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1. A client comes to you complaining of pain in his right shoulder, he can't lay on the affected side and pain is most sever at night. The pain is at the insertion of the deltoid and also has some pain in the elbow. What condition would you treat your client for?

Your Answer: Incorrect

Correct Answer is: Frozen shoulder

These are symptoms of Acute frozen shoulder, pain is gradual and stiffness is progressive. The acute stage can last 2 to 9 months. In intake interview check for anti-inflammatories.

2. Which of these is a reason for a suspension of your license?


Correct Answer is: All of the above

All of the listed answers are reasons for a suspension of your license.

3. The Society of Trained Masseuses was formed in:


Correct Answer is: 1894

The Society of Trained Masseuses was formed in 1894. 4. The three structural joint types are synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, and diarthrotic, what joints are amphiarthotic?


Correct Answer is: Pubic symphysis and intervertebral bodies

Joint Function / Structure: Synarthrotic / Fibrous, Amphiarthrotic / Cartilaginous, Diarthrotic / Synovial. (SAD) Fibrous (S), cartilaginous (A) and Synovial (D). Amphiarthotic are the pubic symphysis and intervertebral bodies.

5. Where can you find the patellar tendon?


Correct Answer is: Inferior to the patella

Patellar tendon or Ligament is inferior to the patella. Just superior the seemingly same tendon is called the Quadriceps tendon.

6. What would be the best self-care treatment you could give to your client with chronic plantar fasciitis?


Correct Answer is: Gradually return to non-weight bearing activities like swimming or bicycling and cold hydro to control inflammation

You can also have your client heat their calf muscles before activity along with stretches after heat and after activity. Make sure changes in footwear and non-weight bearing activities are encouraged for proper healing.

7. What type of ROM testing is used to pinpoint adhesions?


Correct Answer is: Active resisted

In AR isometric exercise, the muscle contracts statically or isometricly, without any visible joint motion or muscle shortening. The client contracts the muscle, stress is placed on it, painfully pulling on the adhesion site where the frictions need to be applied in cross-fiber friction. All other answers are not ROM tests. Adson's assesses for thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS). Babinski's tests for spasticity within the central nervous system lesions. Bragard's assesses for meniscal tearing.

8. The superior third of the vertebral border and the superior angle of the scapula is the insertion site for which muscle?


Correct Answer is: Levator scapula

The superior third of the vertebral border and superior angle of the scapula is the insertion site for the levator scapula.

9. Of the following groups of muscles choose the group that ABducts and ADducts the scapula?


Correct Answer is: ABduct: serratus anterior and pectoralis minor, ADduct: rhomboid major and minor

The two scapula ABductors: Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. The three scapula ADductors: Trapezius (middle), rhomboid major and minor.

10. Of the following epithelial membranes, which is exposed to air and is dry?


Correct Answer is: Cutaneous membrane

The cutaneous membrane is your skin, the superficial epidermis composed of keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium and exposed to air being a dry membrane. Mucous membranes line all body cavities that open to the exterior (hollow organs; respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive tracts) and is wet. Serous occur in pairs= parietal and visceral membranes line ventral body cavities closed to the exterior.

11. Which organ system is in charge of regulating body temperature and preventing water loss?


Correct Answer is: The Integumentary System

The Integumentary System is made up of the skin, hair, nails, and sweat glands. Protecting the body, producing Vitamin D precursors, and preventing water loss are just a few functions of the Integumentary system.

12. In order to align connective tissue, what technique is used?


Correct Answer is: Cross fiber friction over ligaments and tendons

Bringing blood to the area along with aligning the fibers as they are in repair, will produce better function in the repaired ligament or tendon, and less scar tissue. The non-swedish technique is Cross-Fiber Friction, it is also known as the Cyriax Technique, but never called transverse technique.

13. The cervical spines Nuchal ligament is also known as?


Correct Answer is: Ligamentum nuchae

The nuchal ligament is also known as the ligamentum nuchae. It is attached to the occipital protuberance and the spinous processes of C1 to C6, It becomes smaller at C7 and is known as the supraspinous ligament. The Nuchal ligaments job is to limit flexion. The other three cervical ligaments; transverse, apical, and alar are not palpable, but play an important part in stabilizing the joints between the occiput, C1 and C2.

14. What is the term for the posterior vertical ridge on the femur?


Correct Answer is: Linea aspera

The linea aspera is the term for the posterior vertical ridge on the femur. 15. Of the following, which is the best choice for a scope of practice defined as a service provided to enhance the health,

condition, and appearance of skin, hair, and nails?


Correct Answer is: Cosmetology

Cosmetologist scope of practice is a service provided to enhance the health, condition, and appearance of skin, hair, and nails through the use of external preparations that are designed to cleanse and beautify.

16. Sinusitis is a respiratory pathology that is defined as a(n):


Correct Answer is: Acute or chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses

Sinusitis is a respiratory pathology that is an acute or chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses. Chronic bronchitis is a respiratory pathology resulting in the production of purulent sputum for at least three months in a row over a consecutive two years. Emphysema is an enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles and the destruction of the alveolar walls. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder with bronchospasms (narrowing of the airways in the lungs), a condition that is reversible over time or following treatment.

17. What three landmarks do you palpate between to find the muscle belly of the deltoid?


Correct Answer is: Acromion, lateral 1/3 of the clavicle and deltoid tuberosity

The Acromion, lateral 1/3 of the clavicle and deltoid tuberosity forms a "V" shape on the arm. The deltoid is superficial, you should be able to feel the posterior and anterior fibers.

18. During your assessment in a frozen shoulder condition, you note when testing ROM passively, restrictions are felt on:


Correct Answer is: ABduction, medial and lateral rotation

Passive (relaxed) Range of Motion (PROM or PR ROM) tests are done to gather information about the joint capsule and ligaments. Checking for hypo or hypermobility. PROM/PR ROM is limited by pain and restrictions. In frozen shoulder this test will show restrictions in ABduction along with lateral/external rotation, and medial/internal rotation. You may also notice muscle guarding at the end feel.

19. The application of principles, methods, and procedures of understanding, influencing, and predicting behavior for the

purpose of diagnosis for treatment is within which occupation's scope of practice?


Correct Answer is: Psychology

Psychology can be rendered to an individual, group, or an organization and involves the application of principles, methods, and procedures of understanding, influencing, and predicting behavior for the purpose of diagnosis for treatment.

20. What is the term for the enlarged area at the end of large bones?


Correct Answer is: Epiphysis

Epiphysis is the term for the enlarged area at the end of large bones. 21. Which muscle inserts at the acromion process and the lateral 1/3 of the clavicle?


Correct Answer is: Trapezius

The trapezius muscle inserts at the acromion process and lateral 1/3 of the clavicle as well as the spine of the scapula. It originates on the external occipital protuberance, superior medial portion of the nuchal line on th eocciput, ligamentum nuchae and spinous processes C7-T12. The deltoid origanates on the lateral 1/3 clavicle, acromion and spine of scapula.

22. What does Active ROM test?


Correct Answer is: The client's willingness and ability to contract muscles

Passive ROM is done by the practitioner and tests the antagonistic muscles extensibility or stretch. Active ROM is preformed by the client and tests their abilities or willingness to move the agonists or prime mover muscles.

23. Which of the following forms would you file with the IRS if you had a contract with another company and was paid over

$600 for your services?


Correct Answer is: 1099-Misc

A 1099-Misc must be filled out with the IRS regarding information for every company. You should receive the filing information from each company before federal taxes are due. A W-9 must accompany the application or first CMS-1500 form to insure proper paperwork procedures.

24. Where is the infraglenoid tubercle located on the scapula?


Correct Answer is: Lateral border

Located on the superior aspect of the lateral border, and the attachment site for the long head of the triceps brachii, deep to the teres minor and posterior deltoid.

25. Which of the following is not a purpose of the vertebral column?


Correct Answer is: Support the legs

To support the legs is not a purpose of the vertebral column. Rotation, distribution of weight for the trunk, and protecting the spinal cord are all purposes of the vertebral column.

26. What is the point of articulation for the humerus and the ulna?


Correct Answer is: Trochlea

The trochlea is the point of articulation for the humerus and the ulna. 27. Which joint category is freely movable?


Correct Answer is: Diarthrosis

Diarthrosis is one of the categories of joints. A more common term for a diarthrosis joint would be a synovial or freely movable joint. SAD/ Synarthrosis= immovable. Amphiarthrosis= slightly movable. Diarthrosis= Freely movable.

28. When there is a choking or breathing emergency and the person is conscious and unable to cough, speak or breath,

you will need to:


Correct Answer is: Give back blows and abdominal thrusts

If a person is conscious and cannot cough, speak or breath it is safe to assume their airway is blocked. Give back blows and abdominal thrusts to open the airway.

29. Varicose veins is a circulatory condition that is defined as a(n):


Correct Answer is: Abnormally large and bulging vein caused by the impaired function of the venous valves

Varicose (distended or dilated) veins are abnormally large and bulging veins caused by the impaired function of the venous valves. Hypertension is an elevation of blood pressure above the normal range for a prolonged time that increases the risk of stroke or heart attack. Congestive heart failure (heart failure) is the heart's inability to pump sufficient blood to supply the needs of the body. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of a superficial or deep vein that leads to the formation of a thrombus (fibrin-based clot).

30. Why are 8-12 ribs termed false ribs?


Correct Answer is: They do not attach to the sternum

Ribs 8-12 are termed false ribs because they do not attach directly into the sternum. 8-10 connects to the cartilage of the rib above (vertebrochondral) and 11&12 are referred to as floating ribs or vertebral ribs with no anterior attachments.

1. The act of breathing is called?


Correct Answer is: Respiration

Inhalation and exhalation together make respiration, which is breathing. Mechanical ventilation uses artificial methods to assist breathing.

2. ______ consists of plasma and cells?


Correct Answer is: Blood

Blood consists of cells and plasma. 3. What three landmarks do you palpate between to find the muscle belly of the deltoid?


Correct Answer is: Acromion, lateral 1/3 of the clavicle and deltoid tuberosity

The Acromion, lateral 1/3 of the clavicle and deltoid tuberosity forms a "V" shape on the arm. The deltoid is superficial, you should be able to feel the posterior and anterior fibers.

4. Of the following contraindications, which one is acceptable when using light and deep effleurage as a treatment

technique?


Correct Answer is: Neuritis

Light and deep effleurage contraindications: hyperesthesia (multiple injuries), severe pitted edema, and distal to inflammation or infection. Deep effleurage also has two more: newly formed scar tissue and not done repetitively on limbs of those with high blood pressure, varicose veins, or edema caused by a thrombus (clot or block in blood vessels).

5. What is the homeostatic relationship between the respiratory and integumentary systems?


Correct Answer is: A & B both

The respiratory system provides oxygen to the skin cells to remove carbon dioxide through the gas exchange with blood. The integumentary system protects the respiratory organs.

6. While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment

plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a General question?


Correct Answer is: Are there any dietary contributions to the condition?

General questions address the client's overall state of wellbeing. Family history of conditions, diet, exercise, occupation, hobbies, sleeping posture, level of stress, and current/past pathologies or injuries.

7. The autonomic nervous system controls?



The autonomic (involuntary) nervous system (ANS) has sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions that control glands, cardiac, and smooth muscle. The Somatic nervous system contains the CNS, PNS, and effector organs.

8. All of the following conditions are overuse injuries except:


Correct Answer is: Sprain/strain

Overuse injuries include: Plantar fasciitis, periostitis/ compartment syndrome, tendinitis, bursitis, and frozen shoulder. 9. Which muscle originates on the superior portion of the spinous process of the second cervical vertebra?


Correct Answer is: Obliquus capitis inferior

The Obliquus capitis inferior originates on the superior portion of the spinous process on the axis or C2. It inserts on the inferior and posterior aspect of the transverse process of C1.

10. The pulmonary artery begins at _____________ and ends at _______________?


Correct Answer is: Right ventricle / lungs

The pulmonary right and left arteries split from the pulmonary trunk, they carry oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle to the lungs to pick up oxygen and drop off carbon dioxide. From there, four pulmonary veins send the oxygen-rich blood to the left atrium, this process is called pulmonary circulation.

11. Which is the term for the largest bone of the sternum?


Correct Answer is: Body

The body is the term for the largest bone of the sternum. There are 3 fused bones that make up the sternum. The superior portion is the manubrium, just inferior= body of the sternum, and the third is the xiphoid process.

12. Hematopoiesis is defined as?


Correct Answer is: Blood cell formation

Hemato=blood, poiesis= to make. Hematopoiesis is blood cell formation, occurs in the red bone marrow found mainly in flat bones; ribs, skull, pelvis, sternum and the epiphyses on the proximal ends of the humerus and femur.

13. There are four assessment tools used; Visual, Functional, Palpation, and Manual testing for treatment plans. What does

a palpation assessment identify?


Correct Answer is: Changes in tissue texture and temperature

Effective assessments identify both deviations from the norm and effective functioning, using Visual, Functional, Palpation, and Manual tests as tools. Visual assessment: Looks for bilateral symmetry and muscle deviations. Functional assessment is performed to determine restricted, exaggerated, painful movement patterns. Palpation is used to identify changes in tissue texture and temperature, locate areas of tenderness, or energy changes. Manual tests are used to determine what structure is involved, soft tissue, joint dysfunction, or muscle function.

14. The talocrural joint creates what two actions?


Correct Answer is: Plantarflexion and dorsiflexion

The talocrural or true ankle joint, the malleoli of the tibia and fibula articulate with the talus. It is a hinge joint whose only actions are to produce plantarflexion (flexion) and dorsiflexion (extension).

15. Which muscle has its origin at the sternum and the cartilaginous attachments of the upper 6 ribs?


Correct Answer is: Pectoralis major

The pectoralis major (sternal) muscle has its origin at the cartilaginous attachments of the upper 6 ribs. The medial third of the clavicle and the full length of the sternum.

16. Structural postural dysfunctions:


Correct Answer is: Cannot be altered by working with the soft tissue and fascia

Structural postural dysfunctions pertains to altered bone shape due to malformation or pathological process. A Functional postural dysfunction pertains to soft tissue such as the muscles, ligaments, tendons and fascia that may be

shortened or lengthened. Massage can help with functional but not the structural. 17. What is the term for the end of a bone that is farthest away from the trunk?


Correct Answer is: Distal epiphysis

The distal (away from the origin of structure) epiphysis (rounded end of long bone) is the term for the end of a bone that is farthest away from the trunk.

18. Decreasing blood pressure is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?


Correct Answer is: Light and Deep Effleurage

Light effleurage has no mechanical effects. It has 10 reflexive effects and six of them deal with blood flow. + parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory). Deep effleurage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells. Reflexive effects (same as light plus): dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.

19. Which of the following choices transports oxygen to the tissues of the body?


Correct Answer is: Hemoglobin

Hemoglobin is the protein that bonds with oxygen and transports it in the blood. 20. Smooth, Cardiac, and Skeletal are all specialized types of which of the following four types of tissues?


Correct Answer is: Muscle Tissue

Muscle tissue shortens and contracts in a "twitch". There are two ways to describe muscle tissue, voluntary (you have to think about) and involuntary (you do not have to think about). Skeletal muscle is voluntary, smooth and cardiac is involuntary.

21. If pus is found in urine it is called pyuria, what is a possible cause?


Correct Answer is: Urinary tract infection

Pyuria= pus or WBCs and bacteria caused by a urinary tract infection. Bilirubinuria= bile pigment in the urine can be caused by liver disease (hepatitis). Hematuria= RBCs in the urine can be caused by bleeding in the urinary tract due to trauma, kidney stones or infection. Hemoglobinuria= hemoglobins in the urine caused by various possibilities including a reaction to transfusions or hemolytic anemia.

22. What area of the os coxae do the nerves pass through to the perineum?


Correct Answer is: Lesser sciatic notch

The lesser sciatic notch area of the os coxae is where the nerves pass through to the perineum. The perineum is defined as the surface region in both males and females between the pubic symphysis and the coccyx (pelvic floor).

23. What muscle is not part of the SITS rotator cuff muscle group?


Correct Answer is: Serratus anterior

SITS or Rotator cuff muscles stabilize the glenohumeral joint: Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor and Subscapularis.

24. A stroke happens when the oxygen supply is cut off by:


Correct Answer is: An artery in the brain that is blocked or damaged

When an artery in the brain is blocked or damaged causing a rupture that cuts off oxygen supply, it is termed a stroke or cerebrovascular accident.

25. Increasing blood pressure is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique done on the abdomen?


Correct Answer is: Petrissage

Petrissage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, increases venous flow, increases waste removal, decreases adhesions, moves interstitial fluids, and stretches and broadens muscle fibers. Reflexive effects: slow strokes relax the nervous system, fast strokes stimulate the nervous system, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), increases blood pressure (on abdomen), affects proprioception, decreases hypertonicity, and increases glandular activity of skin.

26. What are you looking for when you are visually assessing individual movement patterns with ROM (range of motion)

testing?


Correct Answer is: Normal function and possible dysfunction in movement

Visual or Free ROM testing does not use resistance by the examiner. Assessing patterns of normal function and possible dysfunction are done by the client's movements working against gravity. Bilateral tests are done to ascertain bilateral asymmetry, weakness, pain, fatigue, binding, a heavy sensation, and the inability to assume the isolation position (10-30 sec.) or move into the opposite position. Contraindications to these tests are disk or joint dysfunctions, recent trauma, inflammation, and acute pain.

27. What type of change is the golgi tendon responsible for?


Correct Answer is: Muscle tension

The golgi tendon organ is a type of sensory receptor that is located between a muscle and its tendon. It is a propriceptor in charge of muscle tone.

28. What group of five muscles work together to flex the wrist?


Correct Answer is: Flexor carpi radialis/ ulnaris, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus

The five muscles that flex the radiocarpal joint (wrist): Flexor carpi radialis/ ulnaris, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus.

29. What proximal muscle of the humerus can supinate the forearm?


Correct Answer is: Biceps brachii

The forearm is the proximal and distal radioulnar joints, they only produce supination and pronation. Supination: Biceps brachii, supinator and brachioradialis (assists). Pronation: pronator teres, pronator quadratus and brachioradialis (assists).

30. Which term would best describe the gluteal muscles in reference to the spine in anatomical body directions?


Correct Answer is: Caudal

Caudal refers to the sacral region of the spinal column.

1. Insulin is released from the?


Correct Answer is: Pancreas

The pancreas secretes insulin into the blood stream. Insulin is a protein that reduces blood glucose and its conterpart glucagon which is also secreted by the pancreas and raises blood glucose.

2. Dupuytren's Contracture is defined as a(n):


Correct Answer is: Palmar fascia flexion deformity of the fingers

Dupuytren's contracture is a contracture of the palmar fascia causing a flexion deformity of the fingers. 3. What is the Greek name of the sesame seed shaped bones in the body?


Correct Answer is: Sesamoid

The Greek word sesamoid means shaped like a sesame seed. They are found throughout the body, embedded in tendons, providing protection for the tendon and an increase in mechanical effectiveness. Located in the knee (patella), hands, and feet.

4. A first degree burn is caused by an external thermal agent and is termed a:


Correct Answer is: Superficial Burn

Burns= (thermal agents) superficial burn, 1st degree on epidermis; partial-thickness burn, 2nd degree extends to dermis; full-thickness burn, 3rd degree epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue; and 4th degree is all tissue plus fascia, muscles, and bones.

5. The endocrine system?


Correct Answer is: Produces hormones and secretes them into the blood

The endocrine system produces hormones and passes them into the blood stream.

6. To treat trigger points and check for fascial restrictions with Petrissage what type would be used as an assessment technique?


Correct Answer is: Skin rolling

Skin rolling= the skin is lifted between the thumb and fingers and gently rolled over the area being treated or assessed.

7. Of the following choices, which is a part of the brain?



All are parts of the brain and major components of the diencephalon (interbrain) between the cerebral hemispheres and the midbrain.

8. A client comes to you complaining of pain in his right side whenever he rotates to the left. During the massage you

notice that he has well defined abdominal muscles. Your assessment with ROM showed a mild decrease in extension of his trunk, based on this information which muscle should you address?


Correct Answer is: External obliques

External obliques rotate the trunk to the opposite side, flex bilaterally and laterally flex to the same side. The serratus does not work in rotation.

9. Choose the muscle that laterally rotates the humerus.


Correct Answer is: Teres minor

The teres minor muscle laterally rotates the humerus. 10. Of the following body systems, which removes carbon dioxide from the blood?


Correct Answer is: Respiratory system

The respiratory system supplies oxygen to the blood and removes carbon dioxide from it. The lymphatic system returns leaked plasma to the blood vessels after cleaning it and making it free of bacteria and other foreign matter. It is also a surveillance site for immune system cells. The cardiovascular system includes the heart that pumps blood and blood vessels that provide a conduit to circulate blood to all the body tissue. The endocrine system maintains homeostasis (hormones), controls growth and development, reproduction, and metabolism.

11. All of the following situations are appropriate to call 911, except?


Correct Answer is: Residing stomachache

A residing stomachache does not constitute an emergency. Any time it is life threatening like breathing issues, head trauma, or possible heart complications, it is necessary to call the local emergency number.

12. What two muscles are complete synergists and part of the rotator cuff muscles?


Correct Answer is: Infraspinatus and teres minor

Complete synergists, all the same actions at all the same joints. Infraspinatus and teres minor (HEALS) Horizontal ABduction, extension, ADduction, lateral rotation, and stabilize the head of humerus in the glenoid cavity.

13. What bone would be described as flat, smooth, and triangular?


Correct Answer is: The scapula

The scapula slides across the posterior surface forming the scapulothoracic (false) joint. It is triangular in shape and helps to stabilize the movement of the glenohumeral joint.

14. Which part of the brain is in charge of memory, will, and communication?


Correct Answer is: Cerebrum

The cerebrum is the part of the brain that is in charge of memory, will, and communication, as well as reasoning and emotions.

15. How many curvatures are there in the spine?



There are 4 curvatures in the spine. Cervical, thorasic, lumbar, and sacral. 16. Which bursa is affected by bench warmer bursitis?


Correct Answer is: Ischial bursa

Also commonly referred to as "weavers bottom". Ischial bursitis is very localized with pain right over the ischial tuberosity. Some pain may also mimic sciatic down the posterior leg. Caused by sitting for long periods of time. It will be very painful for the client to stand on their toes. Bursa's reduce friction normally between tendons and bones, the only way to palpate a bursa if it is inflamed. BursITIS= inflammation of the bursa. Caused by overuse of the structures surrounding the bursa.

17. What is the insertion site for the SITS rotator cuff muscle group?


Correct Answer is: Greater and lesser tubercle of the humerus

SIT (supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor) all insert on the greater tubercle. Subscapularis inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus.

18. There are four assessment tools used; Visual, Functional, Palpation, and Manual testing for treatment plans. What does

a visual assessment determine?


Correct Answer is: Bilateral symmetry and muscle deviations

Effective assessments identify both deviations from the norm and effective functioning, using Visual, Functional, Palpation, and Manual tests as tools. Visual assessment: Looks for bilateral symmetry and muscle deviations. Functional assessment is performed to determine restricted, exaggerated, painful movement patterns. Palpation is used to identify changes in tissue texture and temperature, locate areas of tenderness, or energy changes. Manual tests are used to determine what structure is involved, soft tissue, joint dysfunction, or muscle function.

19. What can you do for an injured person who is refusing your help?


Correct Answer is: Do not give care and call 911

A person must consent if they are conscious. Call 911 and wait to see if they become unconscious, then begin care. 20. A wound is a disruption of the continuity of the skin, which type of wound has increased tissue loss with ragged edges?


Correct Answer is: Laceration

Types of wounds: Abrasion= superficial with ragged edges, laceration= increased tissue loss with ragged edges, incision= clean with approximated edges (scalpel or glass), puncture= clean edges with small entry (can penetrate deep), animal bite= combination of crush, laceration, and puncture wounds, and burn= (thermal agents) superficial

burn 1st degree on epidermis; partial-thickness burn 2nd degree extends to dermis; full-thickness burn 3rd degree epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, and 4th degree is all tissue plus fascia, muscles, and bones.


plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a General question?


Correct Answer is: What do you do for hobbies and physical activities?

Have the client show or describe their posture for each activity. General questions address the client's overall state of wellbeing. Family history of conditions, diet, exercise, occupation, hobbies, sleeping posture, level of stress, and current/past pathologies or injuries.

22. For better response to treating whiplash in the chronic stage, you should?


Correct Answer is: Avoid rapid increases in the range of motion treatments

A gradual approach of ROM treatment and treating compensatory structures helps in reducing pain, trigger points, and hypertonicity for better recovery.

23. Hypermobility is a joint dysfunction and defined as:


Correct Answer is: An increased degree of motion at the joint

Hypermobility is an increased degree of motion at the joint. Hypomobility is a loss of motion and normal joint play movement at the joint. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction or disorder (TMJD), is a disorder of the muscles of mastication and associated structures. Degenerative disc disease is a degeneration of the annular fibers of the intervertebral disc.

24. Deoxygenated blood returns to the?


Correct Answer is: Right atrium

The first place blood enters in the heart is the right atrium. Deoxygenated blood from the body, superior and inferior vena cava enters the right atrium, then is pumped through the tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, right/left lung, right/left pulmonary veins, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, and aorta. Remember the Arteries=Away, Veins=to heart. A before V for Atrium/Ventricle and valves between corresponding sections.

25. The spinal nerve plexus serving the wrist and many hand muscles is the:


Correct Answer is: Brachial plexus

Brachial plexus (C5-T1)- Ulnar nerve serves the wrist and many hand muscles. Damage to the ulnar nerve results in the inability to spread the fingers apart (claw hand).

26. Being conscious of your intent to the services that you provide and utilizing good judgment in regards to any

application provided by massage, is critical under what code of ethic?


Correct Answer is: Scope of practice and appropriate techniques

Scope of practice and appropriate techniques governs adequate training, qualifications and the intent of services. 27. When performing a lymphatic massage, you lightly brush:


Correct Answer is: Towards the nodes

Lymphatic massage is always directed TOWARD the lymph nodes. Gentle rippling stimulation is first applied away from the nodes then you lightly brush towards the lymphs.

28. Decreasing the heart rate is a reflexive effect of what type of treatment technique?


Correct Answer is: Light and Deep Effleurage

Light effleurage has no mechanical effects. It has 10 reflexive effects and six of them deal with blood flow. + parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory). Deep effleurage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells. Reflexive effects (same as light plus): dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.

29. Decreasing adhesions is a mechanical effect is what type of treatment technique?


Correct Answer is: Swedish gymnastics

Swedish gymnastic's mechanical effects: stretches muscles, increases circulation and nutrition to joints (active), increases waste removal (active), decreases adhesions, and increases ROM and flexibility. Reflexive effects: stimulates the nervous system, increases blood pressure, increases body temperature, and affects proprioception (body awareness).

30. Of the following physiological effects of tapotement, which is reflexive?


Correct Answer is: Increases muscle tone

Tapotement's mechanical effects: loosens mucus in thoracic cavity, temporary ischemia. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), stimulation of the nervous system, muscles, vessels, skin and also induces numbing effect if prolonged more then three minutes, increase muscle tone (contract/ relax response), brief vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation, increase in circulation, stimulates organs (lungs and abdominal organs/LB), increases gaseous exchanges, and increases cellular activity.

1. What two muscles work together to extend the elbow?


Correct Answer is: Triceps brachii (all heads) and anconeus

The only two extensor muscles for the elbow: Triceps brachii (all heads) and anconeus.

2. Where does the posterior/inferior portion of the right atrium receive blood from?


Correct Answer is: Inferior vena cava

The posterior/inferior portion of the right atrium receives blood from the inferior vena cava. 3. Which muscle has its origin at the inferior border of the ribs and inserts into the superior border of the rib above,

depressing the ribs?


Correct Answer is: Internal intercostals

The internal intercostal muscles have their origin at the inferior border of the ribs and insertions at the superior border of the rib above. They help with forced expiration depressing the ribs. The muscle fibers run IN towards the midline, thought of visually as an extension of the internal oblique fibers.

4. The Axial Skeleton includes all of the following except?


Correct Answer is: Clavicle

The clavicle is part of the Pectoral Girdle in the Appendicular Skeleton. 5. What joint has biaxial movement?


Correct Answer is: Saddle

Ball and socket are joints that articulate on a multiaxial or universal movement on all planes including rotation, like the shoulder. The elbow and interphalangeal joints are hinge on a uniaxial plane of flexion and extension no rotation. Condyloid and saddle are biaxial (metacarpophalangeal and carpometacarpal) and plane, translational or gliding (intercarpal/tarsal).

6. Nerves are found in which layer of skin tissue?


Correct Answer is: Dermis

The dermis layer is rich in blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands.

7. What is another term for the "head" of the rib?


Correct Answer is: Capitulum

The capitulum is another term used for the head of the rib.

8. What binds the ribs to the sternum?


Correct Answer is: Costal cartilage

Costal (hyaline) cartilage binds the ribs to the sternum. This allows flexability for the rib cage to expand and contract while protecting the lungs and heart.

9. What is the term for the area inferior to the spine of the scapula?


Correct Answer is: Infraspinous fossa

The infraspinous fossa is the surface below the spine of the scapula, origin of the infraspinatus. A superficial muscle with its medial portion deep to the trapezius and lateral deep to the posterior deltoid inserting onto the greater tubercle of the humerus. It's a glenohumeral joint stabilizer and a direct synergist with teres minor. HEALS= Horizontal ABduction, Extension, ADduction, Lateral rotation, and Stabilize.

10. The ______ consists of the metatarsals and the tarsals?


Correct Answer is: Longitudinal arch

The longitudinal arch has lateral and medial sides that form a triangle with the transverse arch. The calcaneus and the heads of the first and fifth metatarsals outline this triangle.

11. What muscle has its insertion at the clavicle?


Correct Answer is: Subclavius

The subclavius muscle has its insertion at the clavicle. The Sternocleidomastoid originates on the top of the manubrium and medial 1/3 of clavicle, it inserts on the mastoid process and lateral/superior nuchal line of the occiput. So in this case the beginning of SCM is the origin and the end is the insertion.

12. There are two divisions of the skeleton, which are axial and appendicular, the _________ is part of the axial?


Correct Answer is: Sternum

The axial; cranium, vertebral column, ribs, sternum and hyoid bone. The appendicular; shoulder or pectoral (scapula & clavicle) and hip or pelvic girdles with upper and lower limbs.

13. Which cells in the body fight infection and eliminate waste?


Correct Answer is: White blood cells

White blood cells eliminate waste and fight infection also known as leukocytes. 14. Hair follicles are found in which layer of the skin tissue?



The epidermis (epithelium) is the tough protective layer that is avascular (no blood supply or nerves). Strata layers, deep to superficial; stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, and corneum. The dermis is rich in blood vessels the dense connective tissue layers; upper papillary and deep reticular, also contains nerves.

15. Anabolism is an example of:


Correct Answer is: The formation of protein molecules from amino acids

Anabolism is the energy-requiring building phase of metabolism in which simpler substances are combined to form more complex substance.

16. Which ribs are termed false ribs?


Correct Answer is: 8-12

Ribs 8-12 are termed false ribs because they do not attach directly into the sternum. 8-10 connects to the cartilage of the rib above (vertebrochondral) and 11&12 are referred to as floating ribs or vertebral ribs with no anterior attachments.

17. Where can you find the Iliopectineal bursa?


Correct Answer is: Anterior aspect of the coxal joint

The Iliopectineal bursa is located on the anterior aspect of the coxal joint and has the ability to be impinged by the iliopsoas muscles.

18. This muscle originates at the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae and the articular processes of the lower

cervicals?


Correct Answer is: Semispinalis capitis

The semispinalis capitis muscle originates at the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae and the articular processes of the lower cervicals. The insertion is on the spinous process of the upper thoracic, cervicals 2-7 and superior nuchal line of the occiput.

19. The ______ bone is suspended in the neck?


Correct Answer is: Hyoid

The hyoid bone is suspended in the neck by cartilage and ligaments. 20. Which muscle raises the lip?


Correct Answer is: Levator labii superioris

The levator labii superioris muscle raises the lip. The depressor labii inferioris muscle lowers the lip. 21. What word would you use to describe the jaw moving posteriorlly?


Correct Answer is: Retraction

Retraction (retreat) would be the best way to describe the act of moving the jaw posteriorly. It is a transverse plane movement with its opposite action as protraction (protrude), moving anteriorly. Used only when talking about the head, jaw, scapula, and clavicle.

22. What is the insertion site for the SITS rotator cuff muscle group?


Correct Answer is: Greater and lesser tubercle of the humerus

SIT (supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor) all insert on the greater tubercle. Subscapularis inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus.

23. What movement would best describe the chin extending forward?


Correct Answer is: Protraction

Protraction (protrude) would best describe the act of extending the head and chin in an anterior position on a transverse plane. Its opposite action is retraction (retreat), moving posteriorly. Used only when talking about the head, jaw, scapula, and clavicle.

24. Glucose is also known as:


Correct Answer is: Blood sugar

Normal blood glucose levels are 80 to 120mg/100ml of blood for homeostasis. Glucose is the principal sugar in the blood it is the major breakdown product of carbohydrates. It helps form ATP. When glucose levels rise the liver removes it from the blood and stores it as glycogen, then when levels fall they are broken down into glucose again and released

into the blood. 25. What connects the radius and ulna?


Correct Answer is: Interosseous membrane

Interosseous membrane is a fibrous membrane that connects the radius and ulna. 26. Where does the fibula articulate with the talus?


Correct Answer is: Lateral malleolus

The fibula articulates with the talus at the lateral malleolus. 27. The glenohumeral joint is freely movable and is functionaly classified as:


Correct Answer is: Diarthrotic

Joint Function / Structure: Synarthrotic / Fibrous, Amphiarthrotic / Cartilaginous, Diarthrotic / Synovial. (SAD) Fibrous (S), cartilaginous (A) and Synovial (D).

28. Blood that is unoxygenated moves into the lungs through the?


Correct Answer is: Pulmonary artery

Blood travels into the lungs from the pulmonary artery. This is the only artery (away from heart) in the body that carries unoxygenated blood

29. The hip joint is what type of joint?


Correct Answer is: Ball and socket

The ball and socket joints articulate on a multiaxial or universal movement on all planes including rotation, like the shoulder. The elbow and interphalangeal joints are hinge on a uniaxial plane of flexion and extension, no rotation.

30. Bilateral flexion of the cervical spine is an action performed by which of these muscles?


Correct Answer is: Longus capitis

Flexion of the cervical spine: Sternocleidomastoid, Anterior scalene, Longus capitis and Longus colli all bilaterally. All others listed do Extension.

1. A _________ is issued from a regulating agency or the state in which you practice.


Correct Answer is: License

A license can be obtained from regulating agencies as well as several individual states with their own licensure requirements. However, not all states have regulations.

2. Hyperkyphosis is an increase in the normal kyphotic curve that protracts the scapula and head-forward tilt, it is termed

a:


Correct Answer is: Postural dysfunction

Postural dysfunctions include; pes planus, iliotibial band contracture, patellofemoral syndrome, hyperlordosis, hyperkyphosis, and scoliosis. Fascial and muscle imbalances may be functional and structural.

3. What is the large bone that forms the base of the cranium?


Correct Answer is: Occipital bone

The occipital bone is the large bone that forms the base of the cranium.

4. Which chronic pathology would be contraindicated for a hot pack?


Correct Answer is: Edema

Applying heat to an inflamed area is always contraindicated. 5. All the rotators of the vertebral column work together unilaterally, what are they?


Correct Answer is: Multifidi, rotators, external and internal obliques

The four muscles that work together unilaterally for the rotation in the vertebral column: Multifidi (to the opposite side), rotators (to the opposite side), external (to the opposite side) and internal (to the same side) obliques.

6. The alimentary canal is also called the:


Correct Answer is: Gastrointestinal (GI) tract

The GI or gastrointestinal tract is also called the alimentary canal. It is a hollow muscular tube that is open on both ends and winds through the ventral body cavity. The organs of the canal; mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

7. Of the following major common elements that make up the human body, which element, in its ionic form, influences the pH of the body fluids?


Correct Answer is: Hydrogen

Oxygen (O) is a major organic and inorganic molecule component. As gas, it is essential in oxidation of glucose and other food fuels to produce ATP (cellular energy). Carbon (C) is the primary element in ALL organic molecules, including; carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids. Hydrogen (H) in its ionic form influences the pH of body fluids, it is also the component of most organic molecules. Nitrogen (N) is a component of the organic genetic material; proteins and nucleic acids.

8. The spinous process of C2 is the origin for which of these muscles?


Correct Answer is: Rectus capitis posterior major

The rectus capitis posterior major originates at the spinous process of C2, aiding in the actions of head extension and lateral flexion. It inserts on the lateral aspect of the inferior nuchal line on the occiput.

9. Where on the humerus do the muscles of the forearm attach?


Correct Answer is: Lateral epicondyle

The lateral epicondyle is the point on the humerus where the extensor muscles attach. Medial epicondyle= flexors. 10. The purpose of the pleural membrane is to:


Correct Answer is: Produce pleural fluid

The pleural membrane produces pleural fluid that provides a slippery serous secretion that allows the lungs to glide easily over the thorax wall during breathing movements.

11. What abnormal substance is found in the urine when the condition is called Hemoglobinuria?



RBCs= hematuria, WBCs and bacteria or pus= pyuria. Proteins= proteinuria or albuminurial, Hemoglobin= hemoglobinuria.

12. Each kidney in the urinary system has an adrenal gland sitting on top and is part of what system?


Correct Answer is: Endocrine

The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system which releases hormones.

13. Nerves are found in which layer of skin tissue?



The dermis layer is rich in blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands. 14. The movement that brings the arm closer to the midline is:


Correct Answer is: ADduction

ADding to the midline. 15. Choose the ligament in the cervical spine that limits lateral flexion and rotation?


Correct Answer is: Alar ligament

Alar (winged in Latin) arises from the C1 apex of the dens on both sides of the apical ligament and extends to the lateral rim of the foramen magnum of the occiput. It limits lateral flexion and rotation, part of the Occipitoaxial ligament complex. * Occipitoaxial Ligament * Alar Ligaments (2) * Apical Ligament

16. If an assessment or diagnosis has already been made for your client it is best to:


Correct Answer is: Achieve your own understanding of the clients' condition

For a safe, effective massage therapy treatment it is always best to accumulate your own understanding by performing tests, asking questions and palpating effected tissue.

17. What is the term for the area that connects the greater and lesser trochanters of the femur?


Correct Answer is: Intertrochanteric crest

The intertrochanteric crest or line is the term for the area that connects the greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.

18. Two important hormones produced by the pancreas are?


Correct Answer is: Insulin and glucagon

Insulin and glucagon are produced by the pancreas to regulate blood sugar. Insulin helps feed the cells by breaking down the sugars and glucagon maintains the sugars at proper levels.

19. Which of the following massage profession methods is an approach of applied kinesiology?


Correct Answer is: Touch of health

Applied kinesiology (works mostly with reflexive mechanisms): Touch of health, three-in-one concepts, applied physiology, and educational kinesiology (not an all-inclusive list). All other methods are Energetic (biofield) approaches that initiate the reflexive response.

20. You witness a car accident and after checking the scene, you approach to check the victims. Which person do you need

to help first?


Correct Answer is: A passenger of a car that is not moving and appears to be unconscious

Assigning some one (when available) to call 911. Always check the unconscious victim for signs of breathing. Next, move onto the driver with a cut face, being aware of the other driver and his status instructing them to stay and wait for the paramedics to check them more fully.

21. A PA of your client shows a mild flexion of the head, what muscle would be shortened?


Correct Answer is: Bilateral anterior scalenes

Flexion brings the body into the fetal position. The anterior muscles of the cervical spine will be shortened. Bilateral anterior scalene, SCM, longus capitis and longus colli.

22. Which is NOT a type of tissue in the body?


Correct Answer is: Monokines

Monokines is an immune response chemical mediator secreted by macrophages. Primary tissue types are epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous.

23. This group of muscles work together to bilaterally extend and unilaterally rotate the vertebral column to the opposite

side:


Correct Answer is: Multifidi and rotatores

Bilaterally the multifidi and rotatores extended the vertebral column and unilaterally they rotate the vertebral column to the opposite side.

24. What muscle would you be assessing with a severe upward rotation of the scapulothoracic joint?


Correct Answer is: Upper and lower fibers of the trapezius

Upward rotation of the scapulothoracic joint is only performed by the upper and lower fibers of the trapezius.

25. The eye socket is also called the?


Correct Answer is: Orbital

Orbital is the word used, to refer to the area around the eye. 26. Moving the neck laterally and elevating the scapula are actions of which of these muscles?


Correct Answer is: Levator scapula

Moving the neck laterally and elevating the scapula are actions of the levator scapula. 27. How many bones are contained in the cervical spine?



There are 7 bones in the cervical spine C1-C7. 28. Which muscle stabilizes the glenohumeral joint?



All of the choices are muscles that stabilize the glenohumeral joint. Also commonly known as the shoulder joint. 29. The effleurage stroke is used to:


Correct Answer is: Assess tissue and distribute lubricant

Effleurage= to glide, stroke, or touch lightly. Starts and ends the massage, assesses tissue, and distributes lubricant. 30. The connective tissue within the medullary cavity is called?


Correct Answer is: Bone marrow

Bone marrow is the connective tissue in the medullary cavity of the bone.

1. Which chronic pathology would be contraindicated for a hot pack?


Correct Answer is: Edema

Applying heat to an inflamed area is always contraindicated. 2. What would be the most beneficial exercise you could recommend as homework for a client with Osteoporosis?


Correct Answer is: Weight bearing and resistance training

Bones are a living tissue, continuously breaking down old bone and replacing it with new. Osteoporosis has an imbalance between the breaking down and restoration of bone. To help strengthen the muscles and attachments, weight bearing exercise and resistance training is the most beneficial exercise for prevention and treatment.

3. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is defined as a(n):


Correct Answer is: Virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). 4. A client with tension headaches comes to you for help. Your PA shows that she has a slight head forward posture and

limited ROM in flexion of the neck. What three muscles are indicated for treatment?


Correct Answer is: ESGs, Splenii, and scalenes

Working TPs and tension out of the major flexors and anterior scalenes of the neck. Erector Spinae Group (ESGs), levator scapula, upper trapezius, and splenius help a conrolled, smooth, eccentric contraction of flexion.

5. There are five muscles that work together to depress the mandible, what are they?


Correct Answer is: Geniohyoid, mylohyoid, stylohyoid, digastric and platysma

The five muscles that depress the mandible: Geniohyoid, mylohyoid, stylohyoid, digastric (fixed hyoid) and platysma (assists).

6. Which of the following body systems is in charge of regulating body temperature and transporting nutrients /

hormones?


Correct Answer is: Circulatory

The Circulatory System transports hormones, waste products, nutrients, and gases. As well as regulating body temperature and the immune system.

7. If a person does not produce enough ______________ they will likely be ________________.


Correct Answer is: Insulin / hyperglycemic

Lack of insulin will produce hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia= excessively high levels of glucose in the blood.

8. What muscle would be stretch weakened if your client has a moderate decrease in horizontal ABduction of the glenohumeral joint?


Correct Answer is: Infraspinatus

Horizontal ABduction= Infraspinatus, deltoid (posterior) and teres minor.

9. When assessing the radiocarpal joint, what muscle would you lengthen to release moderate radial deviation at the wrist?


Correct Answer is: Extensor carpi radialis longus

Relax the prime movers= ABductors or radial deviation; Extensor carpi radialis longus/brevis and flexor carpi radialis. 10. Cyanosis is common during heart failure and severe breathing disorders causing skin, blood, nail beds, and mucous

membranes to appear blue. This is due to:


Correct Answer is: Poorly oxygenated hemoglobin

Cyanosis is a bluish coloration of the mucous membranes and skin caused by deficient oxygenation of the blood. 11. This technique should not be used repetitively on the limbs of a client with hypertension, heart disease, varicose veins,

or edema caused by a thrombus in a vein?


Correct Answer is: Effleurage

Repetitive use on limbs of clients with these pathologies could be life threatening due to increased blood flow (releasing a thrombus or exciting the heart).

12. As a person inhales, the diaphragm will?


Correct Answer is: Contract and create a negative pressure drawing air into the lungs

Inhalation (inspiration) expands the chest laterally, elevating the rib cage and depressing/flattening the diaphram, stretching the lungs and enlarging the thoracic volume, this creates negative pressure to draw air into the lungs. Exhalation (expiration) depresses the chest, reducing the lateral dimension of the rib cage and elevating the diaphragm into a dome, relaxing the stretch on the lungs to decrease the volume and raise pressure to draw air out of the lungs.

13. Of the following definitions, which would be the best choice for professional touch?

Your Answer:

Incorrect

Correct Answer is: Skilled touch delivered to achieve a specific outcome with the recipient reimbursing for services rendered

Professional touch is defined as; Skilled touch delivered to achieve a specific outcome with the recipient reimbursing for services rendered.

14. What is the name of the muscles between the ribs?


Correct Answer is: Intercostals

The intercostal spaces are the spaces between the ribs. Inter=between, costal=ribs. 15. Which type of pain is from muscles, tendons, joints, and periosteum?


Correct Answer is: Deep somatic pain

Deep somatic pain is from the muscles, tendons, joints, and periosteum. It is more diffuse than cutaneous pain, deep somatic pain can refer to other areas of the body. The referral patterns are based on the embryological development of the musculoskeletal system.

16. Of the following physiological effects which is a reflexive effect for deep effleurage?


Correct Answer is: Increases vasodilation

Deep effleurage mechanical effects: stretches veins and lymph vessels, + venous and lymph flow, + waste removal (lymph), moves nutrients through vessels, compresses and stretches fascia, warms superficial tissue and fascia, desquamation of dead skin cells. Reflexive effects: + parasympathetic NS response, - sympathetic NS response, + vasodilation, - heart rate, - blood pressure, slows breathing rate, generally relaxes muscles, + capillary space, - edema and - pain (gate theory), dilation lasts longer, deeper muscle relaxation, releases endorphins, + skin metabolism and + peripheral circulation.

17. Which of the blood cells is responsible for clotting blood?


Correct Answer is: Platelets

Platelets come together in a clump to form clots because of a series of chemical reactions within the body. 18. While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment

plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Pain question?


Correct Answer is: Exactly where is the pain?

Pain can be defined and understood differently from one client to the next. Asking specific pain questions can help you determine how you will proceed with treatments. Where, when, and descriptions of how long/ how often, what

aggravates the pain, and other symptoms along with the pain are all useful insights. 19. Choose from the following, the one that is not part of the urinary system functions?


Correct Answer is: Breaks food down for absorption into the blood

The urinary system rids the body of nitrogenous wastes and regulates water, electrolyte, and acid base balance of the blood. The digestive system breaks food down for absorption into the blood.

20. The front of the body is known as?


Correct Answer is: Anterior

Anterior is front, posterior is back, lateral is side, toward feet is inferior, toward head is superior. 21. The inNervation of rhomboid major:


Correct Answer is: Dorsal scapular C5

The inNervation of rhomboid major is at dorsal scapular C5, the same inNervation for the rhomboid minor. 22. Which would be the inNervation of the deltoid?


Correct Answer is: C5, 6 axillary nerves

The inNervation of the deltoid occurs at C5, 6 axillary nerves. 23. What is inflammation of the joints most commonly termed?


Correct Answer is: Arthritis

Arthritis is inflammation of the joints. 24. Which system regulates the digestive systems activity?


Correct Answer is: Nervous

The nervous system ANS, particularly the parasympathetic (rest and digest) division regulates the digestive system. 25. A slightly movable joint is known as:


Correct Answer is: Amphiarthrotic

Joint Function / Structure: Synarthrotic / Fibrous, Amphiarthrotic / Cartilaginous, Diarthrotic / Synovial. (SAD) Fibrous (S), cartilaginous (A) and Synovial (D).

26. Which muscle group is located between the SCM and anterior flap of the Trapezius and unilaterally rotates the head

and neck to the opposite side?


Correct Answer is: Scalenes

Scalenes are sandwiched in between SCM and Trapezius; Splenius Capitis is deep to the Trapezius and Rhomboids rotates the head and neck to the same side.

27. What portion of the heart does the venae cavae transport unoxygenated blood to?


Correct Answer is: Right atrium

The superior AND inferior vena cava transport blood back to the right atrium of the heart. Both the superior and inferior vena cava are known as the Venae cavae.

28. What two muscles attach to the xiphoid process?


Correct Answer is: Rectus abdominus/diaphragm

Rectus abdominus inserts and the diaphragm originates on the xiphoid process. 29. Which muscle adducts and medially rotates the humerus?



The teres major, latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major ADducts and medially rotates the humerus. 30. The _______________ is the insertion for three of the four rotator cuff muscles; supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres

minor?


Correct Answer is: Greater tubercle

Lesser tubercle is the insertion of the fourth rotator cuff muscle, the subscapularis. All the other rotator muscles insert on the greater tubercle. The Intertubercular groove is between the greater and lesser tubercle and houses the long head tendon of the biceps brachii.

1. What level of severity is a contusion if there is bleeding/ swelling with some pain and muscle weakness?


Correct Answer is: Moderate contusion

The classifications for the three levels of severity for contusions; Mild= minor crush, minimal bleeding, and mild discomfort; Moderate= moderate crush with bleeding/ swelling and difficult to use because of pain and muscle weakness; Severe= severe crush with rapid bleeding/ swelling and cannot use because of significant pain and muscle weakness.

2. Of the following physiological effects, which is a mechanical effect for deep effleurage?


Correct Answer is: Moves nutrients through vessels


3. Of the following physiological effects of linear or circular friction, which is mechanical?


Correct Answer is: Broadens and stretches muscle tissue

Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, and increase muscle extensibility. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

4. A 22-year-old student started getting frequent headaches about a month ago, her chief complaint is the neck and

shoulder pain. The headaches start about mid-day and continue until she goes to bed, about three times a week each lasting around 12 hours. What type of headache would this indicate?


Correct Answer is: Tension

Tension= a muscle contraction type headache. Sinusitis= pain and inflammation in the sinuses. Migraine= early morning onset, sensitivity to light, sound, and smell. Cluster= 1-6 headaches per day.

5. Which of the following choices transports oxygen to the tissues of the body?



Hemoglobin is the protein that bonds with oxygen and transports it in the blood. 6. What set of muscles help to assist the temporalis and masseter with the movement of the mandible?


Correct Answer is: Medial and lateral pterygoids

The medial & lateral pterygoid are located on the interior mandible acting like a mirror to the masseter. Both pterygoids protect and unilaterally they deviate laterally to the opposite side. Bilaterally the medial pterygoid elevates the mandible.

7. Which of the following physiological effects is a reflexive component of petrissage?

Your Answer: Correct

Petrissage mechanical effects: Stretches veins and lymph vessels, increases venous flow, increases waste removal, decreases adhesions, moves interstitial fluids and stretches and broadens muscle fibers. Reflexive effects: Slow strokes relax the nervous system, fast strokes stimulate the nervous system, increases peristalsis (on abdomen), increases blood pressure (on abdomen), affects proprioception, decrease hypertonicity, and increases glandular activity of skin.

8. What major endocrine hormone promotes retention of water by the kidneys?


Correct Answer is: ADH

ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is released by the posterior pituitary gland to promote retention of water from the kidneys. It is regulated by the hypothalamus in response to a water or salt imbalance.

9. Which system regulates the digestive systems activity?


Correct Answer is: Nervous

The nervous system ANS, particularly the parasympathetic (rest and digest) division regulates the digestive system. 10. What following general conditions are absolute contraindications for massage?


Correct Answer is: Diabetic coma or insulin shock

Diabetic coma and insulin shock are absolute contraindications (CI=inappropriate) to massage treatments. Between asthma attacks are ok but during an attack it is CI. Ectopic pregnancy is a local CI, the rest of the body is ok to treat.

11. Any repeated activity, occupational or recreational, can lead to an/a:


Correct Answer is: Overuse injury

An overuse injury occurs when repetitive microtrauma overloads a tissue's ability to repair itself. 12. What action is used to assess scapulohumeral rhythm at the scapula or scapulothoracic joint?


Correct Answer is: ABduction

Scapulothoracic rhythm is the ratio of motion between the scapulothoracic articulation and the glenohumeral joint, as

the arm ABducts through full range. It tests for all joints of the shoulder. 13. What is missing in this list of levels of organization in the human body? Organelle, Cell, _______, Organ, Organ system

and Organism.


Correct Answer is: Tissue

The level of organization in the human body is Organelle, Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, and Organism. 14. Which definition is for occupation?


Correct Answer is: A productive or creative activity that serves as one's regular source of livelihood

An occupation is a productive or creative activity that serves as one's regular source of livelihood. 15. ___________ is the lack of blood flow to a specific area?


Correct Answer is: Ischemia

Ischemia= Voiding blood from the tissue. 16. The best way to locate joint capsule adhesions is to use:


Correct Answer is: Active resisted and palpation

Knowledge of anatomy is essential to orient such techniques as cross-fiber friction, at the right angles to the fibers of the structure being treated. Active resisted and palpation are good at locating adhesions in the tendon. Positive active and stabilizing passive are made up.

17. What muscles would be assessed with neck extension?


Correct Answer is: Upper trapezius, levator scapula, splenius capitis/cervicis and cervical ESG's

Bilateral extension; Upper traps, levator scap, splenii and ESG's (spinalis, longissimus and iliocostalis). 18. What is the homeostatic relationship between the nervous and integumentary systems?



The nervous system regulates the blood vessels diameter, interprets cutaneous sensations, activates sweat glands and arrector pili muscles for thermoregulation. The integumentary system protects the nervous system organs and cutaneous sensory receptors of nerve innervations of the skin.

19. When a person has an allergic reaction the body will release ______________?


Correct Answer is: Histamines

Histamines are released by the body's immune system to combat what it feels is a threat. 20. Which of the following physiological effects is a mechanical component of cross-fiber friction?


Correct Answer is: Breaks up and reforms scar tissue

Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, increase muscle extensibility, and breaks up & reforms scar tissue (only mech effect not shared with linear or circular friction). Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

21. What schedule form do you file if you have a business partner?


Correct Answer is: K

To comply with proper filing procedures a schedule K is required when in a partnership. 22. With regard to directional terms, the feet would be considered?


Correct Answer is: Distal

The feet would most likely be distal or inferior. 23. Which gland is in charge of the growth and development of the body?


Correct Answer is: The pituitary gland

The pituitary gland is known as the master gland because it manufactures and regulates the hormones that regulate all of the other glands.

24. Of the following choices, which is the fluid that resides in the spaces between the body's cells?


Correct Answer is: Interstitial fluid

Interstitial fluid is in between the body's cells. Intracellular is in the cells and intravascular is in the veins and arteries. 25. The application of principles, methods, and procedures of understanding, influencing, and predicting behavior for the

purpose of diagnosis for treatment is within which occupation's scope of practice?


Correct Answer is: Psychology

Psychology can be rendered to an individual, group, or an organization and involves the application of principles, methods, and procedures of understanding, influencing, and predicting behavior for the purpose of diagnosis for treatment.

26. Of the following physiological effects of tapotement, which is reflexive?


Correct Answer is: Brief vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation

Tapotement's mechanical effects: loosens mucus in thoracic cavity, temporary ischemia. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), stimulation of the nervous system, muscles, vessels, skin and also induces numbing effect if prolonged more then three minutes, increase muscle tone (contract/ relax response), brief vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation, increase in circulation, stimulates organs (lungs and abdominal organs/LB), increases gaseous exchanges, and increases cellular activity.


plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Specific question?


Correct Answer is: Can you describe to me the injury, was it trauma-induced or gradual?

Specific questions focus on the chief or primary complaint. When, how, what was done for treatment, was there a physician's diagnosis, medications, and was it trauma-induced or gradual onset?

28. The best type of oil to use to keep from staining your linens is:


Correct Answer is: Water-dispersible oil

Mineral oil clogs pores and is a byproduct in the production of gasoline. Olive oil is a good base but stays in sheets. Water-dispersible oil washes out easier for better maintenance of sheets and is great for the skin as well.

29. Improving range of motion of affected joints and treating trigger points:


Correct Answer is: Further breaks the pain cycle

Massage techniques that improve range of motion and reduce trigger points address the source of pain and stop the nociceptive (painful) nerve firing also increasing circulation levels.

30. Which muscle laterally rotates the humerus?


Correct Answer is: Infraspinatus

The infraspinatus muscle externally rotates the humerus.

1. The axial skeleton is comprised of?


Correct Answer is: The cranium, vertebral column, ribs, sternum, and hyoid bone

The axial is the cranium, vertebral column, ribs, sternum and hyoid bone. The appendicular is all the bones in the extremities arms, legs, scapula, clavicle, and pelvic girdle.

2. Which of the following choices are glands belonging to the endocrine system?


Correct Answer is: Gonads, adrenal, and thyroid

The major endocrine glands are: Pineal, hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, adrenal, pancreas, and gonads. Calcitonin and androgen are hormones.

3. This organ is grossly affected by changes during pregnancy?


Correct Answer is: Uterus

Stretched and under stress. 4. What muscles would be treated in compartment syndrome or periostitis for the anterior compartment?


Correct Answer is: Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus

Compartment syndrome or periostitis produces pain in the lower leg due to trauma, poor technique, overtraining, improper footwear, and running on uneven or hard surfaces. The anterior compartment consists of the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus.

5. Which muscle is also commonly called the "boxers muscle"?


Correct Answer is: Serratus anterior

The serratus anterior muscle is also commonly called the "boxers muscle" because ABducts and depresses the scapula. Making the punching motion possible at the shoulder girdle. It also holds the scapula against the rib cage and if the scapula is fixed it can act in forced inhalation.

6. Which bone in the body is known as the "Razor's Edge"?


Correct Answer is: Ulna

The ulna shaft runs along the posterior medial aspect of the forearm. Many muscles are located next to the shaft of the ulna but the edge of the ulna is superficial and palpable, the "Razor's Edge".

7. What is another term for tricuspid valve?


Correct Answer is: Right atrioventricular valve

The right atrioventricular valve is another term for tricuspid valve. 8. Of the following, which is not a function of the endocrine system?


Correct Answer is: Emotional responses

The endocrine system maintains homeostasis (hormones), controls growth and development, reproduction, and metabolism. The emotional responses are a function of the nervous system.

9. The cerebrum is the?


Correct Answer is: Superior right and left hemispheres

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain consisting the right and left cerebral hemispheres. Including frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobes. It is the most superior portion of the three; cerebral hemisphere, diencephalon and cerebellum.

10. Decreasing the chance of injury and muscle soreness is an effect for what type of massage:


Correct Answer is: Both A and B

These are physical and mental effects of sports massage. 11. What is the area of the muscle called that is attached to the movable bone?


Correct Answer is: Insertion

The insertion is the area of the muscle that is attached to a movable bone. The insertion moves toward the origin in contraction. The origin attaches to immovable or less movable bone.

12. Cyanosis is common during heart failure and severe breathing disorders causing skin, blood, nail beds, and mucous

membranes to appear blue. This is due to:


Correct Answer is: Poorly oxygenated hemoglobin

Cyanosis is a bluish coloration of the mucous membranes and skin caused by deficient oxygenation of the blood. 13. What muscle has its insertion at the mastoid process and the superior nuchal line?


Correct Answer is: Sternocleidomastoid

The Sternocleidomastoid muscle has its origin at the medial 1/3 clavicle and the top of the manubrium on the sternum. Its insertion is on the mastoid process and lateral superior nuchal line.

14. The fetus grows in the mothers?


Correct Answer is: Uterus

The fetus grows in the uterus. The cervix is the opening at the base of the uterus. 15. A common name used for a decubitus ulcer is:


Correct Answer is: Bedsores

Any restriction of the normal blood supply to the skin results in cell death, and if severe or prolonged enough, skin or decubitus ulcers occur.

16. Of the following physiological effects of linear or circular friction, which is mechanical?


Correct Answer is: Increases muscle extensibility

Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, and increase muscle extensibility. Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

17. If Hemoglobin is found in urine it is called hemoglobinuria, what is a possible cause?


Correct Answer is: Transfusion reaction or hemolytic anemia

Hemoglobinuria= hemoglobins in the urine caused by various possibilities including a reaction to transfusions or hemolytic anemia. Bilirubinuria= bile pigment in the urine can be caused by liver disease (hepatitis). Pyuria= pus or WBCs and bacteria caused by a urinary tract infection. Hematuria= RBCs in the urine can be caused by bleeding in the urinary tract due to trauma, kidney stones, or infection.

18. These Leukocytes WBCs kill parasitic worms and increase during allergy attacks?


Correct Answer is: Eosinophils

Eosinophils function to kill parasitic worms, increase during allergy attacks, can phagocytes antigen-antibody complexes, and inactivate some inflammatory chemicals. They account for 1-4% of WBCs. The anatomy: red coarse

cytoplasmic granules, figure-8 or bilobed nucleus stains blue-red. Erythrocytes are RBCs and Platelets are neither red nor white and are used for clotting.

19. Lateral epicondylitis and extensor tendinosis are also known as?


Correct Answer is: Tennis elbow

Tennis elbow is the lateral extensor, golfer's elbow; medial flexor tendinosis. Tenosynovitis (inner surface) and tenovaginitis (outer surface) are other names given to paratendinitis: inflammation of the paratendon or tendon sheath.

20. What is the term for the action of bringing a raised arm down to the side of the body?


Correct Answer is: ADduction

ADduction is the term for the action of bringing a raised arm down to the side of the body. 21. Of the following physiological effects which is a reflexive effect for deep effleurage?


Correct Answer is: Increases vasodilation


22. Which joint category is freely movable?


Correct Answer is: Diarthrosis

Diarthrosis is one of the categories of joints. A more common term for a diarthrosis joint would be a synovial or freely movable joint. SAD/ Synarthrosis= immovable. Amphiarthrosis= slightly movable. Diarthrosis= Freely movable.

23. Breathing normal is also known as:


Correct Answer is: Eupnea

Eu= Normal Pnea= Breathing. 24. What is the best hydro treatment for a client with fibromyalgia?


Correct Answer is: Fomentation

Fomentation= Hot moist hydro applied to ease pain. Heliotherapy= therapeutic exposure to sunlight. Ice has the possibility of intensifying the pain.

25. What joint has uniaxial movement?


Correct Answer is: Hinge

The elbow and interphalangeal joints are hinge on a uniaxial plane of flexion and extension no rotation. Condyloid and saddle are biaxial (metacarpophalangeal and carpometacarpal) and plane, translational or gliding (intercarpal/tarsal). Ball and socket are joints that articulate on a multiaxial or universal movement on all planes including rotation, like the shoulder.

26. What muscles would be assessed with neck extension?


Correct Answer is: Upper trapezius, levator scapula, splenius capitis/cervicis and cervical ESG's

Bilateral extension; Upper traps, levator scap, splenii and ESG's (spinalis, longissimus and iliocostalis). 27. The urinary system functions to:


Correct Answer is: Rid the body of nitrogenous wastes, and regulate water, electrolyte as well as acid-base balance of the blood

The urinary system rids the body of nitrogenous wastes and regulates water, electrolyte, and acid base balance of the blood. The reproductive system ensures continuity of the species by producing offspring. The endocrine system maintains homeostasis (hormones), controls growth and development, reproduction, and metabolism. The respiratory system supplies oxygen to the blood and removes carbon dioxide from it.

28. Each kidney in the urinary system has an adrenal gland sitting on top and is part of what system?


Correct Answer is: Endocrine

The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system which releases hormones. 29. How many chambers does the heart have?



There are 4 chambers in the heart. Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle. 30. What is the homeostatic relationship between the integumentary and urinary systems?



The integumentary system protects urinary organs along with excretion of salts and nitrogenous wastes through sweat. The urinary system activates vitamin D made by the keratinocytes and disposes of nitrogenous wastes of integumentary or skin metabolism.

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