Roldan, Mc (400 Questions)

8/12/2019 Roldan, Mc (400 Questions)

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Polytechnic University of the Philippines

Taguig Campus

Gen. Santos Ave., Lower Bicutan, Taguig City

400 Questions from PSME Code

Submitted by:

Roldan, Ma. Couline C.

BSME V-1

March 7, 2014


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1. Absorption refrigeration system that has been factory assembled and tested prior to its

installation.

a. accessible unit

b. absorption unit

c. accessible

d. absorption

2. Having access to but which first shall be permitted to require the removal of an access panel,

door, or similar obstruction covering the item described.

a. absorption

b. absorption unit

c. accessible unit

d. accessible

3. Capable of being reached safely and quickly for operation, repair, or inspection without

requiring those to whom ready access is requisite to climb over or remove obstacles, or to resort

to the use of portable access equipment.

a. absorption, readily

b. accessible

c. accessible, readily

d. none of these

4. Air that has been treated to achieve a desired level of temperature, humidity, or cleanliness.

a. air, conditioned

b. air, exhaust

c. air, moist

d. all of these

5. Air being removed from any space or piece of equipment and conveyed directly to the

atmosphere by means of openings or ducts.

a. air, moist

b. air, conditioned

c. a and b

d. air, exhaust

6. A blower of fan used for the purpose of distributing supply air to room, space, or area.

a. air-conditioning system

b. airhandling unit

c. a and b

d. none of these


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7. It that is provided to replace air being exhausted.

a. air-conditioning system

b. airhandling unit

c. air, makeup

d. none of these

8. A system designed to provide heating, cooling, or ventilation in which one or more air handling

units are used to supply air to a common space or are drawing air from a common plenum or

space.

a. airhandling unit

b. air-conditioning system

c. a and b

d. airmoving system

9. Air from outside the building intentionally conveyed by openings or ducts to rooms or to

conditioning equipment.

a. air, exhaust

b. air, conditioned

c. air, outside

d. all of these

10. Air from the conditioned area that is returned to the conditioning equipment for

reconditioning.

a. air, return

b. air, exhaust

c. air, conditioned

d. air, intake

11.Air being conveyed to a conveyed to a conditioned area through ducts or plenums from a heat

exchanger of a heating, cooling, absorption, or evaporative cooling system.

a. air, intake

b. air, conditioned

c. air, exhaust

d. air, supply

12.A device that utilizes fuel or other forms of energy to produce light, heat, power, refrigeration,

or air-conditioning. This definition also shall include a vented decorative appliance.

a. none of these

b. device

c. machine

d. appliance


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13. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.

a. rejected

b. a and d

c. none of these

d. approved

14. An organization primarily established for purposes of testing to approve standards and

approved by the authority having jurisdiction.

a. standard authority

b. mechanical standard agency

c. approved testing agency

d. none of these

15.A building or a portion of a building used for the gathering together of fifty (50) or more persons

for such purposes as deliberation, education, instruction, worship, entertainment, amusement,

drinking, dining, or awaiting transportation.

a. assembly building

b. assembly room

c. briefing area

d. none of these

16. The organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or

standard, or for approving equipment, materials, installations, or procedures.

a. standard authority

b. authority having jurisdiction

c. mechanical standard agency

d. none of these

17.That which provides a function without the necessity of human intervention.

a.automatic

b. manual

c. a and b

d. none of these

18.A refrigerant blend comprising multiple components of different volatiles that, when used in

refrigeration cycles, do not change volumetric composition or saturation temperature as they

evaporate of condense at constant pressure.

a. oxygen

b. nitrogen

c. azeotrope

d. none of these


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19. A boiler furnishing steam at pressures in excess of fifteen (15) pounds per square inch (103.4

kPa) or hot water at temperatures in excess of 250F (121 C) or at pressures in excess of one

hundred and sixty (160) pounds per square inch (1,103.2 kPa).

a. boiler, standard

b. boiler, low pressure

c. boiler, high pressure

d. none of these

20.Any room containing steam or hot water inlet.

a. boiler room

b. breathing zone

c. breathing zone outdoor

d. none of these

21.A reliable conductor to ensure the electrical conductivity between metal parts required to be

electrically connected.

a. copper

b. silver

c. bronze

d. bonding jumper

22.The region within an occupied space between three (3) planes and seventy-two (72) inches

(1,800 mm) above the floor and more than (2) two feet (600 mm) from the walls or fixed air-

conditioning equipment.

a. boiler room

b. breathing zone

c. breathing unit

d. none of these

23.The rate of outdoor airflow required in the breathing zone of an occupiable space.

a. breathing zone outdoor airflow (Vbz)

b. breathing zone

c. boiler room

d. none of these

24.A metal connector for medium and high heat appliances.

a. silver

b. breeching

c. copper

d. none of these


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25.The listed maximum capacity of any appliance, absorption unit, or burner expressed in British

thermal units input per hour, unless otherwise noted.

a. BTU/S

b. BTU/Min

c. BTU/H

d. all of these

26. The national Building Code of the Philippines that is adopted by this jurisdiction.

a. Philippine standards code

b. Philippine mechanical engineering code

c. mechanical engineering code

d. building code

27.The Chemical Abstract System registry number

a. CAS Number

b. CAS system

c. none of these

d. all of these

28. Environmental heating equipment installed and a manner supply heat by means of ducts or

pipes to areas other than the room or space in which the equipment is located.

a. duct plant

b. central heating plant or heating plant

c. a and b

d. none of these

29.A formally stated recognition and approval of an acceptable level of competency, acceptable to

the Authority Having Jurisdiction.

a. recognized

b. tested

c. qualified

d. certified

30.A vertical shaft enclosing one or more flues for conveying flue gases to the outside atmosphere.

a.chimney

b. stock

c. a or b

d. all of the above

31. A listed chimney

a. none of the above

b. c or d


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c. stock

d. factory built chimney

32.A chimney of solid masonry units, bricks, stones, listed masonry units, or reinforced concrete,

lined with suitable flue liners.

a. masonry stock

b. masonry chimney

c. metal chimney

d. none of these

33.A chimney constructed of metal with a minimum thickness not less than one hundred and

twenty-seven one hundredths (0.127) inch (3.23 mm) (No. 10 manufacturers standard gauge

steel sheet).

a. masonry chimney

b. chimney, residential appliance type

c. metal chimney

d. none of these

34.A factory built or masonry chimney suitable for removing products of combustion from

residential type appliances producing combustion gases not in excess of 1,000 F (538 C),

measured at the appliance flue outlet. Factory built type HT chimneys have high temperature

thermal shock resistance.

a. chimney connector

b. chimney, medium heat appliance type

c. chimney, low heat appliance type

d. chimney, residential appliance type

35.A factory built, masonry, or metal chimney suitable for removing the products of combustion

from fuel burning low heat appliances producing combustion gases not in excess of 1000 F (538

C) under normal operating conditions, but capable of producing combustion gases of 1,400 F

(760 C) during intermittent forced firing for periods up to one hour. All temperatures are

measured at the appliance flue outlet.

a. chimney, low heat appliance type

b. chimney connector

c. chimney, medium heat appliance type

d. chimney, residential appliance type


from fuel burning medium heat appliances producing combustion gases not in excess of 2,000 F

(1,093 C), measured at the appliance flue outlet.

a. chimney, residential appliance type

b. chimney, low heat appliance type


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d. chimney, high heat appliance type


from fuel burning high heat appliances producing combustion gases in excess of 2,000 F (1,903

C), measured at the appliance flue outlet.

a. chimney, high heat appliance type

b. chimney, low heat appliance type


d. none of these

38.The pipe that connects a fuel burning appliance to a chimney.

a. chimney, low heat appliance type

b. chimney, medium heat appliance type

c. chimney, high heat appliance type

d.chimney connector

39. A heat producing appliance that employs a combustion chamber that has no openings other

than the flue collar, fuel charging door, and adjustable openings provided to control the amount

of combustion air that enters the combustion chamber.

a. open combustion solid fuel burning appliance

b. closed combustion liquid fuel burning appliance

c. closed combustion solid fuel burning appliance

d. open combustion liquid fuel burning appliance

40.An appliance used to dry wet laundry by means of heat derived from the combustion of fuel

gases or electric heating elements.

a. clothes dryer

b. washing machine

c. a and b

d. none of these

41.Primarily used in family living environment. May or may not be coin operated for public use.

a. clothes dyer, type 2

b. clothes dyer, type 1

c. clothes dyer, type 3

d. clothes dyer, type 4

42.Used in business with direct intercourse of the function with the public. May or not be operated

by public or hired attendant. May or may not be coin operated.

a. clothes dyer, type 4

b. clothes dyer, type 3


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c. clothes dyer, type 2

d. clothes dyer, type 1

43.A standard that is an extensive compilation of provisions covering broad subject matter or that

is suitable for adoption into law independently of other codes and standards. It also means the

Philippine Mechanical Engineering Code.

a. rule

b. law

c. standard

d. code

44.The total amount of air provided to the space that contains burning equipment. Includes air for

fuel combustion, draft hood dilution, and ventilation of the equipment enclosure.

a. combustion air

b. air intake

c. moist air

d. none of these

45.A compressor in which increase in pressure is attained by changing the internal volume of the

compression chamber.

a. compressor, negative displacement

b. compressor, positive displacement

c. compressor, infinite displacement

d. none of these

46. A machine, with or without accessories, for compressing a refrigerant vapor.

a. compressor, negative displacement

b. compressor

c. compressor, refrigerant

d. none of these

47.The part of the system designed to liquefy refrigerant vapor by removal heat.

a. all of these

b. evaporator

c. compressor

d. condenser

48.An appliance that condenses part of the water vapor generated by the burning of hydrogen in

fuels.

a. condensing appliance

b. evaporating appliance

c. condensing unit


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d. evaporating unit

49. A mechanical refrigeration system, consisting of one or more power driven compressors,

condensers, liquid receivers if provided, and the regularly furnished accessories that have been

assembled and tested prior to its installation.

a. condensing appliance

b. condensing unit

c. evaporating unit

d. condensing appliance

50.An area, room, or space normally occupied and being heated or cooled for human habitation by

any equipment.

a. conditioned room

b. conditioned unit

c. conditioned space

d. none of these

51.A room or space having a volume less than fifty (50) cubic feet (1.42) per 1000 Btu/h (293 W)

of the aggregate input rating of all fuel burning appliances installed in that space.

a. conditioned unit

b. confined unit

c. conditioned space

d. confined space

52.Air cooling to provide a room or space temperature of 68 F (20 C) or above.

a. cooling

b. heating

c. tempering

d. none of these

53.All of that equipment, including associated refrigeration, intended or installed for the purpose of

cooling air by mechanical means and discharging such air into any room or space. This definition

shall not include any evaporative cooler.

a. heating system

b. cooling system

c. confining system

d. none of these

54.A self-contained refrigeration system that has been factory assembled, tested, and installed

with or without conditioned air and ducts, without connecting any refrigerant containing parts.

This definition shall not include a portable cooling unit or an absorption unit.

a. heating unit


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b. cooling unit

c. confining unit

d. none of these

55. In a building, an area accessible by crawling, having a clearance less than human height, for

access to plumbing or wiring, storage, etc.

a. plumbing space

b. wiring space

c. crawl space

d. none of these

56. An acronym for corrugated stainless steel tubing.

a. CSSTu

b. CrSST

c. CSST

d. none of these

57.An automatic closing metal assembly consisting of one or more louvers, blades, slats or vanes

that closes upon detection of heat so as to restrict the passage of flame and is listed to the

applicable recognized standards.

a. fire damper

b. smoke damper

c. volume damper

d. none of these

58. A damper arranged to seal off airflow automatically through a part of an air duct system so as

to restrict the passage of smoke and is listed to the applicable recognized standard.

a. volume damper

b. smoke damper

c. fire damper

d. none of these

59.Any device that, when installed, will restrict, retard, or direct the flow of air in any duct, or the

products of combustion in any heat producing equipment, is vent connector, vent, or chimney.

a. fire damper

b. smoke damper

c. volume damper

d. none of these

60.The elevation of the design flood, including wave height, relative to the datum specified on

the communitys legally designated flood hazard map.

a. flood elevation


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b. flood hazard elevation

c. designated elevation

d. design flood elevation

61.A heater in which all the products of combustion generated by the gas burning device are

released into the outside airstream being heated.

a. direct gas fired makeup air heater

b. indirect gas fired makeup air heater

c. gas fired heater

d. none of these

62.An appliance that is constructed and installed so that all air for combustion is derived from the

outside atmosphere and all flue gases are discharge to the outside atmosphere.

a. indirect vent appliance

b. direct vent appliance

c. vent appliance

d. none of these

63.A power boiler plant designed to distribute hot water or stream to users located off premises.

a. area heating plant

b. location heating plant

c. district heating plant

d. none of these

64.A warm air furnace usually normally installed in an air distribution duct to supply warm air for

heating. This definition shall apply only to a warm air heating appliance that depends for air

circulation on a blower not furnished as part of the furnace.

a. air system

b. duct system

c. air furnace

d. duct furnace

65. Includes all ducts, ducts fittings, plenums, and fans assembled to form a continues passageway

for the distribution of air.

a. duct system

b. dwelling

c. dwelling unit

d. none of these

66. A building or portion thereof that contains not more than two dwelling units.

a. dwelling unit

b. dwelling


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b. evaporative unit

c. evaporative cooling unit

d. evaporative cooling system

73.That part of refrigeration system in which liquid refrigerant is vaporized to produce

refrigeration.

a. evaporator

b. condenser

c. a and b

d. none of these

74.A valve designed to activate when the fuel gas passing through it exceeds the prescribed flow

rate.

a. gas flow valve (GFV)

b. excess flow valve (EFV)

c. flow valve (FV)

d. none of these

75.The fire code adopted by this jurisdiction.

a. fire regulation

b. fire law

c. fire code

d. none of these

76.A chimney connected, solid fuel burning stove (appliance) having part of its fuel chamber open

to the room.

a. none of these

b. fire place

c. fire resistive construction

d. fire place stove

77.Construction complying with the requirements of the Building Code for the time period

specified.

a. fire resistive construction

b. fire place

c. fire place stove

d. none of these

78.Area within the flood hazard area that is subject to high velocity wave action, as shown in

Philippine Government flood hazard map.

a. flood hazard area subject to medium velocity wave action

b. flood hazard area subject to high velocity wave action


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c. flood hazard area subject to low velocity wave action

d. none of these

79. A completely self-contained furnace suspended from the floor of the space being heated, taking

air for combustion from outside such space and with means for observing flames and lighting

the appliance from such space.

a. ceiling furnace

b. wall furnace

c. floor furnace

d. none of these

80. A central furnace equipped with a fan or blower that provides the primarily means for

circulation of air.

a. forced airtype central furnace

b. up-flow type furnace

c. horizontal type central furnace

d. none of these

81.A furnace designed for low headroom installations with airflow through the appliance in a

horizontal path.

a. horizontal type central furnace

b. forced airtype central furnace

c. up-flow type furnace

d. none of these

82.A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path, discharging air at or near the top of

the furnace.

a. horizontal type central furnace

b.up-flow type central furnace

c. forced airtype central furnace

d. none of these

83.A furnace designed with airflow essentially in a vertical path, discharging air at or near the

bottom of the furnace.

a. forced airtype central furnace

b. vertical-flow type central furnace

c. down-flow type central furnace

d. none of these

84.A specific heating or heating and ventilating furnace incorporating an integral total enclosure

and using only outside air for combustion.

a. enclosed furnace


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b.fusible furnace

c. fractionation furnace

d. none of these

85.A change in composition of a blend by preferential evaporation of the more volatile component

or condensation of the less volatile component.

a. fractionation

b. blending

c. volatizing

d. none of these

86.A device arranged to relieve pressure by operation of a fusible member at a predetermined

temperature.

a. pressure plug

b.fusible plug

c. relieve plug

d. none of these

87.Any steel conforming to the requirements of the American Society for Testing and Material

(ASTM) A653/A653M-03 Standard Specification for Steel Sheet, Zinc-Iron Alloy-Coat (Galvanized)

by the Hot Dip Process.

a. aluminium

b.carbon steel

c. galvanized steel

d. none of these

88.A device equipped with a means of heating used in an absorption system to drive refrigerant out

of solution.

a. generator

b.aircondition

c. machine

d. none of these

89.Any heating system consisting of a gravity type warm air furnace, together with all air ducts or

pipes and accessory apparatus installed in connection therewith.

a. gravity heating system

b.gravity type warm-air furnace

c. gravity heating furnace

d. none of these


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90. A warm air furnace depending primarily on circulation of air through the furnace by gravity. This

definition also shall include any furnace approved with a booster type fan that does not

materially restrict free circulation of air through the furnace when the fan is not in operation.

a. gravity heating system

b.gravity type warm-air furnace

c. gravity heating furnace

d. none of these

91.A conducting object through which a direct connection to earth is established.

a. conducting electrode

b.connector electrode

c.grounding electrode

d. none of these

92.Any area or space where combustible dust, ignitable fibers or flammable, volatile liquids, gases,

vapors or mixtures are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive

or ignitable mixtures.

a. heat (energy) recovery ventilator

b.hazardous location

c. danger zone

d. none of these

93.A device intended to remove air from buildings, replace it with outside air, and in the process

transfer heat from the warmer to the colder airstreams.


b.heating degree day

c. heating equipment

d. none of these

94.A unit, based upon temperature difference and time, used in estimating fuel consumption and

specifying nominal annual heating load of a building. For any one day when the mean

temperature is less than 65 F (18 C), there exist as many degree days as there are Fahrenheit

degrees difference in temperature between mean temperature for the day and 65 F (18 C).

a.heating degree day

b.heating equipment

c. heat (energy) recovery ventilator

d. none of these

95. Includes all warm air furnaces, warm air heaters, combustion products vents, heating air

distribution ducts and fans, and all steam and hot water piping, together with all control devices

and accessories installed as part of, or in connection with, any environmental heating system or

appliance regulated by this code.


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b.heating degree ray

c. heating equipment

d. none of these

96.A warm air heating plant consisting of a heat exchanger enclosed in a casing, from which the

heated air is distributed through ducts to various rooms and areas. A heating system includes

the outside air, return air and the supply air system, and all accessory apparatus and equipment

installed in connection therewith.

a. heat pump

b.heat (energy) recovery ventilator

c. heating degree ray

d. heating system

97.A refrigeration system that extracts heat from one substance and transfers it to another portion

of the same substance or to a second substance at a higher temperature for beneficial purpose.

a.heat pump

b.heat (energy) recovery ventilator

c. heat degree ray

d. none of these

98.The parts of a refrigeration system subjected to approximately condenser pressure.

a. low side

b.high side

c. downside

d. upside

99.An air intake device connected to a mechanical exhaust system for collecting vapors, fumes,

smoke, dust, steam, heat or odors from, at, or near the equipment, place, or area where

generated, produced, or released.

a. air exhaust

b.air intake

c.hood

d. none of these

100. Includes appliances, devices, or equipment used, or intended to be used, in an industrial,

manufacturing or commercial occupancy for applying heat to any material being processed, but

shall not include water heaters, boilers, or portable equipment used by artisans in pursuit of a

trade.

a. industrial heating equipment

b.commercial heating system

c.residential heating equipment


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d. none of these

101. An area, space, or room where the air is unfit or undesirable for circulation to occupied parts of

a building.

a. insanitary location

b.sanitary location

c. hazardous location

d. none of these

102. Any joint obtained by joining of metal parts with alloys that melt at temperatures higher than

840 F (449 C) but lower than the melting temperature of the parts being jointed.

a. joint, compression

b.joint, brazed

c.joint, flanged

d. none of these

103. Any multipiece joint with cup shaped threaded nuts that, when tightened, compress tapered

sleeves so that they form a tight joint on the periphery of the tubing they connect.

a. joint, flanged

b.joint, brazed

c.joint, compression

d. none of these

104. One made by bolting together a pair of flanged ends.

a. joint, compression

b.joint, brazed

c.joint, flared

d.joint, flanged

105. Any metal to metal compression joint in which a conical spread is made on the end of a tube

that is compressed by a flare nut against a mating flare.

a.joint, flared

b.joint, flanged

c. joint, brazed

d. none of these

106. General form for gastight joints obtained by the joining of the metal parts through a positive

holding mechanical construction (such as flanged joint, screwed joint, or flared joint).

a. joint, flanged

b.joint, mechanical

c. joint, flared

d. joint, brazed


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107. A joint made by the joining of metal parts with metallic mixtures or alloys that melt at

temperature up to and including 840 F (449 C).

a. joint, flanged

b.joint, flared

c.joint, soldered

d. joint, mechanical

108. An installation in which a furnace is installed so that building joists, studs, or framing are

contacted by the furnace jacket upon the lines formed by the intersection of the jacket sides with

the top surface.

a. building contact installation

b.jacket contact installation

c. furnace contact installation

d. line contact installation

109. A boiler furnishing hot water at pressures not exceeding 160 pounds per square inch (1,102.4

kPa) and at temperatures not exceeding 250 F (121 C).

a. low pressure hot water heating boiler

b.low pressure cold water heating boiler

c. high pressure hot water heating boiler

d. high pressure cold water heating boiler

110. A boiler furnishing steam at pressures not exceeding fifteen (15) pounds per square inch (103.4

kPa).

a. low pressure hot water heating boiler

b. low pressure steam heating boiler

c. high pressure hot water heating boiler

d. high pressure steam heating boiler

111. Refers to the parts of a refrigeration system subjected to approximate evaporator pressure.

a. downside

b.high side

c.low side

d. upside

112. The refrigeration equipment forming a part of the refrigeration system, including, but not

limited to, the following: compressors, condensers, liquid receivers, evaporators, and connecting

piping.

a. equipment

b.unit

c.machinery

d.none of these


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113. The company or organization that evidences its responsibility by affixing its name, trademark, or

trade name to equipment or devices.

a. manufacturer

b.company

c. organization

d. all of these

114. Printed instructions included with equipment or devices for the purpose of providing

information regarding safe and proper installation and use whether or not as part of the

conditions of listing.

a. manufacturers manual

b. manufacturers installation instructions

c. manufacturers safety instruction

d. none of these

115. The purpose for which a building or part thereof is used or intended to be used.

a. rented

b.occupied space

c.occupancy

d. none of these

116. An enclosed space intended for human activities excluding those spaces intended primarily for

other purposes such as storage rooms and equipment rooms that are only occupied occationally

and for short periods of time.

a. rented

b.occupancy

c. occupied space

d. none of these

117. The pipes or tube mains for interconnecting the various parts of a system.

a. plenum

b.duct

c.piping

d. none of these

118. An air compartment or chamber including uninhabited crawl spaces areas above a ceiling or

below a floor, including air spaces below raised floors of computer/data processing centers or

attic spaces, to that one or more ducts are connected and that form parts of either the supply air,

return air or exhaust air system, other than the occupied space being conditioned.

a. duct

b.piping

c.plenum


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d. none of these

119. The Uniform Plumbing Code promulgated by the International Association of Plumbing and

Mechanical Officials (IAPMO), as adopted by this jurisdiction.

a. Philippine mechanical engineering code

b. mechanical engineering code

c.uniform plumbing code

d. plumbing code

120. A self-contained refrigerating system, not over 3 horsepower rating, that has been factory

assembled and tested, installed without supply air ducts and without connecting any refrigerant

containing parts. This definition shall not include an absorption unit.

a. portable cooling unit

b.portable evaporative cooler

c.cooling unit

d. evaporative cooler

121. An evaporative cooler that discharges the conditioned air directly into the conditioned area

without the use of ducts and can be readily transported from place to place without dismantling

any portion thereof.

a. evaporative cooler

b.portable evaporative cooler

c.portable cooling unit

d. none of these

122. A heating appliance designed for environmental heating that may have a self-contained fuel

supply and is not secured or attached to a building by any means other than by a factory installed

power supply cord.


b.portable evaporative unit

c.portable heating appliance

d. none of these

123. Ventilating equipment that can be readily transported from place to place without dismantling a

portion thereof and that is not connected to a duct.


b.portable evaporative unit

c. portable hating appliance

d. portable ventilating equipment

124. A compressor in which increase in pressure is attained by change.

a. positive displacement compressor


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b.negative displacement compressor

c.negative displacement evaporator

d. positive displacement evaporator

125. One or more power steam boilers or power hot power boilers and connecting piping and vesels

within the same premises.

a. power steam boiler

b.power boiler plant

c. power steam plant

d. all of these

126. The maximum working pressure for which a specific part of a refrigeration system is designed.

a. minimum pressure design

b.maximum pressure design

c.pressure design

d. none of these

127. A test performed in the field to prove system tightness.

a. pressure, stress test

b.pressure, hardness test

c.pressure, tightness test

d. pressure, field test

128. A device or portion of the equipment used for the purpose of increasing the pressure of the

refrigerant vapor.

a. pressure imposing element

b.pressure limiting device

c. pressure relief device

d. none of these

129. A pressure responsive mechanism designed to automatically stop the operation of the pressure

imposing element at a predetermined pressure.

a. pressure relief device


c.pressure imposing element

d. none of these

130. A pressure actuated valve or rupture member or fusible plug designed to automatically relieve

excessive pressure.

a. pressure imposing element


c.pressure relief device


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d. none of these

131. The minimum gauge pressure to which a specific system component is subjected under test

condition.

a. pressure, tightness test

b.pressure, field test

c. pressure, stress test

d. pressure test

132. A refrigerant containing receptacle that is a portion of a refrigeration system, but shall not

include evaporators, headers, or piping of certain limited size and capacity.

a. pressure vessel- refrigerant

b.pressure duct- refrigerant

c. pressure pipe- refrigerant

d. none of these

133. A competent and capable person or company that has met the requirements and training for a

given field acceptable to the Authority having jurisdiction. [NFPA 96:3.3.38]

a. certified

b.qualified

c.acceptable

d. none of these

134. A heater designed to transfer heat primarily by direct radiation.

a. low heater

b.high heater

c.radiant heater

d. none of these

135. A vessel permanently connected to a refrigeration system by inlet and outlet pipes for storage

of liquid.

a. receiver, liquid

b.receiver, steam

c.receiver, vapor

d. none of these

136. A space designed to safety house compressors and pressure vessels.

a. refrigeration room or space

b.refrigeration system, mechanical

c.refrigeration machinery room

d. none of these


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137. A room or space in which an evaporator or brine coil is located for the purpose of reducing or

controlling the temperature within the room or space to below 68 F (20 C).

a. refrigeration system, mechanical

b.refrigeration unit

c.refrigeration machinery room

d. refrigeration room or space

138. A heat operated closed refrigeration cycle in which a secondary fluid, the absorbent, absorbs a

primary fluid, the refrigerant that has been vaporized in the evaporator.

a. refrigeration system, absorption


c.refrigeration system, selfcontained

d. none of these

139. A combination of interconnected refrigerant containing parts constituting one closed

refrigerant circuit in which a refrigerant is circulated for the purpose of extracting heat and in

which a compressor is used for compressing the refrigerant vapor.

a. refrigeration system, selfcontained

b. refrigeration system, mechanical

c.refrigeration system, absorption

d. none of these

140. A complete factory assembled and tested system that is shipped in one or more sections and

has no refrigerant containing parts that are joined in the field by other than companion or block

valves.

a. refrigeration system, absorption


c.refrigeration system, selfcontained

d. none of these

141. A building or portion thereof designed or used for human habitation.

a. residential building

b. industrial building

c.commercial building

d. none of these

142. A duct that extends at an angle of more than forty-five (45) degrees (0.79 rad) from the

horizontal. His definition shall not include any boot connection.

a. riser heat pipe

b.vertical heat pipe

c.horizontal heat pipe

d. diagonal heat pipe


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143. A freestanding, non-recessed, environmental heating appliance installed in the space being

heated and not connected to ducts.

a. portable heater

b. room heater

c.room heater, unvented

d. none of these

144. An unvented, self-contained, freestanding, non-recessed, fuel gas burning appliance for

furnishing warm air by gravity of fan circulation to the space in which installed, directly from the

heater without duct connection.

a. portable heater

b. room heater


d. none of these

145. A pressure relief device that operates by the rupture of a diaphragm within the device on a rise

to a predetermined pressure.

a. rupture device

b. rupture detector

c.rupture pressure

d. rupture member

146. Having all essential working parts, except energy and control connections, so contained in a case

or framework that they do not depend on appliances or fastenings outside of the machine.

a. selfcontained

b. rupture member


d. none of these

147. An interior space enclosed by walls or construction extending through one or more stories or

basements that connects openings in successive floors, or floors and roof, to accommodate

elevators, dumbwaiters, mechanical equipment, or similar devices to transmit light or ventilation

air.

a. axle

b. shaft

c.rotor

d. none of these

148. The walls or construction forming the boundaries of a shaft.

a. enclosure

b. shaft

c.shaft enclosure


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d. none of these

149. An approved device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion.

a. light detector

b. smoke detector

c.fire detector

d. none of these

150. A self-contained package or factory matched packages that constitute an automatically

operated assembly of integrated systems for generating useful electrical energy and recoverable

energy that is permanently connected and fixed in place.

a. stationary fuel cell power plant

b. self-contained fuel cell power plant

c.stationary fuel cell generator

d. self-contained fuel cell generator

151. The highest stress level that the component can tolerate without rupture.

a. strength, endurance

b. strength, ultimate

c.strength, yield

d. none of these

152. The rate of outdoor airflow required at the ventilation system outdoor air intake.

a. system contained airflow

b. system indoor airflow

c.system outdoor airflow (Vot)

d. none of these

153. A heating appliance designed for non-residential space heating and equipped with an integral

means for circulation of air.

a. portable heater

b. room heater

c.radiant heater

d. unit heater

154. A pressure actuated valve held closed by a spring or other means ad designed to automatically

relieve pressure in excess of its setting; also called safety valve.

a. valve, pressure relief

b. valve, three-way-type stop

c.valve, pressure relief

d. none of these


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155. A device in a piping system to shut off the flow of the fluid.


b. valve, stop

c.valve, three-way-type stop

d. valves, companion or block

156. A manually operated valve with one inlet that alternately can stop flow to either of two outlets.


b. valves, companion or block

c.valve, three-way-type stop

d. valve, stop

157. Pairs of mating stop valves valving off sections of refrigeration systems and arranged so that

these sections maybe joined before opening these valves or separated after closing them.

a. valve, three-way-type stop

b. valve, pressure relief

c.valve, stop

d. valves, companion or block

158. A listed factory made vent pipe and vent fittings for conveying flue gases to the outside

atmosphere.

a. vent

b. type BW gas vent

c.type B gas vent

d. vent connector, gas

159. A factory made gas vent listed by a nationally recognized testing agency for venting listed or

approved appliances equipped to burn only gas.

a. vent connector, gas

b. type B gas vent

c.type BW gas vent

d. none of these

160. A factory made gas vent listed by a nationally recognized testing agency for venting listed or

approved gas fired vented wall furnaces.

a. vent connector, gas

b.type B gas vent

c.type BW gas vent

d. none of these

161. That portion of a gas venting system that connects a listed gas appliance to a gas vent and is

installed within the space or area in which the appliance is located.


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a. vent

b. vent connector, gas

c.vented decorative appliance

d. none of these

162. A vented appliance whose only function is providing anaesthetic effect of flames.

a. vent

b. vented decorative appliance

c.vent connector, gas

d. none of these

163. A vented environmental heating appliance designed for incorporation in, or permanent

attachment to, a wall, floor, ceiling, or partition and arranged to furnished heated air by gravity or

by a fan. This definition shall not include floor furnaces, unit heaters, and room heaters.

a. vented wall furnace

b. ventilating wall

c.ventilating floor

d. ventilating ceiling

164. A suspended ceiling containing many small apertures through which air, at low pressure, is

forced downward from an over-head plenum dimensioned by the concealed space between the

suspended ceiling and the floor or roof above.

a. ventilation unit

b. ventilating wall

c.ventilating floor

d. ventilating ceiling

165. All of that equipment intended or installed for the purpose of supplying air to, or removing air

from, any room or space by mechanical means other than equipment that is a portion of an

environmental heating, cooling, absorption, or evaporative cooling system.

a. venting system- gravity type

b. ventilating system

c.venting system- power type

d. none of these

166. A system that depends entirely on the heat from the fuel being used to provide the energy

required to vent an appliance.

a. ventilating system

b. venting system- gravity type

c.venting system- power type

d. none of these


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167. A system that depends on a mechanical device to provide a positive draft within the venting

system.

a. ventilating system

b. venting system- power type

c.venting system- gravity type

d. none of these

168. The volume as determined from internal dimensions of the container, with no allowance for the

volume of the internal parts.

a. volume, external gross

b. volume, internal gross

c.warm air furnace

d. none of these

169. An environmental heating appliance designed or arranged to discharge heated air through any

duct or ducts this definition shall not include a unit heater.

a. volume, external gross

b. volume, internal gross

c.warm air furnace

d. none of these

170. A blend comprising multiple components of different volatiles that when used in refrigeration

cycles change volumetric composition and saturation temperatures as they evaporate or

condense at constant pressure.

a. zeotrope

b.warm air furnace

c.internal gross

d. none of these

171. Is a hoisting and lowering mechanism with a platform that at some elevation is a stage or a part

of a stage, such as an orchestra pit.

a. stage lift

b. zeotrope

c.warm air furnace

d. none of these

172. Switching of circuits by means of solid state devices.

a. warm air furnace

b. zeotrope

c. stage lift

d. static switching


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173. The automatic device used to actuate the control to slow and stop an elevator or dumpwaiter

car at any landing.

a. stopping device, elevator landing

b. stopping devices, normal

c.static switching

d. none of these

174. A button or other device located at an elevator landing which when activated causes the

elevator car to stop at that floor.

a. stage lift

b. static switching

c.stopping devices, normal

d. stopping device, elevator landing

175. The piping for a hydraulic elevator between the control valves and the driving member of the

driving machine.

a. hydraulic piping

b. supply piping

c.control piping

d. none of these

176. A device which automatically reduces the speed as a car approaches a terminal landing,

independently of the functioning of the operating device, and the normal terminal stopping

device, if the latter fails to slow down the car is intended.

a. terminal stopping device, final

b. terminal stopping device, normal

c.terminal speed limiting device, emergency

d. terminal stopping device, emergency

177. A final terminal stopping device operated directly by the driving machine.

a. terminal stopping device, emergency

b. terminal stopping device, machine final

c.terminal stopping device, normal

d. terminal stopping device, final

178. The toothed portion of a threshold plate designed to mesh with a grooved treadway surface.

a. threshold comb, moving walk

b. threshold plate, moving walk

c.threshold comb, stationary

d. threshold plate, stationary


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179. That portion of the landing adjacent to the treadway consisting of one or more stationary or

slightly movable plates.

a. threshold comb, moving walk

b. threshold plate, moving walk

c.threshold comb, stationary


180. A panel or panels used to close a hoistway enclosure opening above a hoistway entrance.

a. traveling cable

b. travel or rise

c. transom


181. The vertical distance between the bottom terminal landing and the top terminal landing of an

elevator, dumbwaiter, escalator and inclined lift.

a. traveling cable

b. travelorrise

c. transom


182. A cable made up of electric conductors which provide electrical connection between an elevator

or dumbwaiter car and fixed connection in the hoistway.

a. travelingcable

b. travel or rise

c. transom


183. The passenger-carrying member of a moving walk.

a. treadway, moving walk

b. truck-zoning device, elevator

c. truck zone, elevator

d. unlocking zone

184. A device which will permit the operator in the car to move a freight elevator within the truck

zone with the car door or gate and a hoistway door or gate open.




d. unlocking zone

185. The limited distance above an elevator landing within which the truck zoning devicepermits

movement of the elevator car.


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d. unlocking zone

186. A zone extending from the landing floor level to a point not less than 3 in. (457 mm) above or a

below the landing.




d. unlocking zone

187. A shape of groove used on the drive sheave of a double wrap traction machine, approximately a

semicircle, with a radius approximately equal to the diameter of the hoist rope.

a. v-groove

b. u-groove

c.c-groove

d. w-groove

188. A process of removing, by sawing or scrapping, part of the mica until it is under the surface of

the copper of a commutator.

a. grooving

b. undercutting

c.annealing

d. tempering

189. A modified v-groove which has the lower sides cut in the shape of u.

a. undercut u-groove

b. u-groove

c.annealing u-groove

d. tempering u-groove

190. Memory lost when operating power is removed.

a. operating memory

b. power memory

c.volatile memory

d. lost memory

191. One form of traction sheave groove which is contoured in the shape of a straight-sided, flat

bottom v.

a. v-groove

b. sheave v-groove


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c.contoured v-groove

d. traction v-groove

192. A small glass panel located in the entrance doors to permit the passengers or attendant to see

when the car has reached the landing.

a. entrance panel

b. landing panel

c.door panel

d. vision panel

193. An indicator which shows at which landings and for which direction elevator hall stop-or-signal

calls have been registered and are unanswered.

a. direction indicator

b. landing indicator

c.waiting-passenger indicator

d. stop-or-signal indicator

194. So constructed or protected that exposure to the weather will not interfere with its successful

operation.

a. fire proof

b. weather proof

c.climate proof

d. interfere proof

195. An assembly consisting of a surrounding frame and one or more sashes, ventilators, or fixed

lights, or a combination of these, designed to be installed in a wall opening for the purpose of

admitting light or air or both.

a. door

b. window

c.ceiling

d. floor

196. The pressure measured at the cylinder of a hydraulic elevator when lifting car and its rated load

at rated speed, or with Class C-2 loading when levelling up with maximum static load.

a. workingpressure

b. yield strength

c.ultimatepressure

d. pressure

197. The tensile stress that is sufficient to produce a permanent deformation of 0.2%

a. working pressure

b. yieldstrength


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c.ultimatepressure

d. pressure

198. A manually operated device that initiates he action of controls or controllers.

a. antirunaway (safety stop)

b. bracing

c.backstop

d. actuator

199. A safety device to stop and hold the uncontrolled descent of a platform or carrier.


b. bracing

c.backstop

d. actuator

200. A mechanical device to prevent reversal of a loaded vertical or inclined reciprocating conveyor

under action of gravity when upward travel is interrupted.


b. bracing

c.backstop

d. actuator

201. Structural members used to stabilize the supporting structure.


b. bracing

c.backstop

d. actuator

202. A friction device for slowing down conveyor components, bringing conveyor equipment to a

controlled stop, holding travelling equipment at a selected landing, preventing reverse travel, and

controlling overspeed due to the action of gravity.

a. brake

b. controller

c.counterweight

d. emergency stop

203. The moving part of a vertical or inclined reciprocating conveyor that supports the load.

a. carrier or platform

b. controller

c.counterweight

d. emergency stop


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a. natural gas

b. fuel gas

c.refrigerant gas

d. sewage gas

211. Include natural gas, liquefied petroleum gases, coke-oven gas, coal gas, oil gas, carburetted

water gas, water gas, producer gas, and blast-furnace gas.

a. natural gas

b. fuel gas

c.refrigerant gas

d. sewage gas

212. A number of the common refrigerants, such as ammonia, methyl chloride, ethyl chloride, methyl

bromide, and ethyl bromide, have varying degrees of flammability.

a. natural gas

b. fuel gas

c.refrigerant gas

d. sewage gas

213. Results from the fermentation or decomposition of organic matter.

a. natural gas

b. fuel gas

c.refrigerant gas

d. sewage gas

214. Pipes located below the public sewer shall discharge into a sump or receiving tank.

a. building drains

b. areaway drains

c.window areaway drains

d. paved drains

215. Shall be provided in all open subsurface space adjacent to a building and serving as an entrance

to the basement of a building.

a. building drains

b. areaway drains


d. paved drains

216. When surface water drainage sloped is to use to drain water, the sumps, gratings, or floor drains

that collect the water shall be piped to a storm drain or an approved water course.

a. building drains

b. areaway drains


38/68


d. paved drains

217. Gas used in a medical facility, including oxygen, nitrous oxide, carbon dioxide, helium, medical

air, and mixtures of these gases. Standards of purity apply.

a. medical gas

b. medical air

c.medical gas system

d. manifold

218. The pipe from the source of supply to a building or structure.

a. building supply

b. structure pipe

c.building pipe

d. structure supply

219. A device for connecting outlets of one or more gas cylinders to the central piping system for that

specific gas. [NFPA 99 22]

a. medical gas

b. medical air

c.medical gas system

d. manifold

220. Any portion of a healthcare facility wherein patients are intended to be examined or treated.

[NFPA 99 22]

a. patient care area

b. purge, flow

c.purge, system

d. special hazard area

221. The removal oxygen from a system by oil free dry nitrogen during brazing.


b. purge, flow

c.purge, system


222. The removal of nitrogen from a system with the medical gas required for that system.


b. purge, flow

c.purge, system



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223. An area such as a kitchen or electrical switchgear room.


b. purge, flow

c.purge, system


224. An inlet point in a medical surgical piped vacuum distribution system at which the user makes

connections and disconnections. [NFPA 99 3.3.171]

a. station inlet

b. station outlet

c.use inlet

d. use outlet

225. An inlet point in a piped medical/surgical vacuum distribution system at which the user makes

connections and disconnections. [NFPA 3.3.167]

a. station inlet

b. station outlet

c.use inlet

d. use outlet

226. A room or area of a room where medical gases are dispensed to a single patient for medica

purposes.

a. high point

b. low point

c.use point

d. work point

227. A valve that isolates one piece of equipment from another.

a. valve, isolation

b. valve, riser

c.valve, service

d. valve, zone

228. A valve at the base of a vertical riser that isolates that riser.

a. valve, isolation

b. valve, riser

c.valve, service

d. valve, zone

229. A valve serving horizontal piping extending from a riser to a station outlet or inlet.

a. valve, isolation

b. valve, riser


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c.valve, service

d. valve, zone

230. A single valve at the source that controls a number of units that makes up the source.

a. valve, isolation

b. valve, riser

c.valve, source

d. valve, zone

231. A valve that controls the gas or vacuum to a particular area.

a. valve, isolation

b. valve, riser

c.valve, service

d. valve, zone

232. A fire alarm system component such as bell, horn, speaker, light, or text display that provides

audible, tactile, or visible outputs, or any combination thereof.

a. fire alarm signal

b. fire alarm control unit

c.alarm notification appliance

d. alarm signal

233. A signal indicating an emergency requiring immediate action, such as signal indicative of fire.




d. alarm signal

234. A system component that receives inputs from automatic and manual fire alarm devices and is

capable of supplying power to detection devices and transponder(s) of transmitter(s).


b.fire alarm control unit


d. alarm signal

235. A signal initiated by a fire alarm-initiating device such as manual fire alarm box, automatic fire

detector, water-flow switch, or other device whose activation is indicative of the presence of a fire

of a fire signature.




d. alarm signal


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42/68

242. A system or portion of a combination system consisting of components and circuits arranged to

monitor and annunciate the status of fire alarm or supervisory signal-initiating devices and to

initiate the appropriate response to those signals.

a. clean agent

b. deluge system

c.detector, heat

d. fire alarm system

243. Apparatus or equipment provided or installed/ or use in the event of an emergency.

a. fire appliance

b. fire area

c.fire detector, automatic

d. fire protection system

244. The aggregate floor area enclosed and bounded by fire walls, fire barriers, exterior walls, or fire-

resistance-rated horizontal assemblies of a building.

a. fire appliance

b. fire area



245. A device designed to detect the presence of a fire signature and to initiate action.

a. fire appliance

b. fire area



246. Approved devices, equipment and systems or combinations of systems used to detect a fire,

activate an alarm, extinguish or control a fire, control a manage smoke and products of a fire or

any combination thereof.

a. fire appliance

b. fire area



247. Building and fire control functions that are intended to increase the level of life safety for

occupants or to control the spread of the harmful effects of fire.

a. impairment coordinator

b. halogenated extinguishing system

c.foam-extinguishing system

d. fire safety functions


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248. A special system discharging a foam made from concentrates, either mechanically or chemically,

over the area to provide protection.





249. A fire extinguishing system using one or more atoms of an element from the halogen chemical

series: fluorine, chlorine, bromine, and iodine.





250. The person responsible for the maintenance of a particular fire protection system.


b. fire coordinator

c.maintenance coordinator

d. fireman

251. A system component that originates transmission of a change-of-state condition such as in a

smoke detector, manual fire alarm box, or supervisory switch.

a. initiating device

b. halogenated extinguishing device

c.foam-extinguishing device

d. fire safety device

252. A manually-operated fire device used to initiate an alarm signal.

a. nuisance alarm

b. multiple-station smoke alarm

c.multiple-station alarm device

d. manual fire alarm box

253. Two or more single-station alarm devices that can be interconnected such that the actuation of

one causes all integral or separate audible alarms to operate. It can also consist of one single-

station alarm device having connections to other detectors or to a manual fire alarm box.

a. nuisance alarm





44/68

254. Two or more single-station devices that is capable of interconnection such that actuation of one

causes all integral or separate audible alarms to operate.

a. nuisance alarm




255. An alarm caused by mechanical failure, malfunction, improper installation, of lack of proper

maintenance, or an alarm activated by a cause that cannot be determined.

a. nuisance alarm




256. Drawings (as builds) that document the location of all devices, appliances, wiring sequences,

wiring methods, and connections of the components of a fire alarm system as installed.

a. nuisance drawing

b. multiple-station smoke drawing

c.multiple-station alarm drawing

d. record drawings

257. An assembly incorporating the detector, the control equipment, and the alarm-sounding device

in one unit, operated from a power supply either in the unit or obtained at the point of

installation.

a. nuisance alarm



d. single-station smoke alarm

258. A room or a space in which people sleep, which can also include permanent provisions for living,

eating and either sanitation or kitchen facilities but not both. Such rooms and spaces that are also

part of a dwelling unit are not sleeping units.

a. sleeping unit

b. maintenance unit

c.storage unit

d. sanitation unit

259. A single or multiple-station alarm responsive to smoke and not connected to a system.

a. supervisory service

b. supervising station

c.smoke detector

d. smoke alarm


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260. A listed device that senses visible or invisible particles of combustion.



c.smoke detector

d. smoke alarm

261. A facility that receives signals and at which personnel are in attendance at all times to respond

to these signals.



c.smoke detector

d. supervisory signal initiating device

262. The service required to monitor performance of guard tours and the operative condition of fixed

suppression systems or other systems for the protection of life and property.



c.smoke detector


263. A signal indicating the need of action in connection with the supervision of guard tours, the fire

suppression systems or equipment, or the maintenance features of related systems.


b. supervisory signal

c.smoke detector


264. A signal initiated by the fire alarm system or device indicative of a fault in a monitored circuit or

component.

a. supervisory signal

b. trouble signal

c.wireless protection system


265. A notification appliance that alerts through the sense of sight.

a. zone

b. wireless protection system

c.wet-chemical extinguishing agent

d. visible alarm notification appliance

266. A solution of water and potassium-carbonate-based chemical, potassium-acetate-based

chemical or a combination thereof, fanning an extinguishing agent.


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a. zone


c.wet-chemical extinguishing agent

d. visible alarm notification appliance

267. A system or a part of a system that can transmit and receive signals without the aid of wire.

a. zone


c.wireless receiver

d. wireless connection zone

268. A defined area within the protected premises.

a. zone

b. fire area

c.storage room

d. maintenance room

269. A service tank used in agriculture for applying anhydrous ammonia to the soil, or for other

agricultural uses.

a. applicator tank

b. appurtenance tank

c.storage tank

d. artificial tank

270. A device installed on and used in the normal operation of the vessel. This includes, but is not

limited to, safety relief devices, liquid level gauging devices, valves, and pressure gauges.

a. applicator tank

b.appurtenance

c.appurtenance heat

d. artificial heat

271. Any heat other than solar or atmospheric heat.

a. heat transfer

b. wind heat

c.solar heat

d. artificial heat

272. A pipe failure mode which exhibits no visible (to the naked eye) material deformation

(stretching, elongation, or necking down) in the area of the break.

a. brittle failure

b. ductile failure

c.a and b


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d. none of these

273. A pipe failure mode which exhibits material deformation (stretching, elongation, or necking

down) in the area of the break.

a. brittle failure

b. ductile failure

c.a and b

d. none of these

274. Certification issued by the Division to persons who have satisfactory passed the written boiler

and pressure vessel inspectors examination prescribed by the Division.

a. certificate of competency

b. certificate of resale inspection

c.certificate of ASTM

d. none of these

275. A certificate issued after a resale inspection and designating the maximum allowable working

pressure for the tank when it is installed in compliance with these orders.

a. certificate of competency

b. certificate of resale inspection

c.certificate of ASTM

d. none of these

276. Storage in vessels other than DOT cylinders.

a. bulk storage

b. container assembly

c.container

d. none of these

277. An assembly consisting essentially of the container and fitting for all container openings,

including shutoff valves, excess flow valves, liquid-level gauging devices, safety relief devices, and

protective housing.

a. bulk storage


c.container

d. none of these

278. Any vessel, including tanks, cylinders, tubes, portable tanks and cargo tanks, used for

transporting or storing any liquid or gas.

a. bulk storage


c.container


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d. trap tank (trap wagon)

285. A tank mounted on wheels for off-highway use and having a capacity of 1200 gallons or less and

used to transport LP-Gas from a storage tank to a mobile fuel tank.

a. nurse tank

b. storage tank

c.transportation tank

d. trap tank (trap wagon)

286. An air tank mounted with an air compressor on a toed vehicle.

a. portable air tank

b. portable LNG tank

c.portable NH3 tank

d. mobile storage tank, MST

287. A service tank not exceeding 2,000-gallon water capacity used to transport LNG.



c.portable NH3 tank


288. A service tank not exceeding 1200-gallons capacity used to transport anhydrous ammonia.



c.portable NH3 tank


289. A tank installed on a trailer or semi-trailer, and used temporarily to receive and store anhydrous

ammonia. Temporarily means not more than 120 days.



c.portable NH3 tank


290. A vessel mounted on a vehicle or other readily portable device and used only to supply fuel to

an internal combustion engine or other equipment secured to the vehicle or device.

a. mobile fuel tank

b. mobile storage module

c.motor fuel tank

d. tank


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291. Assembly of a multiple number of tubes securely fastened within a framework structure and

used in DOT service.

a. mobile fuel tank

b. mobile storage module

c.motor fuel tank

d. tank

292. A recognized architectural or mechanical component of a building having a fire resistance rating

as required for the structure and whose purpose is to enclose the vapor removal duct for its full

length to its termination point outside the structure without any portion of the enclosure having a

fire resistance rating less than the required value. [NFPA 96:3.3.22.1]

a. continues enclosure

b. factorybuilt grease enclosure

c.fieldapplied grease duct enclosures

d. none of the these

293. A listed factory built grease duct enclosure system evaluated for reduced clearances to

combustibles, as an alternative to a duct with its fire rated enclosure. [NFPA 96:3.3.22.1]



c. fieldapplied grease duct enclosures


294. A listed system evaluated for reduced clearances to combustibles, and as an alternative to a

duct with its fire rated enclosure. [NFPA 96:3.3.22.2.2]



c. fieldapplied grease duct enclosures


295. Material subject to an increase in combustibility or flame spread rating beyond the limits

established in the definition of Limited Combustible Material.

a. combustible materials

b. non-combustible materials

c.flammable vapor or fumes


296. A material that, in the form in which it is used and under the conditions anticipated, will not

ignite, burn, support combustion, or release flammable vapors when subjected to fire or heat.



c. flammable vapor or fumes


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297. The concentration of flammable constituents in air that exceeds twenty-five percent (25%) of its

Lower Flammability Limit (LFL).



c. flammable vapor or fumes


298. Are movable component of the grease removal system designed to capture grease and direct it

to a safe collection point before it enters a duct system.

a. grease filter

b. grease filter, mesh-type

c.secondary filtration


299. A general air purpose air filter designed to collect and retain lint and grease from the air passing

through it.

a. grease filter


c.secondary filtration


300. Fume incinerators, thermal conductivity units, air pollution control devices or other filtration

media installed in ducts or hoods located in the path of travel of exhaust products after the initial

filtration.

a. grease filter


c. secondary filtration


301. A valve or plate within a duct or its terminal components for controlling draft or the flow of

gasses, including air. [NFPA 96:3.3.15]

a. damper

b. dips

c.fire partition

d. greasetight

302. Depression or cup like places in horizontal ducts runs in which liquids could accumulate. [NFPA

96:3.3.17]

a. damper

b. dips


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c.fire partition

d. greasetight

303. An interior wall or partition of a building that separates two areas and serves to restrict the

spread of fire but does not qualify as a firewall.

a. damper

b. dips

c. fire partition

d. greasetight

304. Constructed and performing in such a manner as not to permit the passage of any grease under

normal cooking. [NFPA 96:3.3.8.1]

a. damper

b. dips

c.fire partition

d. grease tight

305. The supporting frame to which the car platform, upper and lower sets of guide shoes, car safety

and hoisting ropes or rope sheaves of a cable elevator are usually attached or the plunger or

cylinder of a direct plunger elevator are attached.

a. car frame (sling)

b. frame, overslung

c.car frame, underslug

d. car frame, sub-post

306. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope sheaves are attached to the

crosshead or top member of the car frame.


b. frame, overslung



307. A car frame to which the hoisting rope fastenings or hoisting rope sheaves are attached at or

below the car platform.


b. frame, overslung

c. car frame, underslug


308. A car frame, all of whose members are located below the car platform.


b. frame, overslung


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309. A car frame sufficiently offset from the center of the platform to require special design and

construction not covered by the formulas in Article 18.


b. frame, overslung


d. none of these

310. The operation of advancing the elevator drives motor speed from zero to normal operating

speed.

a. acceleration

b. velocity

c.speed

d. none of the above

311. The portion of a sheave contacted by a rope. Measured in degrees of contact.

a. angle of contact

b. angle of inclination

c.angle of sheave


312. An electrical device, the function of which is to prevent the operation of the driving machine by

the normal operating device unless the car door or gate is in the closed position.

a. car door or gate power closer

b. car door or gate electric contact

c.car door or gate power closed

d. car, elevator

313. A device or assembly of devices which closes a manually opened car door or gate by power

other than by hand, gravity, springs, or the movement of the car.




d. car, elevator

314. A door or gate which is closed by a door or gate power operator.



c. car door or gate power closed

d. car, elevator


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315. The load-carrying unit, including its platform, car frame, enclosure, and car door or gate.




d. car, elevator

316. The structure which forms the floor of the car and which directly supports the load.

a. car platform

b. car platform, laminated

c.car platform frame


317. A self-supporting platform constructed of plywood with a bonded steel sheet facing on both top

and bottom surfaces.

a. car platform




318. A structure frame, composed of interconnecting members, which supports the car platform

floor.

a. car platform


c. car platform frame


319. The movable portion(s) of the car entrance which closes the opening, providing access to the car

or landings.

a. car platform




320. Any person who has been determined by the Authority Having Jurisdiction to have the

qualifications and ability of a competent conveyance inspector and is certified as a CCCI by the

Authority Having Jurisdiction.

a. Certified Competent Conveyance Mechanic

b. Certified Competent Conveyance Inspector

c.Certified Qualified Conveyance Company



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321. Any person who has been determined by the Authority Having Jurisdiction to have the

qualifications and ability of a competent journey-level elevator mechanic and is certified as a

CCCM by the Authority Having Jurisdiction.



c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company


322. Any person, firm, or corporation that, (1) possesses a valid elevator contractors license

accredited by the PCAB, and (2) is certified as a CQCC



c. Certified Qualified Conveyance Company


323. The clear vertical distance from the pit floor to the lowest structural or mechanical part,

equipment or device installed beneath the car platform, except guide shoes or rollers, safety jaw

assemblies and platform aprons or guards, or other equipment located within 12 inches

horizontally from the edge of the platform, when the car rests on its fully compressed buffer.

a. clearance, bottom car

b. clearance, top car

c.clearance, top counterweight


324. The shortest vertical distance between the tip of the car crosshead, or between the top of the

car whichever is higher, and the nearest part of the overhead structure or any other obstryction

when the car floor is level with top terminal landing.



c.clearance, top counterweight


325. The shortest vertical distance between any part of the counterweight structure and the nearest

part of the overhead structure or any other obstruction when the car floor is level with the

bottom terminal landing.



c. clearance, top counterweight


326. Wire rope which does not pass over the driving means and is used to connect the car and

counterweight.


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a. rope, car-counterweight

b. rope, compensating

c.rope, counterweight

d. rope, governor

327. Wire rope used to counterbalance, or partially counterbalance, the weight of the suspension

ropes.




d. rope, governor

328. Wire rope used to raise and lower the counterweight or an electric elevator having a winding

drum machine or a hydraulic elevator equipped with a counterweight.



c. rope, counterweight

d. rope, governor

329. Wire rope with at least one end fastened to the safety activating means or governor rope

releasing carrier, passing over and driving the governor sheave, and providing continuous

information on the speed and direction of the car of counterweight.




d. rope, governor

330. Wire roped used to raise and lower an elevator car or its counterweight, or both.

a. rope suspension (hoisting)

b. rope equalizer, suspension

c.rope-fastening device, auxiliary

d.rope sprocket drive

331. A device installed on an elevator car or counterweight to equalize automatically the tensions in

the hoisting wire ropes.





332. A device attached to the car or counterweight or to the overhead dead-end rope hitch support

which will function automatically to support the car or counterweight in case the regular wire


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rope fastening fails at the point of connection to the car or counterweight or at the overhead

dead-end hitch.



c. rope-fastening device, auxiliary


333. A driving means consisting of wire rope which fixed links at constant intervals throughout its

length.




d. rope sprocket drive

334. The distance between the car buffer striker plate and the striking surface of the car buffer when

the car floor is level with the bottom terminal landing.

a. runby, bottom elevator car

b. runby, bottom elevator counterweight

c.runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator

d.none of these

335. The distance between the counterweight buffer striker plate and the striking surface of the

counterweight buffer when the car floor is level with the top terminal landing.



c.runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator

d.none of these

336. The distance the elevator car can run above its top terminal landing before the plunger strikes

its mechanical stop.



c. runby, top, direct-plunger hydraulic elevator

d.none of these

337. A closure at the bottom of the cylinder head and provided with an orifice for controlling the loss

of fluid in the event of the cylinder head failure.



c.runby, top, Direct-plunger hydraulic elevator

d. none of these


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338. Unit of frequency.

a. hertz

b. farad

c.ohm

d. siemens

339. Unit of capacitance.

a. hertz

b. farad

c.ohm

d. siemens

340. Unit of electric resistance.

a. hertz

b. farad

c. ohm

d. siemens

341. Unit of conductance.

a. hertz

b. farad

c.ohm

d. siemens

342. Unit of absorbed dose.

a. gray

b. becquerel

c.lux

d. lumen

343. Unit of activity (of radionuclides)

a. gray

b. becquerel

c.lux

d. lumen

344. Unit of luminance.

a. gray

b. becquerel

c. lux

d. lumen


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345. Unit of luminous flux.

a. gray

b. becquerel

c.lux

d. lumen

346. Unit of inductance.

a. henry

b. tesla

c.weber

d. coulomb

347. Unit of magnetic flux density.

a. henry

b. tesla

c.weber

d. coulomb

348. Unit of magnetic flux.

a. henry

b. tesla

c. weber

d. coulomb

349. Unit of quantity of electricity, electric charge.

a. henry

b. tesla

c.weber

d. coulomb

350. Unit of energy, work, quantity of heat.

a. joule

b. volt

c. watt

d. newton

351. Unit of electric potential, potential difference, electromotive force.

a. joule

b. volt

c. watt

d. newton


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Documents

Roldan, Mc (400 Questions)