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is
a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us
indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in
India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great
though we have come down in the world in other
respects. Spiritual or any other greatness cannot be
founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on
starvation and misery. Many western writers have
encouraged that notion that Indians are other-
worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every
country become to some extent other–worldly, unless
they become revolutionaries, for this world is
evidently not meant for them. So also subject peoples.
As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely
engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective
world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some
psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with
peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow
adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit
these parallel streams of an external life and an
internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each
other, there is an equilibrium and stability. When they
diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the
mind and spirit.
29. The passage mentions that “this world is
evidently not meant for them”. It refers to people
who
(A) seek freedom from foreign domination.
(B) live in starvation and misery.
(C) become revolutionaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) B and C (4) C only
30. Consider the following assumptions :
(A) A country under foreign domination cannot
indulge in spiritual pursuit.
(B) Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual
pursuit.
(C) Subject peoples may become other-worldly.
With the reference to the passage, which of the
above assumptions is/are valid?
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) B and C (4) C only
31. The passage thematically centres on
(1) the state of mind of oppressed people
(2) starvation and misery
(3) the growth of civilization
(4) body, mind and spirit of people in general
32. According to the passage, the torture of the mind
and spirit is caused
(1) by the impact of foreign domination.
(2) by the desire to escape from foreign
domination and find consolation in visions of
past greatness.
(3) due to lack of equilibrium between an
external life and an internal life.
(4) due to one’s inability to be either
revolutionary or other-worldly.
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the passage given below, study the graph
that follows and answer the three items given
below the figure.
During a party, a person was exposed to
contaminated water. A few days later, he
developed fever and loose motions. He suffered
for some days before going to a doctor for
treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon
became better and recovered completely a few
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days later. The following graph shows different
phases of the person’s disease condition as
regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.
33. Which region/regions of the curve
correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of
the infection?
(1) A only (2) B only (3) B and C
(4) No part of the curve indicates the incubation
phase
34. Which region of the curve indicates that the
person began showing the symptoms of
infection?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
35. Which region of the curve indicates that the
treatment yielded effective relief?
(1) C (2) D (3) E
(4) The curve does not indicate the treatment
36. There are four routes to travel from city A to city
B and six routes from city B to city C. How many
routes are possible to travel from the city A to
city C?
(1) 24 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 8
37. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty
for delay in completion of the work beyond a
certain date is as follows: Rs. 200 for the first day,
Rs. 250 for the second day, Rs. 300 for the third
day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day
being Rs. 50 more than that of the preceding day.
How much penalty should the contractor pay if
he delays the work by 10 days?
(1) Rs. 4950 (2) Rs. 4250
(3) Rs. 3600 (4) Rs. 650
38. Consider the figure given below and answer the
item that follows:
In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two
plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S
is the direction of a beam of light falling on the
mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of
light from the mirror OP2 will be
(1) Perpendicular to the direction S.
(2) At 45o to the direction S.
(3) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(4) At 60o to the direction S.
39. Consider the following figure and answer the
item that follows :
What is the minimum number of different colours
required to paint the figure given above such that
no two adjacent regions have the same colour?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
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40. Consider the following figure and answer the
item that follows:
A square is divided into four rectangles as shown
above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles are
natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are
indicated in the figure. What is the length of each
side of the square?
(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 15
(4) Cannot be determined as the given data are
insufficient
41. A person has only Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins with her.
If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and
the amount of money with her is Rs. 75, then the
number of Rs. 1 and Rs. 2 coins are, respectively
(1) 15 and 35 (2) 35 and 15
(3) 30 and 20 (4) 25 and 25
42. Three persons start walking together and their
steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm
respectively. What is the minimum distance each
should walk so that each can cover the same
distance in complete steps?
(1) 25 m 20 cm (2) 50 m 40 cm
(3) 75 m 60 cm (4) 100 m 80 cm
43. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train
travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then
what is the ratio of the distances travelled by
them in one hour?
(1) 8 : 5 (2) 5 : 8
(3) 4 : 5 (4) 1 : 2
44. There are 100 students in a particular class. 6.0%
students play cricket, 30% student play football
and 10% students play both games. What is the
number of students who play neither cricket not
football?
(1) 25 (2) 20 (3) 18 (4) 15
45. A village having a population of 4000 requires
150 liters of water per head per day. It has a tank
measuring 20 m × 15 m × 6 m. The water of this
tank will last for
(1) 2 days (2) 3 days
(3) 4 days (4) 5 days
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on
the passage only.
Passage
A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to
its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone
species. The keystone species may influence both the
species richness of communities and the flow of
energy and materials through ecosystems. The sea
star Pisaster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal
ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is
also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred
prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus.In the absence
of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other
competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By
consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that
are taken over by a variety of other species
A study at the University of Washington
demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species
richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of
the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five
years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from
which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge
of the mussel bed extended farther down into the
intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to
eliminate mussels completely where they are covered
with water most of the time. Second, and more
dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae
disappeared from the sea star removal zone.
Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor,
occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on
competitive relationships, predation by Pisaster
largely determines which species live in these rocky
intertidal ecosystems.
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46. What is the crux of the passage?
(1) Sea star has a preferred prey.
(2) A preferred prey determines the survical of a
keystone species.
(3) Keystone species ensures species diversity.
(4) Sea star is the only keystone species on the
Pacific coast of North America.
47. With reference of the passage, consider the
following statements :
(A) Mussels are generally the dominant species
in intertidal ecosystems.
(B) The survival of sea stars is generally
determined by the abundance of mussels.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
48. Which of the following is/are implied by the
passage?
(A) Mussels are always hard competitors for sea
stars.
(B) Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the
climax of their evolution.
(C) Sea stars constitute an important component
in the energy flow intertidal ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) A and C (4) C only
49. Consider the following assumptions :
(A) The food chains/food web in an ecosystem
are influenced by keystone species.
(B) The presence of keystone species is a specific
characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.
(C) If the keystone species is completely
removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to
the collapse of the ecosystem.
With reference to the passage, which of the above
assumptions is/are valid?
(1) A only (2) B and C only
(3) A and C only (4) A, B and C
50. Consider the following argument :
“In order to be a teacher one must graduate from
college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians
are poets. No college graduate is poor.”
Which one of the following is not a valid
conclusion regarding the above argument?
(1) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.
(2) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.
(3) Teachers are not poor.
(4) Poets are not teachers.
51. A student on her first 3 tests received an average
score of N points. If student exceeds her previous
average score by 20 points on her fourth test,
then what is the average score for the first 4
tests?
(1) N + 20 (2) N + 10
(3) N + 4 (4) N + 5
52. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are
male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-
sevenths of the males are married, what fraction
of the females is single?
(1) 2⁄7 (2) 1⁄3
(3) 3⁄7 (4) 2⁄3
53. The houses of A and B face each other on a road
going north-south, A’s being on the western side.
A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km,
turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D ‘s house.
B does exactly the same and reaches the front of
C’s house. In this context, which one of the
following statements is correct?
(1) C and D live on the same street.
(2) C’s house faces south.
(3) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km
apart.
(4) None of the above
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Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read each of the following two passages and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
Passage-1
Ecosystems provide people with a variety of goods
and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood
control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate
regulation, spiritual fulfillment and aesthetic
enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits
either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary
to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For
example, potable fresh water cab be provided by
desalinating sea-water, but only at great cost.
The rapidly expanding human population has greatly
modified the Earth's ecosystem to meet their
increased requirements of some of the goods and
services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre
and fuel. These modifications have contributed
substantially to human well being and economic
development. The benefits have not been equally
distributed. Some people have actually been harmed
by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in
some ecosystem goods and services have come at the
cost of the long-term degradation of others. For
example, efforts to increase the production of food
and fibre have decreased the ability of some
ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding
and support biodiversity.
54. with reference to the passage, consider the
following statements.
Expanding human population has an adverse
effect on:
(A) Spiritual fulfilment
(B) Aesthetic enjoyment
(C) Potable fresh water
(D) Production of food and fibre
(E) Bio diversity
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(1) A, B and C only (2) B, D and E only
(3) C and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E
55. The passage mentions that "some people have
actually been harmed by these changes". What
does it imply?
(A) The rapid expansion of population has
adversely affected some people.
(B) Sufficient efforts have not been made to
increase the production of food and fibre.
(C) In the short term some people may be
harmed, but in the long term everyone will
benefit from modifications in the Earth's
ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B (3) A and C
(4) None of the statements given above
56. With reference to the passage, consider the
following statements:
(A) It is imperative to modify the Earth's
ecosystems for the well being of mankind.
(B) Technology can never replace all the goods
and services provided by ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
Passage-2
A moral act must be our own act; must spring from
our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral
content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we
think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in
doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear
in mind the distinction between acting mechanically
and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to
pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the
order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the
king’s moral act. But if the messenger were to carry
out the king’s order considering it to be his duty, his
action be a moral one. How can a man understand
morality who does not use his own intelligence and
power of thought, but lets himself be swept along like
a log of wood by a current? Sometimes a man defies
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convention and acts on his own with a view to
absolute good.
57. Which of the following statements best
describe/describes the thought of the writer?
(A) A moral act calls for using our discretion.
(B) Man should react to a situation immediately.
(C) Man must do his duty.
(D) Man should be able to defy convention in
order to be moral.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(1) A only (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) A and D
58. Which of the following statements is the nearest
definition of moral action, according to the
writer?
(1) It is a mechanical action based on official
orders from superiors.
(2) It is an action based on our sense of
discretion.
(3) It is a clever action based on the clarity of
purpose.
(4) It religious action based on understanding.
59. The passage contains a statement "lets himself be
swept along like a log of wood by a current."
Among the following statements, which is/are
nearest in meaning to this?
(A) A person does not use his own reason.
(B) He is susceptible to influence/pressure.
(C) He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges.
(D) He is like a log of wood.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(1) A only (2) A and B
(3) B and C (4) A and D
60. Consider the following distance -time graph. The
graph shows three athletes A, B and C running
side by side for a 30 km race.
With reference to the above graph, consider the
following statements:
(A) The race was won by A.
(B) B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.
(C) C ran very slowly from the beginning.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) A and B only
(3) B and C only (4) A, B and C
61. Consider the following figures:
What is the missing number?
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10
62. Study the following figure :
A person goes from A to B always moving to the
right or downwards along the lines. How many
different routes can he adopt?
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
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63. Consider the following figure and answer the
item that follows:
What is the total number of triangles in the above
grid?
(1) 27 (2) 26 (3) 23 (4) 22
Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:
The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based
on three passages in English to test the
comprehension of English language. Read each passage
and answer the items that follow.
Passage-I
He walked several miles that day but could not get
anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and
some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers.
As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a
meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew
awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry,
and was feeling more lonely than he had ever felt
before He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tired
with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was
feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of
bread with a few coins that he had.
64. When the night fell, he slept
(1) in the open field
(2) under a pile of dry grass
(3) in a farmer's cottage
(4) under a tree
65. He soon fell asleep because
(1) he was exhausted
(2) he was all alone
(3) he had not slept for days
(4) he was very frightened
66. With reference to the passage, consider the
following statements:
(A) He was walking through the countryside.
(B) The cottagers and farmers gave him enough
food so that he could sleep at night without
feeling hungry.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
Passage-II
I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then,
just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred
to me. Had I packed my toothbrush? I don’t know how
it is, but I never do know whether I’ ve packed my
toothbrush.
My toothbrush is thing that haunts me when I'm
travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I
haven't packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration,
and get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the
morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is
always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I
repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at
the last moment and carry it to the railway station,
wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.
67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that
occurred to him was
(1) unpleasant (2) sad
(3) fantastic (4) amusing
68. What makes his life miserable whenever he
undertakes travelling?
(1) Going to railway station
(2) Forgetting the toothbrush
(3) Packing his bag
(4) Bad dreams
69. His toothbrush is finally
(1) in his bag
(2) in his bed
(3) in his handkerchief
(4) lost
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Passage-III
In spring polar bear mothers emerge from dens with
three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for
as long as eight months but that does not stop the
young from demanding full access to her remaining
reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent
stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal
at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter
forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are
protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family
rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar
bears, I've only once seen the smallest of triplets
survive till autumn.
70. Female polar bears give birth during
(1) spring (2) summer
(3) autumn (4) winter
71. Mother bear
(1) takes sides over cubs
(2) lets the cubs fend for themselves
(3) feeds only their favourites
(4) sees that all cubs get an equal share
72. With reference to the passage, the following
assumptions have been made:
(A) Polar bears fast as long as eight months due
to non-availability of prey.
(B) Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are
valid?
(1) A only (2) B only
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:
Given below are eight items. Each item describes a
situation and is followed by four possible responses.
Indicate the response you find most appropriate.
Choose only one response for each item. The responses
will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness
for the given situation.
Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for
wrong answers for these eight items.
73. You have been asked to give an explanation for
not attending an important official meeting. Your
immediate boss who has not informed you about
the meeting is now putting pressure on you not
to place an allegation against him/her. You would
(1) send a written reply explaining the fact.
(2) seek an appointment with the top boss to
explain the situation.
(3) admit your fault to save the situation.
(4) put the responsibility on the coordinator of
the meeting for not informing.
74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal
construction on your vacant plot. He has refused
your request to vacate and threatened you of dire
consequences in case you do not sell the property
at a cheap price to him. You would
(1) sell the property at a cheap price to him.
(2) go to the police for necessary action.
(3) ask for help from your neighbours
(4) negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.
75. You have to accomplish a very important task for
your Headquaters within the next two days.
Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office
insists that you complete the task. You would
(1) ask for an extension of deadline.
(2) inform Headquarters of your inability to
finish on time.
(3) suggest alternate person to Headquarters
who may do the needful.
(4) stay away till you recover.
76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic
medical facilities to the survivors of an
earthquake affected area. Despite your best
possible effort, people put allegations against you
for making money out of the funds given for
relief. You would
(1) let an enquiry be set up to look into the
matter.
(2) ask your senior to appoint some other person
in your place.
(3) not pay attention to allegations.
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(4) stop undertaking any initiative till the matter
is resolved.
77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at
a short notice to be used for an area under flood.
On seeing the price mentioned by the boat
owners you found that the lowest price was
approximately three times more than the
approved rate of the Government. You would
(1) reject the proposal and call for a fresh price.
(2) accept the lowest price.
(3) refer the matter to the Government and wait.
(4) threaten the boat owners about a possible
cancellation of the licence.
78. You are the officer-in-charge of a village
administering distribution of vaccine in an
isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with
only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that
vaccine from the Gram Pradhan and also a poor
villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram
Pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would
(1) initiate the procedure to expedite the next
supply without issuing the vaccine to either.
(2) arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the
distributor of another area.
(3) ask both to approach a doctor and get an
input about the urgency.
(4) arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from
the distributor of another area.
79. You have taken up a project to create night-
shelters for homeless people during the winter
season. Within a week of establishing the
shelters, you have received complaints from the
residents of the area about the increase in theft
cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You
would
(1) ask them to lodge a written complaint in the
police station.
(2) assure residents of an enquiry into the
matter.
(3) ask residents to consider the humanitarian
effort made.
(4) continue with the project and ignore their
complaint.
80. You, as an administrative authority have been
approached, by the daughter-in-law of an
influential person regarding harassment by her
in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her
parents are not able to approach you because of
social pressures. You would
(1) call the in-laws for an explanation.
(2) counsel the lady to adjust, given such a
circumstance.
(3) take action after her parents approach you
(4) ask her to lodge a complaint with the police.
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Use this Page for Rough Work
GS Paper II
Answer Key
Q. Ans.
Q. Ans.
Q. Ans.
Q. Ans.
1 4
21 3
41 4
61 3
2 2
22 1
42 1
62 3
3 4
23 3
43 2
63 3
4 3
24 3
44 2
64 2
5 4
25 3
45 2
65 1
6 1
26 4
46 3
66 1
7 3
27 2
47 4
67 1
8 4
28 4
48 4
68 2
9 2
29 2
49 1
69 3
10 1
30 2
50 2
70 4
11 1
31 1
51 4
71 2
12 3
32 3
52 4
72 4
13 1
33 1
53 3
73 1
14 4
34 2
54 3
74 2
15 3
35 3
55 1
75 3
16 4
36 1
56 2
76 1
17 4
37 2
57 4
77 2
18 3
38 3
58 2
78 3
19 3
39 1
59 2
79 2
20 4
40 2
60 2
80 1
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1. A is incorrect as it is not that the adult society does not
act on behalf of children if they are denied any
education. It is merely that since a child cannot
demand the rights or his/her own, therefore adult
society “must” act on behalf of the child.
B is incorrect as the passage does not indicate that the
right cannot be enforced in the country but rather
mentions the shortfalls and difficulties which may
occur in the act of enforcing the law.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
2. A is not in the passage at all.
B, C and D are mentioned as traditional obstacles to the
education of girls, this can be seen by the statements
“This may be painfully……… if at all.”, “Tenacious
prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs
across……..has not been able to address it.”
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
3. A is incorrect as in the passage it is mentioned that
“One hardly needs a reminder…..enshrined in the
Constitution.”, which indicates that it is a constitutional
right.
B is incorrect as it is not indicated in the passage that
adoption of a new system of education similar to that
of developed countries will lead to the realization of
the goal of universal education.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
4. 1 is incorrect since there is no mention of any
declaration making education compulsory.
2 is incorrect as the passage mentions that adults
should act on behalf of children in implementing the
act but there is no mention of the adults not being keen
in implementing the Right to Education.
4 is incorrect as this is not the key message in the
passage and it cannot be implied or inferred from the
passage.
3 is correct as it conveys the key message of the
passage as it mentions the various obstacles a girl child
has to face in her education and mentions the
importance of safeguarding the right.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
5. 1 is mentioned in the passage and hence is not an
inference.
3 has the word 'prohibitive' which cannot be inferred
from the passage.
4 is supported by “If a legal battle.....if at all” which
points out the opportunity cost of a missed childhood,
particularly for girls.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
6. If there are two fathers and two sons among three
males, we can conclude that the family has three
generations.
We can have two possible arrangements as shown
below:
From the first arrangement, D is E’s husband.
Hence, option 1.
7. E and A are the females in the group.
Hence, option 3.
8. B’s wife A, is the teacher .
Hence, option 4.
9. Total number of participants = 2878
Total number of male participants = 1652
∴ Total number of female participants = 2878 – 1652
= 1226
1226 voted against and 1425 persons voted for the
proposal.
Hence, 2878 – 1226 – 1425 = 227 persons were
undecided.
Now, there were 196 undecided females.
Hence, there were 227 – 196 = 31 undecided males.
As, 796 males voted against, hence, 1226 – 796 = 430
females voted against the proposal.
Now, number of males who voted for the proposal is
1652 – 796 – 31 = 825
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Hence, 1425 – 825 = 600 females voted for the
proposal.
Hence, we get the following table.
Males Females Voted for 825 600
Voted against 796 430 Undecided 31 196
From the above table, 600 females voted for the
proposal.
Hence, option 2.
10. From the table in the answer to the first question of
this set, 31 males were undecided.
Hence, option 1.
11. From the table in the answer to the first question of
this set, 430 females were not in a favour of the
proposal.
Hence, option 1.
12. Number of people between X and Y = 48 – 14 – 17 = 17
Now, Z is exactly between X and Y.
Hence, number of people between X and Z = (17 – 1)/2
= 8
Hence, option 3.
13. A and B are stated in paras 2 and 3 respectively.
C contradicts the passage which says “remains on the
sidelines with minimal interference”.
The sentence “The early debate ….can be misleading”
shows that size is not something that the author
wishes to focus on. Hence, D is not correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
14. 1, 2 and 3 are an increase in government interference
which is contradictory to the basic idea of the passage,
4 is in line with the passage -“steps… who needs
support and help”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
15. The passage calls a large bureaucracy 'cumbersome'
and is not in favour of it, making A is incorrect.
B has no support in the passage – rather the passage is
against government interference.
C, D and E are mentioned in the third paragraph.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
16. The passage states that the state is unable to deliver all
that is needed as India is too large and complex a
nation for the state to do so, which means that the
structure of the nation is responsible, not the state. A
and B both place the blame on the state.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
17. 1 and 2 convey only part of the message of the
passage.
3 contradicts the passage - talking about more rather
than less interference.
4 is the best option since it best captures the passages's
focus on inclusive growth.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
18. A takes a literal meaning of “creative society”, which is
inappropriate in the context.
B contradicts the passage.
C is mentioned in the first sentence where potential
contradictions become “articulate”.
D is mentioned in “This is evident…..creative society in
temporary times”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
19. Social movements do not need to be aggressive. Hence
A is incorrect.
B contradicts the passage since social groups get
politically mobilised and demand their rights
(internally) and not externally.
The entire passage supports C and D.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
20. A and B invert the argument in the passage, and are
incorrect.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
21. The given three statements can be represented in the
diagram below.
Clearly, only option(c) is correct.
Hence, option 3.
22. We will try to understand each of the given statements
A. All animals are carnivorous.
This can be represented using a venn diagram as:
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B. Some animals are not carnivorous.
This means that there is at least one animal, which
is not carnivorous.
C. Animals are not carnivorous.
The venn diagram for this statement is:
D. Some animals are carnivorous.
This means that at least one animal is
carnivorous.
The venn diagram for this statement is:
Let us now consider the options.
(1) A and C: From the explanation above, it can be
easily seen that both these cannot be true at the
same time. However both can be false if only some
animals are carnivorous.
Hence, option 1 is correct.
(2) A and B: We can see that these two statements
contradict each other and hence cannot both be
true. However, both can be false, if statement 2
implies statement 3.
Hence, option 2 is also correct.
(3) B and C: Statement (2) can also mean that all
animals are not carnivorous, in which case it will be
equivalent to statement 3. So these statements can
both be true. Hence, option 3 is not correct.
(4) C and D: These statements contradict each other
and hence cannot both be true. However, they
cannot both be false either. Hence, option 4 is not
correct.
Multiple answers are correct. We however mark option
1 as the answer as only one answer can be correct .
Hence, option 1.
23. The statements can be understood as follows:
A. All trains are run by diesel engine.
This statement can be represented using a venn
diagram as:
B. Some trains are run by diesel engine.
The venn diagram for this is:
C. No train is run by diesel engine.
This is represented as:
D. Some trains are not run by diesel engine.
This means that there is at least one train, which is
not run by a diesel engine.
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Now consider options:
(1) A and B: From the explanation above, both these
statements can be true at the same time.
Hence, option 1 is not correct.
(2) B and C: These statements are contradictory and
hence cannot both be true. However, one of these
has to be true and hence they both cannot be false
at the same time.
Hence, option 2 is not correct.
(3) A and C: These statements are contradictory and
hence cannot both be true. However, if statement 2
is true, they can both be false .
Hence, option 3 is correct.
(4) A and D: These statements contradict each other
and hence cannot both be true. However, both can
be false if statement 4 implies statement 3.
Hence, option 4 is also correct.
Multiple answers are correct. We, however, mark
option 3 as the answer as only one answer can be
correct.
Hence, option 3.
24. Population of country will be declining if the
percentage of youngsters is less than the percentage of
old people.
Only pyramid C depicts this.
Hence, option 3.
25. Only graph C represents exponential growth.
Hence, option 3.
26. The given pie charts give disease categories as
percentage of total number of patients. We do not
know the total number of patients in the two towns. So
it is not possible to find the number of diabetes
patients in towns A and B.
Hence, option 4.
27. Since, the numbers in town B add up to more than
100%, we can conclude that Town B definitely has
patients with more than one disease.
In town A, the numbers add up to exactly 100%.
Hence, no one in town A has more than one disease.
Hence, option 2.
As the velocity of train B is higher than train A, we can
say that both the trains do not travel the same distance
in the same time.
Hence, option 4.
29. The pronoun “them” refers to the poor and unfortunate
in every country and only B is consistent with this.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
30. A is contradictory to the passage.
B is an assumption implied from “Spiritual or any other
….. starvation and misery”.
C is a conclusion in the passage and is not an
assumption.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
31. 2, 3 and 4 are just references in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
32. 3 is correct from “every civilization and every
people……that torture the mind and spirit ”. Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
33. The person started recovering soon after he started
treatment. This means that after starting treatment,
the number of bacteria decreased. This must be region
E.
The time when he suffered is thus from B to D, where
the bacteria and hence the symptoms increased.
A must be the period immediately after being exposed
to contaminated water, or the incubation period of the
infection, when he did not show any symptoms.
Hence, option 1.
34. Part B of the curve indicates that the person began
showing symptoms of infection.
Hence, option 2.
35. Region E indicated that the treatment yielded effective
relief.
Hence, option 3.
36.
As there are 4 routes from A to B and 6 from B to C,
there are 4 × 6 = 24 routes from A to C.
Hence, option 1.
37. The penalty pattern is an AP.
First term a = Rs.200
Common difference d = Rs.50
n = 10
∴
Hence, option 2.
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38.
The fundamental law of reflection states that the angle
of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
Using this principle, we plot the path of the ray.
We observe that both the incident and reflected rays
make equal angles with the line OP1 and make the
same angle with the normal to the line OP2. Thus, they
are parallel and oppositely directed.
Hence, option 3.
39.
As shown in the figure, we can achieve the required
using 3 colours, R, G and B.
Hence, option 1.
40. The sides of the rectangle with area 15 can be (1, 15)
or (3, 5).
The sides of the rectangle with area 48 can be (48, 1);
(16, 3); (8 , 6); (4, 12) or (2, 24)
Consider option 1:
The side of rectangle with area 15 can be 3 and 5.
Hence, the corresponding sides of rectangle with area
48 have to be 7 and 5, which is not possible.
Hence, option 1 can be eliminated.
Consider option 2:
The sides of the rectangle with area 15 can be 3 and 5.
Then, the side of rectangle with area 48 is 8 and 6.
This is possible.
Hence, option 2.
41. Let x be the number of Rs.1 coins and y be the number
of Rs.2 coins.
Total number of coins = x + y = 50 …(i)
Total amount of money = x +2y = 75 …(ii)
From (i) and (ii),
y = 25
∴ x = 25
Hence, option 4.
42. Let the maximum distance be d cm.
Hence, d is the minimum number such that it is an
integral multiple of 40, 42 and 45.
∴ d = LCM(40, 42, 45) = 2520
∴ d = 2520 cm = 25 m 20 cm
Hence, option 1.
43. Velocity of the first bus v1= 40 km/hr
Velocity of second bus v2 = 320/5 km/hr = 64 km/hr
∴
Hence, option 2.
44. Consider the venn diagram below
Number of students who play both the games = 10
Number of students who play only cricket
= 60 – 10 = 50
Number of students who play only football
= 30 – 20 = 10
∴ Number of students who play neither of the games
= 100 – (50 + 20 + 10) = 20
Hence, option 2.
45. Note that 1000 litres = 1(metre)3
= 600 m3
Total water in the tank = (20 × 15 × 6) m3 = 1800 m3
Number of days water can last = 1800/600 = 3
Hence, option 2.
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46. 1 and 4 represent an example of the theme. 3 is
correct since the passage focuses on the role of key
stone species.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
47. A is incorrect since mussels are the dominant species
only in the absence of Sea stars.
B has no support in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
48. A is incorrect since mussels are prey – rather than
competitors for sea stars. B has no support in the
passage. C is mentioned in the first few lines of the
passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
49. A is correct since the removal of a key stone species
threatens the survival of other species in the eco
system.
B has no support in the passage – it merely takes the
example of an acquatic ecosystem to explain keystone
species.
C is too strong. While a few species will be wiped out if
the key stone species are removed, collapse cannot be
concluded.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
50. The given argument can have one representation as
follows:
Now, consider options
1. Those mathematicians who are poor cannot be
teachers. So option 1 is a valid conclusion.
2. Teachers are college graduates and college
graduates are not poor. So teachers are not poor is
valid.
3. From the diagram above, option 2 is not a valid
argument.
4. Poets are poor and no collge graduates are poor. So
option 4 is valid.
Hence, option 2.
51. Average for the first three tests = N
∴ The sum of scores in the first three tests = 3N
Score in the fourth test = N +20
∴
= N + 5
Hence, option 4.
52. Fraction of males = 70%
∴ Fraction of females = 30%
Fraction of married = 30%
Fraction of unmarried = 70%
Let the fraction of females who are single be x.
∴
Hence, option 4.
53.
The distance along the path given is 20 km. So the
straight line distance between the houses C and D is
less than 20 km.
Hence, option 3.
54. The last sentence indicates an adverse effect on clean
water and on biodiversity.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
55. Only A is implied. C is irrelevant, and C has no support.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
56. A is incorrect since the passage points out both the
negatives and positives of modifications.
B is mentioned in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
57. B and D are irrelevant to the passage.
A is correct since a moral act should spring from our
own free will.
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C is correct from “But if the messenger....moral one”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
58. 1 contradicts the passage. 3 and 4 have not been
mentioned.
Option 2 is correct. A moral action should be based on
our free will or discretion.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
59. The statement refers to not having one’s own opinion
or thought process, following what orders are given
without actually understanding them, and also refers
to being easily influenced and pressurised. C is not
consistent with the above meaning, while D has a
literal meaning.
A and B are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
60. Time require to complete 30 km was lowest for A.
Hence, A won the race.
Hence, statement A is correct.
Till 25 km, B was faster than A. Hence, statement B is
also correct.
In the initial part of the race, C covered greater
distance than A and B. So C had the highest speed.
Hence, statement C is false.
Hence, option 2.
61. Every element of first figure is multiplied by 1.5 to get
it’s corresponding element in figure 2.
2 × 1.5 = 3
80 × 1.5 = 120
24 × 1.5 = 36
Hence, missing term = 6 × 1.5 = 9
Hence, option 3.
62. Note from the figure that the person needs to take four
steps of which two steps are south and two steps are
east.
He can select the two steps that go southward in 4C2 = 6 ways.
The choice of eastward steps follows from the choice of
southward steps.
Hence there are 6 different paths.
Hence, option 3.
63. Let the area of larger triangle be 16.
Hence, number of triangles with area 1 = 12
Number of triangles with area 4 = 7
Number of triangles with area 9 = 3
Number of triangles with area 16 = 1
Hence, total number of triangles = 12 + 7 + 3 + 1 = 23
Hence, option 3.
64. A haystack refers to a pile of hay or dried grass.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
65. “He fell asleep being much tired with his long walk”
hence he was exhausted.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
66. He slept under a haystack lying in the meadow. A
meadow refers to a tract of grass land or a field. Which
means that he was walking through the countryside.
Hence A is correct.
B is incorrect since it contradicts the passage - he was
'hungry'.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
67. Horrible means something very bad or unpleasant,
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
68. “My toothbrush is a thing ….. a misery” indicates the
correct answer.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
69. At the last moment he carries it to the railway station
wrapped up in his handkerchief.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
70. “In spring….. cubs” indicates that they give birth to the
cubs three months before spring which indicates the
season of “winter”.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
71. “If there are….. expense of others” which means that
the mother bear lets her cubs fight for the meal and in
a sense makes them fend for themselves without
interfering.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
72. A and B have no support in the passage.
Hence, the correct answer is option 4.
73. 1 will aggravate the situation. 3 is unfair to you. 4 is an
untrue statement, and hence not appropriate.
1 is most appropriate in the given content, since it
preserves your stand for the record.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
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74. 1 and 4 are either bending to an anti-social element or
dealing with the same. .
2 is better than 3 since the police is the appropriate
authority to deal with such elements.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
75. It is important to accomplish the task. Hence 3 is better
than the others.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
76. It is important to continue to work while maintaining
transparency. 3 lacks transparency. 2 and 4 stop work.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.
77. In a crisis, the priority is the welfare of the people.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
78. Without being unfair to either, you need to provide
them both with the vaccine.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
79. It is important to continue to work while maintaining
transparency. 1 lack transparency. 3 and 4 sidestep the
issue.
Hence, the correct answer is option 2.
80. Keep the context in mind: social pressure. 3 is clearly
inappropriate. Since the girl has approached you for
help, 2 is inappropriate as it will not solve the problem
of harassment. 4 is not a valid decision, since she has
approached you “as an administrative authority” and it
is clear that she does not want to go to the police. 1 is
the most proactive decision.
Hence, the correct answer is option 1.