Radiology Final Study Guide

8/13/2019 Radiology Final Study Guide

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Final review

Which functional classification of joints are slightly movable?A. DiarthrosisB. SynarthrosisC. Ampiarthrosis

D. Synovial joint

Answer: C



Which of the following is not considered a synovial joint?a.) Elbow jointb.) Metacarpalphalangeal jointc.) Symphyses

d.) Radioulnar joint

Answer: C



3. Which of the following does not include in a standardarthrogram tray?

A. Sterile drapeB. Gauze pads

C. Contrast mediaD. NeedlesE. All of the above are included

Answer : C



4. Concentration of nonionic, water-soluble contrast mediumshould not exceed:

A. 25%B. 30%

C. 50%D. 75%

Answer : B



5. The contrast agent used when performing magneticresonance arthrography is?

A. IsovueB. Gastrografin

C. GadoliniumD. Cystografin

Answer : C



6. The most common type of reaction to arthrographicprocedure is:

A. Anaphylactic responseB. Skin rash

C. HypotensionD. Vasovagal response

Answer : D



7. How should the foot be positioned during a hip arthrogramusing the anterior approach?

A. 5 degrees laterallyB. 15 degrees medially

C. 45 degrees mediallyD. No rotation of the foot

Answer : B



8. Which of the following is not a disadvantage ofpneumoarthrography:

A. Large amounts of negative contrast agents are usuallynecessary

B. Painful distention of the jointC. CostD. Low diagnostic accuracy

Answer : C



The knee joint is classified as which of the following type ofsynovial joint?

A. Gliding jointB. Pivot joint

C. Condylar jointD. Hinge jointE. Ball and socket joint

Answer : D



10. Which of the following is not an indication for arthrography?A. Arthritic deformitiesB. Rupture of the articular ligamentsC. Cartilaginous defects

D. Hypersensitivity to iodineE. All the above are indications for arthrography

Answer : D



1. When using the sacral hiatus puncture method for myelographythe contrast material is injected into the:

A. Left ventricleB. Extradural spaceC. Subarachnoid spaceD. Cisterna magna

Answer: B (p.402)



2. The injection site for lumbar myelography is usually between:

A. L1-L2B. L2-L3C. L4-L5D. T12-L1

Answer: B (p. 401)



3. The leptomeninges are composed of the :

A. Arachnoid and pia materB. Pia mater and dura materC. Dura mater and arachnoidD. Spinal cord and dura mater

Answer: A (p. 395)



4. The movement of certain contrast agents by gravity is becausethe agents are:

A. HyperbaricB. HypobaricC. Equal to the consistency of cerebrospinal fluidD. Less viscous than cerebrospinal fluid

Answer: A (p. 400)



5. When the lower cervical and upper thoracic regions are not welldemonstrated the __________ should be used.

A. Left lateral decubitus positionB. Anteroposterior viewC. Right internal oblique viewD. Swimmer’s view

Answer: D (p. 408)



6. The cisternal puncture method is used when:

A. The patient is extremely obeseB. The lower extremities cannot be flexedC. The lumbar puncture approach is impossibleD. Contrast agent is required to flow into the ventricles

Answer: C (p. 401)



7. Which of the following is not considered to be part of the brain?

A. PonsB. Medulla oblongataC. Filum terminaleD. Mesencephalon

Answer: C (p. 395)



8. The largest and uppermost portion of the brain is called the:

A. PonsB. HindbrainC. CerebrumD. Filum terminale

Answer: C (p. 395)



9. Which of the following pieces of equipment is not necessary formyelography?

A. FootrestB. FluoroscopeC. Shoulder harnessD. Catheter

Answer: D (p. 404)



10. A disadvantage to the use of oily contrast agents is:

• Their higher cost• That they are absorbed slowly and must be removed from the

patient• That they do not provide sufficient contrast• That patients tend to have more reactions to the substance

• Answer: B (p. 400)



All are indications of bone densitometry except:

a) Postmenopausal womanb) Diet low in calciumc) Family historyd) Presence of barium

D



2) For a scanner with a fan array beam, how far should thetachnologist be from the tube?

a) 3 ft.b) 6 ft.c) 9 ft.d) 12 ft.

C



3) Bone densitometry is used to:1 predict future fracture risk2 diagnose osteoporosis3 diagnose osteopenia

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3D



4) Which answer is a contraindication of bone densitometry?

A. PregnancyB. Secondhand SmokeC. Woman over 55D. All of these are contraindications

A



5) The scanning method that produces the highest patient doseis:

A. DEXA

B. Ultrasonography of the calcaneusC. QCTD. SPA

C



6) DEXA is the ‘gold standard’ of bone densitometry scanningmethods because:

A. it’s reliable

B. It’s widely available C. Its measurements are preciseD. All of the above

D



7) The patient dose for DEXA is:

A. HighB. LowC. Depends on the brand of the scanner being usedD. Nonexistent

B



8) The best way for a DEXA technologist to protect themselvesis:

A. To start the machine and leave the room

B. To be at a predetermined # of feet from the tubeC. To follow the cardinal principleD. B & C

D



9) Trabecular bone is found:

A. In the shaft of long bonesB. Outlining the entire outside of every boneC. In the feetD. In the ends of long bones

D



10) Standard scores used to measure bone density are knownas:

A. T & Z-scores

B. T & Y-scoresC. X & Y-scoresD. W & Z-scores

A



1. Which of the following positions are used most frequentlyduring hysterosalpingography?

• Right anterior oblique• Prone• Anteroposterior• Lateral



2. How long do you wait to take delayed films after using iodizedoils?

• 6 hours• 12 hours• 24 hours• 36 hours



3. Which of the following is an oily contrast?

• Hexabrix• Sinografin• Omni 240• Hypaque



4. What is the highlighted area of the uterus?

• Body• Fundus• Vagina• Cervix



5. True or False: A Foley catheter is used for HSGs.

• False, a 5 French catheter is used.



6. If there is specific pathology, what additional views are asked forby the radiologist?

• Oblique• Prone• Lateral• All of the above



7. What position is the patient in for the HSG?

• Supine• Prone• Lithotomy position• Down-dog position



8. What is the absolute contraindication of this exam?

• Pregnancy• Uterine bleeding• Fistulas• None of the above



9. Name the cassette size used for the normal HSG:

• 14x17” • 10x12” • 8x10” • None because this is a fluoro exam



10. The patient may be instructed to take what the day before theexam?

• A large amount of fluids• Non-gas forming laxative• Tylenol• All of the above



1. Who is considered to be part of the oncology team?

A. Radiation oncologist, medical physicist, dosimetrist,radiation therapist, oncology nurse

B. Radiation oncologist, dosimetrist, radiation therapist,oncology nurse

C. Medical physicist, dosimetrist, radiation therapist, oncologynurse

D. Radiation oncologist, medical physicist, dosimetrist,radiation therapist

• A



2. What percentage of cancer is treated with radiation?

A. 50%B. 60%C. 75%D. 90%

• E



3. When was the first treatment of cancer using radiationreported?

A. January 1902B. January 1896C. January 1906D. April 1909

• A



4. Which of the following are very radiosensitive?

1. Gonadal germ cells 3. Mesenchymal tumors2. Epithelial tumors 4. Lympoproliferative tumors

A. 1 onlyB. 1 and 3C. 1 and 4D. 4 only

• C



5. Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power?

• True or False

• False: Shorter wavelengths do



6. Which piece of equipment uses a robotic arm?

A. 60CoB. CyberKnifeC. Tomo TherapyD. Linacs

• B



7. What are hot spots?

A. Area that the sun is shiningB. Area of the body that is warm to the touchC. Area of excessive radiation doseD. Where the radiation enters the body

• C



8. What is the average daily dose given during treatments?

A. 180 to 200 cGyB. 90 to 100 cGyC. 280 to 300 cGyD. 200 to 250 cGy

• A



9. When is the patient position acquired?

A. Day of the first treatmentB. During simulationC. During a visit to the oncologistD. Patient position is not important

• B



10. All of the following are true except?

A. Multileaf collimators are a beam defining systemB. Intensity modulated radiation therapy reduces the radiation

dose to normal tissues and structuresC. 60Co was the first skin sparing machine

D. Intensity modulated radiation therapy cuts the treatmenttime in half

• D



1. Which of the following cannot be determined by ultrasound?

A. Size of a fetusB. Appropriate amount of amniotic fluid cushioning a fetusC. Vertebral fractureD. Kidney stones



2. What is an ultrasound of the heart called?

A. EchogramB. EchocardiogramC. CardiogramD. ECG



3. Who discovered piezoelectric effect?

A. Marie CurieB. Pierre & Jacques CurieC. Marie & Jacques CurieD. Roentgen



4. Which of the following will ultrasound freely travel through?

A. GallstonesB. Kidney stonesC. BloodD. Heart valve



5. If wanting to scan a mass on a patient’s wrist near the surface,would you rather use a 3 MHz or a 5 MHz transducer?

• 5 MHz because the sound waves will be more easily absorbedthan from a 3 MHz and will provide better quality of asuperficial structure.



6. From 100%, what is the reflection rate reduced to when usinggel?

A. 50%B. 10%C. 1%D. 0.1%



7. True or False: Ultrasound can be used to diagnose diseases ofthe lungs.

• False. Gases reflect ultrasounds



8. True or False: Ultrasound can be used to determine the bloodflow through arteries/veins.

• True.



9. What type of transducer was this image most likely taken from?

A. VectorB. LinearC. CurvedD. Normal



10. The common carotid artery (CCA) branches off into what twomain branches?

A. ICA and MCAB. ICA and ECAC. The CCA does not branchD. None of the above



1. All are types of catheters except:

A. Diagnostic angiographic catheterB. Micro catheterC. Contusion catheterD. Balloon catheter

• Answer:• C



2. Atherectomy is:

• Removal of plaques• Removal of veins• Addition of pathways• Addition of stents

• Answer• A



3. How many purposes for embolization are there?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

• Answer• C



4. The first Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA) wasperformed by Dotter and Judkins in :

A. 1953B. 1964C. 1986D. 2001

• Answer• B



5. The most accurate laser tip is:

A. FocusedB. Open-tippedC. Metal-tippedD. Lens-tipped

• Answer:• D



6. TIPS is an acronym for:

A. Theraputic Instigational Portal SystemB. Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic ShuntingC. Transducing Investigational Pathway SchematicD. Transthoracic Intermediary Portal System

• Answer• B



7. Complications in the removal of foreign bodies are:

A. Very RareB. Somewhat RareC. Somewhat CommonD. Very Common

• Answer:• A

8 Transmyocardial Revascularization is used to:



8. Transmyocardial Revascularization is used to:

A. Reduce BloodflowB. Maintain BloodflowC. Increase Bloodflow

• Answer:• C



9. Chemically dissolving a clot is known as:

A. AblasionB. Intravascular Thrombolysis (Fibrinolysis)C. Destructive CoalitionD. Sectrolysis

• Answer:• B



10. Which is not a complication of vena cava filters:

A. Tilted or malpositioned filterB. Filter dissolutionC. Migration of filterD. Caval perforation

• Answer:• B



A mammogram is also known as a (an)

A. Tomosynthesis examB. FFDMC. “Egan Technique” D. BSE

• B

W 40 d ld d d h



Women age 40 and older are recommended to havemammograms every 1-2 years

A. TrueB. False

• A



Mammograms use what type of radiation?

A. High levelB. Low levelC. Depends on the patient sizeD. A and B

• B



Which of these should be documented of the patient?

A. LumpsB. ScarsC. LesionsD. Moles

E. All of the above

• E

Wh t t f i d d f ti t ith i



What type of exam is needed for a patient with no signs orsymptoms?

A. Screening MammogramB. Diagnostic MammogramC. Biopsy

• A



What is the ratio of the specialized grids?

A. 16: 1B. 12: 1 or 10:1C. 3:1 or 5:1D. No grids are used

• C



Artifacts can be made by

A. PerfumeB. LotionC. DeodorantD. A & B

E. B & C

• E



The software that aids the radiologist in reading images is ___

A. BRCA1B. FFDMC. CADD. DOT

• C

Mammogramsare capable of detecting cancer before it is



Mammograms are capable of detecting cancer ____ before it ispalpable.

A. 5 yearsB. 10 yearsC. 2 yearsD. 3 months

• C



How many views of each breast are in a routine exam?

1. 42. 33. 24. 1

C



1. Who first discovered the principle of CT?

A. HounsfieldB. RadonC. RoentgenD. House

A



2. When was the first clinical CT taken?

A. 1968B. 1971C. 1869D. 1917

B



3. How wide is the aperture opening in a CT scanner?

A. 50-85 cmB. 58-90 cmC. 40-30 cmD. 25-50 cm

A



4. What is the CT table made of?

A. AluminumB. LeadC. Carbon graphite fiberD. Plastic

C



5. The stationary anode for CT uses what mA?

A. 50 mAB. 70 mAC. 30 mAD. 40 mA

C



6. The rotating anode permits what range of kVp?

A. 80-140 kVpB. 90-150 kVpC. 50-80 kVpD. 40-180 kVp

A



7. The detector is set at what SID?

A. 40” SID B. 33” SID C. 72” SID D. 44” SID

D



8. What is the dynamic range of a typical scanner?

A. 100-1B. 1,000-1C. 1,000,000 to 1D. 100,000 to 1

C



9. What is the most common exam performed in CT?

A. Extremity workB. Spine examC. PelvisD. Head

D

10. For ARRT, how many hours of clinical training is needed for CT



10. For ARRT, how many hours of clinical training is needed for CTcertification?

A. 18 hrsB. 60 hrsC. 16 hrsD. 32 hrs

C

Q i 1



Question 1

Radiation protection is important in MRI because:a. Reduces patient doseb. Reduces radiographer dosec. ALARA still applies

d. None of the above

Answer : D

Q ti 2



Question 2

Magnetic Resonance was first realized in the :a. 1920’s b. 1940’s c. 1960’s

d. 1970’s

Answer : A

Q ti 3



Question 3

Only MRI ___________ equipment is allowed in the exam room.a. Conditionalb. Compliantc. Coordinated

d. Any equipment is allowed

Answer : B

Q ti 4



Question 4

Certification requirements for MRI are changing in:a. 2014b. 2016c. Both

d. Neither

Answer : C

Q ti 5



Question 5

The spin-lattice relaxation process is also known as :a. T1b. Rest timec. T2

d. Sequestration time

Answer : A

Q ti 6



Question 6

The spin-spin relaxation process is also known as :a. T1b. Rest timec. T2

d. Dizzy time

Answer : C

Q estion 7



Question 7

Most diagnostic magnets have a strength of:a. 1Tb. 1.5Tc. 5T

d. 5.5T

Answer : B

Question 8



Question 8

The sum of the magnitudes and directions of the magnetic spinsis known as the :

a. Net magnetization vectorb. Additional variable

c. Geometric factord. I give up factor

Answer : A

Question 9



Question 9

All of the following are types of MRI units excepta. Openb. Mobilec. Fonar

d. Bloch

Answer : D

Question 10



Question 10

Which magnets are used in MRI:1. Permanent 2. Electromagnetic 3. Rare Earth

a. 1b. 2

c. 3d. 1 & 2e. 1, 2 & 3

Answer : D

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Radiology Final Study Guide