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SAMPLE TEST PAPER-6 Students of Class V to X CLASS VIII Get Rank, Recognition, Cash Prize & Much More E-mail: [email protected] | Website: www.tallentex.com/overseas facebook.com/tallentex/overseas twitter.com/tallentex/overseas Corporate Office DMCC, 3203, Oaks Liwa Heights, Cluster W, JLT, Dubai, UAE Tel.: +971-585106400, 526636693, 521124035, 521124036, 569479639, 567461832 Academic Office Unit-408-409, The Business Centre, Khalid Bin Al Waleed Rd - Bur Dubai

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Page 1: SAMPLE TEST PAPER-6

SAMPLE TEST PAPER-6

Students of Class V to X

CLASS VIII

Get Rank, Recognition, Cash Prize & Much More

E-mail: [email protected] | Website: www.tallentex.com/overseas

facebook.com/tallentex/overseas twitter.com/tallentex/overseas

Corporate OfficeDMCC, 3203, Oaks Liwa Heights, Cluster W, JLT, Dubai, UAE

Tel.: +971-585106400, 526636693, 521124035, 521124036, 569479639, 567461832

Academic OfficeUnit-408-409, The Business Centre, Khalid Bin Al Waleed Rd - Bur Dubai

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CLASS-VIII : Sample Test Paper-6

PART - IPHYSICS

(OBJECTIVE)

1. A distance

(1) Is always positive (2) Is always negative

(3) May be positive as well as negative (4) Is neither positive nor negative

2. When a body is stationary

(1) There is no force acting on it

(2) The force acting on it is not in contact with it

(3) The combination of forces acting on it balances each other

(4) The body is in vacuum

3. Sharper knives cut fruits easily because

(1) The area of contact is more (2) The area of contact is less

(3) It shines more (4) None of these

4. Examples of dry lubricants are

(1) Talcum powder (2) Boric acid

(3) Powdered graphite (4) All of the above

5. Compressions are the points of maximum

(1) Density. (2) Pressure. (3) Both 1 and 2. (4) None of these

(INTEGER)

6. The value of 37ºC in K is ____________.

7. A force produces an acceleration of 5.0 cm/s2 in a body of mass 20 g. What is the force acting on the

body in dyne?

8. Middle ear consists of _____ number of bones.

9. A particle follows a path XY as shown in the given figure. If the radius of semi-circular path is 2 cm

then the value of displacement of the particle is ________ cm.

10. A boy is running towards a plane mirror with a speed of 2 m/s. What is the speed at which the image

of the boy is approaching him in m/s?

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CHEMISTRY(OBJECTIVE)

11. Match the remedies with their problems and select the correct option from the codes given below.

(a) Baking soda (p) Acidic soil

(b) Calamine (q) Acidity in stomach

(c) Organic matter (r) Pain from ant sting

(d) Lime water (s) Basic soil

ProblemRemedy

(1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r (2) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p (3) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s (4) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?

(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid (ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid

(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base (iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base

(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)

13. Study the following equations and select the correct option.

2A + 2B 2AOH + H2

P + O2 C

C + B D

A B C D(1) S H2O POH H3PO3

(2) Na H2O PO3 H3PO3

(3) K H2O P2O5 H3PO4

(4) C H2O P2O5 H3PO3

14. Which of the following is correctly defines an aquifer ?

(1) Water percolates into the soil and remains there as moisture

(2) Clouds bring fresh water as rain to the land(3) The ground water is stored in between layers of porous rocks(4) Rain water is used to recharge ground water

15. Which of the following is commonly called polyamide ?

(1) Orlon (2) Nylon (3) Terylene (4) Rayon

(INTEGER)

16. The correct number of observations when sodium metal is reacted with water.

(i) The solution becomes blue in colour.

(ii) The solution became hot fastly.

(iii) The solution turns red litmus blue.

(iv) Green powder is formed at bottom

(v) Pop sound is released when a burning matchstick is taken near to it.

(vi) Bubbles start to evolve from solution when some aluminium granules are placed

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17. How many statements are correct for neutralization?

(i) To relieve indigestion we can use potassium hydroxide as an antacid.

(ii) The effect of ant bites can be neutralised by using baking soda as ant releases base into the skin .

(iii) The effect of ant bites can be neutralised by using baking soda as ant releases acid into the skin.

(iv) Basic soil can be neutralized by adding quick lime.

(v) Calamine solution can be used to neutralize the effect of ant bite.

(vi) Acidic soil can be neutralized by adding slaked lime.

18. Identify the factors responsible for depletion of water table.

(i) Industrial activities

(ii) Increasing population

(iii) Scanty rain fall

(iv) Agricultural needs

(v) Deforestation

(vi) Drip - irrigation

(vii) Water - harvesting

19. Identify the number of correct matches from the following :

(i) Nylon Highest tensile strength

(ii) Acrylic Orlon

(iii) Rayon Regenerated fibre

(iv) PVC Condensation polymer.

(v) Polyester Thermosetting

(vi) PET Poly Ethylene Terylene

(vii) Spandex Natural fibres

(viii) Polycot Polymer + Cotton

20. Observe the given figures of test tubes 1, 2, 3 and 4 carefully.

Dry air 15°C

Paper-clip Paper-clip Paper-clip Paper-clip

Boiledtap water

15°C

OilBoiled tap water 15°C

Tap water25°C

1 2 3 4

Not rustyafter 1 week

Not rustyafter 1 week

Rustsafter 1 week

Rustsafter 1 week

How many test tubes can be used to show that air is needed for iron to rust?

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BIOLOGY(OBJECTIVE)

21. Study the food chain given belowmaize mouse weasel hawkThe population of hawks over a period of time is represented by the graph shown below.

Num

ber o

f haw

ks

Time

Which of the following show how the other populations are affected ?(A) There is a decrease in the population of the weasels.(B) There is an increase in the population of the maize.(C) There is a decrease in the population of the maize.(D) There is an increase in the population of the mouse.(1) A and C (2) A, C and D (3) A and D (4) B, C and D

22. Combine is a machine used for(1) irrigation (2) sowing(3) transplantation (4) harvesting

23. Extranuclear DNA is found in

(1) Chloroplast (2) Endoplasmic Reticulum

(3) Ribosomes (4) Nucleus

24. Which of the following is an example of cell devoid of nuclear membrane and mitochondria ?

(1) Bacterial cell (2) Sperm (3) Protist (4) Sponge cell

25. The illustrations below are of a euglena, a paramecium, and an amoeba.

How do these microorganisms compare ?

(1) They use different structures for movement.

(2) They use different structures to control cell activity.

(3) They all make their own food by photosynthesis.

(4) They all have eyespots to sense sunlight.

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(INTEGER)

26. Study the food web of a forest in the diagram given below. From the given table find the number ofanimals suitable to fit in the missing place.

Rabbit

Fox

OwlSquirrel

Trees

?

Grasses

Deer Zebra Pigeon Hawk Antelope Pine tree Fox Rabbit Wildflower Macaw 27. How many energy pyramids most accurately shows the energy relationships between three organisms

in this food web ? [Hint : Direction of arrow is towards the predators]

(A) (B)

Bacteria

Protozoa

Algae

Diving beetles

Snails

Algae

(C)

Crayfish

Dead organisms

Bacteria

(D)

Amphipods

Catfish

Crayfish

28. Select the number of methods of cultivation that results in prevention of soil infertility ?

Crop rotation, Excessive use of fertilizers, Shifting cultivation, Usage of manures

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29. Tony and Martin's grandfather lives in Delhi, a metropolitan city, often complains of breathing problem.

Doctor has advised him to go to native village. Select the number of incorrect reasons for his migration.

(1) Delhi is highly populated and polluted.

(2) Delhi is clean and green.

(3) Unavailability of good hospitals in Delhi.

(4) Delhi is an earthquake prone area.

30. Study the given image and select the number of inappropriate statements given below :

(1) Desert animals live in burrow at night time.

(2) Desert animals live in burrow in day time.

(3) Aquatic animals live in burrows.

(4) Terrestrial animals live in underground only.

MATHEMATICS(OBJECTIVE)

31. Identify the value of the given expression.

23 2 8 5

4 5 9 16

(1) 1

2 2(2) 10 (3) 2 (4)

1

5

32. A student was asked to solve the fraction

7 1 51 of

3 2 32

2 13

and his answer was 1

4. By how much was his

answer wrong?

(1) 1 (2) 1

55

(3) 1

220(4) None of these

33. In the expression 24 – [2.4 – {0.24 × 2 – (0.024 – x)}] = 22.0589, the value of x is

(1) 0.0029 (2) 0.029 (3) 0.29 (4) 2.9

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34. Which of the following pairs of triangles are not congruent by ASA condition?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

35. In the given figure what must be the value of x to prove PQR STR by SAS ?

(1) 60° (2) 10° (3) 15° (4) 30°36. Observe the following solid.

The following box has a figure which is a view of the given solid.

Which view of the solid is shown in the box?(1) Side view (2) Top view (3) Back view (4) Front view

37. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) 10 14 18 22

14 18 22 26(2)

22 18 14 10

26 22 18 14

(3) 10 22 14 18

14 26 18 22(4)

10 18 22 14

14 22 26 18

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38. Manish saw the given figure while he was reading a book on astronomy. How is the distance fromVenus to the Sun written in scientific notation ?

(1) 67.23 × 106 miles (2) 0.6723 × 108 miles(3) 6.723 × 104 miles (4) 6.723 × 107 miles

39. Kalyan cut rectangle "R" from a sheet of paper. A smaller rectangle is then cut from the large rectangle"R" to produce figure "S". In comparing R to S, we have :

(1) the area and perimeter both decreases

(2) the area decreases and the perimeter increases

(3) the area and perimeter both increases

(4) the area decreases and the perimeter stays the same

40. The angles of a quadrilateral ABCD are x°, (x + 1)°, (x + 2)° and (x + 3)°, taken in the same order.

Then the quadrilateral ABCD is necessarily a

(1) Rhombus (2) Parallelogram

(3) Square (4) Trapezium

41. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 144°. Find the interior angle of a regular polygon which

has double the number of sides as the first polygon.

(1) 100° (2) 160°

(3) 36° (4) 162°

42. Which of the following is not true?

(1) A parallelogram having a pair of adjacent sides equal, is called a rhombus

(2) The diagonals of a rhombus do not bisect each other

(3) If the diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other at right angles, it is a rhombus

(4) A rectangle is a parallelogram

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43. Study the steps of construction given.Step 1: Draw a ray OA.Step2: With O as centre and any convenient radius draw an arc cutting OA at B.Step 3 : Now with B as centre and same radius as before draw an arc intersecting the previously drawnarc at C.Step 4 : Now with C as centre and same radius as before draw an arc intersecting the previously drawnarc at D.Step 5 : Draw ray OE passing through C. Draw ray OF passing through D.

Step 6 : Taking C and D as centre , with radius more than 1

2 CD. Draw arcs intersecting at P..

Step 7 : Join OP.Step 8 : Mark point Q where OP intersect the arc.

Step 9 : Taking C and Q as centre ,with radius more than 1

2 CQ. Draw arcs intersecting at R.

Step 10 : Join QR.

What is the measure of AOR ?(1) 90° (2) 75° (3) 105° (4) 150°

44. Find the smallest number by which 9408 must be multiplied, so that it becomes a perfect square. Also,find the square root of the perfect square, so obtained.(1) 3, 158 (2) 3, 168 (3) 2, 168 (4) 2, 162

45. The figure shown is made up of a rectangle and 3 semicircles. The ratio of PQ to QR is 5 : 2. Theperimeter of the rectangle is 168 cm. Find the shaded area of the figure. (Take = 3.14)

(1) 337.12 cm2 (2) 628 cm2 (3) 796.56 cm2 (4) 502.4 cm2

(INTEGER)

46. Value of 1 1 1 1

1 1 1 ...... 14 5 6 n

is x

n is then x :

47. Solve : x 1 1 1 1

x (x 1)2 4 3 6 12

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48. The value of 22/3 1/2223 2 150 29 is

49. Simplify: 40 – 2 {3(7) – 4(5) – (9 – 8)} – [4{(–4) + (–7) × (–2)}]50. The area of the figure ABCDEFGA (in cm2) is :

51. The diagram shows two rectangle, PQRS and KLMN.

The perimeter, in cm, of the shaded area is :

52. If a = 2b and b = 4c, then 2

3a

16bc

53. In a fraction, numerator of a fraction is twice the denominator. But if we add 1 to the numerator and 5

from denominator, it becomes 1

2, then the sum of numerator and denominator is :

54. If 1 is added to the age of the younger sister then the ratio of the ages of 2 sisters becomes 4 : 5, but if2 is subtracted from the age of the elder one, the ratio becomes 7 : 8, the age of the younger sister willbe ?

55. If 4 x x 9 = 5, then x is equal to

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PART - IIIQ

(OBJECTIVE)

56. Q's mother is sister of P and daughter of M. S is daughter of P and sister of T. P is not female. How isM related to T?(1) Father (2) Grandfather(3) Grandmother (4) Either Grandmother or Grandfather

57. If "LESD" is written as "@$&#", "NAC" is written as "%?*, how "CANDLES" is coded in the sameway?(1) *&%#$&) (2) *?%#@$& (3) *&^$@() (4) ?@$@^%@&

58. Find the mirror image of the following figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

59. What is the number of dots on the face opposite to the face that contains 2 dots ?

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 660. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the anti clockwise

direction. Which direction is he facing now?(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South

61. What will be the correct mathematical signs that can be inserted in the following equation?

12 3 4 2 5 = 11

(1) –, ÷, +, × (2) –, × , ÷ , + (3) ×, –, +, ÷ (4) ÷, ×, –, +

62. Find out the figure from the alternatives, which will come in place of the question mark to continue the

sequence.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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63. Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below: Sportsmen,

Cricketers, Batsmen.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

64. Find the water image of the given word.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

65. If P + Q means 'P is Husband of Q', P ÷ Q means 'P is sister of Q' and P × Q means 'P is son of Q' then

which means A is daughter of B.

(1) A + D × B (2) D × B ÷ A (3) B ÷ C × A (4) A ÷ D × B

66. In a certain code language, OPERATION is written as NODQBUJPO.How is INVISIBLE written in

that code?

(1) JOWJTJCMF (2) JOWJTHAKD (3) HMUHTJCMF (4) HMUHTHAKD

67. In a symbolic language,

"He is father" is written as "Sheila told mother."

"He teaches physics" is written as "Sheila walks baseball."

"Father teaches science" is written as "Mother walks jango."

Then for 'Science' which word should be used?

(1) mother (2) told (3) walks (4) Jango

68. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. The following questions are based on the diagram given below, where the triangle represents doctors,

the circle represents players and the rectangle represents the artists.

Which numbered space in the diagram represents doctors, who are also players and artists?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

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70. Which of the following operation will result in 22?

(1) 16 +12 – 8 × 13 ÷ 15 (2) 16 – 12 × 8 ÷ 13 + 15

(3) 16 ÷ 12 + 8 – 13 × 15 (4) 16 × 12 ÷ 8 + 13 - 15

(INTEGER)

71. A cube is painted blue on two adjacent surface and black on the surfaces opposite to blue surface and

green on the remaining faces. Now the cube is cut into 64 smaller cubes of equal size. How many

cubes are there which have no surface painted?

72. Which number will replace the question mark?

13 12 5

17 15 8

25 24 ?

29 21 20

73. Count the number of squares in the given figure.

74. Find the missing term (?)1, 6, 23, 58, 117, ?

75. If you are 15th in a queue from both the ends, how many persons are there in that queue ?76. Jai walks 10 m towards East and then 10m to his right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5

m, 16 m and 23 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ?77. Which number will replace the question mark?

78. Find out the missing number.101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46

79. In a queue of children, Arun is fifth from the left and Suresh is sixth from the right. When theyinterchange their places among themselves, Arun becomes thirteenth from the left. Then, what will beSuresh’s position from the right?

80. What are the number of straight lines in the following figure?

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Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. 1 3 2 4 3 310 100 3 40 4

Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 5 3 1

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. 2 4 1 1 1 6 1 3 3 3

Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 3 4 1 3 2 4 1 4 4 4

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. 4 2 2 2 4 3 2 400 0 1165

Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 20 1 3 7 –5 4 2 4 1 2

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans. 2 4 3 1 4 3 4 2 4 4

Que. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 8 7 16 206 29 10 11 96 14 12

ANSWER KEY