· Reserve Bank of India’s inflation targeting agenda and monetary policy calculus. While oil prices remain in free fall, offering succour, food prices continue to climb pushing

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SBI PO 2015 - Prelims (Tier I) Mock Test


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Lakshmi Vilas Bank 2016 Mock Test Paper

VERBAL ABILITY

Directions (1-10) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The latest Index of Industrial Production data, showing a contraction in factory output in November, should set alarm bells ringing in North Block, especially when read along with the acceleration in retail inflation. While the reasons for the slump in industrial production, including the festival holidays, were broadly known, the magnitude of overall decline as well as the drops in specific industries is cause for concern. Both basic goods and capital goods – proxies for manufacturing and investment demand – contracted 0.7 per cent and 24.4 per cent, respectively. The government’s IIP figures also come close after the Nikkei India Manufacturing Purchasing Managers’ Index, where the survey revealed a drop in output in December when companies scaled back production on a decline in new orders. The gathering consensus among economists is that, save a few bright spots like automobiles and consumer durables, demand is precariously placed. Two key drivers, the overseas export markets and the rural economy, are both facing independent challenges. Global trade growth has been becalmed by China’s slowdown and is now being roiled by the yuan’s depreciation, while back-to-back deficient monsoons have sapped rural consumption capacity. The economy’s momentum, thus, is threatened by the prospect of a sustained slowdown that may need to be countered urgently by corrective fiscal interventions. With the Consumer Price Index (CPI)-based reading rising for a fifth straight month in December to 5.6 per cent, the accelerating retail inflation could end up posing a significant risk, of combining with the faltering growth to produce stagflation.

Some economists, including the Chief Economic Adviser Dr. Arvind Subramanian, have mooted the idea of the government temporarily straying from its fiscal consolidation path in order to enable it to step

up spending on infrastructure to pump prime the economy, especially given the low levels of private investment. Any additional public expenditure, when coupled with the increased payouts for salaries and pensions as part of the implementation of the Seventh Pay Commission’s recommendations and the One Rank, One Pension scheme, will in turn fuel price pressures at the retail level and could complicate the Reserve Bank of India’s inflation targeting agenda and monetary policy calculus. While oil prices remain in free fall, offering succour, food prices continue to climb pushing food inflation to 6.4 per cent in December. And the outlook on that front is hardly reassuring, with reports that unseasonal weather conditions including an El Nino-induced milder winter could lead to the rabi crop yield ending up well below expectations in several regions. With the RBI’s bi-monthly monetary policy and the annual Central budget set to bookend February, all eyes will be on the next set of monthly IIP and inflation data to see if the price gains will plateau, as the central bank had predicted in December, or continue to trend up, and whether output growth recovers or not.

1. What, according to the author, is the Risk ahead? (i) The Stagflation Risk. (ii) Currency devaluation. (iii) Economic Slowdown. (a) Only (i) (b) (i) & (iii) only (c) (ii) & (iii) only (d) All (i), (ii) & (iii) (e) None of these 2. Which of the following is true in the context of given

passage? (a) Global trade growth has been becalmed by

China’s slowdown. (b) Fuel prices are not in free fall. (c) The latest Index of Industrial Production data,

showing a contraction in factory output in December.

This Mock Test consists of 150 questions which are spread across 5 sections – English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability, Banking Computer & G.K. The mock test carries 150 marks and of 90 Minutes duration. There is negative marking of 1/4 marks for each wrong answer.


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(d) Consumer Price Index (CPI)-based reading rising for a third straight month in December to 5 per cent.

(e) None of these 3. According to the passage, what could complicate the

Reserve Bank of India’s inflation targeting agenda and monetary policy calculus?

(a) Economic Slowdown in China’s Economy. (b) The annual Central budget and central

governments schemes. (c) Implementation of the Seventh Pay Commission’s

recommendation, One Rank One Pension scheme and turn fuel price pressures.

(d) All of Above (e) None of these 4. Which of the key drivers are facing independent

challenges? (a) Automobiles and consumer durables (b) Private investment and infrastructure. (c) The overseas export markets and the rural

economy. (d) Fuel price and food inflation. (e) None of these 5. Which of the following is/are false in the context of

given passage? (a) Festival holidays are not the reasons for the

slump in industrial production. (b) Global trade growth has been becalmed by

China’s slowdown. (c) Back-to-back deficient monsoons have sapped

rural consumption capacity. (d) Food prices climb pushing food inflation to 6.4

per cent in December. (e) None of these

Direction (Q. 6 -7): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

6. Sapped (a) Insensitive (b) Edgeless (c) Help (d) Deplete (e) Build 7. Coupled (a) Curious (b) Distance (c) Bottleneck (d) Bring together (e) Dividend

Direction (Q. 8-10) : Choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

8. Consolidation (a) Separation (b) Mergence (c) Merger (d) Include

(e) Reinforcement 9. Acceleration (a) Rigid (b) Deceleration (c) Retardation (d) Deferral (e) Hindrance 10. Plateau (a) Tableland (b) Table (c) Nuance (d) Plain (e) Stage

Direction (11-15) : In the following passage there are blanks. Choose the correct answer from the given options to fill the blanks which are numbered.

The thing to appreciate most about the government’s draft encryption policy, brought forth with the ostensible goal of (11) privacy and promoting Internet security, was the speed with which it was withdrawn. There was little in the draft that was true to the goal; the provisions, instead, had enough in them to harm the cause. Encryption, a process in which digital messages are (12) so they can’t be accessed by anyone other than those they are meant for, is a means to ensure freedom of (13) and to keep information secure in the digital world. The aliases one uses in the social media environment can be a fun way to keep casual users from (14) you. But that isn’t enough. The digital world also comprises criminals and terrorists, and repressive regimes. Some of them would not only want to know who you are and (15) into your information and messages but also have the means to do so. Encryption keeps intruders at bay.

11. Choose the correct answer from the given options to fill the blanks which are numbered.

(a) Ensuring (b) Keeping (c) Maintaining (d) Knowing (e) Handling 12. Choose the correct answer from the given options to

fill the blanks which are numbered. (a) Used (b) Sent (c) Scrambled (d) Made (e) Codes 13. Choose the correct answer from the given options to

fill the blanks which are numbered. (a) Things (b) Expression (c) Rights (d) Services (e) Money 14. Choose the correct answer from the given options to

fill the blanks which are numbered. (a) Knowing (b) Supporting (c) Hacking (d) Identifying (e) Sending


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15. Choose the correct answer from the given options to fill the blanks which are numbered.

(a) Leak (b) Hack (c) Send (d) Theft (e) Encrypt

Direction (16–20) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. a) Present-day parents have / b) underwent a radical shift in/c) attitude compared to /d) their earlier counterparts./ e) No error

17. a)He went on attacking her/b) when other passengers arrived / c) and told him/ d) to lay off. / e) No error

18. a) Get rid of all cigarettes / b) and ashtrays and /c) other paraphernalia/d) associated to smoking. /e) No error

19. a) John’s soldiers / b) were readying/ c) themselves for / d) the final assault. / e) No error

20. a) There is a perception that / b) the civilian authority does not / c) fully appreciate the gravity of / d) threats of national security. / e) No error

Directions (21–25) : In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

21. Most people who leave rural areas to take _______ in cities return to rural areas as soon as it is ______ possible for them to do so.

(a) jobs, financially (b) money, economic (c) bribe, safely (d) sheltering, suitably (e) peace, emotionally 22. It would be unrealistic to suggest that ____ digging

would stop if paintings were sold on the open ____. (a) legal, area (b) fine, shop (c) illegal, market (d) political, platform (e) suitable, space 23. After initial problems with ________ and marketing,

minority businesses have begun to ________ at a steady rate.

(a) manager, falling (b) colleague, lure (c) inmates, submerge (d) management, expand (e) money, contract 24. Managers can use ____ to bypass in-depth analysis and

move rapidly to engender a ____ solution. (a) power, fake (b) intuition, plausible (c) memory, illegal (d) money, patent

(e) sources, possible 25. Biologists did not ____ that there was a connection

between the issue of cell determination and the ____ of the separation experiment.

(a) known, incoming (b) know, growth (c) realize, outcome (d) react, source (e) make, resultant

Directions (26-30) : Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

A) Who knew we were reading a book that was soon to become iconic?

B) I first encountered Digvijay in an institute of Delhi in 2001.

C) Just as we were getting to a crucial moment in the life of Siddhant,

D) I was a student, living on junk food, as one did and suffereing from a stomach ailment, as one did.

E) along came a boy to tell us that unnecessary staying in institute was not permitted.

F) My pal Raghu and I had been barred from our hostel during the day,

G) So Raghu was soothing my prostrate self by reading from the magzine, which was all the rage among such as us.

26. Which of the following will be the SEVENTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) G 27. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence

after rearrangement? (a) C (b) B (c) A (d) G (e) F 28. Which of the following would be the FOURTH

sentence after rearrangement? (a) F (b) G (c) B (d) A (e) D 29. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence

after rearrangement? (a) E (b) D (c) A (d) C (e) B 30. Which of the following would be the SECOND

sentence after rearrangement? (a) A (b) C (c) D (d) F (e) E


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NUMERICAL ABILITY

Directions (31-35) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions?

31. 572 ÷ 26 × 20 + 253 – 209 = (22)?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) None of these

32. + + = ? ÷ 4 (a) 704 (b) 720 (c) 680 (d) 650

(e) None of these

33. 54% of 2100 + 40% of 640 - ? = 382

(a) 56 (b) 45

(c) 54 (d) 48

(e) None of these

34. 3 x 27 ÷ 0.75 x 8.1 = ? ÷ .9

(a) 78.732 (b) 68.332

(c) 78.562 (d) 75.256

(e) None of these

35. (1.6)8 x (2.56)4 ÷ (4.096)3 = (1.6) ?

(a) 7 (b) 6

(c) 4 (d) 8

(e) None of these

Direction (36-40) : Study the following pie-charts carefully and answer the questions given below:

Year-wise Breakup of the number of candidates appeared for an entrance exam and Year-wise Breakup of the number of candidates who cleared the entrance exam.

Total Number of candidates appeared in the entrance exam from 2007-2012 = 260000

Total Number students who cleared the

entrance test from 2007-2012 = 32000

36. What was the ratio of the number of students appeared for the entrance exam in 2009 and the number of students who cleared the exam in 2007 respectively?

(a) 18 : 4 (b) 325 : 29 (c) 325 : 24 (d) 111 : 24 (e) None of these 37. The total number of students appeared in entrance

exam from 2008 and 2011 was what percentage of number of students appeared for the entrance exam in 2009?

(a) 120% (b) 150% (c) 215% (d) 250% (e) None of these 38. What was the difference between the number of

students who cleared the entrance exam in 2008 and number of students who cleared the entrance exam in 2010?

(a) 1120 (b) 1020 (c) 960 (d) 912 (e) None of these 39. The total number of students who cleared the exam

from all years together is what percent of the total number of students appeared for the exam in all years together?

(a) 17.5% (b) 15% (c) 11.5% (d) 12.3% (e) None of these 40. What was the total number of students cleared the

entrance exam in 2007 and 2012 together? (a) 10240 (b) 15200 (c) 11520 (d) 11220 (e) None of these Directions (41-44) : What will come in place of the

question mark (?) in the following number series? 41. 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, (?) (a) 35 (b) 42 (c) 28 (d) 37


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(e) None of these 42. 1200, 480, 192, 76.8, 30.72, (?) (a) 15.91 (b) 18.321 (c) 12.288 (d) 12.234 (e) None of these 43. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, (?) (a) 215 (b) 198 (c) 220 (d) 217 (e) None of these 44. 505, 528, 574, 643, 735, (?) (a) 850 (b) 888 (c) 812 (d) 618 (e) None of these

Directions (45–48) : In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer If.

(a) X > Y (b) X ≥ Y (c) X < Y (d) X ≤ Y (e) X = Y or the relationship cannot be established 45. I. 12x2 + 14x + 4 = 0 II. 9y2 + 11y + 2 = 0 46. I. 6x2- 13x + 6 = 0 II. 15y2 + 13y + 2 = 0 47. I. 16x2 + 26x = - 10 II. 4y2 + 10y + 4 = 0

48. I. x =

II. y2 + 3y + 4 = 0

49. In terms of percentage profit, which among following

the best transaction. (a) C.P. 44, Profit 21 (b) C.P. 54, Profit 26 (c) C.P. 60, Profit 29 (d) C.P. 64, Profit 31 (e) All of these 50. In one hour, a boat goes 11km along the stream and 5

km against it. Find the speed of the boat in still water. Also find speed of the current

(a) 8 kmph and 3 kmph (b) 7 kmph and 3 kmph (c) 8 kmph and 4 kmph (d) 4 kmph and 3 kmph (e) none of these 51. A bag contains 3 red and 5 white ball if two ball

picked and random what is probability that both are white.

(a) 3/14 (b) 5/14 (c) 7/14 (d) 1/14 (e) none of these 52. A tradesman marks his goods 60% above the cost

price. If he allows a discount of 25%, then his gain % is

(a) 20% (b) 33.33% (c) 25% (d) 15% (e) None of these 53. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a

rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man walking along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park (in sq. m) is:

(a) 152600m2 (b) 153500m2 (c) 153600m2 (d) 153800m2 (e) none of these 54. 12 men can complete a piece of job in 56 days. In how

many days can 28 men complete the same piece of job?

(a) 26 (b) 30 (c) 22 (d) 24 (e) None of these 55. Sita invested an amount of Rs. 7450 @ 6% per annum

rate of simple interest. After how many years will he obtain the total amount Rs. 8791?

(a) 5 yr (b) 3 yr (c) 2 yr (d) 6 yr (e) None of these

ANALYTICAL ABILITY

Directions (56-60) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

Eight persons, viz A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them likes a different color, viz Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Black, White, Brown, Purple not necessarily in the same order. A, who likes purple, sits third to the left of E. The one who likes Brownsits on the immediate right of A. D, who likes blue, sits second to the right of B. B is not on immediate neighbour of E. C, who likes White, sits exactly in the middle of the persons whom hobbies are Black and Brown. G who

likes Yellow, sits second to the left of H, who likes Red.

56. Which of the following pair represent the immediate neighbours of the person whose favorite color is blue ?

(a) B E (b) C G (c) A H (d) B H (e) E G 57. How many people sit between A and the person

whosefavoritecolor is green when counted clockwise?

(a) None (b) One


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(c) Two (d) Three (e) Four 58. What is the position of B with respect to the position

of the person whose favoritecolor is black ? (a) Third to the left (b) Fourth to the right (c) Fifth to the left (d) Second to the right (e) Second to the left 59. Who exactly sits between G and H ? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E 60. Who sits on the immediate left of the F ? (a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A (e) None of these

Directions (Q. No. 61-64) : Study the information and answer questions

'Few organic farming techniques' is written as 'ka la ho ga'

'Few fertilizer products available ' is written as 'mo ta pa ka'

'Techniques are very good' is written as 'zi la ne ki' 'few fertilizer are products ' is written as 'zi mo ka

ta' 61. What is the code for 'Techniques' in the given code

language? (a) ga (b) mo (c) pa (d) ta (e) la 62. What is the code for 'Products' in the given code

language? (a) Only ta (b) Only mo (c) Either pa or mo (d) Only pa (e) Either mo or ta 63. What may be the possible code for 'Fertilizer very

useful' in the given code language? (a) xi ne mo (b) mo zi ne (c) ki ne mo (d) mo zi ki (e) xi ka ta 64. What may be the possible code for 'all available

techniques' in the given code language? (a) pa ga la (b) pa la lu (c) mo la pa (d) to la ga (e) pa la ne 65. Which of the following expression has M>N and K>O

definitely true? (a) J ≤ K > L < M ≤ O = P < N (b) O ≤ J ≤ L< K < P > N < M (c) J > O ≥ P = M ≤ K ≥ N > L (d) L = J ≥ N ≤ O = P ≤ K < M (e) P = M > J ≥ K ≥ N = L < O

66. Which of the following is definitely false if P ≤ R = V ≤ T ≥ S > U > Q is true?

(a) R = S (b) R < S (c) P > V (d) T > Q (e) V > U 67. Which of the following is definitely true if T ≤ P < R =

Q ≥ U ≥ V > S is true? (a) Q < T (b) P > U (c) P > V (d) R > S (e) T < U 68. What should be placed in place of question mark in

equation P?N?Q?R?M to make M ≥ N definitely false ? (a) <, ≤, ≤, = (b) >, ≥, =, > (c) ≤, =, =, (d) >, =, ≤, ≤ (e) None of these Directions (Q. No. 69-70) : Study the information

and answer questions:

Point A is 15m to the north of B and C is 20m to the east of point B, Which is to the north of point D. E is to the west of B and 15m to the north of F, which is 18m to the west of D.

69. What is the distance between point A and point D? (a) 25m (b) 30m (c) 40m (d) 20m (e) None of these 70. Point C is in which direction with respect to the point

F? (a) Northeast (b) Southeast (c) North (d) West (e) None of these

Directions (Q. No. 71-75) : Study the information and answer questions:

J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a straight line facing north not necessarily in the same order. M is an immediate neighbor of J but not of Q. K is the immediate neighbor of O and fourth to the left of M. Only one person sits to the right of J. L is the immediate neighbor neither of J nor of P. N is the immediate neighbor of Q and third to the right of O.

71. Which of the following statements is/are true? (a) M sits on the immediate left of P. (b) O is fourth to the right of M. (c) N sits between Q and K. (d) None is true (e) None of these 72. Which of the following statement is/are false? (a) There are two persons between N and O. (b) Q sits third to the right of L. (c) P sits at the extreme left end of the row. (d) Only 1 and 2 (e) Only 2 and 3


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73. In which of the following pairs does the second person sit on the immediate left of the first person?

(a) L and M (b) O and N (c) Q and K (d) J and N (e) None of these 74. In which of the following pairs are three persons

sitting between them? (a) L and P (b) K and M (c) O and Q (d) K and J (e) None of these 75. If L and K interchange their positions, which of the

following will be the position of N? (a) On the immediate left of L (b) On the immediate right of K (c) Third to the right of K (d) Second to the right of L (e) None of these

Directions (76-80) : Study the following information and answer the questions.

In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.

(a) if only conclusion I follows. (b) if only conclusion II follows. (c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. (d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. (e) if both conclusions I and II follow.

76. Statements : All bags are balls. Some balls are games. Conclusions : I. All games being bags is a possibility. II. Some bags are games. 77. Statements : No cover is a caps. No spoon is a cover. Conclusions : I. No cap is a spoon. II. No cover is a spoon. 78. Statements : Some bottles are glasses. No plate is a glass. Conclusions : I. At least some bottles are not plates. II. At least some glasses are not bottles. 79. Statements : No flower is a petal. All leaves are petals. Conclusions : I. At least some leaves are not flowers. II. All petals being leaves is a possibility. 80. Statements : All words are letters. No letter is a vowel. Conclusions : I. No word is a vowel. II. All letters being words is a possibility.

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

81. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main circuit boar(d) What is the common name for such boards?

(a) Daughter board (b) Motherboard (c) Father board (d) Breadboard (e) None of these 82. ___________ is a device from where the information is

sent. (a) Transmitter (b) Spreadsheet (c) Simulation (d) Modulation (e) None of these 83. The Second Generation Computer was based on

________. (a) Vacuum Tube (b) Silicon Chips (c) Transistor (d) Bio Chips (e) None of these 84. Which of the following commands is used to select

the whole document? (a) Ctrl+A (b) Alt+ F5

(c) Shift+ S (d) Can't be done (e) None of these 85. A _______is a major database object used to display

information in a printable page format. (a) form (b) query (c) report (d) table (e) None of these 86. Functions of computer mouse_____. (a) Right in click (b) Drag and drop (c) Double click (d) All (e) None of these 87. SNA stands for ________. (a) System Network Architecture (b) System Network Application (c) System Network Adapter (d) Simple Network Architecture (e) None of these 88. IDE stands for _______. (a) Integrate Disk Error


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(b) Input Data Error (c) Integrated Development Environment (d) Integrated Disk Environment (e) None of these 89. HTTP is ________ protocol. (a) application layer (b) transport layer (c) network layer (d) Link layer (e) None of these 90. Which one of the following key is used to refresh the

active window? (a) F7 (b) F8 (c) F9 (d) F5 (e) None of these 91. In a folder, which of the following command is used

to rename the file or folder? (a) F3 (b) F4 (c) F2 (d) F7 (e) None of these 92. Which of the following ISO level is more closely

related to the physical communications facilities? (a) Application (b) session (c) Networking (d) Data Link (e) None of these 93. What is Unicode? (a) Represents symbol or characters used in any

language (b) Only few languages are supported (c) supports only few characters (d) Characters from A to Z (e) None of these 94. The arranging of data in a logical sequence is

called_____. (a) Sorting (b) Classifying (c) Reproducing (d) Summarizing (e) None of these 95. LAN is an abbreviation for________. (a) Large Access Network (b) Local Access Network (c) Large Area Network (d) Local Area Network (e) None of these 96. The network in which we connect each network node

to a central device (hub) is called _____. (a) Bus Network Topology (b) Star Network Topology (c) Ring Network Topology (d) None of these (e) None of these 97. Excel stores its document in form of files which is

called ______. (a) Worksheets (b) Workbooks (c) Notebooks (d) Excel sheets (e) None of these

98. Who among the following has invented Mark I? (a) Howard Aiken (b) J. P. Eckert (c) John Mauchley (d) John v. Atanasoff (e) None of these 99. The inaugural Kerala Literature Festival 2016 has

been hosted by which city? (a) Kochi (b) Kannur (c) Kozhikode (d) Kottayam (e) None of these 100. Who among the following is the most industrially

advanced state in India? (a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu (e) None of these 101. Which of the following is the highest National Award? (a) Padmashree (b) Padmavibhushan (c) Bharat Ratna (d) Ashok Chakra (e) None of these 102. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of

National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)? (a) Cyriac Joseph (b) HL Dattu (c) K.G. Balakrishnan (d) Krishna Reddy (e) None of these 103. Which country’s Parliament has become the first in

world to run entirely on solar power? (a) Ukraine (b) Germany (c) Portugal (d) Pakistan (e) None of these 104. Which of the following states has lowest number of

elected members in the Rajya sabha? (a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Himachal Pradesh (e) None of these 105. ICFT- UNESCO Fellini Prize is related to which one of

the following fields? (a) Architecture (b) Films (c) Literature (d) Science (e) None of these 106. The world’s most active volcano_____. (a) Cotopaxi (b) Fujiyama (c) Kilauea (d) Vesuvius (e) None of these 107. The Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Marathwada University

is at which of the following places? (a) Aurangabad (b) Nanded (c) Parbhani (d) Nagpur (e) None of these 108. The Indian Institute of Science is located at (a) Kerala (b) Madras (c) Bangalore (d) New Delhi (e) None of these 109. 'Bagh', a village in Gwalior is famous for (a) Sculptures (b) Architecture


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(c) Cave Painting (d) All of the above (e) None of these 110. Which city is known as 'Electronic City of India'? (a) Mumbai (b) Hyderabad

(c) Guragon (d) Bangalore (e) None of these

BANKING

111. Which among the following bank has launched the “Smart Vault” first of its kind fully automated digital locker facility in India?

(a) SBI (b) ICICI (c) HDFC (d) AXIS Bank (e) Corporation Bank 112. “Buddy” is a mobile app which aims at providing

convenient and secure digital payment system to its customers, launched by which among the following banks?

(a) SBI (b) ICICI (c) HDFC (d) Axis Bank (e) BOB 113. First Multi- Currency Contactless Card service

launched by ______. (a) HDFC Bank (b) Axis Bank (c) ICICI Bank (d) SBI (e) Yes Bank 114. Union Government has launched a seven pronged

plan called Indradhanush Mission to revamp functioning of ____.

(a) Primary Schools in Rural areas (b) To boost Make in India initiative (c) Public Sector Banks (PSBs) (d) Handlooms sector in the country (e) Tourism sector in the country 115. What is the minimum denomination of Treasury bills

to issue in India? (a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 25,000 (c) Rs. 30,000 (d) Rs. 50,000 (e) None of these 116. In CRAR, A stands for: (a) Application (b) Accounts (c) Assets (d) Annual (e) Alternate 117. _______ is the rate at which banks borrow funds

overnight from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) against approved government securities.

(a) CRR (b) SLR (c) Call Money (d) MSF (e) Repo Rate 118. The availability of cash and other cash-like

marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as:

(a) Cash crunch (b) Liquidity (c) Credit (d) Marketability

(e) None of these 119. According to the recommendation of the 14th

Finance Commission, the Share of states in the centre's tax revenue is increased from 32% to _____.

(a) 40% (b) 42% (c) 45% (d) 50% (e) 38% 120. RBI grants “in-principle” approval to Reliance

Industries Limited to set up Payments Banks in the country. To which among the following RIL has partnered with for Payment Bank Licence?

(a) LIC (b) SBI (c) Bajaj Capital (d) Apollo Munich (e) None of these 121. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is a

nationwide payment system facilitating one-to-one funds transfer. What is the limit on the amount that could be transferred using NEFT?

(a) Rs. 2 lakh (b) Rs. 5 lakh (c) Rs. 10 lakh (d) Rs. 1 lakh (e) No limit 122. What is the maximum value to be stored in a prepaid

card? (a) No limit (b) Rs. 10,000 (c) Rs. 5,000 (d) Rs. 50,000 (e) Limits depends on the issued by banks and

authorised non-bank entities 123. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted a

committee to prepare a 5 year action plan to spread the reach of financial services across country to unbanked population. The committee will be headed by _______.

(a) Nachiket Mor (b) KC Chakraborty (c) Anand Siha (d) Urjit Patel (e) Deepak Mohanty 124. Money lent for one day is called: (a) Call money (b) Notice money (c) Term Money (d) All of the above (e) None of these 125. Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market

instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by ____.

(a) Reserve Bank of India (b) Individual Banks


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(c) Government of India (d) IRDA (e) Corporate & Financial Institutions 126. A Reserve Bank of India (RBI) committee has

recommended conversion of Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) with business size of 20,000 crore rupees or more into regular banks. This recommendation was given by the High Powered Committee on UCBs headed by _______.

(a) Deepak Mohanty (b) Urjit Patel (c) MB Shah (d) R Gandhi (e) None of these 127. The Public Provident Fund is savings-cum-tax-saving

instrument in India, introduced by the National Savings Institute of the Ministry of Finance in 1968. What is the minimum amount to be invested in PPF account?

(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 500 (c) Rs. 1000 (d) Rs. 200 (e) None of these 128. The transitional period for full implementation of

Basel III Capital Regulations in India is extended upto?

(a) March 1, 2018 (b) March 31, 2019 (c) April 1, 2018 (d) April 30, 2018 (e) None of these 129. RBI has increased the limit for foreign exchange

(FOREX) remittances under Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) from $125,000 to _____ per person per year.

(a) $250,000 (b) $150,000 (c) $130,000 (d) $20,000 (e) $145,000 130. According to the guidelines released by RBI, a

Payments banks can open small savings accounts and accept deposits of up to ___.

(a) 10 lakh (b) 5 lakh (c) 3 lakh (d) 2 lakh (e) None of these 131. Which bank has launched “Saral-Rural Housing Loan’

scheme for weaker sections of society? (a) Axis Bank (b) SBI (c) HDFC (d) Yes (e) ICICI 132. What is the minimum capital requirement for New

Banks in the Private Sector (a) Rs. 200 crore (b) Rs. 300 crore (c) Rs. 500 crore (d) Rs. 600 crore (e) None of these 133. Many times we read a term ‘ECB’ in financial

newspapers. What is the full form of ECB? (a) Essential Commercial Borrowing (b) Essential Credit and Borrowing

(c) External Credit and Business (d) External Commercial Borrowing (e) None of the above 134. Which among the following banks had launched

'Dhanchayat', an educational film to raise awareness on the dangers of borrowing money from unorganized sources?

(a) Axis (b) ICIC (c) HDFC (d) SBI (e) YES 135. What is the maximum monthly pension for the

subscribers under Atal Pension Yojana? (a) Rs 2000 (b) Rs 3000 (c) Rs 4000 (d) Rs 5000 (e) None of these 136. What is the minimum amount to be invested under

Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme? (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 1000 (c) Rs. 1500 (d) No ceiling (e) Rs. 100 137. The Reserve Bank of India advised banks to make the

Know Your Customer (KYC) procedures mandatory while opening and operating the accounts. RBI has issued the KYC guidelines under Section 35 (A) of the ____.

(a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (b) RBI Act, 1934 (c) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (d) Banking Regulation Act, 1935 (e) Both A & B 138. At which rate the RBI lends money to a public sector

bank on a long term basis? (a) PLR (b) CRR (c) Repo Rate (d) Reverse Repo Rate (e) Bank Rate 139. India’s gross domestic product (GDP) grew at what

percent in 2014-15. The growth is based on new methodology with 2011-12 as base year.

(a) 5.1 % (b) 7.3 % (c) 7.6 % (d) 6. % (e) 5.5 % 140. What is the full form of PPP? (a) Purchasing Power Parity (b) Public Private Parity (c) Primary Power Parity (d) Personal Private Power (e) None of these 141. Which of the following is the first North East state to

achieve 100 percent success in implementing the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?

(a) Nagaland (b) Tripura (c) Meghalaya (d) Assam (e) None of these


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142. What is the name given to Union Finance Ministry’s flagship project which aims at widening the tax base by catching tax evaders using technology?

(a) Project Insight (b) Indradhanush (c) Gospel Missions (d) Jan jagran (e) None of these 143 What is the Minimum amount of transfer required for

RTGS is _____. (a) Rs. 5 lakh (b) Rs. 2 lakh (c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) No limit (e) None of these 144. Who is the sole authority to issue and manage

currency in India? (a) Government of India (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) Finance Ministry (d) State Bank of India (e) None of these 145. Which among the following bank has opened its

branch in Shanghai, China? (a) SBI (b) ICICI (c) HDFC (d) AXIS Bank (e) Corporation Bank 146. In CRR, C stands for __. (a) Capital (b) Currency (c) Core (d) Cash (e) None of these 147. MICR code is used for ___.?

(a) For Electronic Clearance of Cheques (b) For Electronic Funds Transfer (c) For Code Banking Solution (d) For Cheque Truncation Services (e) None of these 148. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), the amount of

liquid assets such as cash, precious metals and other short-term securities are kept with:

(a) RBI (b) Individual banks (c) Finance Ministry (d) A bank designated by RBI (e) None of these 149. Which country launched world first Facial

recognition ATM? (a) China (b) Japan (c) US (d) Canada (e) Brazil 150. A cheque is considered a valid cheque if the date

entered on the cheque is within ______of the actual date on which it is presented.

(a) 6 months (b) 3 months (c) 9 months (d) 1 months (e) None of these

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Documents

· Reserve Bank of India’s inflation targeting agenda and monetary policy calculus. While oil prices remain in free fall, offering succour, food prices continue to climb pushing