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2

PPAARRTT –– 11 ((OOnnee MMaarrkkss QQuueessttiioonn))

MATHS

1. If a, b, c are positive real numbers such that

a + b + c = 1, then prove that

2

3

ba

c

ac

b

cb

a.

(1) 2

9 (2)

6

9

(3) 12

9 (4)

4

9

Ans. (1)

2. Number of terms in (1 +x)101 (1 + x2 –x)100 is

(1) 302 (2) 301

(3) 202 (4) 101

Ans. (3)

3. A convex polygon has 44 diagonals. The

number of its sides is equal to:

(1) 9 (2) 10

(3) 11 (4) 12

Ans. (3)

4. P (x, y) is called a good point if x, y N. Total

number of good points lying inside the

quadrilateral formed by the line

2x + y = 2, x = 0, y = 0 and x + y = 5, is equal

to

(1) 4 (2) 2

(3) 6 (4) 1

Ans. (3)

5. Maximum number of common normal’s of

y2= 4ax and 2x = 4by can be equal to

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 5

Ans. (4)

6. A common tangent of

9x2 – 16y2 = 144 and x2 + y2 = 9 is

(1) y 7 3x 2 15

(2) y 7 3x 2 15

(3) y 2 3x 7 15

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

7. The value of b and c for which the identity

f(x + 1) – f(x) = 8x + 3 is satisfied, where

f(x) = bx2 + cx + d, are

(1) b = 2, c = 1 (2) b = 4, c = -1

(3) b = -1, c = 4 (4) None of these

Ans. (2)

8. limm

limn

(1+cos2m n!xπ) is equal to

(x is rational):

(1) 2 (2) 1

(3) 0 (4) 3

Ans. (1)

9. If nxxf )1()( then the value of

n

f '' 0 1f 0 f ' 0 ....... f 0

2! n!

is :

X X

Y

Y

(0, 0)

/4 5/6 5/3 2

(1) n (2) 2n

(3) n 12

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

10. If a, b, c, d are four positive real numbers such

that abcd =1, then minimum value of

(1+ a) (1 + b) (1 + c) (1 + d) is

(1) 8 (2) 12

(3) 16 (4) 20

Ans. (3)

11. Let f(x) = Max. {sinx, cos x, 2

1} then determine

the area of the region bounded by the curves

y = f(x), x-axis, y-axis and x = 2.

(1)

32

12

5 (2)

32

12

5

(3)

32

6

5 (4)

32

6

5

Ans. (1)


3

12. The value of |a i |2 + |a j |2 + |a k |2 is

(1) a2 (2) 2a2

(3) 3a2 (4) none of these

Ans. (2)

13. From a set of 17 cards 1, 2, 3, ……16, 17, one

is drawn at random. Find the probability that

number on the drawn card would be divisible

by 3 or 7.

(1) 17

7 (2)

17

5

(3) 18

5 (4)

15

7

Ans. (1)

14. If A + B + C = 180othen the value of

tanA + tanB + tanC is :

(1) 3 3 (2) 2 3

(3) > 3 3 (4) > 2 3

Ans. (1)

15. If cos2 = )1(3

1 2 a and tan2

2

= tan2/3

, then

cos2/3 + sin2/3

=

(1) 2a2/3 (2)

3/22

a

(3)

3/12

a (4) 2a1/3

Ans. (2)

16. If f(x) = (x – a1)2 +(x – a2)

2 + ………. (x – an)2

find x where f(x) is minimum.

(1) (2)n

aaa n..............21

(3) n

aaa n ..............21 (4) –

Ans. (2)

17. The complex numbers z = x + iy which satisfy

the equation 15iz

5iz

lie on

(1) x–axis

(2) The straight line y=5

(3) A circle passing through the origin

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

18. If

cxxx

bxxx

axxx

43

32

21

= 0, then a, b, c are in

(1) A.P

(2) G.P

(3) H.P

(4) none of these

Ans. (1)

19. The angle of elevation of the top of a T.V.

tower from three points A, B, C in a straight

line in the horizontal plane through the foot of

the tower are , 2, 3 respectively. If AB = a,

the height of the tower is

(1) a tan

(2) a sin

(3) a sin 2

(4) a sin 3

Ans. (3)

20. The range of the function f(x) = 34

12

2

XX

Xx

is

(1) (– 1, 2)

(2) (– 1, 3)

(3) (– 1, 4)

(4) none of these

Ans. (4)

PHYSICS

21. If the time period (T) of vibration of a liquid

drop depends on surface tension (S), radius

(r) of the drop and density )( of the liquid,

then the expression of T is

(1) SrKT /3

(2) SrKT /32/1

(3) 2/13 / SrKT

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)


4

22. In the given figure each plate of capacitance C

has partial value of charge

(1) CE (2) rR

CER

2

1

(3) rR

CER

2

2 (4) rR

CER

1

1

Ans. (3)

23. Carbon monoxide is carried around a closed

cycle abc in which bc is an isothermal process

as shown in the figure. The gas absorbs 7000

J of heat as its temperature increases from

300 K to 1000 K in going from a to b. The

quantity of heat rejected by the gas during the

process ca is

(1) 4200 J (2) 5000 J

(3) 9000 J (4) 9800 J

Ans. (4)

24. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an

iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of

radius 4R is made from an iron plate of

thickness 4

t. Then the relation between the

moment of inertia IX and IY is

(1) IY = 64IX (2) IY = 32IX

(3) IY = 16IX (4) IY = IX

Ans. (1)

25. A projectile is projected with velocity ekv in

vertically upward direction from the ground

into the space. ( ev is escape velocity and k <

1). If air resistance is considered to be

negligible then the maximum height from the

centre of earth to which it can go, will be

(R = radius of earth)

(1) 12 k

R

(2)

12 k

R

(3) 21 k

R

(4)

1k

R

Ans. (3)

26. In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a

glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t

is introduced in the path of one of the

interfering beams (wavelength ), the intensity

at the position where the central maximum

occurred previously remains unchanged. The

minimum thickness of the glass-plate is

(1) 2

(2) 3

2

(3) 3

(4)

Ans. (1)

27. A particle of charge +q and mass m moving

under the influence of a uniform electric field

iEˆ and a uniform magnetic field kB ˆ follows

trajectory from P to Q as shown in figure. The

velocities at P and Q are ivˆ and jv2

respectively. Which of the following

statement(s) is/are INCorrect

(1) qa

mvE

2

4

3

(2) Rate of work done by electric field at P is

a

mv 3

4

3

(3) Rate of work done by electric field at P is

zero

(4) Rate of work done by both the fields at Q is

zero

Ans. (3)

E r

R2

R1 C

P

O 2a

a

2v

Q X

Y v

E


5

28. A square metallic wire loop of side 0.1 m and

resistance of 1 is moved with a constant

velocity in a magnetic field of 2 wb/m2 as

shown in figure. The magnetic field is

perpendicular to the plane of the loop, loop is

connected to a network of resistances. What

should be the velocity of loop so as to have a

steady current of 1mA in loop?

(1) 1 cm/sec (2) 2 cm/sec

(3) 3 cm/sec (4) 4 cm/sec

Ans. (2)

29. Two wires ‘A’ and ‘B’ of the same material

have their lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and radii in

the ratio 2 : 1. The two wires are connected in

parallel across a battery. The ratio of the heat

produced in ‘A’ to the heat produced in ‘B’ for

the same time is

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1

Ans. (4)

30. On sounding tuning fork A with another tuning

fork B of frequency 384 Hz, 6 beats are

produced per second. After loading the prongs

of A with wax and then sounding it again with

B, 4 Beats are produced per second what is

the frequency of the tuning fork A.

(1) 388 Hz (2) 80 Hz

(3) 378 Hz (4) 390 Hz

Ans. (3)

31. Rest mass energy of an electron is 0.54 MeV.

If velocity of the electron is 0.8 c, then K.E. of

the electron is

(1) 0.36 MeV (2) 0.41 MeV

(3) 0.48 MeV (4) 1.32 MeV

Ans. (1)

32. Three simple harmonic motions in the same

direction having the same amplitude a and

same period are superposed. If each differs in

phase from the next by o45 , then

(1) The resultant amplitude is a)21(

(2) The phase of the resultant motion relative to

the first is 90°

(3) The energy associated with the resulting

motion is )223( times the energy

associated with any single motion

(4)

Ans. (4)

33. Four rods of identical cross-sectional area and

made from the same metal form the sides of

square. The temperature of two diagonally

opposite points and T and 2 T respective in

the steady state. Assuming that only heat

conduction takes place, what will be the

temperature difference between other two

points

(1) T2

12 (2) T

12

2

(3) 0 (4) None of these

Ans. (3)

34. The potential energy between two atoms in a

molecule is given by 612

)(x

b

x

axU ; where a

and b are positive constants and x is the

distance between the atoms. The atom is in

stable equilibrium when

(1) 6

5

11

b

ax (2) 6

2b

ax

(3) 0x (4) 62

b

ax

Ans. (4)

35. The dimensions of hce 02 4/ , where he ,, 0

and c are electronic charge, electric

permittivity, Planck’s constant and velocity of

light in vacuum respectively

(1) ][ 000 TLM (2) ][ 001 TLM

(3) ][ 010 TLM (4) ][ 100 TLM

Ans. (1)

3 3

3 3

3

v l

B

P

Q


6

36. A circular platform is free to rotate in a

horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing

through its center. A tortoise is sitting at the

edge of the platform. Now, the platform is

given an angular velocity 0. When the

tortoise moves along a chord of the platform

with a constant velocity (with respect to the

platform), the angular velocity of the platform

(t) will vary with time t as

(1) (2)

(3) (d

Ans. (2)

37. A small sphere of mass m is dropped from a

great height. After it has fallen 100 m, it has

attained its terminal velocity and continues to

fall at that speed. The work done by air friction

against the sphere during the first 100 m of fall

is

(1) Greater than the work done by air friction in

the second 100 m

(2) Less than the work done by air friction in

the second 100 m

(3) Equal to 100 mg

(4) Greater than 100 mg

Ans. (2)

38. A ball moving horizontally with speed v strikes

the bob of a simple pendulum at rest. The

mass of the bob is equal to that of the ball. If

the collision is elastic the bob will rise to a

height

(1) g

v 2

(2) g

v

2

2

(3) g

v

4

2

(4) g

v

8

2

Ans. (2)

39. Half-life of a substance is 20 minutes. What is

the time between 33% decay and 67% decay

(1) 40 minutes (2) 20 minutes

(3) 30 minutes (4) 25 minutes

Ans. (2)

40. A 20 cm length of a certain solution causes

right-handed rotation of 38°. A 30cm length of

another solution causes left-handed rotation of

24°. The optical rotation caused by 30cm

length of a mixture of the above solutions in

the volume ratio 1 : 2 is

(1) Left handed rotation of 14°

(2) Right handed rotation of 14°

(3) Left handed rotation of 3°

(4) Right handed rotation of 3°

Ans. (4)

CHEMISTRY

41. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-

orbitals involved in d2 sp3 hybridisation is:

(1) 222 zyxd,,d

(2) 22 yxxz d,d

(3) xzzd,d 2 (4) yzxy d,d

Ans. (1)

42. Corundum is:

(1) SrO2 (2) Al2O3

(3) CaCl2 (4) Cu2Cl2

Ans. (2)

43. An ideal gas is allowed to expand both

reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated

system. If Ti is the initial temperature Tf is

the final temperature, which of the following

statements is correct?

(1) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev

(2) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti

for irreversible process

(3) (Tf)rev = (Tf)irrv

(4) Tf = Ti for both reversible and irreversible

processes

Ans. (1)

(t)

O

t

(t)

O

t

(t)

O

t

(t)

O

t


7

44. At 27°C, the osmotic pressure of a solution

containing 4.0 g solute (molar mass = 246)

per litre at 27°C is:

(1) 0.1 atm (2) 0.4 atm

(3) 0.2 atm (4) 0.8 atm

Ans. (2)

45. 2A → B + C; It would be a zero order

reaction when:

(1) The rate of reaction is proportional to

square of conc. of A

(2) The rate of reaction remains same at any

conc. of A

(3) The rate remains unchanged at any

conc. of B and C

(4) The rate of reaction doubles if conc. of B

is increased to double

Ans. (2)

46. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then

treated with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured

product. Its structure would be:

Ans. (4)

47. Select the strongest acid:

(1) CF3COOH

(2) CCl3COOH

(3) CH3COOH

(4) CBr3COOH

Ans. (1)

48. An isothermal process is associated with:

(1) Constant entropy

(2) Constant temperature

(3) Constant enthalpy

(4) Large change in heat content

Ans. (2)

49. Catalytic poisoners act by:

(1) Coagulating the catalyst

(2) Getting absorbed on the active centres

on the surface of catalyst

(3) Chemical combination with any one of

the reactants

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

50. Which of the following orders is wrong with

respect to property indicated?

(1) Formic acid > Acetic acid > Propionic

acid (Acid strength)

(2) Fluoro acetic acid > Chloro acetic acid >

Bromo acetic acid (Acid strength)

(3) Benzoic acid > Phenol > Cyclohexanol

(Acid strength)

(4) Aniline > Cyclohexylamine > Benzamide

(Base strength)

Ans. (4)

51. X 2Cl Benzotrichloride Hydrolysis Y

X and Y respectively are

(1) Benzene, benzaldehyde

(2) Toluene, benzaldehyde

(3) Toluene, benzoic acid

(4) Benzene, benzoic acid

Ans. (3)

52. The standard electrode potential for the

change;

Sn(s) + 2Fe3+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + Sn2+(aq) is:

(1) 0.63 V (2) 1.40 V

(3) 0.91 V (4) 1.68 V

Ans. (3)

53. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc

crystal with density d = 10 g cm–3 and cell

edge as 200 pm is equal to:

(1) 3 × 1025 (2) 0.5 × 1025

(3) 1 × 1025 (4) 2 × 1025

Ans. (2)


8

54. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy

change for the oxidation of NH3 at 298 K, are

-382.64 kJ mol–1 and -145.6 J mol–1

respectively. Standard free energy change

for the same reaction at 298 K is:

(1) -221.1 kJ mol–1

(2) -339.3 kJ mol–1

(3) -439.3 kJ mol–1

(4) -523.2 kJ mol–1

Ans. (2)

55. Which one among the following is

Williamson’s synthesis?

(3) C2H5I + C2H5ONa → C2H2∙O∙C2H5 + NaI

(4) HCHO NaOH HCOONa + CH3OH

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following reagents can convert

acetic acid into ethanol?

(1) Sn + HCl (2) H2 +Pt

(3) LiAlH4 + ether (4) Na + alcohol

Ans. (3)

57. A first order reaction has a half life period of

69.3 sec. At 0.10 mol litre–1 reactant

concentration, rate will be:

(1) 10–4 M sec–1 (2) 10–3 M sec–1

(3) 10–1 M sec–1 (4) 6.93 × 10–1 M sec–1

Ans. (2)

58. The catalyst iron, employed n the Haber’s

process, contains molybdenum, the function

of which is:

(1) To increase the rate of combination of

gases

(2) To counter balance for the presence of

impurities in the gases

(3) To act as a catalyst promoter and

increase activity of catalyst

(4) To make up for the adverse temperature

and pressure conditions

Ans. (3)

59. Formation of alkane by the action of Zn on

alkyl halide is called:

(1) Wurtz reaction

(2) Kolbe’s reaction

(3) Cannizzaro’s reaction

(4) Frankland’s reaction

Ans. (4)

60. Which of the following compounds has the

most acidic nature?

Ans. (2)

BIOLOGY

61. Myelin sheath mainly contains :

(1) Carbohydrate

(2) Proteins

(3) Fats

(4) Ions

Ans. (3)

62. In which please of cell cycle DNA content

doubles?

(1) G1 phase

(2) G2 phase

(3) S phase

(4) M phase

Ans. (3)

63. Erythropoetin release steps up :

(1) Hypoxia

(2) Anoxia

(3) Hyper capnia

(4) None of the above

Ans. (1)

64. In humans, the composition of a zygote that

will develop into a male is -

(1) 44A + XX (2) 44A + XY

(3) 22 + X (4) 23A

Ans. (2)


9

65. DNA is present in which cell organelles?

(1) Golgi body

(2) Lysosome

(3) Glyoxysome

(4) Nucleolus

Ans. (3)

66. Protein sequencing was devised by

(1) Edison

(2) Fleming

(3) Sanger

(4) Tansley

Ans. (3)

67. If the sequence of bases in DNA is 5׳-

GTACATAAGCTT-3 then the sequence of

bases in it transcript will be -

(1) 3AACAUGUAUUCG5

(2) 3AUAUUGAGAUAC5

(3) 3AUAUGUAUCUCA5

(4) 3TATACATAGAGT5

Ans. (1)

68. Which ion comes inside the neuron during

action potential?

(1) Na+

(2) K+

(3) Ca2+

(4) Mg2

Ans. (1)

69. Least amount of CO2 is carried by

(1) RBC

(2) Blood plasma

(3) By plasma proteins

(4) In cytoplasm of WBC

Ans. (2)

70. Patients who have undergone organ

transplants are given anti-rejection

medications to -

(1) Minimize infection

(2) Suppress humoral immunity

(3) Suppress cell mediated immunity

(4) Adopt the HLA of donor

Ans. (3)

71. ‘Rice water diarrhoea’ is a symptom of -

(1) Cholera

(2) Typhoid

(3) Jaundice

(4) Dysentery

Ans. (1)

72. Water has maximum of _________ H-bonds

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (4)

73. Circadian Rhythm is an endogenously driven

cycle for biochemical, physiological and

behavioral processes. In humans, the

approximate duration of this 'biological clock'

is-

(1) 1 Hour

(2) 6 Hours

(3) 12 Hours

(4) 24 Hours

Ans. (4)

74. Which one of the following stated “Nothing in

Biology makes sense except in light of

evolution?

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Louis Pasteur

(3) Theodosius Dobzhansky

(4) Lamarck

Ans. (3)

75. Soon after the three germ layers are formed in

a developing embryo, the process of

organogenesis starts. The human brain is

formed from the-

(1) Ectoderm

(2) Endoderm

(3) Mesoderm

(4) Partly endoderm and partly mesoderm

Ans. (1)


10

76. Two genetic disease namely phenylketonurea

and haemophilia are to be tested in two

different individuals. Both these techniques

will involve the use of :

(1) Autosomes

(2) Sex chromosomes

(3) Restriction enzymes

(4) Pedigree analysis

Ans. (3)

77. The process of cell death involving DNA

cleavage in cells is known as-

(1) Necrosis

(2) Apoptosis

(3) Cytokinesis

(4) Endocytosis

Ans. (2)

78. Watson and crick proposed which DNA

model?

(1) B

(2) A

(3) Z

(4) D

Ans. (1)

79. At which stage of Meiosis I does crossing over

occur?

(1) Lepoptene

(2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene

(4) Diplotene

Ans. (3)

80. An electrode is placed in the axioplasm of a

mammalian axon and another electrode is

placed just outside the axon. The potential

difference measured will be-

(1) 0

(2) –70 mV

(3) –70 μV

(4) +70 Μv

Ans. (2)

PPAARRTT –– 22 ((TTwwoo MMaarrkkss QQuueessttiioonn))

MATHS

81. The function

1,

2sin

1,][|32|

)(x

x

xxx

xf

(1) Is continuous at 2x

(2) Is differentiable at 1x

(3) Is continuous but not differentiable at 1x

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

82. The points of extremum of the function

dttexx

t)1()(

2

1

2/2

are

(1) 0x (2) 1x

(3) 2

1x (4) 1x

Ans. (2, 4)

83. Let Rf ),0(: and

adxxf )( . If

ka dxxf

k)(lim

then f (4) equals

(1) 5/4 (2) 7

(3) 4 (4) 2

Ans. (3)

84. If !1983n , then the value of expression

nnnn1983432

log

1.......

log

1

log

1

log

1 is equal to

(1) – 1

(2) 0

(3) 1

(4) 2

Ans. (3)

85. Two common tangents to the circle

2222ayx and parabola axy 8

2 are

(1) )2( ayx

(2) )2( axy

(3) )( ayx

(4) )( axy

Ans. (2)


11

86. If ,3tan

tan

sin

sin2

then the value of and

are

(1) 6

,3

nn

(2) 6

,3

nn

(3) 3

,2

nn

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

87. If three non-zero vectors are ,321kjia aaa

kjib321

bbb and .321kjic ccc If c is

the unit vector perpendicular to the vectors a

and b and the angle between a and b is ,6

then

2

321

321

321

ccc

bbb

aaa

is equal to

(1) 0

(2) 4

)()()(32

1

2

1

2

1cba

(3) 1

(4) 4

)()(2

1

2

1ba

Ans. (4)

88. The locus of the points z which satisfy the

condition arg 31

1

z

z is

(1) A straight line

(2) A circle

(3) A parabola

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

89. If )1(3

1)(....)2()1(

22

2

2

1

2 nntntt

n ,

then n

t is

(1) 2

n (2) 1n

(3) 1n (4) n

Ans. (4)

90. The coefficient of 25

x in 1432

)1(

xxxx

is

(1) 25 (2) – 25

(3) 1 (4) – 1

Ans. (3)

PHYSICS

91. If there are no heat losses, the heat released

by the condensation of x gm of steam at

100°C into water at 100°C can be used to

convert y gm of ice at 0°C into water at 100°C.

Then the ratio y : x is nearly

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2.5 : 1

(3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 1

Ans. (4)

92. A body is imparted a velocity v from the

surface of the earth. If v0 is orbital velocity and

ve be the escape velocity then which is correct

(1) v = v0, the body follows a circular track

around the earth.

(2) v > v0 but < ve, the body follows elliptical

path around the earth.

(3) v < v0, the body follows elliptical path and

returns to surface of earth.

(4) v > ve, the body follows hyperbolic path

and escapes the gravitational pull of the

earth.

(1) A, B (2) B, C

(3) A, B, C (4) A, B, C, D

Ans. (4)

93. If mass of proton = 1.008 amu and mass of

neutron = 1.009 amu, then the binding energy

per nucleon for 4Be9 (mass = 9.012 amu) will

be –

(1) 0.0672 MeV

(2) 0.672 MeV

(3) 6.72 MeV

(4) 67.2 MeV

Ans. (3)


12

94. The minimum intensity of light to be detected

by human eye is 210 /10 mW . The number of

photons of wavelength m7106.5 entering the

eye, with pupil area 2610 m , per second for

vision will be nearly

(1) 100 (2) 200

(3) 300 (4) 400

Ans. (3)

95. The charge flowing across the cell on closing

the key k is equal to

V

C

2

C

1

(1) CV (2) CV/2

(3) 2CV (4) zero

Ans. (2)

96. A concave mirror is placed at the bottom of an

empty tank with face upwards and axis vertical.

When sunlight falls normally on the mirror, it is

focussed at distance of 32 cm from the mirror.

If the tank filled with water

3

4 upto a

height of 20 cm, then the sunlight will now get

focussed at

(1) 16 cm above water level

(2) 9 cm above water level

(3) 24 cm below water level

(4) 9 cm below water level

Ans. (2)

97. In the following star circuit diagram (figure),

the equivalent resistance between the points A

and H will be

(1) 1.944 r (2) 0.973 r

(3) 0.486 r (4) 0.243 r

Ans. (2)

98. An engine approaches a hill with a constant

speed. When it is at a distance of 0.9 km it

blows a whistle, whose echo is heard by the

driver after 5 sec. If speed of sound in air is

330 m/s, the speed of engine is

(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s

(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s

Ans. (3)

99. Two masses M and m are connected by the

arrangement shown in figure. What is the

downward acceleration of mass M.

m

M

(1) 2M m

g3M m

(2) 2M m

2g4M m

(3) M m

gM m

(4)

Mg

2M m

Ans. (2)

100. A block of mass m = 2kg is attached to two

unscratched springs of force constant k1 = 100

N/m and k2 = 125 N/m.

125 N/m

2kg 100 N/m

0.1m

The block is displaced towards left through a

distance of 10 cm and released. Find the

speed of the block as it passes through the

mean position.

(1) 1.06 m/s (2) 1.02 m/s

(3) 1.04 m/s (4) 1.05 m/s

Ans. (1)

C r B

r

A

r

D E r

r J

r

I r

H

r r

G

r F

i

72°


13

CHEMISTRY

101. Tetracyanonickelete (II) ion has ____

geometry

(1) Linear (2) Tetrahderal

(3) Square planer (4) None of these

Ans. (3)

102. Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br

and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 was

prepared in 2 litre of solution.

1 litre of mixture X + excess AgNO3 → Y

1 litre of mixture X + excess BaCl2 → Z.

No. of moles of Y and Z are:

(1) 0.01, 0.01 (2) 0.02, 0.01

(3) 0.01, 0.02 (4) 0.02, 0.02

Ans. (1)

103. The oxidation potential of a hydrogen

electrode at pH = 10 and 2HP = 1 is:

(1) 0.51 V (2) 0.00 V

(3) +0.59 V (4) 0.059 V

Ans. (3)

104. The wavelength of radiation emitted when

electron falls from 4th Bohr’s orbit to 2nd in H

atom is:

(1) 972 nm (2) 486 nm

(3) 243 nm (4) 182 nm

Ans. (2)

105. Aniline in a set of the following reactions

yielded a coloured compound Y:

Ans. (1)

106. Consider the following reaction,

ethanol 2PBr X alc.KOH

YheatO,(ii)H

etemperatur roomSOH (i)

2

42 Z;

The product Z is:

(1) CH3CH2OH

(2) CH2 = CH2

(3) CH3CH2―O―CH2―CH3

(4) CH3―CH2―O―SO3H

Ans. (1)

107. The major organic product formed in the

following reaction is:

Ans. (4)

108. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol

has vapour pressure of 290 nm at 300. The

vapour pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 nm.

If mole fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6 its

vapour pressure at same temperature will

be:

(1) 360

(2) 350

(3) 300

(4) 700

Ans. (2)


14

109. In the species O2, ,O2

2O and ,2

2O the

correct decreasing order of bond strength is:

(1) 2O >

2O >

2O > 2

2O

(2)

2O > 2O >

2O > 2

2O

(3) 2

2O >

2O >

2O > 2O

(4) 2

2O >

2O > 2O >

2O

Ans. (4)

110. In Zeigler-Natta adsorbed strongly by

charcoal?

(1) CO

(2) N2

(3) H2

(4) NH3

Ans. (3)

BIOLOGY

111. Which sequence of events gives rise to flaccid

guard cells and stomatal closure at night?

(1) low [Glucose] low osmotic pressure

low pH high pCO2

(2) low pH high pCO2 low [Glucose]

low osmotic pressure

(3) low osmotic pressure high pCO2 low

pH low [Glucose]

(4) high pCO2 low pH low [Glucose]

low osmotic pressure

Ans. (4)

112. When a yellow mouse was crossed to another

yellow mouse, the F1 generation produces

yellow and brown black mice in the ratio 2 : 1.

The yellow mice are never homozygous. The

reason is :

(1) Homozygous yellow cannot survive due to

lethal effect of genes

(2) yellow mice are not very suitable to live

(3) There is no formation of zygote with

homozygous yellow constitution

(4) None of the above

Ans. (2)

113. Rodents can distinguish between many

different types of odours. The basis for odour

discrimination is that-

(1) They have a small number of odorant

receptors that bind to many different

odorant molecules

(2) The mechanoreceptors in the nasal cavity

are activated by different odorant

molecules found in the air passing

through the nostrils

(3) The part of the brain that processes the

sense of smell has many different

receptors for odorant molecules

(4) A large number of different

chemoreceptors are present in the nasal

cavity that binds a variety of odorant

molecules

Ans. (4)

114. There are three alleles at the ABO antigen

locus in humans. The A and B alleles

produces A and B antigens, respectively,

while the O allele produces no antigen. For

which of the following phenotypes could you

be certain that an individual (with that

phenotype) a homozygote?

(1) type A only

(2) type B only

(3) type O only

(4) type A, B and O

Ans. (3)

115. E. coli about to replicate was pulsed with

tritiated thymidine for 5 min and then

transferred to normal medium. After one cell

division which one of the following

observations would be correct?

(1) Both the strands of DNA will be radioactive

(2) One strand of DNA will be radioactive

(3) None of the strands will be radioactive

(4) Half of one strand of DNA will be

radioactive

Ans. (2)


15

116. Selection of lysine auxotroph (bacteria which

requires lysine for growth) from a mixed

population of bacteria can be done by growing

the bacterial population in the presence of-

(1) Lysine

(2) Penicillin

(3) Lysine and penicillin

(4) Glucose

Ans. (2)

117. Increasing the number of measurements of an

experimental variable will-

(1) Increase the standard error of the sample

(2) Increase the mean of the sample

(3) Decrease the standard error of the sample

(4) Result in all of the above

Ans. (3)

118. For a human male what is the probability that

all the maternal chromosomes will end up in

the same gamete?

(1) 1/23

(2) 223

(3) 246

(4) (1/2)23

Ans. (4)

119. The most important factor regulating seasonal

migration is :

(1) The change in average air temperature

(2) The change in day length

(3) The reduced availability of food

(4) The increased predator pressure

Ans. (2)

120. Distance between two consecutive base pairs

of DNA is __________

(1) 34oA

(2) 0.34 nm

(3) 20 oA

(4) 4 nm

Ans. (2)

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