SBI PO EXAM - Welcome to Examcafe - An online portal … PO Exam Practice Set 1.pdfSBI PO Exam – Practice Set 1 Questions And Answers With Solutions (English) An online education

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH SOLUTIONS (ENGLISH)

PRACTICE

SET 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

WITH SOLUTIONS (ENGLISH)

SBI PO EXAM

An online education portal for preparing SSC, Banks, Railways, Police and many more competitive examinations

Thousands of questions on Reasoning, Aptitude, Current Affairs, General Awareness,

Banking Awareness, General Intelligence, English Language, Computer Knowledge,

General Knowledge, Online Test & many more topics in two languages (English & Hindi)

www.examcafe.in www.examcafe.in www.examcafe.in

http://www.examcafe.in/


SBI PO Exam – Practice Set 1 Questions And Answers With Solutions (English)

www.examcafe.in An online education website 1 | P a g e

Section 1

Reasoning Ability

1. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substituted by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the third digit form the left end after the rearrangement ? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) None of these

2. Town D is towards East of town F .Town B is towards North of town H is towards South of town D. Town H is towards South of town B. Towards which direction is town H from town F? (A) East (B) South-East (C) North-East (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

3. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight, D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E. Who among them is the heaviest? (A) B (B)E (C) C (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEARCHES each of which has as many letters between them in them in the English alphabet (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three (E) More than three

5. If ‘÷’ means ‘+’ , ‘-’ means ‘×’ , ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘+’ means ‘-’ , then

15 – 8 × 6 ÷ 12 + 4 =? (A) 20 (B) 28

(C) 84

7 (D) 2

2

3

(E) None of these

6. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 m he took a right turn and walked 100 m. He again took a right true and walked 30 m and stopped. How far and in which direction was he forms the starting point? (A) 50 m South (B) 150 m North (C) 180 m East (D) 50 m North (E) North of these

7. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in

each word? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three

(E) More than three




8. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER written in that code?

(A) Rmnbsfej (B) Bnmrsfej (C) Rmnbjefs (D) Topdqdch (E) None of these

9. In a certain code language ‘how many goals scored ‘is written as ‘5 3 9 7’; ‘many more matches’ is written as ‘9 8 2’ and ‘he scored five’ is written in that code language? (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 5 or 7 (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

10. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother’s birthDay is before twenty third of April but after Nineteenth of April, whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthDay is not on or after twenty second of April. On which Day In April is definitely their mother’s birthDay? (A) Twentieth (B) Twenty-first (C) Twentieth or twenty-first (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of the above

Directions (Q. 11 To Q. 15):- In each of the question below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance forming commonly known facts. Read the entire conclusion logically follows form the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements: All cups are bottles. Some bottles are jugs. No jug is plate. Some plates are tables.

Conclusions I. Some tables are bottles. II. Some plants are cups. III. No table is bottle. IV. Some jugs are cups.

(A)Only I follows (B) Only II follows (C) Only III follows (D) Only IV follows (E) Only either I or III follows

12. Statements: All birds are horses. All horses are tiger. Some tiger are lions. Some lions are monkeys.

Conclusions I. Some tiger are horses. II. Some monkey are birds. III. Some tigers are birds. IV. Some monkeys are horses.

(A) Only I and III follow (B) Only I, II and III follow

(C) Only II, III and IV follow (D) All I, II, III and IV follow (E) None of the above




13. Statements: Some chairs are handles. All handles are pots. All pots are mats are buses.

Conclusion I. Some buses are handles. II. Some mats are chairs. III. No bus is handling. IV. Some mats are handles.

(A) Only I, II and IV follow (B) Only II, III and IV follow (C) Only either I or III and II follow (D) Only either I or III and IV follow (E) Only either I or III and II and IV follow

14. Statement: Some sticks are lamps. Some flowers are lamps. Some lamps are dresses. All dresses are

shirts Conclusion I. Some shirts are sticks. II. Some shirts are flowers. III. Some flowers are sticks. IV. Some dresses are sticks.

(A) None follows (B) Only I follows (C) Only II follows (D) Only III follows (E) Only IV follows

15. Statements: Some benches are walls. All walls are house. Some house are jungles are roads.

Conclusion I. Some roads are benches. II. Some jungles are walls. III. Some houses are benches. IV. Some roads are houses.

(A) Only I and II follow (B) Only I and III follow (C) Only III and IV follow (D) Only II,III and IV follow (E) None of the above

Directions (Q. 16 To Q. 20):- Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight employees of an organization working in three departments viz. Personnel, Administration and Marketing with not more than three of them in any department. Each of them has a different choice of sports form football, cricket, volleyball, badminton, lawn tennis, basketball, hockey and table tennis not necessarily in the same order. D woks in Administration and does not like either football or cricket. F works in Personnel with only A who likes table tennis. E and H do not work in the same department as D. C likes hockey and does not work in Marketing. G does not work in Administration and does not like either cricket or badminton. One of those who work in Administration likes football. The one who work In Administration likes either badminton or lawn tens. H does not like cricket.

16. Which of the following groups of employees work in Administration department? (A) EGH (B) AF (C) BCD (D) BGD (E) Data inadequate




17. In which department does E work?

(A) Personnel (B) Marketing (C) Administration (D) Data inadequate (E) None of these

18. What is E’s favourite sport?

(A) Cricket (B) Badminton (C) Basketball (D) Lawn Tennis (E) None of these

19. Which of the following combination of employee – department - favourite sport is correct?

(A) E- Administration-Cricket (B) F-Personnel-Lawn Tennis (C) H-Marketing-Lawn Tennis (D) B-Administration-Table Tennis (E) None of the above

20. What is G’s favourite sport? (A) Cricket (B) Badminton (C) Basketball (D) Lawn Tennis (E) None of these

Directions (Q. 21 To Q. 25):- In the following question the symbols @, $, *, # and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: ‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’ ‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’. ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’. ‘P * Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’. Now, in each of the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the four conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

21. Statements: N & B, B $ W, W # H, H Conclusions I. M @ W II. H@ N III. W & N IV. W # N

(A) Only I is true (B) Only III is true (C) Only IV is true (D) Only either III or IV is true (E) Only either III or IV and I are true




22. Statements: R * D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K

Conclusions I. K # J II. D @ M III. R # M IV. D @ K

(A) None is true (B) Only I is true (C) Only II is true (D) Only III is true (E) Only IV is true

23. Statements: H @ T, T # F, F & E, E * V

Conclusions I. V $ F II. E @ T III. H @ V IV. T # V

(A) Only I, II and III are true (B) Only II, III and IV are true (C) Only I, III and IV are true (D) Only I, III and IV are true (E) All I, II, III, and IV are true

24. Statements: D # R, R * K, K @ F, F $ J Conclusion I. J # R II. J # K III. R # F IV. K @ D

(A) Only I,II and III are true (B) Only II,III and IV are true (C) Only I, III and IV are true (D) All I, II, III and IV are true (E) None of the above

25. Statements: M $ K, K @ N, N * R, R # W Conclusion I. W @ K II. M 4 r III. K @ w IV. M @ N

(A) Only I and II are true (B) Only I, II and IV are true (C) Only III and IV are true (D) Only II, III and IV are true (E) None of the above




Direction (Q. 26 To Q. 30):- Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-Credit in bank. The candidate must

I. Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 60 per cent makes. II. Have post qualification work experience of at least ten Years in the Advances Section of a bank. III. Be at least 30 Years and not more than 40 Years as on 1. 4. 2010. IV. Have secured at least 50 per cent marks in interview. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the

conditions Except

(A) At (I) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in graduation and at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduation and discipline the case is to be referred to the General Manage-Advances.

(B) At (ii) above but has total post qualification work experience of at least seven Years out of which at least three Years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Experience of at least three Years as Manager-Credit in a bank, the case is to be referred to Executive Director.

In each question, below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the

conditions and sub-conditions given above and make the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.04.2010.

Give answer (A) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director. Give answer (A) if the case is to be referred to General Manager-Advances. Give answer (C) if the data are inadequate to take a decision. Give answer (D) if the candidate is not to be selected. Give answer (E) if the candidate is to be selected.

26. Prakash Gokhale was born was born on 4th August 1977. He has secured 65 per cent marks in post-graduation and 58 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working for the past ten Years in the Advances Department per cent marks in the group discussion and 50 cent marks in the interview.

27. Amit Narayan was born on 28th May 1974. He has been working in the Advances Department of a bank for the past eleven Years \after completing his B. Sc. Degree with 65 per cent marks. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the group discussion and 50 per cent marks in the interview.

28. Shobha Gupta has secured 50 per cent marks in the interview and 40 per cent marks in the group discussion. She has been working for the past eight Years out of which four Years as Manager-Credit in a bank after completing her B.A. degree with 60 per cent marks. She was born on 12th September, 1978.

29. Rohan Maskare was born on 8th March 1974. He has been working in a bank for the past twelve Years after completing his B.Com degree with 70 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in both the group discussion and the interview.

30. Sudha Mehrotra has been working in the group discussion and 40 per cent marks in the interview. She

was born on 15th February 1972.




Directions (Q. 31 To Q. 35):- In each question below is given a statement following by three courses of action numbered (A), (B) and (C). A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested coursed of action logically follow (s) for pursuing.

31. Statement: Many political activists have decided to stage demonstrations and block Traffic movements in the city during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities. Courses of action (A) The government should immediately ban all forms of agitation in the country. (B) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces (C) The state administration should administration should carry out preventive arrests of the know

criminals staying in the city. (A) Only (A) (B) Only(B) (C) Only (C) (D) Only (A) and (B) (E) None of these

32. Statement: The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last

few Years as he parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by others to earn enough for them to get at least one meal a Day. Courses of action (A) The government should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these

districts system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school. (B) The government should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of

these schools to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools. (C) The governments should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in

fields instead of attending classes. (A) Only (A) (B) Only (B) (C) Only (C) (D) Only (A) and (B) (E) None of these

33. Statement: A largo private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employees in view of the huge

losses incurred by it during the past three quarters. Courses of action (A) The government should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all transaction with

the bank. (B) The government should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees. (C) The government should ask the central bank of the country to initiate an enquiry into the bank’s

activities and submit its report. (A) None (B) Only (A) (C) Only (B) (D) Only (C) (E) Only (A) and (C)




34. Statement: One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in recruitment drive of police

constables. Courses of action (A) The officials in charge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended. (B) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the

aspirant and submit its report within week. (C) The government should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more

number of Days to avoid such incidents in future. (A) Only (A) (A) Only (B) (C) Only (C) (D) Only (A) and (C) (E) None of these

35. Statement: A heavy unseasonal downpour during the last two Days has paralyzed the normal life in the

normal life in the state in which five persons were killed but this has provide a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state. Courses of action (A) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation. (B) The state government should immediately remove all the restriction on use of potable water in all the

major cities in the state. (C) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state. (A) None (B) Only (A) (C) Only (A) and (C) (D) Only (C) (E) All (A), (B), (C)

36. Statement: The government has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a way that there is one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and above or a cluster of village with population less than 1000 to provide banking services to all the citizens. Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the government? (A) The private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion actives in rural India. (B) Many government owned banks have surplus manpower in its urban branches. (C) All the banks including those in private sector will follow the government directive. (D) Large number of branches of many government owned banks in the rural areas are making huge

losses every Year due to lack of adequate business activities (E) None of the above

37. Cause The government has recently increased its taxes on petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent. Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause? (A) The petroleum companies will reduce the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent. (B) The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 per cent. (C) The petroleum companies will increase the pries of petrol and diesel by about 5 per cent. (D) The petrol pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled banks by government. (E) None of the above.




38. Statement: Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring form engineering

college campuses this Year and are likely to recruit much more than Yearly recruitment of the earlier Years. Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement? (A) IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring form engineering college campuses (B) Government has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five Year (C) The IT and ITES companies have now decided to visit the engineering college campuses for tier II

cities in India as well (D) Availability of qualified engineers will substantially increase in the near future (E) None of the above

39. Effect Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary retirement scheme and

left the organization with all their retirement benefits within a fortnight of launching the scheme. (A) The company has been making huge losses for the past five Years and is unable to pay salary to its

employees in time (B) The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities (C) One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last Year (D) The company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sum to its owners (E) None of the above

Direction (Q. 40 To Q. 42):- Study the following information carefully and answer the question give below:

The centre reportedly wants to continue providing subsidy to consumers for cooking gas and kerosene for five more Years. This is not good news from the point of view in the fiscal deficit. Mounting subventions for subsidies means diversion of savings by the government form investment to consumption, raising the cost of capital in the process. The government must cut expenditure on subsidies to create more fiscal space for investments in both physical and social infrastructure. It should outline a plan for comprehensive reform in major subsidies including petroleum, Foodland fertilizers and set goal posts.

40. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the given paragraph? (A) Subsidy provided by the government under various heads to the citizen increases the cost of capital (B) Government is unable to withdraw subsidies provided to various items (C) Government subsidy on kerosene is purely a political decision (D) Government of India has sought assistance from international financial organizations for its

infrastructural projects (E) None of the above

41. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts sated in the given paragraph?

(A) People in India may not be able to pay more for petroleum products (B) Many people in India are rich enough to buy petroleum products at market cost (C) Government may not be able to create more infrastructural facilities if the present level of subsidy

continues for a longer time (D) Government of India has sought assistance from international financial organizations for its

infrastructural projects (E) None of the above




42. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the given paragraph?

(A) India’s fiscal deficit is negligible in comparison to other emerging economies in the word (B) Subsidy on food and fertilizers are essential for grown of India economy (C) Reform in financial sector will weaken India’s position in the international arena (D) Gradual withdrawal of subsidy is essential for effectively managing fiscal deficit in India (E) None of the above

Direction (Q. 43 To Q. 45):- Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Poverty measurement is an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel processes is a proportion commonly identified as the ‘head count ratio’ but these ratios hide the fundamental dynamism that characterizes poverty in practice. The most recent poverty estimates by an expert group has also missed the crucial dynamism. In a study conducted on 13,000 households which represented the entire country in 1993-94 and again on 2004-05, it was found that in the ten-Year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty whereas another 22.1% fell into it over this period. This net increase of about four percentage points was seen to have a considerable variation across state and regions.

43. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph? (A) It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India (B) Level of poverty in India is static over the Year (C) Researchers avoid making conclusion on poverty measurement data in India (D) Government of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty objectively (E) None of the above

44. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?

(A) Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made (B) Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively (C) Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic

nature (D) People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time (E) None of the above

45. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph? (A) Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated (B) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time (C) Government of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies (D) People living in rural area more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time (E) None of the above




Direction (Q. 46 To Q. 50):- In each of the questions given below which one of the answer figure should come after the problem figure, if the sequence were continued?

46. Problem figures

Answer figures

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

47. Problem Figures

A K

A

K A

K

K A

A

K

Answer Figures

A

K

A

K

A

K KA

A K (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

48. Problem Figures

Z

Z Z Z

Z

Answer Figures

Z Z

Z

ZZ

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)




49. Problem Figures

A T

T

A A

T

A

T

Z

A

T

Answer Figures

A

T T

A

A

T

Z

T

A

T

A

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

50. Problem Figures

S S

Answer Figures

SS S

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)




Section 2 Data Analysis and Interpretation

Direction (Q. 51 To Q. 55):- Study the following table carefully to answer question that follow. Number (N) of candidates (in Lakhs) Appearing for an Entrance Examination form Six Different State and the Percentage (P) of Candidates clearing the same Over the Years

State Year

A B C D E F

N P N P N P N P N P N P

2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

1.23 1.05 2.04 1.98 1.66 1.57

42 43 38 41 53 39

1.04 1.12 1.48 2.07 1.81 1.73

51 62 32 43 50 36

1.11 1.07 1.08 1.19 1.56 1.64

32 47 28 30 42 52

1.32 1.15 1.96 1.88 1.83 2.01

24 49 35 46 60 56

1.23 1.18 1.42 1.36 1.73 1.69

36 55 49 47 57 55

1.33 1.24 1.58 1.79 1.86 1.95

31 24 26 29 34 37

51. In which Year did the highest number of candidates clear the entrance exam form State D?

(A) 2008 (A) 2006 (C) 2009 (D) 2007 (E) None of the above

52. What is the respective ratio number of candidates clearing the entrance exam form State B in the Year 2004 to those clearing the entrance exam form State C in the same Year? (A) 221: 148 (A) 218 : 143 (C) 148: 221 (D) 143 : 218 (E) None of the

53. What is the total number of candidates the entrance exam form State D and F together in the entrance

exam form State E and F together in the Year 2006? (A) 16160 (A) 110660 (C) 1.1066 (D) 1106600 (E) None of the above

54. What is the average number of candidates appearing for the entrance exam form State D in the Year

2007, 2008 and 2009 together?

(A) 1.9072

3 (A) 18666

1

3

(C) 1.8661

3 (D) 190666

2

3

(E) None of the above




55. What is the number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam form State A in the Year 2007?

(A) 186820 (A) 11682 (C) 1868200 (D) 116820 (E) None of the above

Direction (Q. 56 To Q. 60):- Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows: An urn contains 6 red, 4 blue, 2 green, and 3 yellow marbles.

56. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that both are red?

(A) 1

6 (B)

1

3

(C) 2

15 (D)

2

5

(E) None of these

57. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue?

(A) 3

91 (B)

1

5

(C) 18

455 (D)

2

15

(E) None of these

58. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that at least one is blue?

(A) 4

15 (B)

69

91

(C) 11

15 (D)

22

91

(E) None of these

59. If two marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that either both are green or both are yellow?

(A) 5

91 (B)

1

35

(C) 1

3 (D)

4

105

(E) None of these 60. If four marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that one blue and one is red?

(A) 24

455 (B)

13

35

(C) 11

15 (D)

7

91

(E) None of these




Direction (Q. 61 To Q. 65):- Study the given pie-charts carefully to answer the question that follow. Break- up Number of Employees Working in Different Departments of an Organisation, the number of Males and the Number of Employees who recently got promoted on each Department. Break-up of Employees Working in Different Departments: Total Number of Employees = 360 Employees Working in Different Departments

Accounts20%

Marketing18%

HR12%

IT12%

Production35%

Break-up of Number of Males in each Department Total Number of Males in the Organisation = 2040 Break-up of Number of Males Working in each Department

Accounts5%

Marketing

15%

HR10%

IT20%

Production50%




Break-up of Number of Employees who recently got Promoted in each Department Total Number of Employees who got promoted = 1200 Number of Employees who recently got promoted from each department

Accounts8%

Marketing22%

HR11%

IT26%

Production33%

61. The number of employees who got promoted from the HR department was what per cent of the total number of employees working in that department? (rounded off to two digits after decimal) (A) 36.18 (B) 30.56 (C) 47.22 (D) 28.16

(E) None of these

62. The total number of employees who got promoted from all the departments together? (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

(A) 56 (B) 21 (C) 45 (D) 33 (E) 51

63. What is the total number of females working in the Production and Marketing

Departments together? (A) 468 (B) 812 (C) 582 (D) 972 (E) None of these

64. If half of the number of employees who got promoted from the IT department were males, what was the approximate percentage of males who got promoted from the IT department? (A) 61 (B) 29 (C) 54 (D) 42 (E) None of these

65. How many females work in the Accounts department? (A) 618 (B) 592 (C) 566 (D) 624 (E) None of these




Direction (Q. 66 To Q. 70):- Study the graph carefully to answer the question that follow. Per cent Rise in Profit of Two Companies over the Years

40

35

30

25

20

15

10

5

0

Pro

fit P

er C

ent

2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

Years

Company L Company M

66. If the profit earned by company L in the Year 2005 was Rs.1.84 Lakh, what was the profit earned by the company in the Year 2006? (A) Rs. 2.12 Lakh (B) Rs. 2.3 Lakh (C) Rs. 2.04 Lakh (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of the above

67. Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the above graph? (A) Company M made the highest profit in the Year 2009 (B) Company L made least profit in Year 2005 (C) The respective ratio between the profits earned by company L and M in the Year 2006 was 6:5 (D) Company L made the highest profit in the Year 2008 (E) All are true

68. What is the per cartage increase in per cent rise in profit of company M in the Year 2009 from the previous Year? (A) 25 (B) 15 (C) 50 (D) 75 (E) None of these

69. If the profit earned by company M in the Year 2008 was Rs 3.63, what was the amount of profit earned by

it in the Year 2006 Lakh? (A) Rs. 2.16 Lakh (B) Rs. 1.98 Lakh (C) Rs. 2.42 Lakh (D) Cannot be determind (E) None of these

70. What is the average per cent rise in profit of company L over all the Year together?

(A) 151

3 (A) 25

1

3

(C) 185

6 (D) 21

5

6

(E) None of these




Direction (Q. 71 To Q.75):- Study the information carefully to answer the question that follows:

A school consisting of a total of 1560 students has boys and girls in the ratio of 7:5 respectively. All the students are enrolled in different types of hobby classes, viz. Singing, Dancing and Painting. One-fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Painting. One- fifth of the boys are enrolled in only Dancing classes. Ten per cent of the boys are enrolled in only Painting classes. Twenty four per cent of the girl is enrolled in only Singing and dancing classes is two hundred per cent of the boys enrooted in the same. One-thirteenth of the boys are enrolled on all the three classes together. The respective ratio of boys enrolled on the same is 2: 1 respectively. Ten per cent of the girls are enrolled in only Dancing classes whereas eight per cent of the girls are enrolled in both Dancing and Painting classes together. The remaining girls are enrolled on all the three classes together. The number ot boys enrolled in Singing and Dancing classes together is fifty per cent of the number of girls enrolled in the same. The remaining boys are enrolled in only Painting classes.

71. Total number of girls enrolled in Singing is approximately what per cent of the total number of boys

enrolled in the same? (A) 37 (B) 19 (C) 32 (D) 14 (E) 26

72. What is the respective ratio of the number of girls enrolled in only Painting classes to the number of boys enrolled in the same? (A) 77 : 26 (B) 21 :73 (C) 26 : 77 (D) 73 : 21 (E) None of these

73. Number of girls enrolled in only Dancing classes is what per cent of the boys enrolled in the same?

(rounded off to two digits after decimal) (A) 38 .67 (B) 35 .71 (C) 41 .83 (D) 28 .62 (E) None of these

74. What is the total number of boys who are enrolled in Dancing? (A) 318 (B) 364 (C) 292 (D) 434 (E) None of the

75. What is the total number of student enrolled in all the three classes together?

(A) 135 (B) 364 (C) 292 (D) 434 (E) None of these




Direction (Q. 76 To Q. 80):- Study the table carefully to answer the question that questions that follow. Profit (In Rs. 000) Made by six Different shopkeepers over the months

76. Which shopkeeper’s profit kept increasing continuously over the given months?

(A) R (B) Q (C) T (D) U (E) None of these

77. What was the average profit earned by shopkeeper R in the months of October-2009 together? (A) Rs. 5405 (B) Rs. 5040 (C) Rs. 4825 (D) 4950 (E) None of these

78. What is the per cent increase in profit of shopkeeper S in the month of December -2009 over the previous month? (A) 3.15 (B) 2.67 (C) 2.18 (D) 3.33 (E) None of these

79. What is the respective ratio between the profit earned by shopkeeper U in the months February-2010 and March-2009 together to that earned by shopkeeper Qin the same months? (A) 637 : 512 (B) 621 : 508 (C) 512 : 637 (D) 508 : 621 (E) None of these

80. What is the difference in profit earned by shopkeeper T in January – 2010 form the previous month?

(A) Rs. 640 (B) Rs. 420 (C) Rs. 380 (D) Rs. 760 (E) None of these

Month Shopkeeper

October 2009

November 2009

December 2009

January 2010

February 2010

March 2010

P Q R S

T U

5.25 4.84 4.99 5.06 5.28 5.94

6.04 4.28 5.82 5.11 4.96 6.23

5.84 4.97 5.48 5.28 5.31 5.87

6.10 4.88 5.45 5.38 5.69 6.07

5.95 5.04 5.68 5.44 4.93 6.19

6.02 5.12 5.36 5.59 5.72 6.23




Direction (Q. 81 To Q.83):- Study the given graph carefully to answer the question that follow. Number of Days Taken by three Carpenter to Finish Making One Piece Each of Four Different Items of Furniture

16

14

12

10

8

6

4

2

0

Carpenter X Carpenter Z

Chair Table Bed Cupboard

Carpenter Y

81. If Carpenter X and Carpenter Y were to make a chair together how many Days would they take? (A) 1 Day (B) 4 Days (C) 3 Days (D) 2 Days (E) None of these

82. What is the total number of Days that Carpenter Z will take to make one piece each of all the four items together? (A) 32 Days (B) 24 Day

(C) 11

59 Days (D) 1

1

32 Days

(E) None of these

83. If Carpenters X, Y and Z were to make a table together how many Days would they taken? (A) 4 Days (B) 3 Days (C) 1 Day (D) 2 Days (E) None of these

84. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘STRESS’ be arranged? (A) 360 (B) 240 (C) 720 (D) 120 (E) None of these

85. The radius of a circular field is equal to the side of esquire field whose perimeter is 784 feet . What is the area of the circular filed? (A) 107914 sq-ft (B) 120736 sq-ft (C) 107362 sq-ft (D) 127306 sq-ft (E) None of these




Directions (Q. 86 To Q.90):- Study the given table carefully to answer the question that follow. Number of People Saying in Different Localities and the Percentage Break-up of Men, Women and Children in them

Locality

Total Number of

People

Percentage

Men Women Children

F G H I J

5640 4850 5200 6020 4900

55 34 48 65 42

35 44 39 25 41

10 22 13 10 17

86. What is the total number of men and children staying in locality I together?

(A) 4115 (B) 4551 (C) 4515 (D) 4155 (E) None of these

87. The number of women staying in which locality is the highest? (A) H (B) J (C) F (D) G (E) None of these

88. What is the total number of children staying in localities H and I together? (A) 1287 (B) 1278 (C) 1827 (D) 1728 (E) None of these

89. What is the respective ratio of number of men staying in locality F to the number of men staying in locality H? (A) 517 : 416 (B) 403 : 522 (C) 416 : 517 (D) 522 : 403 (E) None of these

90. Total number of people staying in locality J forms approximately what per cent of the total number of

people staying in locality F? (A) 81 (B) 72 (C) 78 (D) 93 (E) 87

91. The respective ratio of the present ages of a mother and daughter is 7 : 1.Four Years ago the respective ratio f their ages was 19 : 1. What will be the mother’s age four Years from now? (A) 42 Years (B) 38 Years (C) 46 Years (D) 36 Years (E) None of these




92. The compound interest earned by Suresh on a certain amount at the end of two Years at the rate of 8

p.c.p.a was Rs 1414.4. What was the total amount that Suresh got back at the end of two Years in the form of principal plus interest earned ? (A) Rs. 9414.4 (B) Rs. 9914.4 (C) Rs. 9014.4 (D) Rs. 8914. 4 (E) None of these

93. Three friends J.K and L jog round in 12. 18 and 20 seconds respectively. In how many minutes will all the three meet again at the starting point? (A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 3 (E) None of these

94. 4 men can complete a piece of work in 2 Days. 4 women can complete the same piece of work in 4 Days whereas 5 children can compete the same piece of work in 4 Days. If, 2 men, 4women and 10 children work together, in how many Days can the work be completed? (A) 1 Day (B) 3 Days (C) 2 Days (D) 4 Days (E) None of these

95. The speed of a boat when travelling downstream is 32 km/h, where when travelling upstream it is still

water? (A) 27 km/h (B) 29 km/h (C) 31 km/h (D) Cannot be determined (E) None of these

Direction (Q. 96 To Q.100):- Study the following tables carefully and answer the question given below them. Number and Percentage of Candidates Qualified in a Competitive Examination number of Candidates appeared in a Competitive Examination form Five Centres the Year

Number

Centre Mumbai Delhi Kolkata Hyderabad Chennai

Year

2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

35145 17264 24800 28316 36503 29129 32438

65139 58248 63309 70316 69294 59216 61345

45192 52314 56469 71253 69632 64178 56304

51124 50248 52368 54196 58360 48230 49178

37346 48932 51406 52315 55492 57365 58492




Approximate Percentages of Candidates Qualified to appeared in the Competitive Examination form Five Centres over the Years

(Percentage)

Mumbai Delhi Kolkata Hyderabad Chennai

12 10 15 11 13 14 16

24 28 21 27 23 20 19

18 12 23 19 16 21 14

17 21 25 24 23 19 20

9 12 10 8

13 11 14

96. Approximately what was the difference between the number of candidates qualified Hyderabad in 2001

and 2002? (A) 1680 (B) 2440 (C) 1450 (D) 2060 (E) 1860

97. Approximately what was the total number of candidates qualified form Delhi in 2002 and 2006 together? (A) 27250 (B) 25230 (C) 30150 (D) 28150 (E) 26250

98. In which of the following Years, was the difference in number of candidates appeared form Delhi in 2002 and 2006 together? (A) 2004 (B) 2006 (C) 2007 (D) 2002

99. In which of the following Year, was the number of candidate’s qualified form Chennai, the maximum

among the given Years? (A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2005 (D) 2003 (E) None of these

100. Approximately how many candidates appearing form Kolkata in the competitive examination? (A) 13230 (B) 13540 (C) 15130 (D) 15400 (E) 19240




Section 3 General Awareness/Marketing/Computer

101. Many a times, we read about Special Drawing Right (SDR) in newspapers. As per its definition. SDR is a

monetary unit of the reserve assets of which of the following organization/agencies? (A) World Bank (B) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (C) Asian Development Bank (D) Reserve Bank of India (E) None of these

102. As per the news published I various financial newspapers, the RBI is rework the roadmap on Capital

Account Convertibility. If this is done, who amongst the following would be able to invest in foreign projects or acquire assets India without any restrictions? (A) Public Sector Banks (B) Companies which are registered in India (C) Govt. of India (D) Any individual

(A) Only (A) (B) Only(B) (C) Only (C) (D) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (E) None of these

103. What is the full form of ‘NBFC’ as used in the Financial Sector?

(A) Now Banking Finance Corporation (B) Nation Banking & Finance Corporation (C) New Business Finance & Credit (D) None of the above

104. As we know with the launch of Nano by Tata Motors, India has become favourites Small Car

Destination of the word. Other than India, which of the following countries is also a popular destination of small cars? (A) Britain (B) France (C) Germany (D) Thailand (E) None of these

105. Many economists and financial analysts are of the opinion that India could withstand the recent global economic crisis comfortably because of a good fiscal consolidation and Govt.‘s adherence to the targets fixed by the (A) Fiscal Responsibility Act (B) Banking Regulation Act (C) Finance bill Act (D) Foreign Exchange Management Act (E) All of the above

106. What is an “internet’? (A) Internal internet used to transfer information internally (B) Internal internet used to transfer information to the outside company (C) Internal network designed to serve the internal informational needs of a Single organization (D) Internal network designed to transfer the transfer the information between two organizations (E) None of the above




107. To send another station a message, the main thing a user has to know is (A) How the network works (B) The other station a message, the main thing a user has to know is (C) Whether the network is packed-switched or cruit-switched (D) Whether this is a voice or data network (E) None of these

108. The database administrator’s function in an organization is (A) To be responsible for the more technical aspects of managing the information contained in

organization databases (B) To be responsible for the executive level aspects of decision regarding the information management (C) To show the relationship among entity classes in a data warehouse (D) To define which data mining tools must be used to extract data? (E) None of these

109. A……………is a computer connected to two networks. (A) Link (B) Server (C) Gateway (D) Bridge way (E) None of these

110. Each of the following is a true statement except (A) On-line systems continually update the master file (B) In on-line processing, the user enters transaction into a device that is directly connected to the

computer system (C) Batch processing is still used toDay in older systems or in some system with massive volumes of

transactions (D) Information in batch system will always be up-to-data (E) None of the above

111. When you save a presentation, (A) All slides in a presentation are saved in the same file (B) Two files are crated; one for graphics and one for content (C) A file is created for each slide (D) A file is created for each animation or graphic (E) None of the above

112. In a client/ server model, a client program (A) Asks for information (B) Provides information and files (C) Serves software files to other computers (D) Distributes data files to other computes (E) None of the above

113. Every device on the internet has a unique …….address (also called an ‘Internet addresses) that

Identifies it in the same way that a street addresses the location of a house. (A) DH (B) DA (C) IP (D) IA (E) None of these




114. In a customer database, a customer’s surname would be keyed into a (A) Row (B) Text Field (C) Rocord (D) Computedfield (E) None of these

115. A set of interrelated components that collect, process, store and distribute information to support decision making and control in an organization best defines (A) Communications technology (B) A network (C) An information system (D) Hardware

116. Control in design of an information system is used to (A) Inspect the system and check that it is built as per specifications (B) Ensure that the system processes data as it was designed to and that the result is reliable (C) Ensure privacy of data processed by it (D) Protect data form accidental or intentional loss (E) None of these

117. One of the following is not included I the 7Ps of marketing. Find the same. (A) Product (B) Price (C) Production (D) Promotion (E) None of these

118. Home Loans can be best canvassed among (A) Builders (B) Flat owners (C) Land developers (D) Agriculturists (E) None of these

119. CRM (Customer Relationship Management) is (A) A pre-sales activity (B) A tool for lead generation (C) An ongoing daily activity (D) An ongoing daily of a DSA (E) All of the above

120. One of the following is not involved in the Growth Strategies of a Company

(A) Horizontal integration (B) Vertical integration (C) Diversification (D) Intensification (E) None of the above

121. SME means

(A) Selling and Marketing Establishment (B) Selling and Managing Employee (C) Sales and Marketing Entity (D) Small and Medium Enterprises (E) None of the above

122. A successful ‘Blue Ocean Strategy’ requires

(A) Effective communication (B) Innovative skills (C) Motivation (D) All of the above (E) None of the above




123. Banc assurance can be sold to (A) All banks (B) All insurance computer (C) Insurance Agents (D) All existing and prospective bank customers (E) All of the above

124. Data mining means analysing the data stored with (A) The DSA (B) The front-office staff (C) The back-office staff (D) The customers (E) None of these

125. Find the correct stamen. (A) Marketing is redundant in monopolistic companies (B) Performance of sales person depends on the amount of incentives paid (C) Marketing is influence by peer performance (D) An increase in market share indicates fall in business volume (E) A Mission statement in part of the Company’s Prospectus

126. Storing same data in many place is called (A) Iteration (B) Concurrency (C) Redundancy (D) Enumeration (E) None of these

127. Which of the following is the first step in the ‘transaction processing cycle’? Which capture business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website? (A) Document and report generation (B) Database maintenance (C) Transaction processing (D) Data Entry (E) None of the above

128. Cross-selling is the basic function of (A) All employers (B) All employees (C) All sales person (D) Planning Department (E) All of these

129. Cross-selling is the basic function of (A) Debit cards (B) Saving accounts (C) Internet banks (D) Pension loans (E) Personal loans

130. The target group for SME loans is (A) All Businessmen (B) All Professionals (C) All SSIs (D) All of these (E) None of these

131. In January 2015, India has successfully test container based missile Agni - 5. With the test, India has joined the five countries, which are equipped with inter - continental ballistic missile. Where it was tested?

(A) Chandipur (Odisha) (B) Shri Harikota (Andhra Pradesh)

(C) Thiruvanamthapuram (Kerala) (D) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)




132. In January 2015, India has successfully test container based missile Agni - 5 from chandipur integrated test range when it was tested?

(A) 28 January (B) 25 January

(C) 31 January (D) 20 January

133. When was concluded the 15th Delhi sustainable development convention on climate change?

(A) 5-7 February 2015 (B) 10 – 15 February 2015

(C) 25- 30 January 2015 (D) 20 – 25 January 2015

134. The mobile handset manufacture company “Xiaomi" is from which country?

(A) India (B) China

(C) Japan (D) Korea

135. The first state in the country to apply "Web based learning program" on December 23, 2014 is -

(A) Delhi (B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Gujrat (D) Karnataka

136. "Academicals honours 2014" was provided which of the following author?

(A) Namvar Singh (B) Bhal Chandra Nemade

(C) Kedar Nath Singh (D) Vishwanath Bharti

137. According to the "Intellectual Property Index Report" issued on February 4, 2015, which pace India has in

the list of countries?

(A) 26 th (B) 27 th

(C) 28 th (D) 29 th

138. The company "Zip Dial" acquired by Twitter, in January 2015, is related to which area?

(A) The company that runs the micro blogging site

(B) Mobile value added service provider

(C) T- Shirt maker

(D) The company related to the supervision of accounts

139. Recently, which India's neighbouring country's parliament has approved the impeachment against their

Prime Minister/President?

(A) Myanmar (B) Maldives

(C) Nepal (D) Thailand

140. The report, related in January 2015, related to "The growing economic inequality" is -

(A) Week Report (B) Excel Report

(C) OX FAM Report (D) Davos Report




141. India and Germany, On January 28, 2015 agreed to which target?

(A) Nuclear energy (B) Smart City

(C) Environment (D) Tourism

142. Where was held Senior National Snooker Championship 2015?

(A) Delhi (B) Kolkata

(C) Mumbai (D) Chennai

143. Who was appointed foreign secretary in January 2015?

(A) S. Abhay Shankar (B) S. Jai shankar

(C) S. Shiv Shankar (D) Sujata Singh

144. Who was appointed chairmen of the Power Finance?

(A) M.K. Goel (B) Saraswati Menon

(C) Shindhu Shri Khullar (D) None of these

145. Who was appointed chief Executive officer of the "NITI Ayog" in January 2015?

(A) Sindhu Shri Khullar (B) Arvind Pangariya

(C) Kiran B. Vadodaria (D) Ashok Prakash

146. What type of fever is meningitis from the following?

(A) Black Fever (B) Brain Fever

(C) Both of above (D) None of these

147. What is the name of the drug manufactured as "Super Antibiotic"?

(A) Germicidin (B) Teixobactin

(C) Beta Lactam (D) None of these

148. Which of the following is the company was awarded "Asia's most Programming Brand 2013-14"?

(A) Dr. Artho (B) Tata Durashine

(C) L & T Finance (D) L & T Raelity

149. World bridge championship to be held in September-October 2015, where it will be held?

(A) India (B) Srilanka

(C) Bangladesh (D) Pakistan

150. In January 2015, Surendra Kumar Sinha was appointed chief Justice of which country?

(A) Srilanka (B) Bangladesh

(C) Pakistan (D) Australia




Section 4 English Language

Direction (Q. 151 To Q. 165):- Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you location them while answering some of the question. Governments have traditionally equated economic progress with steel mills and cement factories. While urban centres thrive and city dwellers get rich, hundreds of millions of farmers Remsen mired in poverty. However, fears of food shortages, a rethinking of antipoverty priorities and the crushing recession in 2008 are causing a dramatic shift in world economic policy in favour of greater support for agriculture. The last time when the world’s farmers felt such love was in the 1970s. At that time, as food prices spiked, there was real concern that the world was facing a crisis in which the planet was simply unable to produce enough grain and meat for an expanding population. Government across the developing world and international aid organizations plowed investment into agriculture in the early 1970s, while technological breakthroughs, like high-yield strains of important food crops, boosted production. The result was the Green R evolution and food production exploded. But the Green Revolution became a victim of its own success. Food prices plunged by some 60% by the late 1980s form their peak in the mid-1970s. Policymakers and aid workers turned their attention to the poor’s other pressing needs, such as health care and education. Farming get starved of resources and investment. By 2004 aid directed at agriculture sank to 3.5% and “Agriculture lost its glitter”. Also, as consumers in high-growth giants such as China and India became wealthier, they began eating more meat, so grain once used for three decades. Making matters worse, land and resources got reallocated to produce cash crop such as grain evaporated. Protests broke out across the emerging world and fierce food riots toppled governments. This spurred global leaders into action. This made them aware that food security is one of the fundamental issue in the world that has to be dealt with I order to maintain administrative and political stability. This also spurred the US which traditionally provisioned food aid from American grain surpluses to help needy nations, to move towards investing in farm sectors around the globe to boost productively. This move helped countries become more productive for themselves and be is better position to feed their own people.` Africa, which missed out on the first Green Revolution due to poor policy and limited resources, also witnessed a change’. Swayed by the success of East Asia, the primary poverty-fighting method favoured by many policymakers in Africa was to get farmers off their farmers their farms and into modern jobs in factories and urban centres. But that strategy proved to can highly insufficient. Income levels in the countryside badly trailed those in cities while the FAO estimated that the other hand, with only 40% of its farmland irrigated, entire economic boon currently underway is held hostage by the unpredictable monsoon. With much of India’s farming areas suffering from drought this Year, the government will have a tough time meeting its economic growth targets. In a report, Goldman Sachs predicted that if this Year too receives weak rains, it could cause agriculture to contract by 2% this fiscal Year, making the government’s7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich” .Another Green Revolution is the need of the hour and to make it a reality the global community still has much backbreaking farm work to do.

151. What motivated the US to focus on investing in agriculture across the globe? (A) To make developing countries become more reliant on US aid (B) To ensure grain surpluses so that the US had no need to import food (C) To make those countries more self-sufficient to whom it previously provided food (D) To establish itself in the market before the high-growth giants such as India and China could

establish themselves (E) None of the above




152. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase making the government’s 7% GDP growth target look “a bit rich”? (A) India is unlikely to achieve the targeted growth rate (B) Allocation of funds to agriculture has raised India’s chances of having a high GDP (C) Agricultural growth has artificially inflated India’s GDP and such growth is not real (D) India is likely to have one the highest GDP growth rates (E) A large portion of India’s GDP is contributed by agriculture

153. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage?

(A) Criticizing developed countries for not bolstering economic growth in poor nations (B) Analysing the disadvantages of the Green Revolution (C) Persuading experts that a storage economy depends on industrialization and not agriculture (D) Making a case for the international society to engineer a second Green Revolution (E) Rationalising the faulty agriculture policies of emerging countries

154. What prompted leaders throughout the world to take action to boost the agriculture sector in 2008 (A) Coercive tactics by the US which restricted food aid to poor nations (B) The realization hove the link between food security and political stability (C) Awareness that per formation in agriculture is necessary in order to achieve the targeted GDP (D) Reports those high-growth countries like China and India were boosting their agriculture sectors to

capture the international markets (E) Their desire to influence developing nations to slow down their industrial development

155. What impact did the economic recession of 2008 have on agriculture? (A) Government squatted economic stability with industrial development ad shifted away from

agriculture (B) Lack of implementation of several innovative agriculture (C) It prompted increased investment and interest in agriculture (D) The GDP as targeted by India was never achieved because of losses in agriculture (E) None of these

156. Which of the following factors was/were responsible for the neglect of the farming sector after Green

Revolution? (A) Steel and cement sector generated more revenue for the government as compared to agriculture. (B) Large scale protests against favouring agriculture at the cost of other important sectors such as

education and healthcare. (C) Attention of policy makers and aid organizations was diverted from agriculture to other sectors. (A) None (B) Only (C) (C) Only (A) and (C) (D) Only (A) and (B) (E) All (A), (B)and (C)

157. Which of the following is an adverse impact of the Green Revolution? (A) Unchecked crop yields resulted in large tracts of land become barren (B) Withdrawal of fiscal impact from agriculture to other sectors (C) Farmers began soliciting government subsidies for their produce (D) Farmers rioted as food prices fell so low that they could not make ends meet (E) None of the above




158. Which of the following is true about the state of agriculture in India at present? (A) Of all the sectors, agriculture needs the highest allocation of present? (B) Contribution of agriculture to India’s GDP this Year would depend greatly upon the monsoon rains (C) As India’s is one of the high-growth countries, it has surplus food reserves to export to other nations (A) Only (A) and (C) (A) Only (C) (C) Only (B) (D) Only(B) and (C) (E) None of the above

159. Which of the following had contributed to exorbitant food prices in 2008 (A) Hoarding of food stocks by local wholesalers which inadvertently created of food shortage (B) Export of food grains was reduced by large producers (C) Diverting resources from cultivation of food grains to that of more profitable crops. (A) None (B) Only (C) (C) Only (A) (D) All (A) , (B) and (C) (E) Only (A) and (C)

160. What encouraged African policymakers to focus on urban jobs? (A) Misapprehension that it would alleviate poverty as it did in other courtier (B) Rural development outstripped urban development in many parts of Africa (C) Breaking out of protests in the country and the fear that the government would topple (D) Blind imitation of western models of development (E) None of the above

Direction (Q. 161 To Q.163):- Choose the word/group of word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

161. STARVED (A) Deprived (B) Disadvantaged (C) Hungry (D) Expend (E) Emaciated

162. PLOWED (A) Cultivated (B) Bulldoze (C) Recovered (D) Expend (E) Withdrew

163. SLAPPED (A) Beaten (B) Imposed (C) Withdrew (D) Avoided (E) Persuaded

Direction (Q. 164 To Q.165):- Choose the word/phase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

164. EVAPORATED (A) Absorbed (A) Accelerated (C) Grew (D) Plunged (E) Mismanaged




165. PRESSING (A) Unpopular (A) Undemanding (C) Unobtrusive (D) Unsuitable (E) Unimportant

Direction (Q. 166 To Q.170):- Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence? If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (E) is, ‘None of the above as the answer.

166. Overlooking the fact that water scarcity intensifies during summer,…………. (A) The government issued guidelines to all builders to limit their consumption to acceptable limits (B) Provision for rainwater harvesting has been made to aid irrigation in drought prone areas (C) The water table did not improve even after receiving normal monsoon in the current Year (D) Many residential areas continue to use swimming pools, wasting large quantities of water (E) None of the above

167. Refuting the rationale behind frequent agitations for formation of separate states, a recent report…………… (A) Proved that such agitations result in loss of government property (B) Indicated that the formation at small states does not necessarily improve the economy (C) Suggested that only large scale agitations have been effective in bringing out desired change in the

past (D) Recommended dividing large state into smaller ones to improve reverence (E) None of the above

168. Achieving equality for women is not only a laudable goal,………………….

(A) Political reforms are also neglected preventing women from entering legislatures and positions of power

(B) The problem is also deep rooted in the society and supported by it (C) Their empowerment is purposefully hampered by people with vested interests in all sections of the

society (D) It is also equally difficult to achieve and maintain for a long term (E) None of the above

169. He has lost most of his life’s earning in the stock market but………….. (A) He still seems to be leading his life luxuriously and extravagantly (B)He could not save enough to repay his enormous debts (C) Stock market is not a safe option to invest money unless done with caution (D) Experts have been suggesting avoiding investments in stock market because of its unpredictable

nature (E) None of the above

170. ………………..or else they would not keep electing him Year after Year.

(A) The party leader game a strong message to the mayor for improve his political style (B) Owing to numerous scandals against the mayor, he was told to resign from the post immediately (C) The mayor threatened the residents against filing a complaint against him (D) The residents must really be impressed with the political style of their mayor (E) None of the above




Directions (Q.171 To Q.175):- Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the sentence as a whole.

171. In an effort to provide………….for higher education to all, most of he universities have been providing

Education without adequate infrastructure, thus churning out …………….graduates every Year. (A)Chances, Fresh (B)Platform, Capable (C) Opportunities, Eligible (D) Prospects, Unemployable (E) Policy, Incompetent

172. The move to allow dumping of mercury……………an outcry from residents of the area who

…………………that high levels of mercury will affect their health and destroy ecologically sensitive forest area. (A) Resulted, Insist (B) Provoked, Fear (C) Insisted , Demined (D) Activated, Accept (E) Angered, Believe

173. Even as the ……………………..elsewhere in the world are struggling to come out of recession, Indian

consumers are splurging on consumer goods and to…………….this growth, companies are investing heavily in various sectors. (A) Economies, Meet (B) Courtiers, Inhibit (C) Government, Measure (D) Nations, Inflict (E) Companies, Counter

174. Drawing attention to the pitfalls of ………………….solely on Uranium as a fuel for nuclear reactors, India scientists warned thus Uranium will not last for long and thus research on Thorium as its …………….must be revived. (A) Using, Substitute (B) Believing, Replacement (C) Depending, Reserve (D) Reckoning, Option (E) Relying, Alternative

175. ………………..has been taken against some wholesale drug dealers for deling in surgical items without a valid license and maintaining a stock of …………..drugs. (A) Note, Overwhelming (B) Step, Impressive (C) Exaction, Outdated (D) Action, Expired (E) Lawsuit, Invalid




Direction (Q. 176 To Q. 180):- Rearrange the following sentence (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (6) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions and then answer the questions which follow.

(A) While these disadvantage of bio fuel are the only alternate energy source of the future and the sooner we find solution to these problem we are now facing with gasoline.

(B) This fuel can also help to stimulate jobs locally since they are also help to stimulate jobs locally since they are also much safer to handle than gasoline and can thus have the potential to turnaround a global economy.

(C) These include dependence on fossil fuels for the machinery required to produce befoul which ends up polluting as much as the burning of fossil fuels on roads and exorbitant cost of befouls which makes it very difficult for the common man to switch to this option.

(D) This turnaround can potentially help to bring world peace and end the need to depend on foreign countries for requirements.

(E) Biofuels are made from plant sources and since these source are available in abundance and be reproduced on a massive scale they form an energy source that is patenting unlimited

(F) However, everything is not as green with the bio fuels as it seems as there are numerous disadvantages involved which at timer overshadow their positive impact.

176. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement? (A) 1 (A) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

177. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement? (A) 1 (A) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5 (E) 6

178. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement? (A) 1 (A) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

179. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement?

(A) 1 (A) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5 (E) 6

180. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement? (A) 1 (A) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5




Direction (Q. 181 To Q.185):- Which of the phrases (A), (A), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

181. In an attempt to boost their profits many edible oil producing companies have been engaging themselves in propaganda against commonly used oils as healthier option. (A) As most healthiest option (B) As less healthy option (C) As a healthier option (D) As much healthiest option (E) No correction required

182. Thanks to numerous government initiatives, rural masses which were earlier unaware of the luxuries

of urban ways of living are now connected to the same lifestyle. (A) Who was earlier unaware (B) Which were earlier aware (C) Who were earlier conversant (D) Who were earlier unaware (E) No correction required

183. Soon after the Tsunami had killed thousands of people along the coasts of southern India, parliament passes a bill that proposed to set up an institutional mechanism to respond promptly to natural disasters. (A)Passed a bill that proposed (B)Passes a bill with propose (C) Pass a bill which proposing (D) Passed a bill which propose (E) No correction required

184. Denial of wage forced scientists and teachers at the agriculture university throughout the country to go on strike, crippling crucial research that could help the state of agriculture in the country. (A)Form many industries are (B)Which went on strike (C) On going for a strike (D) For going to strike (E) No correction required

185. Over the last few months, while most industries are busy in restructuring operations, cutting cost and

firing, the Indian pharmaceution and healthcare industry was adding manpower and giving salary hikes. (A)As many industries are (B) while most industries were (C) While many industries is (D) Where many industries (E) No correction required

Direction (Q.180 To Q.189):- In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

There is a considerable amount of research about the factors that make a company innovation. So is it possible to create an environment (186) to innovation? This is a particularly pertinent (187) for India toDay. Massive problems in health, education etc. (188) be solved using a conventional approach but (189) creative and innovative solutions that India’s (191) .Few countries have the rich diversity that India or its large, young population (192). While these (193) innovation policy interventions certain additional steps are also require. These include (194) investment I research and development by (195) the government and the private sector, easy transfer of technology form the academic world etc. to fulfil its promise of being prosperous and to be at the forefront, India must be innovative.




186. (A) Incentive (B) Facilitated (C) Impetus (D) Stimuli (E) Conducive

187. (A) Doubt (B) Question (C) Inference (D) Objective (E) Controversy

188. (A) Should (B) Never

(C) Must (D) Cannot (E) Possibly

189. (A) Need (B) Consider (C) Requires (D) Necessary (E) Apply

190. (A) Increases (B) Chaos

(C) Growth (D) Quality (E) Advantages

191. (A) Favour (B) Leverage (C) Esteem (D) Blessed (E) Praises

192. (A) Endows (B) Prevails (C) Occurs (D) Blessed (E) Jeopardize

193. (A) Promotes (B) Endure (C) Cater (D) Aid (E) Jeopardize

194. (A) Restricting (B) Inspiring (C) Increased (D) Acute (E) Utilizing

195. (A) Combining (A) Participating

(C) Also (D) Both (E) Besides

Direction (Q. 190 To Q.200):- In each of the following question four words are given to which two words are most nearly the opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.

196. (A) Abundance (B) Incomparable (C) Projection (D) Plethora (A) 1 – 3 (B) 1 – 2 (C) 3 – 4 (D) 2 - 4 (E) 1 – 4




197. (A) Consent (B) Nascent (C) Emerging (D) Insecure

(A) 1 – 3 (B) 2 – 4 (C) 2 – 3 (D) 1 – 4 (E) 1 – 2

198. (A) Elated (B) Eccentric

(C) Explicit (D) Abnormal (A) 1 – 2 (A) 2 – 4 (C) 1 – 3 (D) 1 – 4 (E) 1 – 2

199. (A) Germane (B) Generate

(C) Reliable (D) Irrelevant (A) 2– 4 (A) 2– 3 (C) 1– 2 (D) 3– 4 (E) 4– 3

200. (A) Purposefully (A) Inaccurately (C) Inadvertently (D) Unchangeably (A) 1– 3 (A) 1– 2 (C) 2– 3 (D) 2– 4 (E) 1– 4




Answers 1. [B] 2. [D] 3. [D] 4. [D] 5. [B] 6. [D] 7. [D] 8. [A] 9. [C] 10. [C]

11. [E] 12. [A] 13. [E] 14. [A] 15. [C] 16. [C] 17. [B] 18. [A] 19. [E] 20. [D]

21. [A] 22. [A] 23. [B] 24. [E] 25. [E] 26. [B] 27. [E] 28. [A] 29. [C] 30. [D]

31. [B] 32. [A] 33. [D] 34. [D] 35. [E] 36. [D] 37. [C] 38. [C] 39. [A] 40. [A]

41. [C] 42. [D] 43. [B] 44. [A] 45. [E] 46. [C] 47. [A] 48. [E] 49. [C] 50. [D]

51. [C] 52. [A] 53. [B] 54. [D] 55. [D] 56. [E] 57. [C] 58. [B] 59. [D] 60. [A]

61. [B] 62. [D] 63. [C] 64. [E] 65. [A] 66. [B] 67. [A] 68. [D] 69. [C] 70. [E]

71. [E] 72. [C] 73. [B] 74. [D] 75. [A] 76. [E] 77. [A] 78. [D] 79. [B] 80. [C]

81. [E] 82. [A] 83. [C] 84. [D] 85. [B] 86. [C] 87. [D] 88. [B] 89. [A] 90. [E]

91. [C] 92. [B] 93. [D] 94. [A] 95. [E] 96. [E] 97. [D] 98. [C] 99. [A] 100. [B]

101. [A] 102. [B] 103. [C] 104. [A] 105. [B] 106. [C] 107. [A] 108. [B] 109. [C] 110. [D]

111. [A] 112. [B] 113. [C] 114. [A] 115. [B] 116. [C] 117. [A] 118. [B] 119. [C] 120. [D]

121. [A] 122. [B] 123. [C] 124. [A] 125. [B] 126. [C] 127. [A] 128. [B] 129. [C] 130. [D]

131. [A] 132. [C] 133. [A] 134. [B] 135. [B] 136. [B] 137. [D] 138. [B] 139. [D] 140. [C]

141. [B] 142. [B] 143. [B] 144. [A] 145. [A] 146. [B] 147. [B] 148. [A] 149. [A] 150. [B]

151. [E] 152. [A] 153. [D] 154. [B] 155. [C] 156. [B] 157. [B] 158. [C] 159. [E] 160. [A]

161. [A] 162. [D] 163. [B] 164. [C] 165. [E] 166. [D] 167. [B] 168. [E] 169. [A] 170. [D]

171. [C] 172. [B] 173. [A] 174. [E] 175. [D] 176. [C] 177. [B] 178. [C] 179. [E] 180. [E]

181. [C] 182. [D] 183. [A] 184. [E] 185. [B] 186. [E] 187. [B] 188. [D] 189. [A] 190. [C]

191. [A] 192. [E] 193. [D] 194. [C] 195. [D] 196. [E] 197. [C] 198. [B] 199. [E] 200. [A]




Solutions

Section 1

Reasoning Ability

1. Given number

After rearrangement

5 2 6 3 1 8 7

6 7 5 4 2 7 8

Arranged in ascending order 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

So, the third digit form left end is 4.

2.

D

B

F

N

S

EW

According to question, H is South of B. therefore the position of H may be between B and D or it may

be South of D.

So, the position of H may cannot determine.

3. D > A

(B, E) > C

D is heavier of than only A

So (B, E) > C > D > A

So, heavier is either B or E

4.

S E A R C H E

19 5 1 18 3 8 5

S

19

So, there are there pairs AC, AE and CE.

5. 15 – 8 × 6 ÷ 12 + 4 = ?

After changing the sign

15 × 8 ÷ 6 + 12 – 4 = ?

15×8

6 +8=? 20 + 8 = ? ? = 28




7.

50 m

100 m

30 m

Form starting point he is 50 m far away and direction is north.

8. As,

T E M P O R A L O L D S M B S P

+1

+1

+1+1

-1-1

-1-1

Similarly C O N S I D E R R M N B S F E J

+1

+1

+1+1

-1-1

-1-1

9. How many goals scored 5 3 9 7

Many more matches 9 8 2

He scored five 1 6 3

From (i) and (iii), scored 3

So, goals’s code 5 or 7.

10. According to Pratap = 20, 21, 22

According to his sister = not after 21st April

So, the birthDay will be 20 or 21 April from both statement.




11.

Cup Jug

Bottles

Plate Table

Or

Ta

ble

Plate Cup

Bottles

Jug

Conclusions

I. ×

II. ×

III.

IV. ×

Either I or III is true

12.

Birds

Horses

Tigers

Lio

ns

Monkey

I.

II. ×

III.

IV. ×

So, I and III follows only

or




13.

Cha

irs

Pots

Mats

Buse

s

Handles

Either I or III and II, IV are true

14.

Flowers

LampSticks Shirts

Dre

sses

None is true

15.

Be

nches

Walls Jungles

Ro

ads

Houses

Only III and IV follow

Solutions (Q. 16 To Q. 20)

Person A B C D E F G H Department

Sports

Personnel

Table

Tennis

Administration

Football

Administration

Hockey

Administration

Basket Ball

Marketing

Cricket

Personnel

Volleyball

Marketing

Loan

Tennis

Marketing

Bad

Minton

16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (D)

Conclusions

I. ×

II.

III.

IV.

Or

Conclusions

I. ×

II. ×

III. ×

IV. ×

Conclusions

I. ×

II. ×

III.

IV.




Solutions (Q. 21 To Q. 25):-

$≥ &=

@> ≤

#<

21. N=B, B ≥ W, W<H, H≤Q

So, N=B ≥ W < H ≥ M

I. M > W [True]

II. H > N [False]

III. W = N

IV. W < N

∵ N ≥ W

22. R ≤ D, D ≥ J, J < M, M > K

So, R ≤ D ≥ J < M > K

I. K < J [False]

II. D > M [False]

III. R < M [False]

IV. D > K [False]

So, none is true

23. H > T, T > F, F = E, E ≤ V

So, H > T < F = E ≤ V

I. V ≥ F [True]

II. E > T [True]

III. H > V [False]

IV. T < V [True]

So, only I, II and IV are true

24. D < R, R ≤ K, K > F, F ≥ J

So, D < R ≤ K > F ≥ J

I. J < R [False]

II. J < K [True]

III. R > F [False]

IV. K > D [True]

So, only II and IV are true

Or




25. M ≥ K, K > N, N ≤ R, R <W

So, M ≥ K > N ≤ R < W

I. W > K [False]

II. M ≥ R [False]

III. K > W [False]

IV. M > N [True]

So, only IV is true

26. Prakash has less than 60% in graduation but more than 60% in PG. So, his case is to be referred to the

GM- advances.

27. Amit Narayan fulfils all requirement.

28. Shobha Gupta does not fulfil condition but B fulfils. So, her case is to be referred to the ED.

29. Data insufficient (experience in advances department is not clear).

30. SudhaMehrotra has less than 50% marks in interview. So, she is not to be selected.

31. Statement followed by course of action B only to solve the traffic problems.

32. Course of action A is logically follow.

33. Course of action C logically follows, because government controls banking with the help

of Central Bank.

34. Course of action B and C logically follow.

35. All course of action follow.

36. Because only to open a branch is note solution. Government may incur loss, where business

activity is not satisfactory either the population is 1000 and above.

37. Company may hike the price by 5 to 10% (ideal like will be by 5%)

38. Company may go to tier II cities for recruitments.

39. Company has been making huge losses for the past 5 Years and unable to pay the salary on time.

40. Subsidy increases the cost of capital.

43. Accurate poverty measurement is not possible on India.




46. Downward lift side diagram moves anticlockwise at 45°, 90°, 45°,………..upward right side

diagram moves left side become twice. Middle diagrams make water images in 1 -2, 3 – 4 and 5

answer figure, also interchange their places.

47. A moves anticlockwise and covers two sides, K clockwise half side then full one side then

again side, moves anticlockwise 1

2 , 1, 1

1

2 ,………….sides middle diagram (0) became twice then

single then twice and so on.

48. All diagrams accept middle moves anticlockwise by ½ side and changing place,

moves 45° anticlockwise.

49. A moves 45° anticlickwise and moves by ½ side then full one side then half side and so on.

T moves 45° anticlockwise and also by half side. Middle diagram continually changing.

50. Arrow and circle make group in 1-2 ,3-4 ,5 answer figure (may be 2 or 4 ) star makes group

(1-2-3) (4-5-answer figure ) ie , answer figure 4. So the answer will be 4. Group based on similar

type of diagram.




Section2

Data Analysis and Interpretation

51. Number of passed students in 2004 form state D.

= 132000 × 0.24 = 31680

Number of passed students in 2005

= 115000 × 0.49 = 56350


= 196000 × 0.35 = 68600


= 188000 × 0.46 = 86480


= 183000 × 0.6 = 109800

Number of passed student in 2009

= 201000 × 0.56 = 112560

So, maximum number was in 2009.

52. Required percentage = 104000×0.51

111000×0.32

= 𝟓𝟑𝟎𝟒𝟎

𝟑𝟓𝟓𝟐𝟎 =

𝟐𝟐𝟏

𝟏𝟒𝟖= 221.148

53. Required percentage = 142000 × 0.49 + 158000 × 0.26

= 69580 + 41080 = 110660

54. Required average

= 𝟏𝟖𝟖𝟎𝟎𝟎+𝟏𝟖𝟑𝟎𝟎𝟎 +𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎

𝟑

= 𝟓𝟕𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎

𝟑 = 190666

2

3

55. Number of candidates not clearing the entrance exam form State A in the Year 2007

= 100 – 41= 59

So, required number = 198000 × 0.59 = 116820

56. Number of total marbles

= 6 +4 +2 + 3 = 15

Way of selection of two red marbles = 6C2

Way of selection of two marbles = 15C2

So, required probability = 6𝐶2

14𝐶2=

6×5

15×14=

1

7




57. Way of selection of two blue marbles = 4C2

Way of selection of one yellow marbles = 3C1

Way of selection of three marbles = 15C3

So, required probability = 4𝐶2×3𝐶1

15𝐶3

= 6×3

15×14×13

3×2×1

= 6×3

15×14×13× 3 × 2 × 1

= 18

455

58. Probability of none is blue form four marbles

= 11𝐶4

15𝐶4

= 𝟏𝟏×𝟏𝟎×𝟗×𝟖

𝟏𝟓×𝟏𝟒×𝟏𝟑×𝟏𝟐=

𝟐𝟐

𝟗𝟏

So, probability of at least one blue from four marbles

= 1 −22

91=

69

91

59. Way of selection of two green marble = 2C2 = 1

Way of selection of two yellow marble = 3C2 = 2

So, require probability = 1

15𝐶2+

3

15𝐶2

= 4

15𝐶2 =

415×14

2

= 4

105

60. Way of selection of four marbles = 15C2

Way of selection of one green marbles = 2C1

Way of selection of two blue marbles = 4C2

Way of selection of one red marbles = 6C1

So, required probability = 2𝐶1 . 4𝐶2 .6𝐶1

15𝐶4

= 𝟐×𝟔×𝟔

𝟏𝟓×𝟏𝟒×𝟏𝟑×𝟏𝟐

𝟒×𝟑×𝟐×𝟏

= 𝟐×𝟔×𝟔

𝟏𝟓×𝟏𝟒×𝟏𝟑×𝟏𝟐× 𝟒 × 𝟑 × 𝟐 × 𝟏 =

𝟐𝟒

𝟒𝟓𝟓

61. Number of promoted employees in HR department

= 1200 × 0.11 = 132

Number o promoted employees in HR department

= 3600 × 0.12 = 432

So, required percentage = 132

432 × 100 = 30.56




62. Number of promoted employees in all departments = 1200

Number of promoted employees in all departments = 3600


3600× 100 = 33

63. Number of working employees in production and

Marketing = 3600 × (0.35 + 0.18) = 1908

Number of male employees in production and

Marketing = 2040 × (0.50 + 0.15) = 1326

So, the number of female employee in production

And marketing = 1908 – 1326 = 582

64. Number of production employees in IT department = 1200 × 0.26 = 312

Number of promoted male employees in HR department = 156

Number of working male employees in IT department = 2040 × 0.20 = 408


408× 100 =38

65. Number of working employees in accounts department = 3600 × (0.20) = 720

Number of male employees in accounts department = 2040 × (0.05)

= 102

So, number of working females in accounts department = 720 – 102 = 618

66. Profit of the company L in the Year 2005 = 1.84 Lakh

In 2006, 25% like in the profit of the company L.

So, the profit of the company L in Year 2006

= 1.84 × 1.25 = 2.3 Lakh

67. According to graph, it is clear the profit of company L and M increased every Year.

Minimum profit in 2004 and maximum profit in 2009 by both companies.

Ratio cannot determent because numerical value is not given.

So, only statement I is true.

68. Required percentage = 35−20

20 ×100 = 75

69. Profit of company M in the Year 2008 = 3.63 Lakh

∴ Profit of company M in the Year 2006

= 3.63 × 100

120 ×

100

125

= 2.42 Lakh

70. Required average = 20+ 15 +25+30+35+30

6

= 155

6 = 25

5

6




Solutions (Q. 71 To Q. 75):-

Total students = 1560

Boys = 7

12×1560=910 Girls =

5

12×1560=650

Hobby Classes Boys = 910 Girls = 650

Dancing

Singing

Painting

Singing + Dancing

Dancing + Painting

Dancing + Singing + Painting

910

5= 182

910 × 0.1 = 91

91 – (182 + 91 + 78 + 104 + 70) = 385

156 × 0.5 = 78

52 × 2 = 104

1

13 × 910 = 70

650 × 0.1 = 65

91 × 2 = 182

650 × 0.2 = 130

650 × 0.24 = 156

650 × 0.08 = 52

650 – (65 + 182 + 130 + 156 + 52) = 65

71. Total number of girls enrolled in singing classes

= 182 + 156 + 65 = 403


1560 × 100 = 25.83 ≈ 26

72. Required ratio = 130

385 =

26

77 = 26 : 27

73. Required percentage = 65

182 × 100 = 35.71

74. Number of boys enrolled in dancing

= 182 + 78 + 104 + 70 = 434

75. Number of student in all classes = 70 + 65 = 135

76. It is clear form table that profit of S increasing continuously.

77. Required average = 4.99+5.82

2 × 1000 = Rs 5405

78. Required percentage = 5.28−5.11

2 ×100 = 3.33

79. Required ratio = 6.19+6.23

5.04+5.12 =

12.42

10.16 =

621

508 = 621: 508

80. Required difference = (5.69 – 5.31) × 1000 = Rs 380

81. Carpenter X =2 Days

Carpenter Y = 4 Days

Total number of Days by both X and Y =2 ×4

2+4

= 11

3 Days




82. Total number of Days that carpenter Z will take to make one piece of all four items together

= 3 + 2 + 12 +15 = 32 Days

83. Carpenter X makes a table in = 3 Days

Carpenter Y makes a table in = 6 Days

Carpenter Z makes a table in = 2 Days

Table time taken y X, Y and Z = 3 ×6 ×2

3 × 6 + 6 ×2+3 ×2

=3 ×6 ×2

18+12+6 =

3 ×6 ×2

36 = 1 Days

84. 6 letters in word STRESS whereas S comes three times. So, number of ways 6!

3! =

720

6 = 120

85. Suppose radius of circular field is r foot

So, r = 784

4 = 196 foot

Area of circular field = 𝜋r2

= 22

7 × 196 × 196

= 120736 sqft

86. Percentage of male and children in locality I = 65 + 10 = 75%

∴ Number of male and children in locality I = 6020 × 0.75 = 4515

87. Number of female in locality F= 5640 × 0.35 = 1974

Number of female in locality G =4850 × 0.44 = 2134

Number of female in locality H = 5200 ×0.39 = 2048

Number of female in locality I = 6020 × 0.25 = 1505

Number of female in locality J = 4900 × 0.41 = 2009

So, maximum number in locality G.

88. Number of children in locality H = 5200 × 0.13 = 676

Number of children in locality I = 6020 × 0.10 = 602

So, required number = 676 + 602 = 1278

89. Required percentage = 5640 ×0.55

5200 ×0.48 =

3102

2496 =

517

416 = 517 : 416

90. Required percentage = 4900

5640 × 100 ≈ 87




91. Suppose the age of mother and daughter is 7 x and x.

According to question,

7𝑥−4

𝑥−4 =

19

1

7x – 4 = 19x – 76

12x = 72

X = 6

So, present ago of mother = 42 Years

After 4 Years age of mother = 46 Years

92. Suppose principal is P

∴ Compound interest = 𝑃 [(1 +𝑟

100)

𝑡

− 1]

1414.40 = 𝑃 [(1 +8

100)

2

− 1]

1414.40 = 𝑃 [1.1664 − 1]

P = 1414.40

0.1664= 𝑅𝑠. 8500

A = 𝑃 + 𝑆𝐼

= 8500 + 1414.40 = Rs. 9914.40

93. LCM of 12, 18, 20 = 180 s = 3 min.

94. 4 men can complete a piece of work in 2 Days

4 women can complete the same piece of work in 4 Days

∴ 4 women = 2 men

5 children can complete the same piece of work in 4 Days

∴ 10 children = 4 men

So, 2 men, 4 women and 10 children

= 2 + 2 + 4 = 8 men

M1 = 4, D1 = 2

M2 = 8, D2= ?

M1 D1 = M2 D2

4 × 2 = 8 × D2

D2 = 1 Day

95. Suppose the speed of boat in still water is x km/h and speed of stream is y km/h

Speed of boat in downstream = (x + y) km/h

∴ x + y = 32 ……….(i)

Speed of boat in downstream = (x - y) km/h

∴ x – y = 28 ………(ii)

Add. Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

2x = 60

X = 30 km/h




96. Number of candidates qualified form Hyderabad in

2001= 51124 × 0.17 = 8691

Number of candidates qualified form Hyderabad in

2002 = 50248 × 0.21 = 10552

So, required different = 10552 – 8691=1861≈ 1860

97. Number of candidates from Delhi in 2002

= 58248 × 0.28

≈ 16309

Number of candidates from Delhi in 2006

= 59216 × 0.20 = ≈ 11843

So, required number = 16309 + 11843 = 28152

≈ 28150

98. Candidates appeared form Mumbai

Difference in 2002 = 35145 – 17264 = 17881

Difference in 2003 = 24800 – 17264 = 7536

Difference in 2004 = 28316 – 24800 = 3516

Difference in 2005 = 36503 – 28316 = 8187

Difference in 2006 = 36503 – 29129= 7374

Difference in 2007 = 32438 – 29129 = 3309

So, lowest difference was in 2007.

99. Number of candidates qualified form Chennai

In 2001 = 37346 × 0.09 ≈ 3361

In 2002 = 48932 × 0.12 ≈ 5872

In 2003 = 51406 × 0.10 ≈5141

In 2004 = 52315 × 0.08 ≈4185

In 2005 = 55492 × 0.13 ≈ 7214

In 2006 = 57365 × 0.11 ≈ 6310

In 2007 = 58492 × 0.14 ≈ 8189

So, maximum number was in 2007

100. Number of candidates qualified form Kolkata in 2004

= 71253 × 0.19 = 13538 ≈ 13540




Section 4

English Language

151. Refer to the second and the third sentence of the fourth paragraph.

152. Refer to the second and the third sentence of the last paragraph.

153. Refer to the last sentence of the passage.

154. Refer to the first two sentence of the fourth paragraph.

155. Refer to the last sentence of the first paragraph.

156. Refer to the third sentence of the third paragraph.

157. Refer to the first half of the third paragraph.

158. Refer to the first sentence of he last paragraph.

159. Refer to the last three sentences of the third paragraph.

160. Refer to the second sentence of the second last paragraph.

161. In the passage starved means ‘not having something that is needed’. So, deprived is most

similar in meaning to it.

162. In the passage plowed means ‘to spend a lot of’.

163. In the passage slapped means ‘to order that something must be done’. So, imposed is

most similar in meaning to it.

164. In the passage evaporated means ‘to disappear gradually’. So grew is most opposite in

meaning ‘urgent’.

165. In the passage pressing means ‘urgent’.

166. Use of overlooking the fact’ in the first part, demands contrast in the second part of the

sentence.

167. Only (B) completes the sentence meaningfully.

168. None of the alternatives completes the sentence logically and grammatically.




169. As a conjunction but introduces a word or phrase that contrasts with what has been said.

170. Only (D) produces a meaningful sentence.

171. Opportunities and unemployable best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

172. Provoked and fear best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

173. Economies and meet best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

174. Relying and alternative best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

175. Action and expired best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

181. ‘As a healthier option’ is the proper comparative form.

182. Who were earlier unaware’ make the sentence grammatically correct.

183. The sentence is in past form of the verbs pass and propose is required.

184. The sentence is correct.

185. The sentence is in past tense.

186. ‘Conducive’ fits the blank appropriately.

187. ‘Question’ fits the blank appropriately.

188. ‘Cannot’ fits the blank appropriately.

189. ‘Need’ fits the blank appropriately.

190. ‘Growth’ fits the blank appropriately.

191. ‘Favour’ fits the blank appropriately.

192. ‘Enjoys’ fits the blank appropriately.

193. ‘Aid’ fits the blank appropriately.

194. ‘Increased’ fits the blank appropriately.

195. ‘Both’ fits the blank appropriately.




196. Abundance and plethora both mean ‘a large quantity that is more than enough or

required. These are synonyms.

197. Nascent and abnormal both mean ‘beginning to exist’. These are synonyms.

198. Eccentric and abnormal both mean ‘which is considered strange or unusual’. These are

synonyms.

199. Germane means ‘connected in an appropriate way’. Irrelevant means ‘not connected ‘.

These are antonyms.

200. Purposefully means ‘with an intention or aim’. Inadvertently means ‘without insertion ‘.

These are antonyms.


Documents

SBI PO EXAM - Welcome to Examcafe - An online portal … PO Exam Practice Set 1.pdfSBI PO Exam – Practice Set 1 Questions And Answers With Solutions (English) An online education