SARTHI – DELHI UPSC – CET - 2019

ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION FOR PAPER- 1 (GS):

Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans Sr.no. Ans

1 d 26 a 51 b 76 b

2 d 27 b 52 c 77 c

3 b 28 c 53 a 78 c

4 a 29 d 54 d 79 d

5 b 30 d 55 b 80 c

6 c 31 b 56 c 81 b

7 a 32 c 57 a 82 d

8 b 33 c 58 c 83 c

9 a 34 b 59 b 84 a

10 c 35 b 60 a 85 b

11 a 36 a 61 a 86 a

12 d 37 d 62 b 87 b

13 b 38 b 63 d 88 d

14 d 39 a 64 c 89 a

15 d 40 d 65 a 90 d

16 c 41 a 66 c 91 c

17 b 42 a 67 d 92 d

18 a 43 c 68 a 93 a

19 a 44 b 69 c 94 a

20 d 45 d 70 d 95 b

21 c 46 a 71 b 96 a

22 d 47 a 72 d 97 b

23 a 48 c 73 b 98 c

24 d 49 b 74 d 99 b

25 b 50 b 75 b 100 c

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1. d

The government of India has launched various initiatives for skill development, training and for

better employment opportunities.

National career service is a national level online portal developed primarily to connect the

opportunities with the aspirations of youth. This portal facilitates registration of job seekers, job

providers, skill providers, career counsellors, etc. These facilities will be delivered by the portal

through multiple channels like career centres, mobile devices, CSCs, etc. It meets the varied

demands and requirements of the youth for information on education, employment and training will

be supported by a multilingual call centre. Hence option I is correct.

Digital Employment Exchange is an online job portal launched by the office of the development

commissioner, Ministry of micro, small and medium scale enterprises in June 2015. It enables

industrial units to find suitable manpower and job seekers to find suitable jobs. it is conceptually

similar to the traditional employment exchanges but caters to mainly the micro and small and

medium scale Enterprises (MSME) which generally employ less than 25 people. Hence option II is

correct.

Swayamsidha scheme was launched in the year 2001 dedicated to women's empowerment. it is a

self-help groups-based program with emphasis on convergence activities. the objective is to ensure

that self-help groups members avail the benefit of all schemes and services in an integrated and

Holistic manner. Through SHG formation, they create many employment opportunities for

themselves and others. Hence option III is correct.

2. d

Dumping refers to a situation when goods are exported to another country at a price which is less

than what it is sold for in the home country or when the export price is less than the cost of

production in the home country. for example, the price of the China made table in China is 10 USD.

However, it is exported to India and is being sold at 5 USD. such a situation is referred to as

dumping. Hence option d is the correct answer. The department of Commerce in the union Ministry

of Commerce and industry has an anti-dumping unit which investigates cases where the domestic

industry (domestic producers) provide evidence that dumping has taken place by producers abroad.

They also defend cases where allegations of dumping are brought against Indian exporters by

foreign governments.

3. b

GST is an indirect tax which has replaced many indirect taxes in India. it was passed by the Indian

Parliament and it came into effect on 1st July 2017. it is a comprehensive, multistage, destination-

based tax that is levied on every value addition.

statement I is not correct. indirect taxes can be either origin based or destination based. origin based

tax (also known as production tax) is levied where goods or services are produced. destination based

tax (consumption tax) is levied where goods and services are consumed. GST is a destination based

indirect tax which is levied where the goods and services are consumed.

statement II is correct. cascading effect refers to the tax charged on another tax. GST amalgamates

various taxes into a single tax and thus, mitigates cascading or double taxation in a major way.

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4. a

Dearness allowance is the cost of living adjustment allowance which the government pays to the

employees of the public sector as well as pensioners of the same. the dearness allowance is paid by

the government to its employees and pensioners in a bid to award the impact of inflation. Hence

statement I is correct.

Dearness allowance can be basically understood as a component of salary which is some fixed

percentage of the basic salary, aimed at hedging the impact of inflation. since DA is directly related

to the cost of living, the DA component is different for different employees based on their location.

this means DA is different for employees in the urban sector, semi-urban sector or the rural sector.

Consumer price index for industrial workers (CPI-IW) is used to determine dearness allowance (DA).

Hence statement II is not correct.

5. b

statement I is not correct. the marginal cost of funds-based lending rate (MCLR) refers to the

minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the

RBI. it is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank. MCLR actually Describe the method

by which the minimum interest rate for loans is determined by a bank on the basis of marginal cost

or the additional or incremental cost of arranging one more rupee to the prospective borrower.

Statement II is correct. the MCLR methodology for fixing interest rates for advances was introduced

by the Reserve Bank of India with effect from April 1st 2016. this new methodology replaces the

base rate system introduced in July 2010. On other words, all rupee loans sanctioned and credit

limits renewed w e f April 1st, 2016 would be priced with reference to the marginal cost of funds-

based lending rate (MCLR) which will be the internal benchmark (means a reference rate determine

internally by the bank) for such purposes.

6. c

There are two types of open market operations: Outright and Repo.

Outright open market operation is permanent in nature. when the central bank buys these securities

(thus injecting money into the system), it is without any promise to sell them later. similarly, when

the central bank sells these securities (thus withdrawing money from the system), it is without any

promise to buy them later. as a result, the injection/absorption of the money is of permanent

nature.

However, there is another type of operation in which when the central bank buys the security, this

agreement of purchase also has specification about date and price of resale of this security. this type

of agreement is called a repurchase agreement or repo. the interest rate at which the money is lent

in this way is called the repo rate. Similarly, instead of outright sale of securities the central bank

may sell the securities through an agreement which has a specification about the date and price at

which it will be repurchased. this type of agreement is called a reverse repurchase agreement or

reverse repo. the rate at which the money is withdrawn in this manner is called the reverse repo

rate.

7. a

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Treasury bills or T-bills which are money market instrument, are short term debt instruments are

issued by the GOI and are presently issued in three tenors namely, 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.

Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and

redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 days treasury bill of Rs.100 may be issued

at say Rs.98.20 that is at a discount of say Rs.1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of

Rs.100. the return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value i.e.

Rs.100 and the issue price.

Treasury bills are issued only by the central GOI. The state govt do not issue any treasury bills.

Interest on the treasury bill is determine by the market forces. Treasury bill are available for a min

amount of Rs. 25000 and in multiple of 25000.

8. b

In order to improve efficiency, infuse professionalism and enable them to compete more effectively

in the liberalised global environment, the govt identifies PSEs and declare them as maharatnas,

navratnas, and miniratnas. They were given greater managerial and operational autonomy in taking

various decision to run the company efficiently and thus increase their profits. Greater operational,

financial and managerial autonomy has also been granted to profit making enterprises referred to as

miniratnas.

Maharatnas CPSEs

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)

Coal India Limited

Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)

Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)

National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC)

Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)

Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)

Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited.

9. a

The SDR is an international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplements its member

countries official reserves. So far SDR 204.2 billion have been allocated to members including SDR

182.6 billion allocated in 2009 in the wake of the global financial crisis. The value of the SDR is based

on a basket of five currencies- the U.S. dollar, the Euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and

the British pound sterling.

10. c

BHIM is a UPI based payment interface which allows real time fund transfer using a single identity

like your mobile number or name. BHIM is not a wallet. It is a payment application which allows

users to make instant bank transfers. One can use BHIM outside India to send and collect money for

your local accounts. But NRI/NRE accounts cannot be used for the same. A virtual payment address

(VPA) is a unique identifier which is used to send and receive money on UPI. Once a UPI address is

created and mapped against existing bank account one can simply share their UPI address with the

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payer. Once the payer enters the UPI and send the money, it will be directly credited into receivers

bank account.

11. a

# Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) aims at supporting sustainable production in

agriculture sector by way of –

Providing financial support to farmers suffering crop loss/damage arising out of unforeseen events.

Stabilizing the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming. Hence statement I is

correct.

Encouraging farmers to adopt innovative and modern agricultural practices.

# Government modifies operational guidelines for PMFBY. The farmers will be paid 12% interest by

insurance companies for the delay in settlement claims beyond two months of prescribed cut of

date. State Govt will have to pay 12% interest for the delay in release of State share of subsidy

beyond three months of prescribed cut of date submission of requisition by insurance companies.

The Govt has also decided to include perennial horticultural crops under the ambit of PMFBY on a

pilot basis.

# Apart from food crops (Cereals, Millets, Pulses), Oilseeds and Annual Commercial/Annual

Horticultural crops are also included in the crop insurance. Hence statement II is not correct.

# The scheme, as per the new operational guidelines provides add on coverage for crop loss due to

attack of wild animals, which will be implemented on a pilot basis; along with post-harvest losses

arising due to hail storms, unseasonal and cyclonic rainfalls. Hence statements III is correct.

12. d

Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Ltd. (MUDRA) is an NBFC supporting development

of micro enterprise sector in the country. MUDRA provides refinance supports to banks/ Micro

finance institutions for lending to micro units having loan requirement up to 10 lakhs.

MUDRA provides Credit guarantee to loans under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY). The

other offerings/products are for development supports to the sector which includes- Sectoral

development, Skill development, Entrepreneurship development, Financial Literacy and Institution

development.

Hence option d is correct.

13. b

Statement I is not correct: Goods and Service Tax Council is a constitutional body for making

recommendations to the Union and State Govt on issues related to Goods and Service Tax. It is

chaired by the Union Finance Minister. The Members of the Council choose one amongst themselves

to be the Vice-chairperson of the Council for such period as they may decide.

Statement II is correct: The Goods and Service Tax Council shall make recommendation to the Union

and the States on:

- the taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the Union, the States and the local bodies which may be

subsumed in the Goods and Service Tax.

- the goods and services that may be subjected to or exempted from the goods and service tax.

- modal goods and service tax laws, principles of levy, apportionment of goods and service tax levied

on supplies in the course of inter-state trade or commerce under article 269A and the principles that

govern the place of supply,

- the threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from goods and

service tax.

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- the rates including floor rates with bands of goods and services tax.

- any special rate and rates for a specified period, to raise additional resources during any natural

calamity or disaster.

– special provision with respect to the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jammu and Kashmir,

Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

Statement III is not correct: Every decision of the goods and service tax council is taken by the

majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members presents and voting in

accordance with the following principles, namely

- the vote of the central govt shall have the weightage of one third of the total vote cast and

- the votes of all the state govt taken together shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes

cast, in that meaning.

14. d

Ocean currents are large masses of surface water that circulates in regular pattern around the

ocean. Following are the factors that influence the movements of ocean currents:

The planetary winds, Temperature, Salinity, The earths rotation, land

15. d

Kochi port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the “Queen of the Arabian

Sea” is also a natural herbal. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-

Colombo route. It caters to the needs of Kerala, Southern Karnataka and Southern Tamil Nadu.

16. c

Temperature deciduous forest are found in British type of climate. They shed leaves in cold season.

It is an adaptation for protecting themselves against winter snow and frost. They are a source of

hardwood. Some of the common species are oak, birch, poplar etc. Trees occur in pure stands

enabling commercial lumbering. Pure stands mean that such forests re uniform in composition so it

is not difficult to select the desirable species for timber. These forests are also not dense which also

makes lumbering activities easier.

17. b

The important nuclear projects in India are

Tarapur (Maharashtra)

Rawatbhata near Kota (Rajasthan)

Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu)

Kaiga (Karnataka)

Kakarapara (Gujrat)

Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu)

Jaitapur (Maharashtra)

Hence, option b is the correct answer.

18. a

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There are four types of Iron ore qualities – Haematite, Magnetite, Limonite, Siderite.

Haematite- It is reddish and have more than 70% of metallic content.

Magnetite- It is black in colour with 60-70% of metallic content. It acts as a natural magnet.

Limonite- It is yellowish in colour with 40-60% of metal.

Siderite- It has less than 40% of metal content.

19. a

The major tributaries of the river can be classified as the left bank tributaries which include the

Purna, Pranhita, Indravati and Shabari river covering nearly 59.7% of the total catchment area of the

basin and the right bank tributaries Pravara, Manjira, Manair together contributing 16.1% of the

basin.

Pranhita is the largest tributary covering about 34% of its drainage basin. Though the river proper

flows only for 113 km, by virtue of its extensive tributaries Wardha, Wainganga, Penganga, the sub-

basin drains all of Vidarbha region as weii as the southern slopes of the Satpura Ranges. Indravati is

the second largest tributary known as the ‘lifeline’ of the Kalahandi, Nabarangapur of Odisha and

Bastar district of Chhattisgarh. Due to their enormous sub-basins both Indravati and Pranhita are

considered rivers in their own right. Manjira is the longest tributary and holds the Nizam Sagar

reservoir. Purna is a prime river in the water scares Marathwada region of Maharashtra.

20. d

The transformation of water vapour into water is called condensation. It is caused by the loss of

heat. When moist air is cooled it may reach a level when its capacity to hold water vapour ceases.

Then the excess water vapour condenses into liquid form. Condensation is influenced by the volume

of air, temperature, pressure and humidity. Condensation takes place when the temp of the air is

reduced to dew point with its volume remaining constant. When both the volume and the temp are

reduced. When moisture is added to the air through evaporation. However, the most favourable

condition for condensation is the decrease in air temp. After condensation the water vapour or the

moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms- dew, frost, fog and clouds. Forms of

condensation can be classified on the basis of temp and location. Condensation takes place when

the dew point is lower than the freezing point as well as higher than the freezing point.

21. c

According to Article 51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India.

To abode by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National flag and the

National Anthem.

To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom.

To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.

To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

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To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India

transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices

derogatory to the dignity of woman.

To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture.

To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to

have compassion for leaving creatures to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of

inquiry and reform.

To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation

constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement and

To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen

years. This duty was added by the 86th constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

22. d

Federal Govt Unitary Govt

1. Dual govt (i.e. National Govt and regional Govt)

Single govt i.e. the national govt which may create regional govt.

2. Written constitution Constitution may be written (France) or unwritten (Britain)

3. Division of powers between the national and regional govt

No division of power. All powers are vested in the national govt

4. Supremacy of the constitution Constitution may be supreme (Japan) or may not be supreme (Britain)

5. Rigid constitution Constitution may be rigid (France) or flexible (Britain)

6. Independent judiciary Judiciary may be independent or may not be independent

7. Bicameral legislature Legislature may be Bicameral (Britain) or unicameral (China)

23. a

The constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General

of India. He is the Head of the Indian Audit and Accounts departments. He is the guardian of the

public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels – centre and

state. Hence statement I is correct.

He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years whichever is earlier. Hence

statement II is not correct.

No minister can represent the CAG in parliament and no minister can be called upon to take any

responsibility for any actions done by him. Hence, statement III is not correct.

24. d

Third Schedule forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:

1.The Union Ministers

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2. The candidates for election to the Parliament

3. The members of Parliament

4. The judges of the Supreme Court

5. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

6. The state Minister

7. The candidates for election to the state legislature

8. The members of the state legislature

9. The judges of the High Court

Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the Union Territories

Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of President,

Governor etc.

Ninth Schedule: Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and

abolition of the zamindari system and of the Parliament dealing with other matters. This schedule

was added by the 1st Amendment (1951) to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on

the ground of violation of fundamental rights. However, in 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that the

laws included in this schedule after April 24, 1973 are now open to judicial review.

Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

Tenth Schedule: Provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State

Legislatures on the ground of defection. This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of

1985, also known as Anti-defection laws.

25. b

The speaker appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and

supervises their functioning. He himself is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, the

rules committee and the general-purpose committee. Hence, the answer is b.

Public Accounts Committee: The function of the committee is to examine the annual audit reports of

the comptroller and auditor general of India (CAG) which are laid before the Parliament by the

President. The CAG submits three audit reports to the President namely, audit report on

appropriation accounts, audit reports on finance accounts and audit report on public undertakings.

At present, it consists of 22 members (15-Lok Sabha and 7-Rajya Sabha). The members are elected

by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principles of proportional

representation by means of the single transferable votes. Conventionally, chairman of the

committee is selected from the opposition and appointed by the Speaker.

Business Advisory Committee: It regulates the programmes and time table of the house. It allocates

time for the transactions of legislative and other business brought before the house by the govt. The

Lok Sabha Committee consist of 15 members including the Speaker as its chairman. In the Rajya

Sabha it has 11 members including the chairman as its ex-oficio chairman.

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Ethics Committee: It was constituted in Rajya Sabha in 1997 and in Lok Sabha in 2000. It enforces the

code of conduct of members of Parliament. It examines the cases of misconduct and recommends

appropriate action. Thus, it is engaged in maintaining discipline and decorum in Parliament.

Rules Committee: It considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the house and

recommends necessary amendments or addition to the Rules of the House. The Lok Sabha

Committee consists of 15 members including the Speaker as its ex-officio chairman. In Rajya Sabha it

consists of 16 members including the chairman as its ex-oficio chairman.

General Purpose Committee: It considers and advises on matters concerning affairs of the house,

which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other Parliamentary committee. In each house the

committee consists of the presiding officer as its ex-oficio chairman, Deputy Speaker (deputy

chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha), members of panel of chairpersons (panel of vice-chairpersons

in the case of Rajya Sabha), chairpersons of all the departmental standing committees of the house,

leaders of recognised parties and groups in the house and such other members as nominated by the

presiding officer.

26. a

The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber i.e. it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.

Hence, statement I is correct.

The constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the

Parliament. Accordingly, the parliament in the representation of the people act 1951, provided that

the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. Hence, statements II is not

correct.

27. b

In January 1957, the GOI appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community

Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures

for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee

submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of

“democratic decentralisation”, which ultimately came to be known as a Panchayati Raj. It

recommended establishment of a three- tier Panchayati Raj system- Gram Panchayat at the village

level, Panchayat samiti at the block level and Zila Parishad at the district level.

Rajasthan was the first state to establish Panchayati Raj. The scheme was inaugurated by the Prime

Minister on October 2nd,1959, in Nagaur district. Rajasthan was followed by Andhra Pradesh, which

also adopted the system in 1959. Thereafter, most of the states adopted the system.

73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 which came into force on 24th April 1993 gave a

constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the

justiciable part of the constitution. In other words, the state govt are under constitutional, obligation

to adopt the new Panchayati Raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act consequently,

neither the formation of Panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the

will of the state govt any more.

Hence, only statement II is correct.

28. c

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The primary function of Parliament is to make laws for the governance of the country. It has

exclusive power to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the union list and on the residuary

subjects (i.e. subjects not enumerated in any of the three lists). With regard to the concurrent list,

the Parliament has over riding powers, i.e. the law of Parliament prevails over the law of the state

legislature in case of a conflict between the two.

The constitution also empowers the Parliament to make laws on the subjects enumerated in the

state list under the following five abnormal circumstances:

a) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.

b) When a Proclamation of national emergency is in operation.

c) When two or more states make a joint request to the Parliament.

d) When necessary to give effect to international agreements, treaties and conventions.

e) When Presidents rule is in operation in the state.

29. d

Article 19: Right to Freedom

Under article 19 (1) ALL Citizen shall have the right-

To freedom of speech and expression

To assemble peaceably and without arms

To form associations or unions

To move freely through out the territory of the India

To reside and settle in any part of the territory of the India

To practice and profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business

30. d

Various features of the constitution borrowed from different sources are as fallows

A GOI act 1935: federal scheme, office of governor, judiciary, public service commission, emergency

provisions, administrative details etc

British constitution: parliamentary govt, rule of law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet

system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges, bicameralism.

US constitution: fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the

President, post of vice-President, removal of supreme court and high court judges. Hence, pair II is

correctly matched.

Irish constitution: directive principle of state policy, method of election of President, nomination of

members to Rajya Sabha. Hence, pair IV is correctly matched.

Canadian constitution: federation with a strong centre, residuary powers with the centre,

appointment of state governors by the centre, advisory jurisdiction of the supreme court. Hence,

pair I is correctly matched.

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Australian constitution: concurrent list, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, joint sitting of

the two houses of Parliament. Hence, pair III is correctly matched.

Weimar constitution: suspension of fundamental rights during emergency.

Soviet constitution: fundamental duties, the ideal of justice (social, economic, and political) in the

preamble.

French constitution: republic, the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the preamble.

South African constitution: procedure for amendment of the constitution, election of the members

of Rajya Sabha.

Japanese constitution: procedure established by law.

31. b

The constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and

impartial functioning of a high court.

Mode of appointment: The judges of high court are appointed by the president in consultation with

the members of the judiciary itself. This provision curtails the absolute discretion of the executive as

well as ensures that the judicial appointments are not based on any political or practical

consideration. Hence statement I is correct.

Ban on practice after retirement: The retired permanent judges of a high court are prohibited from

pleading or acting in any court or before any authority in India except the supreme court and the

other high courts. This ensures that they do not favour anyone in the hope of feature favour. Hence

statement II is correct.

Expenses charged on consolidated fund of state: The salaries and allowances of the judges, the

salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff as well as the administrative expenses of a high court

are charged on the consolidated fund of the state. Thus, they are non-voteable by the state

legislature. Hence statement III is not correct.

Security of tenure: The judges of a high court are provided with the security of tenure. They can be

removed from office by the president only in the manner on the grounds mentioned in the

constitution. This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president,

though they are appointed by him. This is obvious from the fact that no judge of a high court has

been removed so far. Hence statement IV is correct.

Fixed service conditions: The salaries, allowances privileges, leave and pension of the judges of a

high court are determine from time to time by parliament. But they can not be change to their

disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency. Thus, the condition of

service of the judges of a high court remain same.

Conduct of judges can not be discussed: The constitution prohibits any discussion in parliament or in

a state legislature with respect to the conduct of the judges of a high court in the discharge of their

duties, except when an impeachment motion is under consideration of parliament.

Power to punish for its contempt: A high court can punish any person for its contempt. Thus, its

actions and decisions can not be criticised and opposed by anybody. This power is vested in a high

court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour.

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Freedom to appoint its staff: The chief justice of a high court can appoint a officers and servants of

the high court without any interference from the executive. He can also prescribe there conditions

of service.

Its jurisdiction can not be curtailed: The jurisdiction and powers of a high court in so far as they are

specified in the constitution can not be curtailed both by the parliament and the state legislature.

But in other respects, the jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed both by the

parliament the state legislature.

Separation from Executive: The constitution directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary

from the executive in public services. This means that the executive authorities should not possess

the judicial powers.

32. c

The minister of Parliamentary affairs is the chief Whip of government. He is directly responsible to

the leader of the house. It is a part his duties to advise the government on parliamentary business

and to maintain a close liaison with the ministers in regard to parliamentary business affecting their

departments.

Chief whip in India also performs multifarious functions, the important among which are to-

Decide about the spacing of parliament session during the year, considering the volume of business

pending, climatic condition, festival days etc.

Adjust the sessional program of the house with that of the other

Finalise the govt. business in consultation with ministries of the Govt. of India and also, if necessary,

opposition whips

When the session actually commences see that the legislative and non-legislative business of the

govt. is transacted in accordance with the planned the program

Send notices to members, that is whip indicating the urgency and importance attached to each

business

Assigned roster duties to minister so that some minister are always present in the house and the

govt. is not put in an embarrassing position by the absence of minister concerned with the subject

matter of the business as well as others who deputies for them

Assist members in the general interest of the party, feed them with material and provide the general

guidance

Supply list of speakers on bills and other business in the house to facilitate the job of chair, who

would like to call the members to speak

Suggest names of members to be appointed on various select and other important bodies or to be

included in various parliamentary delegations

Attend meetings of business advisory committee for discussion and allotment of time for transaction

of various items of govt. business

33. c

13

RGSA is launched by ministry of Panchayati raj for a period of four years (2018-2022). It is a centrally

sponsored scheme (CSS). Hence Statement I and II not correct

The scheme has both central component- National level activities including “National plan of

technical assistance”, “Mission mode project on e-panchayat”, “ Incentivization of panchayats” and

State components- capacity building of Panchayati raj institution. The central component will be fully

funded by the GOI. However, centre: state funding pattern for state component will be 60:40 for all

state, except north east and hill state where centre: state funding pattern will be 90:10. Hence

statement III is correct

34.b

Third-tier of governance in both rural and urban areas was given constitutional backing by the 73rd

and 74th constitutional amendments. It envisaged the setting up of state election commission

consisting of state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor of the state for

conducting these elections. Hence statement I is correct.

State election commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under

the control of the ECI. Hence statement II is not correct

The state election commissioner can not be removed from the office except in the manner and on

the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court and a judge of a high court

can be removed from his office by the president on the recommendation of the parliament. That is

state election commissioner can not be removed by the governor, though appointed by him. Hence

statement III is correct

35. b

Objective of the scheme- To enhance the enrolment, retention and attendance and simultaneously

improve nutritional level among school going children studying in classes 1 to 8 of govt, govt- aided

school, special training centre and madarasas and maktabs supported under the sarve shiksha

abhiyan.

The scheme guidelines envisage to provide cooked mid-day meal with 450 calories and 12 grams of

proteins to every child at primary level and 700 calories and 20 grams of proteins at upper primary

level. This energy and proteins requirement for a primary child comes from cooking 100 g of

rice/flour, 20 g pulses and 50 g vegetables and 5 g oils, and for an upper primary child it comes from

150 g of rice/flour, 30 g pulses and 75 g of vegetables and 7.5 g of oils.

The cooking cost is shared between the centre and the states in the ratio 60:40 for non-NER states

and UTs with legislature, 100% for remaining UTs and 90:10 for NER states and 3 himalayan states-

Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir and Uttarakhand.

36.a

Statement I is correct: under PAHAL scheme, the authorized subsidy to LPG consumers is transferred

directly into the bank account of the consumer. The subsidy is transferred either through Aadhaar

transfer compliant or bank transfer compliant mode on the basis of seeding of Aadhaar number in

the bank account.

The goal of the govt in subsidiary form is not doing away with subsidies, but targeting them

effectively so that they flow only to the intended beneficiaries.

14

This is the largest direct cash transfer scheme in the world as recognised by Guinness book of world

records.

The launch of PAHAL will reduce subsidy burden due to:

Elimination of supply chain leakages and unauthorized usage.

Allow consumers to opt out of subsidy, and

Reduction in multiple connections by way of Aadhaar based De-duplication

Statement II is not correct: it is applicable to the person who is an LPG consumer and holds a valid

Aadhaar card.

Statement III is correct: it is an initiative of ministry of petroleum and natural gas.

37. d

The dept of expenditure is the nodal dept for over seeing the public financial management system in

central govt and matters connected with state finances.

It is responsible for the implementation of the recommendation of the finance commission and

central pay commission, monitoring of audit comments/observations, preparation of central govt

accounts. It further assists central ministries/departments in controlling the cost and prices of public

services, reviewing system and procedure to optimize outputs and outcomes of public expenditure.

The principal activities of the dept include overseeing the expenditure management in the central

ministries/depts through the interface of the financial rules/regulations/orders, presanctions

appraisal of major schemes/project, handling bulk of the central budgetary resources transfer to the

state.

38. b

The Bharat Stage are standards instituted by the govt to regulate emission of air pollutants from

motor vehicles. The norms were introduced in 2000 with appropriate fuel and technology, they limit

the release of air pollutants such as nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxides, hydrocarbons, particulate

matter and sulphur oxides from vehicles using internal combustion engines. Thus, Bharat stage VI

norms are two stage ahead of the present Bharat stage IV norms in regulating emissions. These

norms are based on similar norms in Europe called Euro 4 and Euro 6. The extent of sulphur is the

major difference between Bharat stage IV and Bharat stage VI norms. BS-IV fuels contain 50 parts

per million sulphur, the BS-VI grade fuel only has 10 ppm sulphur. BS-VI can bring PM in diesel cars

down by 80%. The new norms will bring down nitrogen oxides from diesel cars by 70% and in petrol

cars by 25%. Hence, statement I is correct.

BS-VI also makes on board diagnostics (OBD) mandatory for all vehicles. OBD device informs the

vehicle owner or the repair technician in India on 1 April 2020. Considering concerns over rising air

pollution levels in India, the Union govt had in 2017 decided to leapfrog directly from BS-IV norms

for petrol and diesel vehicles to BS-VI emission standards to reduce vehicular pollution. Accordingly,

the automobile industry was asked to comply with the directive before the deadline. The companies

are working on meeting the instruction by the supreme court to make available BS-VI fuel to 13

metro cities besides the national capital region by April 2019. Hence, statement II is not correct.

39. a

15

The international energy agency (IEA) annual ministerial meeting in November 2017 has launched an

initiative to support clean energy transitions in emerging economics.

Building on IEAs expertise in on all types of energy, the clean energy transitions programme aims to

accelerate the transition towards clean energy systems around the world, focusing on major

emerging economies. Supported by 13 countries with more than 30 million in funding, the initiative

will build partnerships with IEA association countries to provide technology and policy support for

clean energy.

Programme will focus on key countries that are seeking greater cooperation with IEA, including

Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, Mexico and south Africa, as well as other IEA association and partner

countries and regions where the programme can have high impact. The IEAs member countries will

benefit from sharing lessons learned, a rapid dissemination of technologies, improving IEA analytical

capabilities and a strengthening of global data and analysis.

40. d

Anganwadi worker (AWW) works solely in her village and focuses on provision of food supplements

to young children, adolescent girls, and lactating women. She organises supplementary nutrition

feeding for children (0-6 years) and expectant and nursing mothers by planning the menu based on

locally available food and local recipes. She is also responsible for sharing information collected

under ICDS scheme with the ANM. She also guides Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA) engaged

under National Rural Health Mission in the delivery of health care services and maintenance of

records under the ICDS scheme.

She also assists in implementation of Kishori Shakti Yojana (KSY) and motivate and educate the

adolescent girls and their parents and community in general by organizing social awareness

programmes.

She also assists in implementation of Nutrition Programme for Adolescent Girls (NPAG) as per the

guidelines of the schemes and maintain such record as prescribed under the NPAG.

41. a

Around 200 years later a dynasty known as the Satavahanas become powerful in western India. The

most imp ruler of the Satavahanas was Gautamiputra Shri Satakarni. We know about him from an

inscription composed on behalf of his mother, Gautami Balashri. He and other Satavahana rulers

were known as lords of the Dakshinapatha, literally the route leading to the south. Which was also

used as a name for the entire southern region. He sent his army to the eastern, western and

southern coasts.

42. a

Famous Buddhist Councils:

1st council:

Period- 483 BC just after the death of Buddha.

Place- Rajgriha

Presided by Mahakasappa

2nd council:

16

Period- 383 BC

Place- Vaishali

Presided by Shatakhambri

3rd council:

Period- 250-262 BC

Place- Pataliputra

Presided by Moghiputta Tissa

4th council:

Period- 1st century AD

Place- Kunzalwar

Presided by Vasumitra and Ashwaghosha

At the fourth council the Buddhism got divided into two sects: Hinayana and Mahayana

43. c

The Sangeet Natak Akademi confers classical status on eight Indian dance forms:

Bharatnatyam- Tamil Nadu

Kathakali- Kerala

Kathak- UP, Rajasthan, Delhi, MP

Manipuri- Manipur

Odissi- Odisha

Kuchipudi- Andhra Pradesh

Sattriya- Assam

Mohiniyattam- Kerala

44. b

Buddhist texts give us a glimpse of lively discussions and debates. Teachers travelled from place to

place, trying to convince one another as well as laypersons, about the validity of their philosophy or

the way they understood the world. Debates took place in the Kutagarashala – literally, a hut with a

pointed roof – or in groves where travelling mendicants halted. If a philosopher succeeded in

convincing one of his rivals, the followers of the latter also became his disciples. So, support for any

particular sect could grow and shrink over time. Hence, option b is correct.

Karkhana referred to a manufacturing centre under state supervision during the Sultanate and

Mughal periods.

17

In the Nagara style of temple Architecture, the Garbhagriha is the innermost sanctum of a Hindu

temple for the main deity of the temple.

45. d

In the administration of Shivaji “Ashtapradhan” was the term used for 8 ministers who were directly

responsible to the Ruler or the King who was the pivot of the govt. Each minister was directly

responsible to Shivaji.

Peshwa- finance and general administration. Later he became the prime minister.

Sar-i-Naubat or Senapati – Military Commander, an honorary post.

Amatya- Accountant General

Waqenavis- Intelligence, posts and household affairs

Sachiv- Correspondence

Sumanta- Master of ceremonies

Nyayadish- Justice

Panditarao – Charities and religious administration

46. a

Ganesh Chaturthi, the most imp festival of Maharashtra falls in months of August-September.

Ganesh images are kept in houses as a divine guest for five to ten days by people. The image is then

taken out ceremoniously and immersed in the river, sea or well. It is called Visarjan. Modak is special

cuisine for Ganesh Chaturthi celebrations. The exciting and fun filled three day non stop

extravaganza of fun, frolic, song, music and dance that is uniquely goan! Celebrated since the 18th

century it was meant to be a feasting- drinking merry making orgy just before 40 days of lent, a time

of abstinence and spirituality.

In the carnival huge parades through the cities are organized with bands, floats and dances and balls

in the evening. The final day conclude with the famous red and black dance held by the club nacional

in panjim. The carnival is presided over by king momo, who on the opening day orders his subjects to

party

Bastar Dussehra the longest Dussehra celebration in the world is celebrated in bastar region of

chattisgarh and spans over 75 days starting around august and ending at October.

The Tibetan new year is also known as losar is practice in Arunachala Pradesh and is mainly

celebrated for 3 days in late January or February.

47. a

Dasavatara temple: It is situated in deogarh in Uttar Pradesh. The temple is dedicated to Vishnu. This

is the 1st temple of India with a shikhara and having panchayatan style of architecture. A Hindu

temple is panchayatana one when the main shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.

48. c

Mrichchhakatika(the little clay cart) is a ten-act Sanskrit drama attributed to sudraka.

18

Abhijnanasakuntalam well known Sanskrit play by kalidasa, dramatizing the story of Shakuntala and

king Dushyant told in the epic.

Banabhatta was the writer of harshacharita. It is the biography of king Harshvardhana

49.b

Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, Ghiyasuddin Tughluq, or Ghazi malik, was the founder of Tughluq dynasty in

India, who reigned over the sultanate of Delhi from 1320-1325. He founded the city of tughluqabad.

Firoz shaha Tughluq extended the principal of heredity to the army. Old soldiers were allowed to rest

and to send in their place their sons or son in law, and if they were not available their slaves. The

soldiers were not paid in cash but by assignments on land revenue of villages. It was during the time

of Firoz that jizyah became a separate tax. Firoz refuse to exempt the brahmanas from payment of

jizyah since it was not provided for in Sharia. Hence statement I is not correct and II is correct.

He decreed that whenever a noble died, his son should be allowed to succeed to his position. He

also abolished the practice of torturing nobles and their officials if any balance was found against

them at the time of auditing the accounts of their iqta. These steps pleased the nobles and was the

major factor for the absence of rebellions by the nobles with the exception of one in Gujarat and

thatta. Hence statement III is correct

50.b

The age of Guptas is known as the golden age of India but it is not true in economic field because

towns were declining. Guptas possessed a large amount of gold and issued the largest number of

gold coins. Art of temple making started during this time. There are few temple made of brick in UP

and a stone temple. These are brick temple of bhitargaon in Kanpur, bhitari in Ghazipur and devgarh

in zhansi. Bhitargaon temple: it is the 1st brick temple of India.

51. b

Lord Dalhousie was the governor general of India from 1848 to 1856. During his tenure the following

events took place:

Second Anglo-Sikh War (1848-49) and annexation of Punjab by East India Company (1849).

Annexation of Lower Burma or Pegu. (1852)

Introduction of the Doctrine of Lapse and annexation of Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambhalpur

(1849), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854), and Awadh (1856).

“Woods Educational Despatch” of 1854 and opening of Anglo- vernacular schools and govt collages.

Railway minute of 1853, and laying down of the first railway line connecting Bombay and Thane in

1853.

Telegraph and postal reforms.

Ganges canal declared open (1854), establishment of separate public works dept in every province.

Enactment of the widow remarriage act (1856)

The revolt of 1857 took place when Lord Canning was acting as the Governor General of India. Hence

option III is not correct.

52. c

19

The old Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah II was taken prisoner to Rangoon. The British Commander in

chief Colin Campbell with much difficulties captured Lucknow. The guerrilla type of war continued in

the interior part of Oudh. Begum Hazrat Mahal escaped to Nepal. On 17th June 1857 while fighting

Maharani Laxmi Bai died, Tatya Tope kept the fighting on for a pretty long time and at last caught

and hanged. Nana Saheb was defeated and away to the dense forest of Nepal to escape death.

Kunwar Singh became the victims in a battle field. Many others either died or fled to the dense

forest regions of Nepal. The great revolt subsided.

53. a

The story of champaran begins in the early 19th century when European planters had involved the

cultivators in agreements that force them to cultivate indigo on 3/20th of their holdings. Towards the

end of the 19th century, German synthetic dyes forced indigo out of the market and the European

planter of champaran, keen to release the cultivators from the obligation of cultivating indigo, tried

to turn their necessity to their advantage by securing enhancement in rent and other illegal dues as

a price for the release. Resistance had surfaced in 1908 as well, but the exaction of the planters

continued till Rajkumar Shukla, a local man decided to follow Gandhiji all over the country to

persuade him to come to champaran to investigate the problem. Hence statement I is correct.

Champaran satyagraha was for indigo plantation and not cotton. Hence statement II is not correct.

54. d

The first-round table conference was held in London between November 1930 and January 1931. It

was opened officially by King George V on November 12, 1930 and chaired by chaired by Ramsay

MacdonalD. This was the first conference arranged between british and Indians as equals.

The congress and some prominent business leaders refused to attained but many other groups of

Indians were represented at the conference. These were:

The Indian princely states were represented by the Maharaja of Alwar, Maharaja of Baroda, Nawab

of Bhopal, Maharaja of Bikaner, Rana of Dholpur, Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir etc.

The Muslim league sent Agakhan III, Maulana Mohammad ali Jauhar, Mohammad Shafi, Mohammad

Ali Jinnah etc.

The Hindu mahasabha and its sympathisers were represented by B. S. Moonje, M. R. Jaykar and

Diwan Bahadur Raja Narendra Nath.

The Sikh were represented by Sardar Ujjal Singh and Sardar Sampuran Singh.

For the Parsis, Phiroze Sethna, Cowasji Jehangir and Homi mody attended.

Begum Jahanara Shahanawaj and Radhabai Subbarayan represented women.

The liberals were represented by J N Basu, Tej Bahadur Sapru, C Y Chintamani, V S Shrinivasa Sastri

and Chimanlal Harilal Setalvad.

The depressed classes were represented by B R Ambedkar and Rettamalai Shrinivasan.

The justice party sent Arcot Ramaswami Mudaliar, Bhaskarrao Vithojirao Jadhav and Sir

20

Paul represented the Indian Christians, while Henry Gidney represented the Anglo Indian and the

European were represented by Sir Hubert Carr, Sir Oscar De Glanville, T F Gavin Jones, C E Wood.

There were also representative of the land Lords, the universities, Burma, the Sindh and some other

provinces.

The GOI was represented by Narendranath Law, Bhupendra Nath Mitra, C P Ramaswami Iyer and M

Ramchandrarao.

55. b

The non cooperation movement was formally launched on 1 august 1920. That day was also marked

by the death of Lokmanya Tilak which witnessed strikes and processions to mourn the passing way

of this great national leader.

It involved the surrender of govt titles and honorary positions boycott of govt schools and colleges,

law courts and foreign cloth.

It could also be extended to include resignation from govt service and non-payment of govt taxes.

Moreover, it was decided to set up national school and colleges, establish and strengthen the

panchayats for settlements of dispute promotion of hand spinning and weaving, condemnation and

renunciation of untouchability, maintenance of communal amity and strict observance of non-

violence.

It was for the first time an open extra constitutional programme of mass mobilisation was started by

the congress.

Hence option b is correct.

56. c

The inspiration for Bhoodan had come to Vinoba Bhave in 1951, when he was touring the Telengana

districts of Hyderabad. This was the area were the communist had recently called of an activist

agrarian campaign during which a good few landlords had lost both their lands and their lives.

Through Bhoodan, Vinobaji aimed to show the peasantry that there was an efficacious alternative to

the communist programme. The movement got off to a good start from 1920 to 1954. More than 3

million acres of land were received as Bhoodan during these periods.

The concept of survodaya was first of all adopted by Mahatma Gandhi. After Gandhiji, it was

subsequently adopted by Acharya Vinoba Bhave.

He translated Bhagavad Gita into Marathi and named it Gitai. The first edition of Gitai was published

in 1932.

In 1940, he was chosen by Gandhi to be the first individual Satyagrahi against the British rile. The

second was Jawahar Lal Nehru. Hence option III is not correct.

57. a

Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan also called Badshah Khan or Sarhadi Gandhi or Frontier Gandhi.

58. c

21

In November 1927 British govt appointed Indian Statutory Commission also known as Simon

Commission with the aim to introduce further Constitutional reforms. As all the 7 members of the

commission were English men. The basic notion behind the protest was the foreigners would discuss

and decide upon India’s fitness for self-govt. At Madras session of Indian National Congress of 1927,

congress decided to boycott the commission at every stage and in every form. Muslim league and

Hindu Mahasabha decided to support the congress decision.

59. b

Internal strife between Subhas Chandra Bose and other leaders of congress reached its climax at

Tripuri session of congress held from 8 to 12 March 1939. As a president of congress at Tripuri

session Subhas Chandra Bose, though wanted Gandhiji to be the leader of coming struggle but he

wanted Gandhiji to follow strategy and tactics laid down by him and left-wing parties and groups.

Gandhiji and old leaders did not accept strategy and tactics which were not theirs. In this scenario

Bose resigned from the president ship and this led to the election of Rajendra Prasad in his place.

60.a

On August 7, 1905 with the passage of the boycott resolution in the massive meeting held in the

Calcutta Town Hall, the formal proclamation of Swadeshi movement was made. After this, the

leaders dispersed to other parts of Bengal to propagate the message of boycott of Manchester cloth

and Liverpool salt.

Soon, the movement spread to the other parts of the country- in Poona and Bombay under Tilak, in

Punjab under Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh, in Delhi under Syed Haider Raza, and in Madras under

Chidambaram Pillai.

61. a

By early 1915, Annie Besant had launched a campaign to demand self govt for India after the war on

the lines of white colonies. She campaigned through her newspapers, New India, and Commonweal

and through public meeting and conferences.

62. b

Independent India had to face several challenges which is:

Immediate challenges: territorial and administrative integration of princely states, communal riots,

rehabilitation of nearly 60 lakhs refugees migrated from Pakistan, protection of Muslims living in

India as well as those going to Pakistan from communal gangs need to avoid war with Pakistan,

communist insurgency etc.

Medium Term challenges: framing of constitution for India, building of a representative, democratic

and civil libertarian political order, election and abolition of feudal set up in agriculture etc.

Long term challenges: national integration, economic development, poverty alleviation etc.

63. d

22

1. Junagarh – The Muslim Nawab wanted to join Pakistan but a Hindu majority population wanted to

join the Indian Union. In the face of repressive attitude of the Nawab, there was a plebiscite which

decided in favour of India.

2. Hyderabad- It wanted a sovereign status. It signed a standstill agreement with India in November

1947. Indian troops withdrew and the Nizams police and storm troopers took over. The Nizam

wanted an outlet to the sea. The violence and supply of foreign arms prompted Indian troops to

move in again in 1948, described as ‘a police action to restore law and order’. Hyderabad acceded in

November 1949.

3. Kashmir the state of Jammu and Kashmir had a Hindu prince and muslim majority population. The

prince envisaged a sovereign status for the state and was reluctant to accede to either of the

dominions. As he procrastinated the newly established state of Pakistan sent it forces behind a front

of tribal militia and moved menacingly towards Shrinagar. It was now that the prince was forced to

sign an instrument of accession (oct 1947) with the Indian Union endorsed by the popular leader

Sheikh Abdullah.

64. c

There is various classification of water pollution. The two chief sources of water pollution can be

seen as,

Point- Pollution originating from a single identifiable source, such as a discharge pipe from a factory

or sewage plant, is called point source solution. Here the source of pollution is single. Examples are

wastewater treatment plant, landfills etc.

Non-point- Pollution which occurs as water moves across the land or through the ground and picks

up natural and human made pollutants which can then be deposited in lakes, rivers, wetlands,

coastal waters and even groundwater. One single point could not be traced for the source of

pollution. Examples include agricultural fields, deforested areas, construction sites, acid rain, parking

lots, streets etc.

Hence option c is correct.

65. a

Many agricultural practices can be used to conserve the agro ecosystem. Some of these are:

The practice of mixed subsistence type of farming- it means several cropping systems are

simultaneously employed. This includes having plots under continuous cultivation, some in shifting

cultivation and also raising animals. This allows for a larger diversity of outputs, greater flexibility

and increased system stability.

Inter-cropping practice- it involves growing different species simultaneously within the same area of

land. It increases yields as the plants grow at different heights and have a different root and leaf

structures. This allows maximum utilisation of abiotic inputs. Hence option I is correct.

Increasing genetic diversity within crop species- this reduces the threat of crop loss due to the strain

of the pathogen that is adapted to a specific plant, some of the verities are sure to be resistant. The

diversity is also an insurance against losses due to unpredictable weather or changing climate

conditions. Hence option II is correct.

Mulching and use of green manures- the green manures are generally leguminous plants grow to be

ploughed into the soil prior to planting crops. Alternately, crops can be planted with green manures

23

with animal soil disturbances. Mulches are generally waste plant material such as leaf, litter,

branches, compost, decaying plants etc. which are spread on the ground around the base of the

crops.

The excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides lead to soil degradation. Also, they may leach

down to contaminate the groundwater. Hence option III is not correct.

66. c

The principal air quality pollutant emission from petrol, diesel and alternative fuel engines are-

1. carbon monoxide

2. oxides of nitrogen

3. un-burnt hydrocarbons

4. particulate matter

5. carbon dioxide

6. methane

Ozone is not emitted directly from automobile. It is formed in the atmosphere through a complex

set of chemical reactions involving hydrocarbons, oxides of nitrogen, and sunlight. Hence option c is

correct.

67. d

Statement I is not correct: in May 2018 India launched the worlds largest solar park set up at an

investment of Rs. 16500 crore at Pavagada in Karnataka’s Tumakuru district. The 2000 MW park

named as Shakti Sthala, spans across 13000 acres spread over five villages.

Statement II is not correct: India emerged as the third largest solar market in the world in 2017

behind China and the US, Mercom communications India said in report. In 2017 India emerged as

the third largest solar market having grown at a CAGR of approximately 170 percent since 2010. The

robust growth boosted the countries total solar installed capacity to 19.6 GW as of December 2017.

68. a

Acid rain is a term used for rain with a pH of less than 5.6. Acid rain is one of the major

consequences of air pollution. It has an adverse effect on the forest, agriculture, soil,

microorganisms, aquatic ecosystems, wild animals and even buildings. Acid rain is harmful to forests

trees and undergrowth in forests. High acidity results in stunted and abnormal growth of the plants

and supresses the growth of the leaves. It also causes discolouration and loss of foliar biomass.

Hence statement I is correct.

Acid rain also disturbs the microbial activity of soil. The microorganisms are very sensitive to change

in soil pH. Bacteria and Protozoa do not thrive well in acidic soil. Acid rain results in shifting of

bacterial community to fungal community. This causes an imbalance in the microflora. This result

into decay in the decomposition of soil organic material due to loss of bacterial community. The

fungi are not as good decomposers as bacteria. Hence the increase in incidences of fungal diseases

and also inhibit mycorrhizal activity. Hence statement II is not correct.

24

Algae are susceptible to change in pH of the water. Many forms of algae do not survive at a pH of

less than 4.5. some blue green algae also decrease or are eliminated. The ultimate result is reduced

primary productivity of the water body. Hence statement III is correct.

69. c

Statement I is correct: Bhopal gas tragedy happened on 3rd December, 1984. It was a case of leaked

toxic methyl isocyanate gas into the atmosphere from the union carbide’s pesticide factory in

Bhopal, MP. The accident led to the killing of 3500 people and about 40000 were affected.

Statement II is correct: the release of MIC gas led to the following consequences as per the Indian

Council of Medical Research-

Blood of exposed people had been toxified leading to damage of brain, kidney, lings, muscles etc.

There was an adverse impact on the reproductive ability of men and animals.

Different plant species suffered from chromosomal aberrations and reproductive failures.

70. d

Both the statements are incorrect.

National Parks Wildlife Sanctuaries Biosphere Reserve

It is associated with the habitat of wild animal species like rhino, tiger, lion etc.

It is species oriented as pitcher plant, Great Indian Bustard

It takes into consideration the entire ecosystem.

Its boundaries are marked by legislation.

Its boundaries are not sacrosanct

Boundaries of its core area are marked by legislation.

Disturbance only limited to the buffer zone.

Limited disturbance Disturbance only limited to the buffer zone.

Tourism is allowed. Tourism is allowed. Tourism is not allowed.

Scientific management is lacking.

Scientific management is lacking.

Scientifically management.

No attention is paid to gene pool conservation.

No attention is paid to gene pool conversion

71. b

The atmospheric environment and research division of world meteorological organisations (WMO)

research dept publishes the WMO-GAW annual greenhouse gas bulletins.

72. d

Statement I and II are correct: the flagship Namami Gange programme which integrate the efforts to

clean and protect the Ganga river was launched in 2015. The programme is a 100% centrally funded

programme with a budget outlay of Rs. 20000 crore and is slated for completion by 2020. The

programme provides for a comprehensive approach to rejuvenate the river Ganga by inclusion of all

tributaries under one umbrella.

25

Statement III is correct: the programme is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean

Ganga and its state counterpart organizations i.e. State Programme Management Groups. NMCG will

also establish field offices wherever necessary for implementation of the programme.

Main pillars of the programme include- Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River Front

Development, River Surface Cleaning, Bio diversity, Afforestation, Public Awareness, Industrial

Effluent Monitoring and Ganga Gram.

73. b

The principle objectives of National Environment Policy 2006 are:

Conservation of Critical Environmental Resources: To protect and conserve critical ecological system

and resources and invaluable natural and man-made Heritage, which are essential for life supports,

livelihoods, economic growth and a broad conception of human well-being.

Intra-generational equity : Livelihood Security for the Poor: To ensure your equitable access to

environmental resources and quality for all sections of society and in particular to ensure that poor

communities, which are most dependent on environmental resources of their livelihoods, are

assured secure access to these resources.

Inter-generational equity: To ensure judicious use of environmental resources to meet the needs

and aspirations of the present and future generations.

Integration of environmental concerns in economic and social development: To integrate

environmental concerns into policies, plans, programs and projects for economic and social

development.

Efficiency in Environmental resource use: To ensure efficient use of environmental resources in the

sense of a reduction in their use per unit of economic output to minimise adverse environmental

impacts.

Environmental Governance: To apply the principles of good governance (transparency, rationality,

accountability, reduction in time and costs, participation and regulatory Independence) to the

management and regulation of the use of environmental resources.

Enhancement of resources for environmental conservation: To ensure higher resource flows,

comprising Finance, technology, management skill, traditional knowledge and social capital for

environmental conservation through mutually beneficial multi-stakeholder partnerships between

local communities, public Agencies, the academic and Research community, investors and

multilateral and bilateral development partners.

The National Forest policy of 1986 proposed that 60% of the land in the Hills and 20% in the plains

and in all 33% of the total geographical area should be under forest/tree cover. Hence statement I is

not correct.

74. d

First states area under forest cover

26

Madhya Pradesh 77,414 sq. km

Arunachal Pradesh 66,964 sq. km

Chhattisgarh 55,547 sq. km

Odisha 51,345 sq. km

MHA 50,682 sq. km

75. b

Transmission of Ebola

It is thought that fruit bats of the the Pteropodidae family are natural Ebola virus hosts. Ebola is

introduced into the human population through close contact with the blood, secretions, organs or

other bodily Fluids of infected animals such as chimpanzees, gorillas, fruit bats, monkeys, forest

antelope and porcupines found ill or dead or in the rainforest. Ebola then spreads through human to

human transmission via direct contact (through broken skin or mucous membranes) with the blood,

secretions, organs or other bodily Fluids of infected people and with surfaces and materials (e.g.

bedding, clothing) contaminated with these fluids.

76. b

Cosmic rays are the highest intensity radiations with higher frequency than Gamma radiations.

77. c

option I is not correct: melting of ice is a physical change because it involves change only in the

physical state of water. Ice in solid state convert to water in the liquid state. Moreover, no new

chemical substance is formed in the process and this change is reversible.

Option II is correct: Vinegar is an aqueous solution of Acetic Acid and trace Chemicals that may

include flavourings. vinegar typically contains 5 to 20% by volume Acetic Acid. Usually, the acetic

acid is produced by the fermentation of Ethanol or Sugars by Acetic Acid bacteria. Fermentation is

the chemical breakdown of a substance by bacteria, yeasts or another microorganism.

Option 3 is not correct: If the chemical formulas do not change, then any changes are physical

changes. An example of physical is dissolving sugar in water. Once the sugar has all dissolved, you

have molecules of sugar mixed in with the molecules of water. The chemical formulas at the end are

the same as they were at the start, so this is a physical change.

78. c

X-rays are electromagnetic radiations which are a weightless package of pure energy (Photon) that

are without electrical charge and that travel in waves along a straight line with a specific frequency

and speed.

Wilhelm Rontgen produced and detected electromagnetic radiation in a wavelength range known as

X rays.

Properties:

In free space they travel in a straight line.

Speed- 1,86,000 miles per second (same as that of visible light).

They are invisible to eyes.

Cannot be heard and cannot be smelt.

They cannot be reflected, refracted or deflected by magnetic or electric field.

27

They show properties of interference, diffraction and refraction similar to visible light.

They do not require any medium for propagation.

Penetration- X rays can penetrate liquids, solids and gases.

They also show a heating effect.

X-rays also have a germicidal or bactericidal effect.

X-rays are capable of producing an image on a photographic film.

Hence option C is the correct answer

79. d

Some naturally occurring acids are given below:

Vinegar- Acetic acid

Curd- Lactic acid

Tamarind- Tartaric acid, Oxalic acid

Ant sting- Methanoic acid

Acetic acid, systematically named ethanoic acid, is a colourless liquid organic compound. When

undiluted, it is some times called glacial acetic acid. Vinegar is no less than 4% acetic acid by volume,

making acetic acid the main component of vinegar apart from water.

Formic acid (methanoic acid) is an irritating chemical present in the sprayed venom of some ant

species and in the secretion released from some stinging nettles.

80. c

Bacteria are the sole member of the Kingdom Monera. They are the most abundant microorganism.

Bacteria occurs almost everywhere. Hundreds of bacteria are present in a handful of soil. They also

live in extreme habitats such as hot springs, deserts, snow and deep oceans where very few other

life forms can survive. many of them live in or on other organisms as parasites.

Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape: The spherical Coccus, the rod-

shaped Bacillus, the comma shaped Vibrium and the spiral spirillum.

81. b

DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA. (2’-OH group

present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA liable and easily degradable.

RNA is also now known to be catalytic, hence reactive. The presence of thymine at the place of uracil

also confers additional stability to DNA). Therefore, among the two nucleic acids the DNA is a better

genetic material.

Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. Infect RNA being unstable mutate at a faster rate.

Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.

RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily Express the characters. DNA

however is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesizing machinery has

evolved around RNA.

DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of genetic information. for the transmission of

genetic information, RNA is better. hence only statement I and III are correct.

82. d

28

Recently the SI unit for mass (kilogram) has been redefined. For nearly 130 years, the mass of Le

Grand K, a cylinder of platinum-iridium has been the International standard for the kilogram. Now

the kilograms definition will now be based on a concept of Physics called the Planck constant. The

kilogram, the SI unit for mass, is one of four fundamental units that are being redefined, the others

being the ampere (current), the Kelvin (temperature) and the mole (amount of substance).

UNIT QUANTITY HOW IT IS/WILL BE DEFINED

Kilogram Mass To be based on Planck constant

Second Time Based on radiation of caesium-133 atom

Kelvin Temperature To be based on Boltzmann constant

83. c

Viruses cause a broad array of human diseases. These microscopic particles spread easily, typically

via person-to-person contact or touching contaminated surfaces. Once inside the body, viruses enter

the cells and reproduce quickly. Viral infection causes a host of different diseases, some mild and

others potentially fatal. Unfortunately, effective antiviral medications exist for only a few of the

many human viral diseases. In many cases, treatment for a viral illness involves relieving symptoms

until the body’s immune system clears the infection.

Diseases caused by Viruses: Adenovirus (common cold), AIDS, Avian Bird Flu, Chickenpox, Ebola,

Hepatitis A & B, Influenza (Flu), Mumps, Polio, Rabies, SARS, Smallpox, Warts, West Nile and Measles

etc.

84. a

Predation is a biological interaction where a predator kills and eats its prey. Predators are adapted

and often highly specialized for hunting, with acute vision, hearing and sense of smell. Many have

sharp claws and jaws to grip, kill and cut up their prey.

In ecology, predators are heterotrophic, getting all their energy from other organism. This places

them at high trophic levels in food webs. Many predators are carnivores, other include egg

predators. Predation is one of a family of common feeding behaviours that includes parasitism and

micropredation which usually do not kill the host, and parasitism which always does, eventually. All

these are evolutionarily stable strategies.

Predator and prey adapt to each other in an evolutionary arms race, coevolving under natural

selection to develop antipredator adaptations in the prey and adaptations such as stealth and

aggressive mimicry that improve hunting efficiency in the predator.

Predators are an important part of estuary ecosystem. Where ever the conditions are productive

predators need to be there to check the population. They are the top most consumer of the food

chain.

85. b

‘Bash’ Bug

Bash is software that is used in UNIX operating system.

It is used as command prompt for executing commands.

Most of the MNCs and Govt. security systems use UNIX systems.

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It’s a bug that can cause serious security issue.

Bug can bypass the security and give complete access to the attacker.

A user can lose its control over his computer system.

The data and information into the system would become vulnerable to theft and misuse.

86. a

India’s first six-tonne-class ‘big bird’ in space, advanced communication satellite GSAT-11, was put

into orbit, recently, from the European spaceport in Guiana in South America. The heaviest ever to

be built by the ISRO, the 5854 kg satellite was launched from the Guiana Space centre at Kourou.

Hence statement I is correct.

Its mission is to enable high speed satellite-based Internet services to users in rural, remote areas

and to businesses down home over the next 15 years. It will meet most of the requirements of

providing broadband connectivity to rural and inaccessible village panchayats under Bharat net

which is part of the digital India initiative. Launched in October 2011, Bharat net (earlier called the

national Optical Fibre network) aims to provide 2.5 lakh village panchayats with e-Banking, e-

education, e-health and e-governance among others through reliable broadband connectivity. Hence

statement II is correct.

The lift-off of GSAT 11 was a European space vehicle Ariane 5 VA246. GSAT 11 carries 8 transponders

for the first time in the complex and efficient Ka frequency band and 38 transponders in the Ku

band. The Ka band enables smart coverage of places with multiple and reusable spot beams. Hence

statement III is not correct.

87. b

Software robotics- ICICI bank

1st phase- Over 200 software robots will be performing over 10 lakhs transactions per day for the

bank which almost comes down to 10% of its total transactions.

2nd phase- Engagement of over 500 software robots by the end of the year leading to automate 20%

of its total transactions.

Sectors- Retail banking + Agri banking + Treasury + Trade + Forex

Benefits: Cutting down of the response time by 60%.

: Reducing the time to avail a personal loan on credit card to a mere 4 hours from the

earlier 8 hours.

: Enable handling larger volumes with the same resources.

88. d

The Indian Government and the European Union, recently joined hands for Rs. 240 crore research

programmes to develop a “Next Generation Influenza Vaccine” to protect citizens worldwide. The

EU and the Indian Government’s Department of Biotechnology (DBT), have also committed 15

million each to fund this joint call for the programme named “Horizon 2020”. In total, EUR 30 million

has been earmarked for research and innovation actions which aim at advancing the efficiency,

safety, duration of immunity and reactivity against an increased breadth of influenza strains.

30

These joint efforts also aim to develop cost-effective and affordable influenza vaccine rapidly

without compromising quality. Keeping this in mind, the participating consortia need to bring

together multi-disciplinary stakeholders who can represent any part of the chain from lab to market.

89. a

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has announced result of the first ever

States start-up ranking. States have been identified as leaders across various categories such as

start-up policy lenders, incubation hubs, seeding innovation, scaling innovation, regulatory change

champions, procurement leaders, communication Champions, North Eastern leader and hill state

leader. On the basis of performance in this category, the states have been recognised as the best

performer, top performers, leaders, aspiring leaders, emerging states and beginners as follows:

Best performer: Gujarat

Top performers: Karnataka, Kerala, Odisha and Rajasthan

Leaders: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Telangana

Aspiring leaders: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal

Emerging States: Assam, Delhi, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir, Maharashtra, Punjab, Tamil Nadu and

Uttarakhand

Beginners: Chandigarh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, Puducherry, Sikkim and Tripura

The key objective of the exercise was to encourage states and union territories to take proactive

steps towards strengthening the start-up ecosystems in their states. The methodology has been

aimed at creating a healthy competition among States to further learn, share and adopt good

practices.

90. d

The Ujjwala Sanitary Napkins initiative by three Oil marketing companies- IOCL, BPCL and HPCL was

launched by the Union Petroleum and Natural Gas Minister. Hence statement I is correct.

The Ujjwala pads will be made of virgin wood pulp sheet, non-woven white sheet and a gel sheet

which are all biodegradable in nature and will leave minimal carbon footprint. Hence statement II is

correct.

The three companies will set up 100 manufacturing units at the common service centres (CSE)

covering 93 blocks across 30 districts of Odisha at an estimated cost of Rs. 2.94 crore. The mission

which forms part of the CSR initiative of OMCs in Odisha, is aimed to educate women on female

hygiene and health, improve accessibility to low cost eco-friendly sanitary pads and boost rural

employment and economy. At least 10 Ujjwala beneficiary women will get employment at each CSC.

Hence statement III is not correct.

91. c

Centre for science and environment (CSE) has been awarded with Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,

Disarmament and Development for the year 2018.

This prize is given annually to organisations and individuals in recognition of creative efforts towards

promoting peace, development internationally using scientific discoveries for the greater good of

humanity.

31

Some notable recipients of the prize are: Dr. Manmohan Singh (2017), UN High Commission for

Refugees (UNHCR) (2015), Indian Space Research Organisation (2014), Angela Markel (2013), UN and

its Secretary-general Kofi Annan (2003) and MS Swaminathan (1999).

92. d

Recently, World Bank released world development report with a theme the changing nature of

work.

Finding of the report:

Technology is blurring the boundaries of the form: Using digital Technologies, entrepreneurs are

creating Global platform-based businesses that differ from the traditional production process in

which inputs are provided at one end and output delivered at the other.

Technology reshaping the skills: There is an increasing demand for three types of skills that is

advanced cognitive skills such as Complex problem solving, socio-behavioural skills such as

teamwork and skill combinations that are predictive of adaptability such as reasoning and self-

efficacy.

Change in nature of employment: There is a shift in employment from manufacturing to services in

high income countries while in some developing countries it’s increasing in manufacturing sector.

High informality in developing countries: A large number of workers remain in low-productivity jobs,

often in informal sector firms whose access to technology is poor.

Societal crisis: Inequality of opportunity or a mismatch between available jobs and skills, can lead to

migration or social fragmentation. Eg. Europe Refugee crisis etc.

Inefficient social security structure of developing countries: it found that systems that depend on

contributions from employers and employees, to finance old-age security, are not a good fit for

developing countries.

Tax evasion: Digital economy is making it easier for corporations to avoid taxation, as its easier to

shift profits to low-tax justifications.

93. a

The Supreme Court formed a committee under the chairmanship of former apex court judge, Justice

Amitava Roy to look into the entire gamut of reforms to the prison system. The committee will

examine the various problems plaguing prisons in the country, from overcrowding to lack of legal

advice to convicts to issues of remission and parole. The committee to deal with issues pertaining to

jails and suggest reforms for prisons across the country.

94. a

The H1B visa is an employment-based, non-immigrant visa for temporary workers. It is a visa in the

United States under the immigration and nationality act that allows U.S. employers to temporarily

employ foreign workers in speciality occupations. A speciality occupation requires the application of

specialised knowledge and a bachelor's degree or the equivalent of work experience. Hence

statement I is correct.

The duration of stay is 3 years, extendable to 6 years, after which the visa holders may need to

reapply. Hence statement II is not correct.

32

The spouse and unmarried children (under the age of 21) of H1B professionals are allowed to stay in

the United States under a dependent category called the H4 visa for the same duration as the H1B

status.

Permanent residence: An H1B holder is eligible to seek permanent residency (Green Card) to the

USA. The H1B visa holder can buy or sell real estate or any other property in the USA. The H1B visa

holder can purchase lottery tickets, H1B visa holder can invest in the stock market as well. Hence

statement 3 is not correct.

95. b

India’s first Aqua Mega Food Park was recently commissioned in Andhra Pradesh named Godavari

Mega Aqua Food Park. It will be the first Mega Food Park operationalized exclusively for fish and

marine products processing. Hence statements I and II are correct.

Under the Mega Food Park Scheme, Government of India provides financial assistance up to Rs.

50.00 Crore per Mega Food Park Project. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Food

Processing Industries (MoFPI). Hence statement III is not correct.

96. a

Prime Minister on 1st September 2018 launched the India Post Payment Bank (IPPB) that offers

doorstep banking to customers.

IPPB has been incorporated as a public sector company under the department of posts, with 100%

government equity and is governed by the RBI. Hence statements I is correct.

It will offer a range of product- Savings and current accounts, money transfer, direct benefit transfer,

bill and utility payments, enterprise and merchant payments. These products and services will be

offered across multiple channels (counter services, micro ATM, mobile banking app, SMS and IVR). It

will also provide access to third party financial services such as insurance, Mutual Funds, pension,

credit products and Forex. It will not offer any ATM debit card. Instead, it will provide its customers a

QR code based biometric card. Unlike traditional banks, it cannot issue loans and credit cards. Hence

statement II is correct.

It will offer Three Types of savings accounts -regular, digital and basic -at an interest rate of 4% per

annum. It can accept deposits of up to Rs. 1 lakh per customer. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

97. b

Butterflies are a key indicator of the health of the local ecosystems. Recently, the Nilgiri Plain Ace, a

butterfly species, was discovered after 130 years, during the Larsen memorial butterfly survey,

conducted by the Wynter-Blyth Association (WBA) and the forest department. It had been recorded

previously in 188.

Southern birdwing is India’s largest butterfly while blue Mormon is the state butterfly of

Maharashtra. The southern duffer is a butterfly found in Shri Lanka and South India.

98. c

Vande bharat express, also known as Train-18, is an Indian semi-high speed intercity electric multiple

unit. It was designed and built by Integral Coach Factory (ICF) Chennai under the Indian

Governments Make in India initiative over a span of 18 months.

33

It is the first locomotive-less train in the country and will ply between Delhi and Varanasi. It is India’s

first semi-high speed train with max speed of 180 kmph.

99. b

As per the interim budget 2019-20, expenditure of government in various sectors is as follows:

Central Sector Schemes- 12%

Interest payments- 18%

Defence- 8%

Subsidies- 9%

100. c

Future policy gold award is co-organised by the food and agriculture organisation of the united

nations (FAO), the world future council (WFC) and IFOAM-organics international. It is also nicknamed

as the ‘Oscar for best policies’ and recognises ‘the world’s best law and policies promoting

agroecology.

Sikkim has won the future policy gold award-2018 for its achievement in becoming the world’s first

totally organic agriculture state.

34

SARTHI-DELHI UPSC-CET-2019

Answers

Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers1. (d) 20. (c) 39. (c) 58. (b)2. (c) 21. (a) 40. (c) 59. (a)3. (d) 22. (b) 41. (a) 60. (a)4. (b) 23. (b) 42. (c) 61. (a)5. (a) 24. (d) 43. (d) 62. (d)6. (a) 25. (c) 44. (b) 63. (d)7. (d) 26. (d) 45. (d) 64. (a)8. (a) 27. (a) 46. (b) 65. (b)9. (a) 28. (d) 47. (b) 66. (a)10. (d) 29. (b) 48. (d) 67. (c)11. (d) 30. (c) 49. (c) 68. (b)12. (d) 31. (c) 50. (c) 69. (d)13. (a) 32. (d) 51. (a) 70. (b)14. (d) 33. (b) 52. (c) 71. (b)15. (c) 34. (a) 53. (c) 72. (d)16. (a) 35. (b) 54. (a) 73. (d)17. (b) 36. (c) 55. (b) 74. (b)18. (b) 37. (a) 56. (d) 75. (c)19. (b) 38. (b) 57. (d) 76. (c)

Answers of Inter-personal Communication Skills Questions

Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers Q.No. Answers77. (c-2.5,b-2) 78. (d-2.5,a-2) 79. (c-2.5,b-2) 80. (b-2.5)

PAPER II - CSAT

Note: 1. There is Negative marking of 1/3rd of total marks for every wrong answer for Q1 to 76. 2. There is no negative marking for Q77 to Q80. Q77 to Q80 may have two answers. For first best answer 2.5 marks will be given and for the second best answer 2 marks will be given3. Each question is of equal marks. Total Marks is 200

35

1. (d)

In the second paragraph it is written that education in society is indispensable which means we cannot

quantify the value of education. Thus, (1) and (3) are incorrect or in other words author will not agree

with these statements. There cannot be any limitation to knowledge as per the theme of the passage.

(2) is incorrect as well. Hence, (d) is the correct answer.

2. (c)

Author associated education with self-empowerment. Following the rules of society, questioning the

government and becoming an active participant of governance are too specific to be considered as

significance of education. Hence, (c) is the correct option.

3. (d)

Knowing the unknown is no where mentioned, author also did not linked education with acceptable

social behaviour. Thus, (a) and (b) are incorrect, (c) is too idealistic. Last few lines of the passage say that

education help us understand ourself better which will eventually help society as well. Hence, (d) is the

correct answer.

4. (b)

'Eternal Education' means continuous education and for a lifetime. Socially acceptable behaviour is too

specific and rigid. (1), (2) and (4) all are directly involved. Hence, (b) is the correct option.

5. (a)

Example of China talks about administrative capacities for crucial rural reforms and that include

promotion of agricultural growth as well. Thus (1) and (2) are correct. To say that growth of an economy

first starts with rural economy would be incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

6. (a)

According to author, economic growth models do not establish an explicit causal-effect relationship

between a country's rate of economic growth and poverty reduction. Thus, (a) is correct. (b), (c) and (d)

all are false as they are contrary to what passage has suggested. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

7. (d)

Towards the end of passage, author talks about addressing socio-cultural barriers for 'pro-poor' growth.

2nd paragraph also consider 'pro-poor' growth with removing inequality. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct.

Passage is referring to agricultural growth for absorbing unskilled labour. Therefore, we cannot say

anything about acquiring new skills. Hence, (d) is the correct option.

8. (a)

Option (b) and (c) are irrelevant as they are linking inclusive growth with growth of poor only. Passage

refers to inclusive growth as benefit for all. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

9. (a)

Number of digit 2 = 2

36

Number of digit 3 = 3 Number of digit 4 = 4

Case-I:

If 3 is in the first place, i.e., thousands place,

Total number of numbers that can be formed

= 3 × 3 × 3 = 27

But 3333 and 3222 are not possible because numbers of 3 is only three and numbers of 2 is only two.

So, numbers = 27 – 2 = 25

Case-II:

If 4 is in the first place; i.e., thousands place,

Total number of numbers that can be formed

= 3 × 3 × 3 = 27

But 4222 is not possible because numbers of 2 is only two.

So, numbers = 27 – 1 = 26

Required numbers = 25 + 26 = 51

Hence, the correct option is (a).

37

For Question 10–12:

38

Hence, the correct option is (d).

[From statement I, II and option]

Hence, the correct option is (d).

Hence, the correct option is (d).

39

13. (a)

Krishna is sister of Devika's husband, i.e., sister-in-law.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

14. (d)

Anuj and Romila are cousins.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

15. (c)

The correct option is (c).

40

18. (b)

M and C cannot be selected together. Hence, (b) is correct option.

19. (b)

M C cannot be possible if M is working then O can work as well. Hence, (b) is correct option.

20. (c)

C cannot with M. Hence, (c) is the correct option.

21. (a)

2 ↔ 3

5 ↔ 4

1 ↔ 6

Hence, the correct option is (a).

41

22. (b)

In circle I : 6 + 7 = 13 and 6 × 7 = 42

In circle II : 4 + 9 = 13 and 4 × 9 = 36

In circle III : 8 + 3 = 11 and 8 × 3 = 24

Hence, the correct option is (b).

OR

From option (a),

26 is not possible because 26 is an even number and eggs sold to after third customer, remaining an half

egg, who is not possible.

From option (b), eggs = 31

42

Eggs given to first customer = 15.5 + 0.5 = 16; Remaining = 15

To second customer = 7.5 + 0.5 = 8; Remaining = 15 – 8 = 7

To third customer = 3.5 + 0.5 = 4; Remaining = 7 – 4 = 3

Hence, the correct option is (b).

43

25. (c)

n(A∪B∪C) = 5%

Hence, the correct option is (c).

26. (d)

27. (a)

Required percentage = 11 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 5 + 9 = 40

Hence, the correct option is (a).

44

45

32. (d)

In the first paragraph itself, passage is suggesting that pesticides increased the crop yield but it has some

hidden or implicit hazards as well, risking our farmers and agricultural fields. Thus, (1), (2) and (3) all are

correct. Hence, (d) is the correct option.

33. (b)

Since, epidemiological datas are limited about the health effects of pesticides. Thus, (2) can be the point

of contention. Level of toxicity or who will get affected is not questionable as it is comprehensively

mentioned in the passage. Thus, (1) and (3) are incorrect. Hence, (b) is the correct option.

34. (a)

Throughout the passage, author is referring to pesticides application as the one which is hazardous to our

agricultural fields, though scientific proofs are limited. Thus, (a) is correct. (b) and (c) are outside the

context of the passage. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

35. (b)

Over production, toxicity in environment, biological impact all are exaggerated. Thus, (a), (c), (d) are

incorrect. (b) is more accurate as per the theme. Hence, (b) is correct option.

36. (c)

First few lines of the last paragraph clearly suggest that biodiversity is a source of human development

and survival. Thus, (c) is correct. (b) is rigid as this cannot be the only reason for survival. (a) and (d) are

outside the theme of the passage. Hence, (c) is the correct option.

37. (a)

Biodiversity resisting climate change is incorrect. Infact, biodiversity allows organisms to fight climate

change. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct and (3) is incorrect. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

46

38. (b)

Last few lines says "This has helped people manage change" which means biodiversity helps human

beings to have an evolutionary perspective on development and survival. Hence, (b) is the correct

option.

39. (c)

Example of 'wheat' was put forward by the author to show that altering and creating new varieties by

crossing genetic lines can boost productivity. Thus, (1) is correct. Example of wheat production in North

America and Asia shows its adapting nature. Hence, (c) is the correct option.

40. (c)

In 1 hour 30 – 20 = 10 feet

⇒ In (1 × 9) hrs. 10 × 9 = 90 feet

∴ In 10th hrs. 90 + 30 = 120 feet

Required time = 8:00 am + 10 hrs.

= 6 pm

Hence, the correct option is (c).

41. (a)

Let the number of cards Ramesh have = x

the number of cards Suresh have = y

and the certain number of cards = n

According to question,

47

By option,

Ramesh have 31 cards. Hence, the correct option is (a).

43. (d)

Let the weight of filled bottle = 100 units

Weight of bottle = 100 × 20% = 20 unit

Weight of liquid = 100 – 20 = 80 unit

48

44. (b)

Let the cost price of spirit = Rs 1

Selling price = 120% of C.P.

Hence, the correct option is (b).

45. (d)

In the principle is it written that precautions can be taken only against reasonable foreseeable mishaps

and in the situation it is written that standard precautions were taken. Now the runner suffered an injury

due to an unfortunate accident. Thus, he will not able to recover his damages.

Hence, (d) is the correct option.

46. (b)

According to principle, a person can use reasonable force for self-defence alone. Vinay fired to those

criminals who were not attacking but fleeing from the spot which result in injuring a neigbour. Thus,

Vinay is defintely liable.

Hence, (b) is the correct option.

47. (b)

A company is liable if something wrong is done by company or company's official (with full

acknowledgement of company). Now, Ketan is duping his neighbours not the company, thus there can be

a care of criminality against Ketan but not against company.

Hence, (b) is the correct answer.

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48. (d)

"Men are seldom honest" means men are sometimes honest but not always.

OR

Now, conclusion says plane triangle is not possible this can only be said when Pythagoras was right

which means Euclid cannot be right or plane triangle cannot be possible. Thus, from the venn digrram if

Euclid is right, Pythagoras is wrong.

Hence, (c) is the correct option.

50. (c)

Healthy society, strong government cannot be inferred. Thus, (a) and (b) are incorrect. Law is

indispensable for the society would be slightly exaggerated.

Hence, (c) is the correct option.

51. (a)

Passage is co-relating production with consumption or saying it to us that production should depend upon

consumption as excessive consumption is pointless. Now, if we have to contradict this we have to give an

argument that prosperity comes only through production for which consumption is also necessary.

Hence, (a) is correct option.

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52. (c)

→ Difference between 7 and 1 = 6 [6 is represented by 6 dots on 6 lines of snowflake number '7']

→ Difference between 19 and 7 = 12 [12 is represented by 12 dots on 6 lines of snowflake number '19' (2

each on 6 line)]

→ Difference between 37 and 19 = 18 [18 is represented by 18 dots on 6 lines of snowflake number '37' (3

each on 6 line)]

→ Similarly, difference between 61 and 37 = 24 [24 will be represented by 24 dots on 6 lines of snowflake

number '61' (3 each on 6 lines)]

24 dots on 6 lines + 1 dot on centre = 25 dots.

61 – 25 = 36 [Four dots will be represented on 6 cross-section.]

Hence, (c) is the correct option.

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56. (d)

Given:

A + B > C + D ...(i)

B + C > A + D ...(ii)

By adding (i) & (ii)

A + 2B + C > A + 2D + C

⇒ 2B > 2D

⇒ B > D

Hence, the correct option is (d).

OR,

Number of square of (4 × 4) dimension = 1

Number of squares of (3 × 3) dimension = 4

Number of squares of (2 × 2) dimension = 9

Required number = 1 + 4 + 9 = 14

Hence, the correct option is (d).

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OR,

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62. (d)

Two new sides are added in every next figure. Hence, the correct option is (d).

63. (d)

The whole figure rotate by 90° anticlock wise and bottom symbol is replaced with a new symbol.

Hence, the correct option is (d).

64. (a)

It would be wrong assumption to say that there are only two types of nations or republican nations do not

have a royal family. Since citizen of monarchic nations pay more tax which means there is an assumption

that monarchic nations do impose tax and decide a certain rate per it. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

65. (b)

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According to statement President failed as unemployment remains prevalent. Thus, we can easily assume

that unemployment is an indicator of depression. To say that no. of citizens who were out of work before

depression were less compared to now is incorrect as it can be possible that earlier it was more than now,

and unemployment reduces but no vanish. Thus, President failed in his promise. Therefore (2) is

incorrect. (3) is correct assumption as statement is saying that President has failed since he did not kept

his promises. Hence, (b) is the correct option.

66. (a)

R > P, Q > S > T ⇒ Q > S > T > R > P

Hence, the correct option is (a).

67. (c)

Last paragraph is suggesting that revival of agrarian economy can play a vital role in the inclusive growth

of the country, food security and in reducing poverty. And as first paragraph puts up agriculture sector

contributed maximum to the GDP. Therefore, all (1), (2) and (3) are correct.

Hence, (c) is the correct option.

68. (b)

Under the colonial regime food crops suffered from neglect and after independence import of food crops

has to be done as productivity was lowered in the food crop sector. Hence, (b) is the correct option.

69. (d)

Throughout the passage author talks about the hidden potential of agriculture sector and how it can

naturally improve the overall growth prospects of the country. Hence, (d) is the correct option.

70. (b)

Last paragraph is clearly mentioning the possibility of revival of Public Enterprises through autonomy

and accountability. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct. (3) is not correct as passage is not referring to arbitrary

spending of Public Enterprises as the main problem of their deterioration.

Hence, (b) is the correct option.

71. (b)

As the first paragraph refers to, public enterprise performance has lately come in for sharp criticism as

their contribution do not match the expectation, as they are gobbling up national resources.

Hence, (b) is the correct option.

72. (d)

A non-functional public enterprise can eat the national resources, can increase the external debt as it is

anticipated that public enterprise can do wonders for the socio-economic development but if they fail so

the anticipated change factor associated with public sector enterprise. Thus, (1), (2) and (3) all are correct.

Hence, (d) is the correct option.

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73. (d)

It can be easily concluded that if a company outsourcing its operations then there must be some benefits

related to it. Thus, (1) and (2) are correct. (3) is incorrect as saving money cannot be equated with profit.

Hence, (d) is the correct option.

74. (b)

As statement is saying that predictions are rarely accurate. Therefore we cannot predict whether record

can be broken or not. To say that July is usually dry is not correct as per the periphery of the statement.

Since Rainfall in July 2014 broke all records therefore it must have broken July 2013 record as well.

Hence, (b) is the correct option.

75. (c)

T > R > Q > P

Hence, the correct option is (c).

Following points are on the graph: (1, 1), (–1, 1), (2, 4), (–2, 4) and so on.

Hence, the correct option is (c).

77. (c-2.5, b-2)

Problem in this situation: Few female colleagues are still adamant to work with a male employee who has

been acquitted of the false charge of sexual harassment.

Appropriate course of action: It would be wise if those female colleagues are taken into confidence so

that routine work should not get affected. Sukhwinder has already made his point in front of

investigation team and since he has been given clean chit there is no point for him to give a separate

explanation to someone else. Hence, (c) is the only correct option.

78. (d-2.5, a-2)

Problem in this situation: An introvert employee not getting enough recognition in the department

though deserve it all.

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Effective solution in this situation: Leadership also means that an individual should come forward for

the organisations goals, should take more interest in achieving it, should contribute more. Therefore,

Arunima should start showing more pro-activeness in the department day to day affairs. As a result,

people will start taking her more seriously. Hence, (d) is the only best option.

79. (c-2.5, b-2)

Problem in this situation: A young police officer has lost interest in his work as he think he was not meant

for this job or it is a situation where professional expectations is not fulfilled by the current role.

Appropriate solution in this situation: Since, he has lost interest it's a loss for both the young officer and

for the police department as well. Therefore, it makes sense to advice him to take a decision and come

out with this dilemma as it would be beneficial for both young officer and for the department as well.

Hence, (c) is the only correct option.

80. (b-2.5)

Problem in this situation: An experienced professinoal been quetion marked because of his last fes

failures and not there are certain whether a new project should be delegated to him or not.

Appropriate solution in this situation: Though not successful previously but if his efforts are fine and

experienced gained is vital. Then he can be given one more chance. Rejecting someone purely on the

basis of his last few failure would be very tough benchmarking of someone's ability. Thus, (a) and (c) are

incorrect. And even to say that experience alone can make you triumphed would be a myopic view.

Hence, (b) is the correct option.

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