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www.eenadupratibha.net SBI CLERK MT – 06 : 1 : KNOWLEDGE PARTNER GENERAL AWARENESS 1. BCCI has chosen a three-member panel to probe allegations of betting and spot- fixing during the sixth edition of IPL. Name the members in the panel ____ 1) R.K. Raghavan, R.M. Lodha, Ranjit Sinha 2) Jai Narayan Patel, R.K. Raghavan, Ravi Shastri 3) Ranjit Sinha, Ravi Shastri, Jai Narayan 4) D.P. Kohli, R.K. Raghavan, R.M. Lodha 5) None 2. First double-decker flyover opened at _______ 1) Chennai 2) Bangalore 3) Mumbai 4) Kerala 5) None 3. Name the report released by the IMF which has highlighted that Arab countries will have to come up with bold economic policy reforms for economic stability and job creation? 1) New Horizons - Arab Economic Transformation and Political Transitions 2) Arab Economic Transformation and Political Transitions - the new Horizons 3) Towards Horizons - Arab Economic Transformation and Political Transitions. 4) Political Transitions - Arab Economic Transformation Texas open and New Horizons. 5) None 4. Who won the Women’s Champion Fiberless Texas Open Squash Tournament held at Houstion, United States on 14th April, 2014? 1) Nour El Sherbini 2) Dhanseth 3) Jan Koukal 4) Charlotte Fish 5) Svente Sandell 5. The United Nations General Assembly had declared which of the following days as the ‘World Autism Day” unanimously? 1) April 12 2) April 2 3) April 11 4) April 21 5) April 22 6. Somnath Temple which is considered to be the first of the 12 Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva is situated in which of the following states? 1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh 3) Other than those given as options 4)Uttarakhand 5) Gujarat 7. What is the expansion for the Government of India’s scheme “IWMP”? 1) Infrastructure Watershed Maintenance Program 2) Integrated Wind - Energy Management Program 3) Integrated Waste Management Program 4) Integrated Watershed Management Program 5) Integrated Women Management Program 8. Regional Rural Banks started with capital structure as Central Government 50% capital and sponsored bank 35% capital, which holds the remaining 15% capital? 1) National Housing Bank 2)Life Insurance Corporation of India 3) NABARD 4) Reserve Bank of India 5) State Government 9. Which among the following car companies recalled 44,989 units of Innova in India? 1) Hyundai Motor India Limited2) Toyota Motor Corporation 3) Maruti Suzuki Limited 4) Tata Motor Limited 5) None 10. Which in the below list of authorities appoints a deputy governor in RBI? 1) Governor of RBI 2) Ministry of Finance 3) Central Government of India 4) Committee of the Central Board 5) None 11. House hold sector in India invests maximum part of its savings in which sector/ saving instrument? 1) Insurance 2) Fixed Deposits 3) Mutual Funds 4) Government Securities 5) None SBI Clerks MODEL TEST - 06

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Page 1: SBI CLERK MT – 06 - eenadupratibha.net 6.pdfDr. V. Kurien is known for _____ 1) Red Revolution 2) ... SBI CLERK MT – 06: 3 : KNOWLEDGE PARTNER 31. Which in the list can’t be

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GENERAL AWARENESS1. BCCI has chosen a three-member panel to probe allegations of betting and spot-

fixing during the sixth edition of IPL. Name the members in the panel ____1) R.K. Raghavan, R.M. Lodha, Ranjit Sinha2) Jai Narayan Patel, R.K. Raghavan, Ravi Shastri3) Ranjit Sinha, Ravi Shastri, Jai Narayan4) D.P. Kohli, R.K. Raghavan, R.M. Lodha 5) None

2. First double-decker flyover opened at _______1) Chennai 2) Bangalore 3) Mumbai 4) Kerala 5) None

3. Name the report released by the IMF which has highlighted that Arab countrieswill have to come up with bold economic policy reforms for economic stability andjob creation?1) New Horizons - Arab Economic Transformation and Political Transitions2) Arab Economic Transformation and Political Transitions - the new Horizons3) Towards Horizons - Arab Economic Transformation and Political Transitions.4) Political Transitions - Arab Economic Transformation Texas open and NewHorizons.5) None

4. Who won the Women’s Champion Fiberless Texas Open Squash Tournament heldat Houstion, United States on 14th April, 2014?1) Nour El Sherbini 2) Dhanseth 3) Jan Koukal4) Charlotte Fish 5) Svente Sandell

5. The United Nations General Assembly had declared which of the following daysas the ‘World Autism Day” unanimously?1) April 12 2) April 2 3) April 11 4) April 21 5) April 22

6. Somnath Temple which is considered to be the first of the 12 Jyotirlingas of LordShiva is situated in which of the following states?1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh3) Other than those given as options 4)Uttarakhand 5) Gujarat

7. What is the expansion for the Government of India’s scheme “IWMP”?1) Infrastructure Watershed Maintenance Program2) Integrated Wind - Energy Management Program3) Integrated Waste Management Program4) Integrated Watershed Management Program5) Integrated Women Management Program

8. Regional Rural Banks started with capital structure as Central Government 50%capital and sponsored bank 35% capital, which holds the remaining 15% capital?1) National Housing Bank 2)Life Insurance Corporation of India3) NABARD 4) Reserve Bank of India 5) State Government

9. Which among the following car companies recalled 44,989 units of Innova inIndia?1) Hyundai Motor India Limited2) Toyota Motor Corporation3) Maruti Suzuki Limited 4) Tata Motor Limited 5) None

10. Which in the below list of authorities appoints a deputy governor in RBI?1) Governor of RBI 2) Ministry of Finance3) Central Government of India 4) Committee of the Central Board 5) None

11. House hold sector in India invests maximum part of its savings in which sector/saving instrument?1) Insurance 2) Fixed Deposits 3) Mutual Funds4) Government Securities 5) None

SBI Clerks MODEL TEST - 06

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12. By 2015, ________ crosses of USA to become World’s Largest Banking Industry?1) India 2) Germany 3) Japan 4)China 5)None

13. In which country Summer Olympics 2020 will be held?1) Germany 2) Japan 3) Russia 4) England 5) None

14. “One Night at the Call Centre” was written by?1) Rabindranath Tagore 2) Chetan Bhagat 3) R.K. Narayan4) Arundhati Roy

15. National Maritime Day of India is celebrated on?1) April 5th 2) April 7th 3) April 6th 4) April 8th 5) None

16. Common Wealth Games 2018 is going to be held in which country?1) France 2) Japan 3) Australia 4) Greece 5) None

17. The RBI on 2nd April, 2014 granted in-principle approvals to IDFC LTD and whichother company to start new banks in India?1) Muthoot Group 2) Bandhan Financial Services Pvt. Ltd.3) Muruguppa Financials 4) Kuber Group 5) None

18. Which of the following is the capital of “Denmark”?1) Odense 2) Brisbane 3) Copenhagen 4)Aalborg 5) Esbjerg

19. Which of the following authority regulates Mutual Funds?1) SEBI 2) State Government 3) NABARD4) RBI 5) Planning Commission

20. Which of the following is the basis for price fixing in milk?1) Fat content 2) Fat/SNF content 3) Lactose content4) Protein content 5) All the above

21. “Phishing” term is connected to ______1) Sea piracy 2) Cyber crime 3) Oil Extraction 4) Agriculture 5) None

22. Rial is the currency for which country?1) Iraq 2) Israel 3) Iran 4) Italy 5) None

23. Name the city which on 7th April, 2014 received its first passenger train with thisit became the second state capital in north eastern states to be placed on railwaymap of India.1) Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh 2) Agartala, Tripura3) Dispur, Assam 4) Aizwal, Mizoram 5) None

24. Name the renowed cinematographer and Dada Sahab Phalke Award winner, whodied on 7th April, 2014 at his residence in Shankarapuram?1) V.K. Murthy 2) Forooq Sheikh3) Rajendra Yadav 4) B.N. Sircar 5) None

25. World Bank on 9th April, 2014 projected that the economic growth rate of Indiafor the fiscal year 2014-2015 will be _____1) 5.5% 2) 5.7% 3) 6.1% 4) 6.6% 5) None

26. What is the name of the battery unveiled by an Israel startup on 8th April, 2014that charges a smartphone in lessthan 30 seconds?1) Mamodot 2) Speedodot 3) Nanodots 4) Bulletdots 5) None

27. Ward Cunninghom is an American Computer Programme who developed the__?1) First Wiki 2) Java language 3) C language 4) WWW 5) None

28. The Head Quarters of International Monetory Fund is at1) Washington DC 2) Russia 3) America4) Canada 5) Other than these given as options

29. Which of the following books has been written by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?1) Ignited Minds 2) Name Sake 3) The Kite Runner4) A Thousand Splendid Suns 5) The Hungry Tide

30. Dr. V. Kurien is known for ______1) Red Revolution 2) Green Revolution3) White Revolution 4) Yellow Revolution 5) None

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31. Which in the list can’t be achieved by the core banking?1) Any where banking 2) Every where access3) Technology upgradation 4) Adoption of Basel norms 5) None

32. With which sport is the Bledisloe Cup associated?1) Bridge 2) Baseball 3) Rugby 4) Golf 5) None

33. Which of the following books is written by Arun Shourie?1) Train to Pakistan 2) The Friends of Pakistan3) Are we Deceiving Ourselves Again4) The Hunger Free World 5) None of these

34. How many countries are there is SAARC?1) 8 2) 7 3) 9 4) 10 5) None

35. Which of the following award is NOT associated with films?1) Academy Award 2) Bafta Award3) Emmy Award 4) Golden Globe Award 5) None

36. Which method is used by RBI for “Sterlization of the Capital Inflows”?1) Base rate system 2) CRAR oldigation3) Credit Authorization Scheme 4) Open Market Operations 5) None

37. Which nationalised bank has its headquarters in Mangalore, Karnataka?1) Corporation Bank 2) Syndicate Bank3) Indian Overseas Bank 4) Indian Bank 5) None

38. “Mukundara Hills” is the third Tiger Reserve India in ____ ?1) Rajastan 2) Karnataka 3) Uttar Pradesh 4)Jharkhand 5)Madhya Pradesh

39. Priority sector covers loans to each women borrower not exceeding _____1) Rs.10,000 2) Rs.50,000 3) Rs.15,000 4) Rs.6,500 5) Rs.25,000

40. National Equity Fund (NEF) is managed by which in the below list?1) RBI 2) SIDBI 3) IDBI 4) NABARD 5) SYNDICATE

GENERAL ENGLISHDirections (Q.No.41 - 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer thequestions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help youlocate them while answering some of the questions.

There is absolutely no point in complaining that over the years,there has been pressure for increased productivity and higher earnings for work-ers in industry. There are several ways for increasing employees’ earnings. Em-ployee earnings can be increased by raising the selling price of the firm’s prod-ucts and services, reducing profits or costs of raw materials or augmenting labourproductivity. However, increasing employee earnings by means other than in-creased labour productivity jeopardizes the firm’s competitive strength in themarket. Higher prices usually mean fewer customers, reduced profit means lesscapita investment and low-cost materials mean poor product quality. But increas-ing labour productivity by enhancing skills and motivation creates an almost un-limited resource. The development of economic resources, human as well as non-human, is the product of human effort and the quality of human effort in largepart depends on human motivation.

Enthusing employees with workholic, spirit through traditional au-thority and financial incentives has become increasingly difficult as employeesbecome economically secure and their dependency on any one particular organi-zation decreases. According to expectancy theorists, the motivation to work in-creases when an employee feels his performance is an instrument for obtainingdesired rewards. Nevertheless, in many organizations today employees are en-titled to organizational rewards just by being employed. Unions, governmentalregulations and the nature of the job itself in some cases prevent managementfrom relating financial rewards to performance. People may be attracted to join

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and remain in organizations to receive organizational rewards, but beingmotivated to join an organization is not the same as being motivated to exerteffort in an organization. The challenge to management is to find and administeralternative forms of incentives which will induce employees to improve work per-formance. Such alternative forms of reinforcement will require increased under-standing of motivational theories and programmes.

41. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?1) Development of economic resources is primarily the product of market condi-tions2) Earnings can be increased by lowering the selling price of products3) Employees can be best motivated by providing financial incentives4) All employees should be entitled to organizational rewards just by being em-ployed5) None

42. Organizations can derive maximum advantages by1) providing financial incentives to employees regardless of performance2) enhancing labour productivity by increasing skills and motivation3) encouraging employees to expend greater physical energy4) inducing employees to improve work performance and control their demands5) strictly adhering to governmental regulations.

43. According to the passage, all of the following contribute to an increase in em-ployee earnings EXCEPT1) increasing the selling price of the company's products2) reducing profits in favour of employees3) providing incentives and fringe benefits to employees4) enhancing labour productivity5) increased capital investment

44. Employees feel motivated to work when they1) experience good working conditions in the organization2) decide to produce goods and services as a result of team work3) think of performance as a tool for obtaining rewards4) relate rewards to material prosperity5) are members of the union

45. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning as the word ‘induce’ as usedin the passage.1) appreciate 2) stimulate 3) exhibit 4) inflate 5) threaten

46. Which of the following factors, according to the passage, adversely affects theorganization’s competitive strength?1) Making rewards contingent on performance2) Anti-productivity and anti-management activities of labour union3) Motivating employees with traditional authority4) Increasing employee earnings regardless of their productivity5) None

47. Which of the statements is/are not true in the context of the passage?I. Human effort is the cause of the development of economic resources.II. Management is free to relate financial rewards to performance.III. Employees can be easily motivated with traditional authority today.1) Both I and II 2) Only III 3) Both I and III 4) Both II and III 5) None

48. Which of the following factors determine the quality of human efforts?1) Desire and willingness of an individual to excel in whatever he undertakes2) Economic resources available with the organization3) The individual’s innovativeness4) Authoritarian leadership and job security 5) None

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49. In the context of the passage, a company’s competitive strength in the market isaffected mainly because ofI. a slump in the international marketII. poor inter-departmental coordinationIII. decreased labour productivity1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III 4) Both II and III 5) None

50. Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘jeopardizes’as used in the passage?1) safeguards 2) endangers 3) projects 4) devalues 5) decreasesDirections (Q.No. 51-55): The following question consists of a sentence in whichfour words or phrases are marked. The four parts of the sentences are marked1), 2), 3) or 4). You are to identify the one part that would not be accepted instandard written English.

51. If she drinks (1) / too many dry martinis (2) / she will surely (3) / get sick. (4) /No Error (5)

52. Neither of (1) / these dresses (2) / give you (3) / that Lana Turnor look. (4) / NoErrors (5)

53 The murderer (1) / was (2) / hung (3) / at dawn. (4) / No Error (5)54. Take (1) / two spoonsful (2) / of this medicine (3) / every three hours. (4) / No

Error (5)55. Your words (1) / seem to infer that (2) / Marie is trying to (3) / steal your husband.

(4) / No Error (5)Directions (Q.No. 56-60): Tick mark the word that gives the correct spelling.

56. (1) Pusilanimus (2) Pusillanimous(3) Pussilanimous (4) Pusilanimous (5) None

57. (1) Maelstrom (2) Moelstrome (3) Malestrom (4) Mailstorm (5) None58. (1) Extripaite (2) Exterpate (3) Extirpeit (4) Extirpate (5) None59. (1) Debauchary (2) Debouchery (3) Debauchery (4) Dibauchery (5) None60. (1) Scurilous (2) Scurrilous (3) Scurillous (4) Scourilous (5) None

Directions (Q.No.61-65): Which of the phrases 1), 2), 3) and 4) given below shouldreplace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentencegrammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is and there is no correctionrequired mark 5), i.e., ‘No correction required’ as the answer.

61. Despite being tried his best to persuade people to give up smoking, he could notattain success.1) Despite his best trying 2) Despite trying his best3) Despite of his best 4) Insipite of being tried his5) No correction required

62. Their attempt of rioting was foiled because of the police squad arrived on time.1) of the timely arrival of the police squad 2) the police squad arrival3) of the police squad being arrived4) of the police squad had arrived 5) No correction required

63. How can one mobilize support from colleagues without being cordially to them?1) being cordially for 2) been cordially to3) being cordial to 4) cordially being to 5) No correction required

64. All their efforts were direct to promote harmony among various groups of people.1) have directed for promote 2) were directed to promoting3) were directing to promote 4) were direct at promote 5) No correction required

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65. All you really need is a mask, a tube, flippers and a spear gun.1) you really need to 2) you really need are 3) you real need4) you really need was 5) No correction requiredDirections (Q.No.66-70): Rearrange the following six sentences A), B), C), D), E)and F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer thequestions given below them.A) The lookout point infront of the university on Lenin Hills affords the bestpanoramic view of the city.B) And there was an added bonus.C) One day, I took a long underground train journey to visit the world’s largestuniversity buildingD) And in the distance loom, the gold silver domes of Novodevichy Monastery.E) Below me was the Moskova river.F) The Moscow State University is impressive to say least.

66. Which is the SECOND sentence in the passage?1) A 2)F 3) D 4) E 5) None

67. Which is the LAST(SIXTH) sentence in the passage?1) B 2) A 3) D 4) E 5) None

68. Which is the FOURTH sentence in the passage?1) F 2) E 3) B 4) A 5) None

69. Which is the FIRST sentence in the passage?1) C 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) None

70. Which is the FIFTH sentence in the passage?1) F 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) NoneDirections (Q.No. 71-80): In the following passage there are blanks each of whichhas been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and againsteach five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find outthe appropriate word in each case.Driving into Pushkar, it was impossible to miss those ancient walls (71) like thebattlement of a fortress on the left side of the main road half (72) among thetrees. Intrigued, I (73) the driver of my car about the structure. The driver saidthat it was an old temple, and not (74) a visit. So, like others, I headed to thePushkar Lake and entered the temple of Brahma and the (75) waters of the lake.It is reputed that all wishes are (76) with a (77) in these waters. I, too, took thedip. Later, religious sentiments (78), I was free to give (79) to my curiosity, For Ihad not been able to get those half-hidden walls out of my (80).

71. 1) erect 2) imposing 3) emerging 4) rising 5) None72. 1) visible 2) emerging 3) hidden 4) visible 5) None73. 1) asked 2) told 3) spoke 4) enquiry 5) None74. 1) suitable 2) for 3) worth 4) requiring 5) None75. 1) sacred 2) pleasant 3) important 4) attractive 5) None76. 1) appeared 2) granted 3) satisfied 4) heard 5) None77. 1) swim 2) jump 3) dip 4) ride 5) None78. 1) cured 2) appeased 3) granted 4) satisfied 5) None79. 1) up 2) over 3) of 4) in 5) None80. 1) heart 2) thinking 3) mind 4) feeling 5) None

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDEDirections(Q.No.81–100):What will come in place of the question mark (?) in thefollowing questions ?

81. 39852 ? 81 12 1) 41 2) 1849 3) 1681 4) 43 5) None

82. 30% of 200 + ? = 48% of 550 - 10% of 1501) 600 2) 31721 3) 189 4) 35721 5) None

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83. 11.6 x 8.9 x 5.1 = ? + 66.221) 526.524 2) 470.304 3) 460.304 4) 466.304 5) None

84. 67% of (?) = 3123.22 + 2164.421) 7892 2) 7080 3) 6442 4) 6732 5) None

85. 66% of 546 - 43% of 439 = ?1) 161.59 2) 171.59 3) 151.59 4) 181.59 5) None

86. (62)2 + (14)2 = (?)2 + 5591) 69 2) 51 3) 61 4) 59 5) None

87. 54679 + 34521 = ? + 436681) 45532 2) 43211 3) 44211 4) 45211 5) None

88. 17956 ?1) 134 2) 136 3) 144 4) 146 5) None

89.1

58

of 208 + 786 = 2000 - (?)

1) 128 2) 148 3) 158 4) 124 5) None

90.1 3 2 1

2 3 1 (?) 24 4 3 3

1) 1

43

2) 2

43

3) 6

17

4) 4

17

5) None

91. 12.36 x 18.15 + 21.52 = ? + 30% of 1201) 245.854 2) 219.854 3) 199.845 4) 209.854 5) None

92. 21 14 34? % of 26

12.4 5.6 15.5

1) 104 2) 120 3) 400 4) 160 5) None93. 64% of (?) - 96% of 1120 = 499.2

1) 2460 2) 2640 3) 2140 4) 2360 5) None94. 0.0081 6.8 ? 2.142

1) 4.4 2) 2.5 3) 3.5 4) 3.4 5) None

95.9

33824 151?

1) 2016 2) 224 3) 95 4) 2216 5) None96. The difference between 56% of a number and 41% of the same number is 660.

What is 8% of that number?1) 362 2) 352 3) 336 4) 345 5) None

97. The population of a town is 189000. It decreases by 8% in the first year andincreases by 15% in the 2nd year. What is the population in the town at the endof 2 years?1) 192962 2) 198962 3) 199962 4) 188962 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.98 - 100): A box contains 8 Red, 16 Blue, 4 Yellow and 12 Blackballs.

98. If one ball is picked up, what is probability that it is not Blue?1) 0.24 2) 0.8 3) 0.3 4) 0.6 4) 0.5

99. If two balls are pickup randomly, probability of both being black

1) 11

1302)

22129

3) 739

4) 3

655) None

100. If four are picked, all four not to be Yellow, what is the probability?

1) 18191820

2) 9138991390

3) 1312913130

4) 12191220

5) None

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101. Mamatha spent Rs.68357 on the renovation for her home Rs.25,675 on buyingmusic system and the remaining 28% of the total amount she had as cash withher. What was the total amount?1) Rs.94,032 2) Rs.36,568 3) Rs.1,30,600 4) Can’t be determined 5) None

102. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 300% and the denominator is

increased by 100%. The resultant fraction is 11

119

. What was the original fraction?

1) 1519

2) 1319

3) 59

4) 49

5) None

103. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs.1754 is same as loss incurredafter selling the article for Rs.1492. What is the cost price of the article?1) Rs.1523 2) Rs.1623 3) Rs.1689 4) Rs.1589 5) None

104. A train 100 metres long meets a man going in opposite direction at the rate of5 km per hour and passes him in 7.2 seconds. At what rate is the train going?1) 40 km/hr 2) 45 km/hr 3) 50 km/hr 4) 48 km/hr 5) None

105. A monkey climbing up greased pole ascends 10 metres and slips 2 metres inalternate minutes. If the pole is 56 metres high how long will it take him toreach the top?1) 12 min 2) 8 min 3) 12.8 min 4) 7 min 5) None

106. A semi - circular shaped window has diameter of 63 cm. Its perimeter equals to____.1) 198 cm 2) 126 cm 3) 251 cm 4) 162 cm 5) None

107. A cylindrical tank of diameter 35 cm is full of water. If 11 litres of water is drawnoff, the water level in the tank will drop by

1) 3

117cm 2) 14 cm 3)

110

2cm 4)

612

7cm 5) None

108. A rectangular courtyard 3.78 metres long and 5.25 metres wide is to be pavedexactly with square tiles, all of the same size. What is the largest size of the tilewhich could be used for the purpose?1) 14 cm 2) 21 cm 3) 42 cm 4) 7 cm 5) None

109. Suma has an average of 56% in her first 7 exams. How much should she score inher 8th examination to obtain an average of 60% on the whole?1) 88% 2) 78% 3) 98% 4) 68% 5) None

110. A man has 60 pens. He sells some at a profit of 12% and the rest at a loss of 8%on the whole he makes a profit of 11%. How many pens did he sell at a profit of12%?1) 57 2) 3 3) 60 4) 54 5) None

111. A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200m. The thief startsrunning and the police man chases him. The thief and the police man run at therate of 10 km/hr and 11 km/hr respectively. What is the distance between themafter 6 minutes?1) 200 m 2) 150 m 3) 190 m 4) 100 m 5) None

112. If (22)3 is subtracted from the square of a number the answer so obtained is 9516.What is the number?1) 144 2) 142 3) 138 4) 136 5) None

113. A shopkeeper buys 5 chairs for Rs.7890 and later sells them for Rs.8990. Howmuch profit does the shopkeeper make per chair?1) Rs.212 2) Rs.228 3) Rs.215 4) Rs.220 5) None

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Directions (Q.No.114-115): What approximate value should come in place of thequestion mark (?)

114. 3.14 x 22.52 + 13.52 = 4.23 x 16.28 + ?1) 30 2) 15 3) 25 4) 10 5) 20

115. 567 31 x (12)2 + 18 = ?1) 2431 2) 2569 3) 2334 4) 2785 5) 2652Directions (Q.No.116-120): Study the table carefully to answer the question thatfollow.Number of people selecting six different products and the percentage of Men,Women and chidren in selecting those products.

Men Women Children

A 45525 20 44 36

B 36800 39 33 28

C 56340 45 30 25

D 62350 38 28 34

E 48300 21 44 35

F 35580 15 35 50

Product Total Number of People

Percentage of

116. What is the respective ratio of total number of men selecting Product B to thoseselecting Product E?1) 69:49 2) 7:5 3) 208:147 4) 1040:739 5) None

117. Number of men selecting Product C forms what percent of those selecting ProductF ? (rounded off to two digits after decimal)1) 21.05 2) 475.04 3) 25.56 4) 460.08 5) None

118. Total number of women selecting Product E forms approximately what percent ofthe total number of people selecting all the products together.1) 11 2) 15 3) 20 4) 2 5) 7

119. What is the total number of children selecting Product A?1) 14085 2) 5337 3) 20031 4) 16389 5) None

120. What is the approximate average number women selecting all the products together?1) 16707 2) 16686 3) 16531 4) 16429 5) 16311

TEST OF REASONING121. If ‘ ’ denotes ‘-’, ‘x’ denotes ‘+’, ‘-’ denotes ‘x’ and ‘+’ denotes ‘ ’, then

28 x 12 + 4 6 - 4 = ?1) 4 2) 1 3) 6 4) 5 5) 7

122. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group, which isthe one that does not belong to that group?1) 39 2) 27 3) 48 4) 42 5) 24

123. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters MRTA usingeach letter only once in each word?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

124. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 53216894 areinterchanged similarly. The position of the second and the sixth digit areinterchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the second from the rightend after the rearrangement?1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 9 5) None

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125. In a certain code ‘GEAR’ is written as ‘5@3©’ and ‘MOVE’ is written as ‘7$9@’. Howis ‘ROAM’ written in the code?1) ©$37 2) ©3$7 3) @$37 4) ©$57 5) None

126. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word HOARDINGS each of whichhas as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

127. P walked 20m towards North, took a left turn and walked 10m, then took a rightturn and walked 20m, again took a right turn and walked 10m. How far is hefrom his starting point?1) 50m 2) 60m 3) 40m 4) Can’t be determined 5) None

128. In a certain code ‘CHAMPION’ is written as ‘NBIDMNHO’. How is ‘ELECTRON’written in the code?1) FMDFMNQS 2) BDKDMNQS 3) DFMFOPSU 4) DFMFMNQS 5) None

129. In a row of forty five boys facing South, T is eighth to the right of H, who is tenthfrom the right end H is fourteenth to the left of R. What is R’s position from theleft end?1) 21st 2) 23rd 3) 24th 4) Data Inadequate 5) None

130. If all the vowels of the word ‘CONSTRUCTED’ are substituted with the next letterof the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with theletter preceding it, which of the following would be the ninth letter from theright?1) M 2) P 3) Q 4) R 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.131-135): Each question below has one statement followed byfour conclusions. Find which of them directly follows from the statements. Takethe given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonlyknown facts.

131. Statement: All the fruits are stonesNo tree is fruitAll stones are rains

Conclusios: I. No stone is a treeII. No rain is a treeIII. Some rain is fruitIV. Some rain is tree

1) None follow 2) II and III follow 3) III and IV follow4) All follow 5) None

132. Statements: Some toys are breakableSome breakable things are fixedNo rod is a toy

Conclusions: I. Some toys are fixedII. Some rods are not breakableIII. Some breakable are not rodsIV. Some toys are not fixed

1) None follow 2) Only III follows 3) either I or IV and III follows4) I, III and IV follow 5) None of these

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133. Statements: No men is cheatAll men are niceSome nice people are women

Conclusion: I. Some men are niceII. Some men are womenIII. Some men are not niceIV. Some nice are men

1) None follow 2) Only I and II follow 3) Only I, II and IV follows4) Only I, II, III follows 5) None of these

134. Statement: All barbies are newSome new things are watchesNo watch is pen

Conclusions: I. Some watches are barbiesII. Some new things are pensIII. No watch is barbieIV. Some new things are not pens

1) All follows 2) Only I, III and IV follow 3) I, II, IV follows4) Either III or I and IV follow 5) None of these

135. Statement: Some guns are pistolsAll pistols are bombsAll crackers are pistols

Conclusions: I. Some bombs are gunsII. Some bombs are crackersIII. Some crackers are gunsIV. Some crackers are not guns

1) All follows 2) Only I, II follows 3) Only III, IV follows4) I, II and either III or IV follows 5) None of theseDirections (Q.No.136-140): Study the following arrangement carefully and answerthe questions given below.

R D @ 5 M E 7 9 T © B % W 2 H 6 $ K P 1 A 4 Q I V * U N 8 3 Z F Y

136. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangements, each of whichis immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a symbol?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

137. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in theabove arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that doesn’t belong tothat group?

1) TB9 2) PAK 3) 4IA 4) U8* 5) 2%H

138. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series basedon the above arrangement?D5E TBW 6K1 ?

1) QV* 2) QVU 3) QT* 4) 4I* 5) None of these

139. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which isimmediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a letter?1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three

140. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the sixteenth from the right endof the above arrangement?1) 7 2) B 3) U 4) V 5) None of these

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Directions (Q.No. 141-145): In these questions the symbols @, *, %, # and $ areused with different meaning as follows.A @ B means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’

A * B means ‘A is not smaller than B’

A % B means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’A # B means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’A$B means ‘A is not greater than B’In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, whichare followed by three conclusions I, II & III. Assuming that given statements aretrue, find out which conclusions is/are definitely true.

141. Statements: F#L, L*D, D@E, E$H

Conclusions: I. H$D II. F@H III. E#L1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true4) All are true 5) None

142. Statements: H*G, G@K, J#K, I%E

Conclusions: I. H@J II. E#G III. H*E

1) I and II are true 2) Only I is true3) II and III are true 4) All are true 5) None

143. Statements: M@J, J$F, F%E, E#LConclusions: I. L@J II. J$L III. E%J1) I and II are true 2) I and III are true3) II and III are true 4) All are true 5) None

144. Statements: R$T, T@V, V%W, W*Q

Conclusions: I. Q#T II. R#Q III. R*Q

1) None 2) Only I is true 3) Either II or III4) I and either II or III true 5) None

145. Statements: L#J, J@Q, Q*R, R$VConclusions: I. L#Q II. Q*V III. J%V1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true4) I and II are true 5) NoneDirections (Q.No.146 - 148):Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturdaywith one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play Dwas organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized onSaturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on thenext day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on Tuesday.

146. On which day was play B organized?1) Thursday 2) Friday 3) Wednesday 4) Data Inadequate 5) None

147. On which day no play was organized?1) Monday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday 4) None 5) Data Inadequate

148. Which play was organized on Wednesday?1)A 2) C 3) D 4) Data Inadequate 5) None

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Directions (Q.No.149-152): Study the following information carefully and answerthe questions, which followMr. Singh didn’t teach on Thursday. Calculus was taught in the class that started7:20 AM. Mr. Chatterjee took the class on Wednesday but he didn’t teach Probability.The class on Monday started at 7:00 AM but Mr. Singh didn’t teach it. Mr. Duttadidn’t teach Ratio and Proportion. Mr. Benerjee, who didn’t teach Set Theory,taught a class that started 5 min later than the class featuring the teacher whotaught Probability. The teacher in Friday’s class taught Set Theory. Wednesday’sclass didn’t start at 7:10 AM. No two classes started at the same time.

149. Probability was taught by1) Mr. Dutta on Monday 2) Mr. Dutta on Thursday3) Mr. Singh on Wednesday 4) Mr. Singh on Monday 5) None

150. The class on Wednesday started at1) 7:05 AM and topic was Ratio and Proportion2) 7:20 AM and topic was Calculus3) 7:00 AM and topic was Calculus4) 7:30 AM and topic was Calculus5) 7:05 AM and topic was Calculus

151. The option which gives correct teacher subject combination is1) Mr. Chaterjee - Ratio and Proportion2) Mr. Benerjee - Calculus3) Mr. Chatterjee - Set Theory4) Mr. Singh - Calculus5) Mr. Singh - Set Theory

152. The option which gives a possible correct class time - weekday combination is1) Wednesday 7:10 AM, Thursday 7:20 AM, Friday 7:05 AM2) Wednesday 7:20 AM, Thursday 7:15 AM, Friday 7:20 AM3) Wednesday 7:05 AM, Thursday 7:20 AM, Friday 7:10 AM4) Wednesday 7:10 AM, Thursday 7:15 AM, Friday 7:05 AM5) Wednesday 7:20 AM, Thursday 7:05 AM, Friday 7:10 AMDirections (Q.No.153-157): Each of the questions below consists of a questionand two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whetherthe data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Readboth statements andGive answer (1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer thequestion.Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer thequestion, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer thequestion.Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alongare sufficient to answer the question.Give answer (4) if the data even in both statements I and II together are notsufficient to answer the question.Give answer (5) if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary toanswer the question.

153. Which bag amongst P, Q, R, S & T is the heaviest?I. Bag Q is heavier than R and S. Bag T is heavier only than bag P.II. Only three bags are lighter than R. The weight of bag Q is 50 kg which is 2 kgmore than bag R.

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154. What is the two digit number?I. The difference between the two digits of the number is 0.II. The sum of the two digits of the number is 18.

155. In a college 5 different subjects, viz, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology andMathematics are taught on 5 different days of the same week, starting fromMonday and ending on Friday. Is Chemistry taught on Wednesday?I. Two subjects are taught between Zoology and Mathematics. Mathematics istaught before Zoology, Chemistry is taught on the day immediately next to theday when Physics is taught. Botany is not taught on Friday.II. Three lectures are scheduled between the lectures of Botony and Zoology.Mathematics is taught immediately before Physics.

156. Is the time in the clock 9 O’clock now?I. After half an hour, the minute hand and the hour hands of the clock will makean angle of exactly 900 with each other.II. Exactly 15 minutes back, the hour and the minute’s hand of the clock coincidedwith each other.

157. Is F the grand daughter of B?I. B is the father of M. M is the sister of T. T is the mother of FII. S is the son of F. V is the daughter of F, R is the brother of T.Directions (158-160): Study the following information to answer the givenquestions.A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words andnumber rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The followingis an illustration of input and rearrangement (All the numbers are two digitnumbers and are arranged as per some logic based on the value of the number).S1, S2, .......... S6 are stepsInput : Win 56 32 93 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chanceS1 : 93 56 32 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chance winS2 : 11 93 56 32 bat for 46 28 give chance win himS3 : 56 11 93 32 bat for 46 28 chance win him giveS4 : 28 56 11 93 32 bat 46 chance win him give forS5 : 46 28 56 11 93 32 bat win him give for chanceS6 : 32 46 28 56 11 93 win him gave for chance batS6 is the last step of the arrangement of the above input as the intend arrangementis obtained.As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the followingquestions the appropriate steps for the given input.Input: fun 89 at the 28 16 base camp 32 53 here 68.

158. Which of the following would be the step II?1) 89 fun at 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68 the2) 53 35 the 28 68 camp here fun at 16 base3) 53 28 68 16 89 35 the here fun camp base at4) Can’t be determined 5) None

159. Which word/number would be at 7th position from the left in Step IV?1) base 2) at 3) 35 4) the 5) 53

160. Which step number would be the following input?Setp II : 16 89 fun at 28 base camp 35 53 68 the hare.1) V 2) None 3) Can’t be determined4) IV 5) There will be no such step

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MARKETING APTITUDE / COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

161. What is the full form of FRBM ?1) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management2) Financial Resources and Budget Management3) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management4) Fiscal Review and Budget Management5) None of these

162. Demonstration is an exercise to _____(1) attractively pack and display the goods(2) Prove the characteristic of the product(3) Both 1 and 2(4) Window shop(5) Neither 1 nor 2

163. A theory states that no matter how efficiently goods/services are produced, ifthey cannot be delivered to the customer in the quickest possible time this theoryis called _____(1) Quickest the best (2) Instant service(3) Service on time (4) Timely effort (5) Matter theory

164. In banks, loans and advances are considered as-(1) Assets (2) liabilities (3) Resources(4) cause of expenditure (5) None of these

165. Acid Test of a brand is_______(1) Brand preference (2) Brand awareness(3) Brand loyalty (4) Brand equity (5) Band acceptability

166. The best advertisement is_______(1) Glow sign boards (2) On internet (3) TV media(4) Print media (5) A satisfied customer

167. The balance sheet of an organization gives information regarding_____(1) Result of operations for a particular Period(2) The financial position as on a particular date(3) The operating efficiency of a firm.(4) Financial position during a particular period(5) All of the above

168. ESOP stand for-(1) Efficient Service of Promises (2) Effective System of Projects(3) Employee Stock Option Plan (4) Essential Security of Project(5) Equity Stock Option Plan

169. Proper pricing is needed for-(1) Extra charges of extra services (2) Levy of VAT(3) Good customer services (4) Putting burden on the customers 5) None

170. In selling, “Consumption” is the ultimate goal of the sales while a marketer__(1) Identifies consumer needs and wants.(2) Develop an appropriate product/service to attain customer satisfaction.(3) Accomplish organizational goals through integrated marketing approach(4) all of the above. (5) None of these

171. One of the following is a target for the marketing of internet banking_____(1) All the customers (2) All the educated customers(3) All the computer educated customers(4) Only creditors (5) None of these

172. Information systems can assist manager by ______

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(1) Providing information (2) Providing data on internal sources(3) Directing (4) All of the above (5) None of these

173. Short term planning focuses on-(1) Functional plans (2) Long term objective (3) Specific goal(4) Both 1 & 3 (5) None of these

174. Advertising for............. is not allowed on T.V.(1) Liquor (2) Cigarettes (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Soaps (5) None

175 . Which among the following is statistical indicator for equality in income distribu-tion________(1) Gini Coefficient (2) Price Indices (3) GNP(4) GDP (5) None of these

176. Which among the following is not an example of convenience goods?(1) Tea (2) Newspaper (3) Coffee (4) Shirts (5) None

177. Marketing is – Find the wrong option -(1) an ancient concept (2) a modern concept(3) a continuous affair (4) a team effort (5) None

178. Bank Marketing is treated as -(1) Transaction marketing (2) Service marketing(3) Indoor marketing (4) All of these (5) None of these

179. Sales promotion involves, the incorrect option-(1) Building product awareness (2) Creating interest(3) Providing Information (4) Designing new product (5) None

180. Cross selling is very effective in the sale of one of the following _______(1) Debit – Card (2) Credit- Cards(3) Internal- Banking (4) Auto Loan (5) All of these

181. The function of CPU is1) to provide external storage of text 2) to create a hand copy3) to create a new software4) to read interpreter and process the information and instruction5) other than those given as options

182. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except1) Hackers 2) Spam 3) Viruses 4) Identity theft 5) None

183. A process known as ____ is used by large retailears to study trends.1) data mining 2) data selection 3) POS 4) data conversion 5) None

184. Surgeoms can perform dalicate operations by manipulating devices throughcomputers instead of manually. This technology is known as1) Robotics 2) Computer forensics 3) Simulation4) Farecasting 5) none

185. ______ is the study of molecules and structure whose size ranges from 1 to 100nanometers.1) Nano Science 2) Micro Electrodes3) Computer forensics 4) Artificial intelligence 5) None

186. Computers process data into information by working exclusivaly with1) Multimedia 2) Words 3) Charactars 4) Numbers 5) None

187. The CPU and memory are located on the1) Expansion board 2) Mother board 3) Storate device4) Output device 5) None

188. Apple macintoshes (MACS) and PCS use diffurent _____ to process data and differentoperating systems.1) languages 2) methods 3) CPU 4) Storage devices 5) None

189. DSL is an example of a(n) ____ connection

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1) network 2) wireless 3) slow 4) broadband 5) None190. A byte can hold one ____ of data

1) bit 2) binary digit 3) character 4) kilobyte 5) None191. ____ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such

as your car or your electronic thermostat1) Sarvers 2) Embedded computers 3) Robotic computers4) Mainframes 5) None

192. The mental or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computers isthe1) system unit 2) CPU 3) Mainframe 4) Platform 5) None

193. UNIVAC is1) Universal Automatic Computer 2) Unique Automatic Computer3) Universal Array Computer 4) Unvalued Automatic Computer 5) None

194. IBM 1401 is1) First generation computer 2) Second generation computer3) Third generation computer 4) Fourth generation computer 5) None

195. Which of the following is not real security and privacy risk.1) Hackers 2) Spam 3) Viruses 4) Identify theft 5) None

196. The term pentium is related to1) DVD 2) Hard Disk 3) Mouse 4) Microprocessor

197. The base of the hexadecimal number system is1) 2 2) 8 3) 10 4) 16 5) None

198. Allocation of a reasorces in a time dependent manner to several programssimultaneously called?1) Multi user 2) Multi tasking 3) Time sharing 4) Multi shareing 5) None

199. Which of the following are true about firewalls?1) Follows a set of rules 2) Can be either a hardware or software device3) Filtors network traffic 4) All the above 5) None

200. The process transforing files from a computer on the internet to your computer iscalled?1) Uploading 2) Forwarding 3) FTP 4) Downloading 5) None

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